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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 24 JANUARY 2026

DIGITAL PERSONAL DATA PROTECTION RULES

 
 
 
1. Context
 
The Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) may shorten the timeline for Big Tech companies such as Meta, Google, and Amazon to comply with India’s Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 and other related rules to 12 months from the current 18 months, as the government looks at creating separate compliance regimes for large companies and startups
 
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2. What do the DPDP Act and Rules do?
 
  • The Government of India issued the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Rules, 2025 on 14 November 2025, completing the implementation of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
  • With both the Act and Rules now in place, India has a comprehensive, citizen-oriented framework that balances personal data rights with legitimate data processing requirements.
  • Before finalising the Rules, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology sought inputs from the public. Consultations were organised across several major cities—Delhi, Mumbai, Guwahati, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bengaluru and Chennai—drawing participation from startups, MSMEs, industry associations, civil society organisations, and government bodies.
  • Citizens also contributed actively. Altogether, 6,915 suggestions and comments were submitted, significantly influencing the final version of the Rules.
  • The notification of these Rules establishes a practical, innovation-supportive data protection regime for the country. It promotes clarity, encourages adherence to the law, and enhances public confidence in India’s expanding digital landscape.
 
 
3. Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
 
 
  • The Digital Personal Data Protection Act was passed by Parliament on 11 August 2023, establishing a comprehensive legal structure for safeguarding digital personal information in India.
  • It outlines the responsibilities of organisations when they gather or process such data. The Act is built on the SARAL philosophy—Simple, Accessible, Rational and Actionable—using straightforward language and clear examples so that individuals and businesses can easily understand the requirements.
  • The Act is anchored in seven foundational principles: consent and transparency, limitation of purpose, minimal collection of data, accuracy, restricted data retention, strong security measures and accountability. These principles shape each step of data handling and ensure that personal information is processed only for legitimate and defined purposes.
  • A key highlight of the law is the establishment of the Data Protection Board of India, an autonomous authority responsible for monitoring compliance, investigating violations and ensuring that necessary corrective actions are taken.
  • The Board is central to protecting user rights and fostering confidence in the data protection framework
 

Key Terms under the DPDP Act, 2023

  • Data Fiduciary: An organisation that determines the purpose and means of processing personal data, either independently or jointly with others.

  • Data Principal: The person to whom the personal data belongs. For children, this includes a parent or authorised guardian. For individuals with disabilities who cannot act on their own, this extends to their lawful guardian.

  • Data Processor: Any entity that processes personal information on behalf of a Data Fiduciary.

  • Consent Manager: A platform that provides a unified, transparent interface through which Data Principals can grant, monitor, modify or withdraw consent.

  • Appellate Tribunal: The Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT), which reviews appeals against decisions made by the Data Protection Board

 
 
 
4. Overview of the Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025
 

The Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025 operationalise the DPDP Act, 2023, creating a practical and transparent system for safeguarding personal data in India’s rapidly growing digital landscape. These Rules place strong emphasis on citizen rights and responsible data handling by organisations. Their objective is to prevent misuse of personal information, minimise digital risks, and foster an environment that supports safe innovation—thereby strengthening trust in India’s digital economy.

To achieve these goals, the Rules lay down several key provisions:

  • A phased compliance period of 18 months has been introduced so organisations have adequate time to upgrade systems and adopt sound data-protection practices.
  • All Data Fiduciaries must issue a separate, easy-to-read consent notice clearly stating the specific purpose for which personal data is collected and processed.
  • Consent Managers—entities that help people manage their permissions—must operate as companies incorporated in India.
  • The Rules also define a clear and prompt procedure for reporting data breaches. In the event of a breach, the Data Fiduciary must immediately notify every affected person in simple language, outlining what occurred, potential consequences and the corrective measures taken. The communication must also include relevant contact details for assistance.
  • Each Data Fiduciary is required to provide accessible contact information for queries related to personal data—whether that is a designated officer or a Data Protection Officer. Significant Data Fiduciaries have additional responsibilities: they must conduct external audits, undertake impact assessments and implement stricter controls when using emerging or sensitive technologies.
  • They may also be required to comply with government directions regarding restricted data categories, including localisation requirements when necessary.
  • The Rules strengthen the rights granted under the Act. Individuals can request access to their personal information, corrections or updates, and deletion in permitted situations.
  • They may also authorize another person to exercise these rights on their behalf. Data Fiduciaries must respond to such requests within 90 days.
  • Additionally, the Rules provide for a fully digital Data Protection Board of India with four members. Citizens will be able to submit complaints online and track them through a dedicated website and mobile app, making grievance resolution faster and more efficient.
  • Appeals against the Board’s orders will be handled by the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT)
 
5. How the DPDP Rules Empower Individuals?
 
 

The DPDP framework puts citizens at the heart of India’s data protection regime. Its core purpose is to ensure that individuals have clear authority over their personal information and can trust that it is handled responsibly. The rules are drafted in simple, user-friendly language so people can easily understand their rights, while also ensuring that organisations remain accountable for how they manage personal data.

Key Rights and Safeguards Provided to Citizens:

  • Right to Give or Withhold Consent
    Individuals have the freedom to agree or refuse the use of their personal data. Consent must be informed, specific, and easy to comprehend, and it can be withdrawn at any point.
  • Right to Know How Data is Used
    People are entitled to know what information has been collected about them, the purpose of its collection, and the ways it is being processed. Organisations must share this information in a clear and straightforward format.
  • Right to Access Personal Data
    Any individual may request a copy of the personal data that a Data Fiduciary holds about them.
  • Right to Correct Personal Data
    Citizens can ask for corrections if their personal information is wrong, inaccurate, or incomplete.
  • Right to Update Personal Data
    Individuals may request updates when their details change—such as a new phone number or address.
  • Right to Delete Personal Data
    People have the option to seek erasure of their personal data under specific circumstances. The Data Fiduciary must review and act on such requests within the stipulated timeframe.
  • Right to Appoint a Representative
    Every person may nominate someone else to exercise their data rights on their behalf—useful during illness or other situations where they cannot act themselves.
  • Mandatory Response Within 90 Days
    Data Fiduciaries must respond to requests for access, correction, updating, or deletion within a maximum of ninety days, promoting timely redressal and accountability.
  • Protection in Case of Data Breaches
    If a data breach occurs, affected individuals must be informed promptly. The notification must explain the incident and outline the steps they can take to reduce any potential harm.
  • Clear Contact Point for Help
    Organisations must provide easily accessible contact details—either of a designated official or a Data Protection Officer—for queries or complaints related to personal data.
  • Extra Safeguards for Children
    Processing children’s personal data requires verifiable consent from a parent or guardian, except when the data is used for essential services like medical care, education or immediate safety.
 
6. How the DPDP Framework Works in Harmony with the RTI Act?
 
  • As the DPDP Act and its Rules strengthen citizens’ privacy protections, they also clarify how these enhanced rights coexist with the Right to Information (RTI) Act, which ensures public access to information.
  • The amendments made through the DPDP Act modify Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act in a manner that upholds both privacy and transparency without undermining either.
  • This change is consistent with the Supreme Court’s recognition of privacy as a fundamental right in the Puttaswamy judgment.
  • It aligns the RTI law with judicial reasoning that has, for years, applied reasonable limits to protect personal information.
  • By formally incorporating this approach into the statute, the amendment removes ambiguity and avoids any clash between the RTI Act’s transparency mandate and the privacy protections embedded in the DPDP framework.
  • Importantly, the updated provision does not prohibit the release of personal data. Instead, it requires authorities to make a careful, case-specific assessment before sharing such information, keeping the individual’s privacy interests in mind.
  • Meanwhile, Section 8(2) of the RTI Act remains unchanged. It empowers public authorities to disclose information whenever the public interest is compelling enough to outweigh potential harm to protected interests.
  • This ensures that the core purpose of the RTI Act—promoting openness, accountability and informed citizen participation—continues to shape how information requests are handled
 

 

For Prelims: Personality rights, Delhi High Court, Madras High Court, Right to property, trademark, right to privacy, Article 21, Copyright Act, 1957
For Mains:
1. Explain how can the legal framework for protecting personality rights in India be strengthened to better address the challenges of the digital age. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (UPSC 2021) 
A. Legal right available to citizens only
B. Legal right available to any person
C. Fundamental Right available, to citizens only
D. Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
Answer: B
 
2. In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999. The difference/differences between a "Trade Mark" and a Geographical Indication is/are (UPSC 2010)
1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company's right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community's right.
2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed.
3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods/products and handicrafts only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only          B. 1 and 2 only        C. 2 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: B
 
3. Which of the following statements regarding Article 21 of the Constitution of India is/ is correct?  (CDS GK 2017)
1. Article 21 is violated when under-trial prisoners are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite period.
2. Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not even the state has the authority to violate that right.
3. Under Article 21, the right of a woman to make reproductive choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2 and 3     B. 1 and 2 only     C. 1 and 3 only        D. 2 only
 
Answer: B
 
4. Article 21 of Indian Constitution secures: (OPSC OAS 2018)
A. Right to life only
B. Right to personal liberty only
C. Right to liberty and privacy
D. Right to life, personal liberty and right to privacy
 
Answer: D

5. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India? (UPSC 2021)

(a) Article 15
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 29

Answer: C

6. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement? (2018)

(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution.

(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV.

(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III.

(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution.

Answer: C

 
Source: The Hindu
 
 

SMALL NUCLEAR MODULAR REACTORS

 

1. Context

Weeks after the government enacted the SHANTI Act to open India’s nuclear sector to private players, a new draft National Electricity Policy (NEP) signals a clear policy shift — a strong pivot to nuclear power as a potential substitute for coal-based thermal generation.

2. Small Modular Reactors (SMR)

Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) are a type of nuclear reactor design that offers a more compact and scalable alternative to traditional large-scale nuclear power plants. These reactors are characterized by their smaller size, enhanced safety features, and potential for more flexible deployment. Here are some key features and aspects of Small Modular Reactors:

  • Size and Scalability: SMRs are designed to be much smaller in size compared to conventional nuclear reactors. Their compact nature allows for easier manufacturing, transport, and installation. Additionally, SMRs can be built in a modular fashion, with multiple units deployed together, which offers flexibility in capacity planning and expansion.
  • Enhanced Safety: Many SMR designs incorporate advanced safety features that reduce the likelihood of accidents and mitigate potential consequences. Passive safety systems and inherent design characteristics can make SMRs more resilient in the face of unexpected events.
  • Reduced Environmental Footprint: The smaller size and modular construction of SMRs can lead to a reduced environmental impact in terms of land use, resource consumption, and waste generation. This can be particularly advantageous in regions with limited space or where environmental concerns are paramount.
  • Flexible Deployment: SMRs can be deployed in a wider range of locations compared to traditional large reactors. They can serve diverse purposes, including providing power to remote communities, supporting industrial processes, and complementing renewable energy sources.
  • Standardization and Mass Production: SMR designs often emphasize standardization and simplified manufacturing processes, which could potentially lead to cost savings through mass production and economies of scale.
Image Source: The Hindu

3. Decarbonisation Challenges

  • Transition Challenges: Moving from coal-fired power to clean energy has hurdles. Policymakers agree solar/wind alone won't suffice for affordable energy.
  • Role of Firm Power: Clean energy grids benefit from a stable power source. Adding one firm power tech cuts costs and boosts reliability.
  • Critical Minerals Demand: Clean energy tech needs minerals like lithium, cobalt, etc. Demand might rise 3.5x by 2030, per IEA.
  • Global Challenges: Meeting mineral demand means new mines, especially in China, Indonesia, Africa, and South America. The rapid expansion raises environmental and social concerns.
  • Concentrated Production: Few nations control most mineral production/processing. Geopolitical risks and supply control emerge.
Image Source: The Hindu

4. Nuclear Power's Role in Net-Zero Goals:

  • NPPs contribute 10% of global electricity, curbing 180 billion cubic meters of natural gas demand and 1.5 billion tonnes of CO2 emissions annually.
  • Ensuring Net-Zero Transition: Reduced nuclear power may hinder cost-effective progress towards net-zero emissions.

5. Advantages of Nuclear Power:

  • Reliable Power Generation: NPPs provide constant power, outperforming variable renewable sources like solar and wind.
  • Efficient Land Use: NPPs need less land and offer lower grid integration costs compared to renewables.
  • Co-Benefits: Nuclear power creates high-skill jobs in technology, manufacturing, and operations.

6. Advantages of Small Modular Reactors (SMRs):

  • Enhanced Safety: SMRs have lower core damage frequency and radioactive contamination risk compared to conventional NPPs. Passive safety features reduce the potential for uncontrolled radioactive releases.
  • Seismic Isolation: SMRs incorporate improved seismic isolation for heightened safety during accidents.
  • Spent Fuel Management: SMRs generate less spent nuclear fuel, reducing storage needs.
  • Brownfield Sites: SMRs can be safely placed on brownfield sites with less stringent zoning requirements.
  • Community Engagement: Power-plant organizations can engage communities, as seen in Kudankulam, Tamil Nadu.
  • Coal-to-Nuclear Transition: Deploying SMRs at existing thermal plant sites advances net-zero goals and energy security.

7. Supply and Manufacturing:

  • Low-Enriched Uranium: SMRs typically use low-enriched uranium, available from countries with uranium mines and enrichment facilities adhering to international standards.
  • Factory Manufacturing: SMRs are factory-built and assembled on-site, lowering risks of time and cost overruns.
  • Cost Efficiency: Serial manufacturing reduces costs, streamlines regulatory approvals, and fosters experiential learning.

8. Economic Viability:

  • Long-Term Operation: SMRs operate for over 40 years, offering cost-effective electricity. Costs are projected to decrease significantly after 2035.
  • U.S.-India Collaboration: SMRs included in the U.S.-India statement for potential benefits, with cost reduction anticipated through reputed manufacturers.

9. Efficient Regulatory Regime:

  • Regulaorty Efficiency Needed: Like civil aviation, stringent and efficient regulations are vital for SMR's role in decarbonization.
  • Global Cooperation: Countries embracing nuclear energy should collaborate with regulators and the IAEA to harmonize and expedite approvals for standard SMR designs.

10. Integration with National Grid:

  • Energy Capacity Targets: India's projection: Coal-based power 259,000 MW, VRE 486,000 MW by 2032.
  • Energy Storage Needs: Integrating VRE requires 47,000 MW/236 GWh from batteries and 27,000 MW from hydro facilities.
  • Nuclear Expansion: Nuclear power pivotal for India's net-zero by 2070; private sector investment essential.

11. Legal and Regulatory Changes:

  • Amending Atomic Energy Act: Allow private sector SMR setup while ensuring nuclear fuel and waste control by the government.
  • Establish an Independent Regulatory Board: Law required for a capable regulatory body overseeing nuclear power stages.
  • Security and Ownership: Government control over SMR security; private operation under government oversight.
  • Public Perception: Department of Atomic Energy should enhance public awareness through transparent environmental and health data dissemination.
For Prelims: Nuclear Energy, Small Modular Reactors (SMR), Decarbonisation, International Energy Agency (IEA), lithium, cobalt, National Grid, International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), and Co2 emissions.
For Mains: 1. Discuss the potential of Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) in India's journey towards decarbonizing its energy sector. Examine their advantages over conventional nuclear power plants and other renewable sources. (250 Words).
 

Previous year Question

1. In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under "IAEA Safeguards" while others are not? (UPSC 2020)
A. Some use uranium and others use thorium
B. Some use imported uranium and others use domestic supplies
C. Some are operated by foreign enterprises and others are operated by domestic enterprises
D. Some are State-owned and others are privately-owned
Answer: B
Source: The Hindu
 
 

NORTH ATLANTIC TREATY ORGANISATION (NATO)

 
 
1. Context
 
After days of threats of military intervention and tariffs, US President Donald Trump walked off the ledge by announcing that a framework had been reached for a deal with the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) over Greenland’s future.
 
2. Why was NATO established?
 

NATO, established on April 4, 1949, is a Western security alliance comprising 12 original members: Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom, and the United States.

The alliance was formed by signing the Washington Treaty, deriving its authority from Article 51 of the United Nations Charter, which upholds the inherent right of independent states to individual or collective defense.

Central to NATO is the principle of "collective security," where an attack on any member nation is viewed as an attack on all, necessitating collective response. This principle emerged from the Cold War context of the late 1940s, amid the rivalry between the USSR and the US over ideological and economic dominance. Article 5 of the Washington Treaty, addressing collective security, was introduced to counter the perceived threat of Soviet expansionism beyond Eastern Europe. In response, the USSR formed the Warsaw Pact in 1955, uniting socialist countries as allies.

However, invoking Article 5 does not mandate uniform military action by all member states. The extent of intervention is determined by each country "as it deems necessary." To date, the only instance of Article 5 being activated was in response to the September 11, 2001 attacks on the US, leading to NATO's deployment in Afghanistan for nearly two decades

 

3. Who are NATO’s members today?

In addition to the initial 12 members, subsequent additions to NATO's membership include Greece and Turkey in 1952, West Germany in 1955 (later recognized as Germany), Spain in 1982, the Czech Republic, Hungary, and Poland in 1999, followed by Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Romania, Slovakia, and Slovenia in 2004, Albania and Croatia in 2009, Montenegro in 2017, North Macedonia in 2020, Finland in 2023, and Sweden in 2024.

A surge of new members joined in 1999, a few years after the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991, prompting concerns about the alliance's potential obsolescence due to the absence of its original purpose

4.What challenges does NATO face today?

 

  • During the 2019 commemoration of NATO's 70th anniversary, notable tensions arose among member nations.
  • President Donald Trump of the United States emphasized the necessity for countries to increase their military expenditures.
  • This call stemmed from a 2014 agreement among NATO members to allocate a minimum of 2 percent of their Gross Domestic Product (GDP) to defense spending, a commitment made following Russia's annexation of Crimea.
  • However, only a handful of nations met this threshold, prompting criticism from President Trump who deemed it unfair, particularly to countries such as the US that were fulfilling their spending obligations. By 2023, among the 30 member countries at the time, only 11 exceeded the stipulated limit.
  • One significant catalyst for increased defense spending was the Russian invasion of Ukraine the preceding year. Even traditionally neutral countries in foreign policy, such as Finland and Sweden, found appeal in the concept of collective security in response to Russia's assertive actions.
  • Despite NATO's "open door" policy toward membership, the admission of new applicants requires unanimous approval from all member states. Turkey hesitated to support the applications of Sweden and Finland due to past criticisms from their politicians regarding Turkey's human rights record. Turkey also accused these nations of harboring "terrorists"
5. Way Forward
 
Although the Ukraine-Russia war seems to have given NATO a new focus area to converge at, funding the war has again become a source of disagreements among members, much to Ukraine’s displeasure. Just this year, Secretary-General Stoltenberg said a plan was being formulated so that 18 NATO would meet the 2 per cent limit by the end of 2024
 
Source: Indianexpress
 
 

PSLV-C62 MISSION

 
 
1. Context
 
On January 12, the Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) PSLV-C62 mission lifted off from Sriharikota carrying the EOS-N1 satellite along with 15 co-passenger satellites. Within minutes, ISRO said the mission had “encountered an anomaly during end of the PS3 stage”, and that a detailed analysis was initiated.
 
2. What is PSLV - C62 Mission?
 
 
  • The PSLV-C62 mission refers to a launch conducted by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) using its trusted Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
  • In simple terms, it was a space mission where India sent satellites into orbit using one of its most reliable rockets, often called the “workhorse of ISRO.”
  • PSLV-C62 was carried out to place a scientific satellite into space for studying Earth’s atmosphere and near-space environment.
  • The main payload of this mission was the XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite), which is India’s first dedicated space observatory to study polarisation of X-rays coming from extreme cosmic sources like black holes and neutron stars.
  • By observing how X-rays behave in these intense regions of the universe, scientists can better understand the structure, behavior, and physical processes of such exotic objects.
  • The rocket lifted off from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, following a precisely calculated path to place the satellite into a low Earth orbit.
  • Once in orbit, the satellite separated from the rocket and began its mission of collecting data and sending it back to scientists on Earth for analysis.
  • What makes the PSLV-C62 mission especially significant is that it marked India’s entry into advanced space-based X-ray astronomy, a field dominated by only a few space agencies worldwide.
  • It showcased ISRO’s growing capability not just in launching satellites, but also in developing sophisticated scientific instruments for deep space research.
 
3. About Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)
 
  • PSLV, or the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, is one of India’s most successful and reliable space rockets, developed and operated by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
  • It is often described as the “workhorse of ISRO” because of its long track record of consistently placing satellites into space with high precision.
  • The PSLV was designed primarily to launch satellites into polar and Sun-synchronous orbits, which are special types of Earth orbits where a satellite passes over the same part of the Earth at the same local time every day.
  • This makes it extremely useful for Earth observation, weather monitoring, mapping, and reconnaissance, as the lighting conditions remain consistent for imaging.
  • Structurally, the PSLV is a four-stage rocket, meaning it has four main sections that fire one after the other as it climbs into space.
  • These stages alternate between solid and liquid fuel engines, combining the simplicity and power of solid motors with the controllability and precision of liquid propulsion.
  • This design gives PSLV both strength and accuracy, which is crucial for placing satellites into their exact target orbits.
  • One of the reasons PSLV is internationally respected is its remarkable success rate. Since its first successful mission in the 1990s, it has launched hundreds of satellites for India and many other countries.
  • A landmark moment came in 2017, when PSLV set a world record by launching 104 satellites in a single mission, demonstrating its capability to deploy multiple payloads in a highly coordinated and precise manner.
  • Over the years, PSLV has been used for some of India’s most important space missions. It launched Chandrayaan-1, India’s first mission to the Moon, and the Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan), which made India the first country to reach Mars orbit on its first attempt.
  • These achievements showed that PSLV is not only reliable for Earth missions, but also capable of supporting ambitious interplanetary exploration
 
4. ISRO Missions List
 
 
  • The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has carried out a wide range of missions that can broadly be understood across Earth observation, communication, navigation, scientific exploration, and interplanetary research.
  • Together, these missions reflect how India’s space program has grown from focusing on national development to becoming a global player in space science and exploration.
  • In the field of Earth observation, ISRO has launched several satellite series that help in agriculture, disaster management, weather forecasting, and resource mapping.
  • The IRS (Indian Remote Sensing) satellites, such as Cartosat, Resourcesat, Oceansat, and RISAT, provide high-resolution images and data that support urban planning, flood monitoring, and climate studies. These satellites form the backbone of India’s ability to monitor its land, oceans, and atmosphere from space.
  • For communication and broadcasting, ISRO operates the INSAT and GSAT series. These satellites support television broadcasting, mobile communication, internet services, telemedicine, and weather services across India. They play a vital role in connecting remote and rural regions, especially during emergencies and natural disasters.
  • In the area of navigation, ISRO developed its own regional satellite navigation system called NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation).
  • This system provides accurate positioning and timing services for India and the surrounding region, similar to how GPS works globally, but designed specifically for Indian needs such as transportation, fisheries, and disaster response.
  • ISRO has also made a strong mark in space science and astronomy. Missions like AstroSat, India’s first space-based observatory, study distant stars, galaxies, and black holes across multiple wavelengths.
  • The XPoSat mission focuses on understanding high-energy cosmic sources by measuring X-ray polarization, adding to India’s growing role in advanced astrophysics research.
  • When it comes to planetary and interplanetary exploration, ISRO has achieved global recognition.
  • Chandrayaan-1 discovered evidence of water molecules on the Moon. Chandrayaan-2 and Chandrayaan-3 further explored the lunar surface, with Chandrayaan-3 making history by achieving a successful soft landing near the Moon’s south pole.
  • The Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan) placed India among a small group of nations to reach Mars orbit, and notably did so on its very first attempt.
  • More recently, Aditya-L1, India’s first solar mission, was launched to study the Sun from a special observation point in space, helping scientists understand solar storms and their impact on Earth.
  • ISRO has also been preparing for human spaceflight through the Gaganyaan mission, which aims to send Indian astronauts, or “Gagannauts,” into low Earth orbit aboard an indigenous spacecraft. This marks a major step toward India becoming one of the few countries capable of independent human space missions
 
5. PSLV- C61 Mission
 
  • ISRO’s PSLV-C61 mission was launched with the EOS-09 satellite as its primary payload. The launch progressed normally through the initial two stages, but a malfunction occurred during the third stage, which failed to operate as expected.
  • ISRO later reported that there was a decline in pressure inside the third-stage motor chamber while PS3 was active, leading the agency to announce that the mission did not achieve its intended objective.
  • From the information released so far, both the C61 and C62 missions experienced critical issues during the PS3 phase after an otherwise stable ascent, preventing their satellites from being placed into their planned orbits, with only limited success in the case of the KID payload.
  • In the C62 mission, the primary issue identified was an unexpected roll motion toward the end of the third-stage burn, whereas in C61, the failure was linked to a pressure loss in the PS3 motor casing
 
6. Way forward
 
After the incident, Thailand’s space agency GISTDA, which had the THEOS-2A satellite aboard PSLV-C62, stated that a fault occurring toward the end of the third-stage operation led to a problem with the rocket’s attitude control system. This caused the launch vehicle to stray from its intended flight path, making it impossible to release the satellites it was carrying. GISTDA added that both the rocket and the onboard payloads were expected to re-enter the atmosphere and disintegrate over the southern Indian Ocean. The nature of this malfunction was similar to what had been observed before the PSLV-C61 failure on May 18, 2025.
 
 
For Prelims: PSLV, GSLV, GSLV Mk-III, SSLV
For Mains: GS III- Science & Technology- Satellite Applications, Challenges and Solutions
 
 
Previous Year Questions
1. With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2018)
1. PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four- staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 only
Answer: A
Source: The Hindu
 
 

SUSTAINABLE HARNESSING AND ADVANCEMENT OF NUCLEAR ENERGY FOR TRANSFORMING INDIA (SHANTI) ACT

 
 
1. Context
 
Parliament has brought into force the Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Act which repeals legislation that governs nuclear activity — the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, and Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage (CLND) Act, 2010.
 
 
2. Why is SHANTI significant?
 
 
  • The SHANTI framework seeks to open India’s nuclear energy sector to private participation and may also facilitate the inflow of foreign investment.
  • At present, the construction and operation of nuclear power plants are restricted exclusively to public sector entities.
  • India aims to scale up its nuclear capacity from the existing 8.8 GW—roughly 1.5% of total installed power capacity—to 100 GW by 2047, thereby raising nuclear energy’s share in electricity generation from around 3%.
  • Public sector nuclear utilities estimate that they will contribute nearly 54 GW of this expansion, with the remaining capacity expected to come from private players
 
3. What are the major differences in SHANTI?
 
 
  • Because of nuclear energy’s association with atomic weapons, the movement and use of nuclear fuel such as uranium are subjected to rigorous oversight to prevent its diversion for the production of weapons-grade plutonium.
  • Past disasters—including the 1979 Three Mile Island accident, the 1986 Chernobyl catastrophe, and the Fukushima core meltdown triggered by the 2011 tsunami—have reinforced a global culture of caution, leading to stringent controls over every stage of nuclear plant functioning.
  • Internationally, there is now broad agreement that in the event of a nuclear accident, the operator of the facility bears the primary responsibility for compensating affected individuals in proportion to the harm caused.
  • Such compensation must be provided promptly, without waiting for investigations into causation or fault.
  • Subsequently, however, the operator may seek reimbursement if it can demonstrate that the accident resulted not from managerial failure but from defective equipment supplied by another party
  • Under the earlier Civil Nuclear Liability framework, operators were permitted to pursue recourse against equipment providers in three situations: first, where an explicit contractual provision existed; second, where the incident was attributable to defects in the supplier’s equipment; and third, where the damage was caused by a deliberate act intended to inflict nuclear harm.
  • The SHANTI legislation removes the second ground for recourse. Even after the 2008 Indo-US civil nuclear agreement, which reopened India’s access to uranium supplies and advanced nuclear technology following restrictions imposed after the 1974 and 1998 nuclear tests, reactor manufacturers from the United States and France remained reluctant to enter the Indian market due to the potential exposure to massive liability claims.
  • By eliminating this clause—and even removing explicit references to “suppliers”—the proposed framework effectively addresses these concerns
 
4. Will SHANTI spur India’s nuclear vision?
 
  • Homi Bhabha, regarded as the architect of India’s nuclear energy programme, envisaged nuclear power as a cornerstone of the country’s energy security while also overcoming India’s limited uranium reserves through the eventual use of thorium.
  • His three-stage plan begins with the construction of pressurised heavy water reactors that utilise natural uranium (U-238) to generate electricity and produce plutonium as a by-product.
  • The second stage involves fast breeder reactors, which are designed to generate additional plutonium and uranium-233 while producing power. In the third and final stage, uranium-233 is combined with India’s abundant thorium resources to generate electricity, creating a largely self-reliant thorium-based nuclear system.
  • India has yet to transition fully into the second stage, having only a prototype fast breeder reactor so far. This project, delayed by nearly two decades, was earlier scheduled to become operational in 2025 but has now been postponed further, with commissioning expected in September 2026.
  • To meet its near-term nuclear energy targets, India is increasingly exploring Small Modular Reactors (SMRs).
  • These are scaled-down versions of conventional reactors currently deployed in countries such as the United States and France, and they require enriched uranium-235—a resource that India does not possess in sufficient quantities. Like India’s first-stage reactors, SMRs generate various radioactive by-products, including plutonium and strontium.
  • SMRs are expected to be manufactured in modular components across multiple locations and assembled at a central site, much like the global production processes used for aircraft or smartphones.
  • However, due to their smaller size, they produce less electricity per unit compared to large reactors. They also do not offer a fundamentally superior solution to nuclear waste management, although some designs incorporate enhanced safety features that allow automatic shutdown during emergencies.
  • While SMRs may contribute to electricity generation, they do little to advance India’s long-term objective of transitioning to thorium-based nuclear power
 
5. Way Forward
 

Under the previous legal framework, victims of a nuclear incident could seek compensation from the plant operator up to a ceiling of ₹1,500 crore. Any damage beyond this limit was to be covered by the Union government through an insurance mechanism, capped at ₹4,000 crore. The SHANTI legislation introduces a tiered liability structure instead. Operators of facilities with a capacity exceeding 3,600 MW would face a maximum liability of ₹3,000 crore. For plants in the 1,500–3,600 MW range, the liability limit is set at ₹1,500 crore; for capacities between 750 MW and 1,500 MW, it is ₹750 crore; for 150–750 MW plants, the cap is ₹300 crore; and facilities below 150 MW carry a liability limit of ₹100 crore. At present, all nuclear power plants in India have capacities of 3,000 MW or less.

Science Minister Jitendra Singh, who introduced the Bill in Parliament, explained that this differentiated structure was designed to avoid deterring private sector investment. However, during parliamentary discussions, concerns were raised that the actual costs of compensation in major nuclear accidents have historically run into several billions of dollars, far exceeding the proposed liability ceilings

 

 

For Prelims: Nuclear Waste Management, Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor, uranium, plutonium
For mains: 
1. Discuss the challenges associated with nuclear waste management in the context of India's nuclear energy program. How can these challenges be addressed effectively? (250 Words)
2. Ethical considerations play a crucial role in nuclear waste management. Discuss the ethical concerns surrounding the potential for environmental injustice and the responsibility of nations in dealing with nuclear waste.(250 Words)

 

Previous Year Questions

1. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this on text, what advantage, does thorium hold over uranium? (UPSC 2012)

  1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
  2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
  3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 and 3 only            (c) 1 and 3 only              (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Which among the following has the world’s largest reserves of Uranium? (UPSC 2009)

(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) Russian Federation
(d) USA

Answers: 1-D, 2-A

Source: The Hindu

 

PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION (PSC)

 
 
1. Context
 
The 2025 national conference of chairpersons of the State Public Service Commissions (PSCs) is being hosted by the Telangana State Public Service Commission on December 19 and 20. Every year, whenever State PSCs conduct examinations for recruitment, they are mired in one controversy or the other. 
 
2. What is the history of PSCs?
 
  • The origin of Public Service Commissions in India goes back to the British era, when the need for a merit-based and impartial civil service was increasingly recognised. Before formal commissions were established, civil services appointments were largely controlled by the British administration without a clear, independent recruitment mechanism.
  • The first major step towards an independent recruitment body came in 1926, when the Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the creation of the first Public Service Commission at the national level..
  • This body, known simply as the Public Service Commission, was tasked with advising the government on service-related matters and conducting examinations for certain posts, although its powers were still quite limited.
  • A more robust framework emerged with the Government of India Act, 1935, which laid the foundation for a Federal Public Service Commission and also allowed for the establishment of Provincial Public Service Commissions. This was the beginning of what we now recognize as the Union and State Public Service Commissions.
  • After independence, the Constitution of India (1950) strengthened and formalized the system.
  • The old Federal PSC became the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), and each state was empowered to set up its own State Public Service Commission (SPSC). These commissions were granted constitutional status under Articles 315 to 323, ensuring independence and protection from political interference.
  • Over time, PSCs evolved into key institutions responsible for recruiting civil servants through competitive examinations, maintaining merit-based selection, and advising governments on disciplinary matters, promotions, and appointments
 
 
3. How are Public Service Commissions Structured?
 
 
  • The UPSC operates within an environment that is largely insulated from political influence. Its members are chosen for their competence and extensive experience in public administration, with care taken to ensure representation from all regions of the country.
  • Although the Constitution does not specify minimum age or qualifications, most UPSC members tend to be over 55 years old and are known for maintaining a non-partisan stance.
  • In contrast, State Public Service Commissions function in settings where political influence is more pronounced, and appointments often reflect elements of a patronage system. As a result, traditional expectations such as minimum age, qualifications, and administrative experience are frequently overlooked.
  • The Union government, with its large administrative structure, has significant staffing requirements and the financial capacity to manage pension commitments and new recruitments.
  • To streamline personnel matters, it set up the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions in 1985, which oversees policies related to human resource management.
  • This institutional framework ensures that vacancies are declared on time, allowing the UPSC to issue notifications, hold examinations, and announce results consistently and efficiently.
  • On the other hand, the staffing needs of State governments are smaller and often irregular. Many States face budgetary constraints that make it difficult to fulfil retirement and hiring obligations, resulting in raising the retirement age or postponing fresh recruitment.
  • Most States also lack a dedicated personnel ministry. Consequently, vacancies are not announced in a timely manner, which means that State PSCs do not conduct examinations with the same regularity as the UPSC
 
 
4. How do they Work?
 
  • The UPSC periodically sets up expert committees that include not just academics but also civil servants, social workers, and other specialists to review and update the examination syllabus.
  • This helps maintain a balance between academic knowledge and current developments. Because it can draw on talent from across the country, the UPSC is able to design and evaluate question papers with high quality and reliability.
  • It also uses a well-established system of inter-se moderation at various stages of the exam to reduce subjective differences in marking.
  • Moreover, the UPSC manages to uphold both transparency and confidentiality by promptly addressing any errors and making necessary systemic improvements, which reduces the need for candidates to approach the courts with complaints.
  • In comparison, most State PSCs do not regularly constitute committees to revise their syllabi. They also have limited access to subject experts, often relying only on local academic resources.
  • As a result, achieving uniform moderation during evaluation becomes difficult. In addition, State PSCs must handle complicated calculations involving both vertical and horizontal reservations, and in some cases, regional or zonal quotas, which increases the complexity of the recruitment process. These challenges frequently lead to legal disputes, causing significant delays in finalizing selections.
  • Such issues are among the major factors affecting the effectiveness and public trust in State PSCs.
  • Many frustrated candidates express that they no longer have confidence in their State Commissions and would prefer the UPSC to conduct these examinations. To rebuild credibility, timely structural and procedural reforms are essential
 
5. Constitutional Provisions
 
 
  • Article 315 establishes that India must have a UPSC for the Union and separate Public Service Commissions for each State. Two or more States may also form a Joint PSC if their legislatures agree. The UPSC can assist any State if the Governor requests and the President approves.
  • Article 316 states that the President appoints members of the UPSC and Joint PSCs, while Governors appoint members of State PSCs. About half of the members must have at least ten years of government service. Members serve for six years or until they reach the age limit—65 for UPSC and 62 for State PSCs—and cannot be reappointed after their term ends.
  • Article 317 provides that UPSC or State PSC members can be removed only by the President, based on a Supreme Court inquiry, except in cases like insolvency, outside paid employment, or physical/mental incapacity. The President or Governor may suspend a member while the inquiry is ongoing.
  • Article 318 empowers the President or a Governor to determine the number of members and staff of the Commission and their service conditions, which cannot be altered to their disadvantage after appointment.
  • Article 319 restricts former members from taking up further government jobs. The UPSC Chairperson cannot hold any future government office, while State PSC chairpersons or members may move to UPSC or another State PSC but not to other government posts.
  • Article 320 outlines the functions of the Commissions, mainly conducting recruitment exams and advising on recruitment, promotions, transfers, disciplinary matters, and claims related to costs or pensions. Governments may make rules specifying matters where consultation with the PSC is not required.
  • Article 321 allows Parliament or State Legislatures to assign additional duties to the PSCs.
  • Article 322 states that PSC expenses are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India or the respective State, ensuring financial independence.
  • Article 323 requires UPSC and State PSCs to submit annual reports on their work. These reports must be placed before Parliament or the State Legislature along with explanations wherever the PSC’s advice was not accepted
 
6. Roles and Functions of PSC
 
  • The Constitution requires governments to consult the Public Service Commission on appointments and other matters listed under Article 320. The Commission’s responsibilities include holding examinations for State civil service posts and advising the government on recruitment methods, principles for appointments, promotions, inter-service transfers, suitability of candidates, and disciplinary cases involving State civil servants.
  • Articles 229 and 234 further mandate consultation with the Commission for appointments to specific posts in the High Court establishment and the State Judicial Service. Several statutory bodies also follow similar requirements for certain categories of posts.
  • Article 321 additionally empowers the State Legislature to assign extra functions to the Commission in relation to State services or local bodies, although no such legislation has been enacted so far.
  • The State Government seeks the Commission’s advice for most civil service recruitments, but some posts are excluded through regulations framed under the proviso to Article 320(3). In West Bengal, for example, these exclusions are listed in the West Bengal Public Service Commission (Exemption from Consultation) Regulations, 2008
 
7. Way Forward
 
Reforms are also needed in the examination processes. The syllabus must be revised regularly, reflecting academic changes and aligning with UPSC standards. Any proposed revision should be made public, inviting feedback before implementation. State-specific topics—such as regional history, economy, or geography—can be evaluated through objective-type questions to reduce subjective bias. While the preliminary exam may remain fully objective, the mains should include both objective and descriptive papers. Translation of question papers should combine technology with human oversight to avoid errors. Frequent changes in question patterns can prevent overreliance on AI-generated answers
 
 
 
For Prelims: Union Public Service Commission, Lord Thomas Macaulay, Haileybury College, Satyendranath Tagore, Indian Constitutional Reforms, Government of India Act, 1919, Public Service Commission, Public Service Commission (Functions) Rules, 1926,  Government of India Act, of 1935, Article 378 of the Constitution, Consolidated Fund of India, 
For Mains:
1. What is Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)? Discuss its evolution and Explain the functions of UPSC. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the Article ______  (MP Patwari 2017)
A. 315                   B. 234                    C. 421                             D. 56
 
Answer: A
 
2. T.B. Macaulay has penned his 'Minute on Education' in the year  (AP SET 2016)
A.1735                B. 1753                  C. 1853                             D.1835
 
Answer: D
 
3. Which of the following is NOT true about Mill's History of British India? (UGC NET 2019) 
A. It founded the traditional institutions of India static and retrogressive
B. The analysis made by Mill suited the needs of imperial government.
C. It became a textbook on India for the British officers of the Indian Civil Services at Haileybury College
D. It was not informed by the English utilitarian philosophy
 
Answer: D
 
4. Who among the following was the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Service?  (NDA 2019)
1. Satyendranath Tagore
2. Surendranath Banerjee
3. R.C. Dutt
4. Subhas Chandra Bose
 
Answer: A
 
5. Which among the following events happened earliest? (UPSC 2018)
A. Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.
B. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neel Darpan
C. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
D. Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.
 
Answer: B
 
6. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved" and "Transferred" subjects. Which of the following were treated as "Reserved" subjects? (UPSC 2022)
1. Administration of Justice
2. Local Self-Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3             B. 2, 3 and 4              C.  1, 3 and 4           D. 1, 2 and 4
 
Answer: A
 
7. Features of the Government of India Act 1935 are: (Rajasthan Police SI 2016)
(a) The provincial autonomy
(b) The establishment of Federal Court
(c) The establishment of All India Federation at the Centre
1. a and b               2.  b and c             3. a and c                     4. a, b and c
 
Answer: 4
 
8. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2015) 
1. The Department of Revenue responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only      B. 2 and 3 only    C. 2 only     D.  1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: C
 
Source: The Hindu
 

STATE ELECTION COMMISSION (SEC)

 
 
 
1. Context
 
Following the Supreme Court’s directions, Maharashtra will hold local body elections in three phases, beginning on December 2. The first phase covers 246 municipal councils and 42 nagar panchayats, while the second will include 32 of 34 zilla parishads and 336 of 351 panchayat samitis. The municipal corporation elections will be held in the last phase. The court has directed that all elections be completed by January 31, 2026. The exercise comes amid Opposition criticism of errors and duplication in the voters’ lists.
 
 
2. Can the State Election Commission delete duplicate names?
 
 
  • No, the State Election Commission (SEC) is not empowered to include or remove names from the electoral rolls. The Constitution grants the SEC authority over the supervision, direction, and control of elections to municipal and rural local bodies.
  • But under the five State Local Body Acts, the SEC does not create a separate voter list. It relies on the electoral rolls prepared by the Election Commission of India (ECI) under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, and simply divides them according to the respective wards of the local bodies.
  • For the upcoming local body polls, the Maharashtra SEC will use the electoral roll updated up to July 1, 2025—that is, the list reflecting all additions and modifications made by the Chief Electoral Officer till that date.
  • However, the cut-off date for registering first-time voters remained January 1, 2025. Consequently, many young individuals who turned 18 after January 2025 are disappointed that they will not be eligible to vote in the forthcoming elections
 
 
3. What does the State Election Commission (SEC) do?
 
  • The State Election Commission (SEC) is the constitutional authority responsible for ensuring that elections to local bodies—such as municipalities, municipal corporations, panchayats, and other rural and urban local institutions—are conducted freely and fairly.
  • Its primary role is to oversee the entire election process at the local level. This includes announcing the election schedule, supervising the nomination of candidates, monitoring campaigning, and ensuring the polling and counting processes take place without bias or interference.
  • While the SEC controls and directs how local elections are carried out, it does not prepare the voter lists itself. Instead, it relies on the electoral rolls created by the Election Commission of India under the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
  • The SEC takes those rolls and adapts them to the relevant local wards or constituencies. Apart from managing election logistics, it also handles issues like enforcing the model code of conduct for local polls, resolving disputes related to the conduct of elections, and issuing guidelines to ensure transparency and integrity in the voting process
  • The SEC is tasked with reorganising Assembly constituencies into individual wards. This process requires breaking down the electoral rolls prepared for each Assembly segment and allocating voters to their corresponding wards.
  • As part of the updated voter list process starting on November 20, the SEC will open the draft rolls for municipal corporation elections to public feedback. Citizens will be able to submit their objections or suggestions until December 12.
  • The schedule begins with the release of the draft ward-wise voter list on November 20, followed by a window up to November 27 for people to raise concerns or propose corrections. After examining and incorporating all legitimate changes, the SEC will issue the final ward-wise rolls on December 5.
  • Subsequently, the list of polling stations will be made public on December 8, and the detailed polling-station–wise voter list will be released on December 12
 
 
4. Administrative Reforms Commission Recommendation
 
  • The Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was set up by the Government of India to suggest measures for improving the efficiency, accountability, and responsiveness of the Indian administration.
  • Over its reports—both the First ARC (1966–70) and the Second ARC (2005–2009)—it made wide-ranging recommendations to strengthen governance, modernize public institutions, and enhance citizen-centric administration.
  • The ARC emphasised that the Indian administrative system had become over-centralised, rule-bound, and slow, and therefore required structural, procedural, and behavioural reforms.
  • It recommended redefining the role of the government, decentralising power to states and local bodies, and making the bureaucracy more transparent and accountable.
  • The Commission also advocated simplifying procedures, reducing delays, and leveraging technology to make public service delivery more efficient.
  • One of the central themes of the ARC’s suggestions was improving the quality of public servants. It argued for reforms in recruitment, training, performance evaluation, and promotion systems to ensure that officials are competent, motivated, and ethical.
  • It highlighted the need for a code of ethics, stronger vigilance mechanisms, protection for whistle-blowers, and steps to curb corruption.
  • The ARC also pushed for strengthening institutions of accountability such as the Lokpal/Lokayuktas, the CBI, and audit bodies. In areas like e-governance, it encouraged the use of digital tools and transparent processes to reduce human discretion and improve service delivery. In police reforms, it recommended insulation from political interference and improved training.
 
 
For Prelims: Election Commission of India, Chief Election Commissioner, Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991, State Election Commission, Article 324, Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) and Voter Verified Paper Audit Trails (VVPATs).
For Mains: 1. Discuss the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India. How does the Election Commission ensure the conduct of free and fair elections in the Country? (250 words).
 

Previous year Question

1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Answer: D
 
2. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021)
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the- existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3
Answer: B
Source: The Hindu

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