2. About anti-defection law

The anti-defection law in India refers to the provisions laid down in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which was inserted by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985. The primary purpose of the anti-defection law is to curb "political defections" by legislators for personal gains or due to extraneous considerations, thereby promoting stability and integrity in the political system.

Key features and purposes of the anti-defection law include

• The law provides for the disqualification of elected legislators if they voluntarily give up the membership of their political party or disobey the directives issued by their party leadership on voting in legislative matters.
• By penalizing defections, the law aims to preserve stability and discipline within political parties. It discourages legislators from switching parties solely for opportunistic reasons, thereby promoting a more principled approach to politics.
• Preventing defections helps in maintaining stable governments by reducing the likelihood of frequent changes in government formation due to opportunistic alliances or individual defections. This stability is essential for effective governance and policy implementation.
• The law seeks to protect the mandate given by voters to a particular political party during elections. Defections can undermine the trust placed by voters in a party's policies and candidates, and the anti-defection law aims to safeguard the integrity of the electoral process.
• By discouraging defections and ensuring that legislators adhere to the party's stance on legislative matters, the law contributes to the smooth functioning of legislatures. It reduces disruptions caused by political uncertainties and promotes a more focused approach to lawmaking and governance.
• The anti-defection law upholds democratic principles by emphasizing the importance of party discipline and accountability. It encourages elected representatives to remain committed to the party's ideology and manifesto, thereby fostering a more transparent and accountable political system.

3. Has the anti-defection law ensured the stability of governments?

The effectiveness of the anti-defection law in ensuring the stability of governments in India is a subject of debate. While the law has certainly had some impact on curbing defections and promoting party discipline, its efficacy in maintaining government stability is not absolute.

Several factors contribute to this nuanced perspective

• The anti-defection law has succeeded in reducing blatant opportunistic defections where legislators switch parties solely for personal gains or political expediency. This has helped in preventing frequent changes in government formation and instability arising from such defections.
• In a multi-party democracy like India, coalition governments are common, and the anti-defection law has played a role in preserving these coalitions by deterring individual legislators from defecting and causing the collapse of the government.
• By discouraging defections and ensuring party discipline, the law has contributed to the smooth functioning of legislatures, which is essential for passing legislation and conducting parliamentary business. This has indirectly supported government stability by facilitating the enactment of policies and laws.
• Despite its provisions, the anti-defection law has faced challenges and criticisms. Some critics argue that the law has not entirely prevented defections, as legislators often find loopholes or exploit exceptions in the law to switch parties without facing disqualification.
• Government stability is influenced by various factors beyond the anti-defection law, including political dynamics, coalition dynamics, public opinion, and socio-economic factors. The law alone cannot guarantee government stability in the face of broader political uncertainties and challenges.
• While promoting stability, the anti-defection law has also raised concerns about its impact on democratic values such as freedom of speech and dissent within political parties. Critics argue that the law may stifle legitimate dissent and independent decision-making among legislators.

4. What constitutes defection? Who is the deciding authority?

Defection refers to the act of an elected representative or member of a political party abandoning their original party affiliation and joining another political party or forming a separate group, either independently or in association with others, without following the procedures laid down by their party or the law.

In the context of the anti-defection law in India, defection is specifically defined as:

• If a member of a political party voluntarily gives up their membership of that party.
• If an elected member votes or abstains from voting against the directives issued by their party leadership (whip) on a particular legislative matter, without obtaining prior permission.
• If a member of a political party joins another political party after being elected as a representative.
• If a member of a political party forms or joins a new group or political party, and such group consists of at least one-third of the members of the original political party in the legislature.

The deciding authority regarding defection cases is typically the Speaker or Chairman of the concerned legislative body (e.g., Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assembly, or State Legislative Council). Upon receiving a complaint or petition regarding a defection case, the Speaker or Chairman examines the matter and makes a decision based on the provisions of the anti-defection law.

The Speaker or Chairman is responsible for determining whether the actions of the member(s) constitute defection as per the law and, if so, for issuing appropriate orders, including disqualification of the defectors from membership of the legislature. The decision of the Speaker or Chairman can be challenged in the courts through legal recourse if it is perceived to be arbitrary or in violation of constitutional principles.

5. Kihoto Hollohan case (1993)

The Kihoto Hollohan vs. Zachillhu and Others case, decided by the Supreme Court of India in 1992, is a landmark case related to defection and the role of the Speaker in Indian politics.

• The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, introduced through the 52nd Amendment in 1985, laid down provisions to curb defection by elected representatives. This case challenged the constitutionality of the Tenth Schedule, particularly the broad powers it granted to the Speaker in deciding defection cases.
• The petitioners argued that giving the Speaker such extensive power violated the doctrine of basic structure and potentially infringed on the freedom of speech, dissent, and conscience of elected representatives.
• The Supreme Court, in a majority judgment, upheld the Tenth Schedule and the Speaker's broad powers. The court reasoned that:
  • The Speaker occupies a crucial position in the parliamentary system and is expected to handle sensitive matters.
  • Granting the Speaker broad discretion is necessary for the efficient and effective functioning of the anti-defection law.
  • The court acknowledged the potential for bias but believed it was minimized by the Speaker's constitutional position and the requirement to act in good faith.

Significance: The Kihoto Hollohan case remains a pivotal judgment shaping Indian politics. It

• Established the Speaker's authority in deciding defection cases.
• affirmed the constitutionality of the anti-defection law.
• However, the case also sparked discussions about the balance between stability and individual rights in the context of defection. It continues to be debated whether the broad powers granted to the Speaker are truly necessary or pose a risk to democratic principles.

6. SR Bommai case (1994)

The SR Bommai case, officially known as S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India, is a landmark judgment delivered by the Supreme Court of India in 1994. This case dealt with issues related to the dismissal of state governments under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, popularly known as the President's Rule.

The case was prompted by the dismissal of the government in the state of Karnataka in 1989 under Article 356 by the then-central government led by Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi. This dismissal led to legal challenges, including petitions filed by S.R. Bommai, who was the Chief Minister of Karnataka at the time of dismissal.

Key Issues

1. Whether the decision of the President to impose President's Rule in a state under Article 356 was immune from judicial review.
2. Whether the power of the President to dismiss a state government was absolute or whether there were limitations on this power.
3. Whether there were grounds for judicial intervention in cases of misuse or abuse of Article 356 by the Central government.

Key Judgments

• The Supreme Court held that the imposition of the President's Rule in a state is subject to judicial review. The Court ruled that the exercise of power under Article 356 is justiciable, and the President's satisfaction with imposing the President's Rule can be questioned in a court of law.
• The Court laid down guidelines and limitations on the exercise of power under Article 356. It held that the President's Rule can only be imposed in exceptional circumstances where the constitutional machinery in a state has completely broken down, and the Governor's report justifying the imposition of the President's Rule must be based on relevant material.
• The Court ruled that a floor test in the legislative assembly is the most effective way to determine the strength of the government and resolve political uncertainties. It held that the majority enjoyed by a government in the assembly should be tested on the floor of the House.

Significance: The SR Bommai case is significant as it established judicial guidelines and limitations on the use of Article 356 and provided clarity on the scope of judicial review in matters related to the dismissal of state governments. It reinforced the principles of federalism and democracy by limiting the Central government's power to dismiss state governments arbitrarily and ensuring accountability in the exercise of such powers.

7. The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 and the 10th Schedule of the Constitution

The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 was a significant amendment to the Constitution of India. It introduced the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, commonly known as the anti-defection law. The primary objective of this amendment was to curb the practice of political defections by legislators, which often led to instability in governments and undermined the democratic process.

Key provisions of the 52nd Amendment Act and the Tenth Schedule include

1. The Tenth Schedule defines defection and provides criteria for disqualification of legislators who defect from their political party.
2. Legislators can be disqualified if they voluntarily give up their party membership or violate the directives issued by their party leadership on voting in legislative matters.
3. The Tenth Schedule empowers the Speaker or Chairman of the legislative body to decide on defection cases. The decision of the Speaker or Chairman regarding disqualification is final and cannot be questioned in a court of law except on certain grounds such as mala fide or violation of principles of natural justice.
4. The Tenth Schedule provides certain exceptions to disqualification, such as when a political party merges with another party, and two-thirds of its members agree to the merger.
5. While the decision of the Speaker or Chairman is generally final, it is subject to judicial review on certain grounds, such as violation of constitutional provisions or principles of natural justice.

The 52nd Amendment Act and the Tenth Schedule were introduced to promote stability and integrity in the political system by discouraging defections and preserving party discipline. However, over the years, there have been debates and discussions about the effectiveness of the anti-defection law and its impact on democratic principles such as freedom of speech and dissent within political parties. Nevertheless, the introduction of the Tenth Schedule remains a significant milestone in the constitutional history of India aimed at strengthening the democratic framework of the country.

8. 91st Amendment Act of 2003

The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 is an important amendment to the Constitution of India. This amendment introduced changes to Article 75 and Article 164, which deal with the appointment of Ministers in the Union Council of Ministers and State Council of Ministers, respectively. The primary objective of the 91st Amendment Act was to prevent the practice of "office of profit" by Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of the State Legislature (MLAs).

Key provisions of the 91st Amendment Act include

1. The amendment clarified the definition of "office of profit" held by MPs and MLAs. An office of profit refers to any position held by a person which brings them some financial gain, advantage, or benefit.
2.  The amendment exempted certain offices from being considered as offices of profit. These include offices held by MPs or MLAs as Ministers, or positions that the Parliament or State Legislature has specifically declared as not being offices of profit.
3. The amendment specified that a person shall be disqualified from being a member of Parliament or State Legislature if they hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any state, other than offices exempted by law.
4. The amendment allowed for the Parliament or State Legislature to make laws specifying the offices that are exempted from disqualification. It also provided for the interpretation of the term "office of profit" by the Parliament or State Legislature.

The 91st Amendment Act aimed to ensure that legislators do not hold positions that could potentially compromise their independence and impartiality in discharging their duties as elected representatives. By preventing MPs and MLAs from holding offices of profit, the amendment sought to uphold the principles of transparency, accountability, and integrity in the functioning of the legislative bodies in India.

8.1. What is that ‘exception’?

• The exception mentioned in the context of the 91st Amendment Act of 2003 refers to certain offices that are exempted from being considered as "office of profit" and, therefore, do not lead to disqualification of MPs or MLAs holding such positions.
• The amendment provides that certain offices can be specifically exempted by law from being considered as offices of profit. This means that the Parliament or State Legislature can pass laws to declare certain positions or offices as not falling under the definition of office of profit, thereby allowing MPs or MLAs to hold these positions without facing disqualification.
• The purpose of this exception is to provide clarity and flexibility in determining which positions should be considered as offices of profit and which should be exempted. It allows for a case-by-case examination of positions held by legislators to ensure that they do not hold any office that could potentially compromise their independence or impartiality in discharging their duties as elected representatives.
• Examples of offices that may be exempted from being considered as offices of profit include positions held by legislators as Ministers or positions that are honorary or ceremonial, without any substantial remuneration or executive authority attached to them. However, the specific exemptions may vary depending on the laws passed by the Parliament or State Legislature.

9. The Way Forward

The anti-defection law remains a significant milestone in India's constitutional history, aimed at strengthening democratic principles and promoting a more transparent and accountable political system. There is a need to review and strengthen the implementation of the law, enhance transparency in defection cases, promote intra-party democracy, and encourage public awareness to uphold the integrity of the electoral process and ensure the stability of governments.

Source: The Indian Express

JIM CORBETT NATIONAL PARK

 

 

1. Context

 

The Supreme Court condemned the illegal felling of over 6,000 trees to construct buildings, ostensibly for “eco-tourism” at the Jim Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand, as a “classic case” of nexus between politicians and officials working to ransack the environment for short-term commercial ends

 

2. About Jim Corbett National Park

 

The Jim Corbett Tiger Reserve, now known as the Jim Corbett National Park, is one of the oldest and most famous national parks in India. It is located in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand and was established in 1936 as Hailey National Park. It was later renamed in honor of Jim Corbett, a renowned British-Indian hunter, conservationist, and author, who played a key role in the establishment of the park

The park covers an area of about 520 square kilometers and is spread across the foothills of the Himalayas. The Ramganga River flows through the park, contributing to its rich biodiversity

 

2.1. Flora and Fauna

 

Jim Corbett National Park boasts a rich diversity of flora and fauna, making it a captivating destination for nature enthusiasts and wildlife lovers. Here's an overview of the flora and fauna found in the park:

Flora:

• Sal Forests: The park is predominantly covered by moist deciduous and dry deciduous forests, with sal trees (Shorea robusta) being a dominant species. Sal forests are characteristic of the lower and outer regions of the park.

• Mixed Deciduous Forests: Apart from sal, the park is home to various other tree species like haldu (Adina cordifolia), pipal (Ficus religiosa), rohini (Mallotus philippensis), and mango (Mangifera indica).

• Riverine Vegetation: The park is traversed by several rivers and streams, contributing to the growth of riverine vegetation along their banks. You can find trees like khair (Acacia catechu), mahua (Madhuca indica), and kusum (Schleichera oleosa) in these areas.

• Grasslands: Open grasslands are interspersed throughout the park, providing grazing grounds for herbivores. The grasslands also play a crucial role in maintaining the park's ecological balance.

Fauna:

• Bengal Tigers: The park is renowned for its population of Bengal tigers. Jim Corbett National Park has been a pioneer in tiger conservation efforts in India.

• Leopards: Apart from tigers, leopards also inhabit the park. They are elusive and primarily nocturnal, making them a thrilling sighting for visitors.

• Indian Elephants: The park is home to a significant population of Indian elephants. These gentle giants can be spotted, especially in the Dhikala zone.

• Deer Species: Several species of deer, including spotted deer (chital), sambar deer, and hog deer, are found in abundance, making them a common sight during safaris.

• Wild Boars: Wild boars are widespread in the park and contribute to the carnivores' diet.

• Crocodiles: The Ramganga River and its tributaries house mugger crocodiles. Crocodile sightings are possible during river safaris.

• Birdlife: Jim Corbett National Park is a birdwatcher's paradise, with over 600 species of birds. Common sightings include crested serpent eagles, kingfishers, pallas's fish eagle, and the great hornbill.

• Reptiles: The park is also home to various reptiles, including snakes, lizards, and turtles

3. History and Background of Jim Corbett National Park

 

Jim Corbett National Park was named in honour of Edward James "Jim" Corbett, a British-Indian hunter, naturalist, and conservationist. Jim Corbett played a crucial role in the establishment of the national park and was instrumental in the early efforts of wildlife conservation in India. Here's how the name came about:

• Establishment of the Park: The national park was initially established as Hailey National Park in 1936. It was named after Sir Malcolm Hailey, the then Governor of the United Provinces (now the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh). The park aimed to protect the endangered Bengal tiger and its habitat.

• Renaming in 1957: In 1957, the park was renamed Jim Corbett National Park in tribute to Jim Corbett, who had been closely associated with the area. Jim Corbett was not only a skilled hunter but also a passionate advocate for wildlife conservation. He played a key role in raising awareness about the need to protect India's wildlife and natural heritage.

• Corbett's Conservation Contributions: Jim Corbett's love for the flora and fauna of the region, coupled with his efforts to conserve the Bengal tiger and other endangered species, earned him respect and admiration. His books, such as "Man-Eaters of Kumaon" and "The Temple Tiger and More Man-Eaters of Kumaon," highlighted his experiences in dealing with man-eating tigers and leopards and contributed to the public's awareness of wildlife conservation issues.

• Legacy and Recognition: Renaming the park after Jim Corbett was a fitting tribute to his contributions to wildlife conservation. It not only acknowledged his efforts in the region but also aimed to inspire future generations to value and protect India's diverse flora and fauna

4. Other Major Protected Areas of Uttarakhand

 

Uttarakhand, a state in northern India, is known for its rich biodiversity and stunning landscapes. Apart from Jim Corbett National Park, there are several other major protected areas and wildlife sanctuaries in Uttarakhand. Some of them include:

• Rajaji National Park:

  • Located in the Shivalik range, it spans across the districts of Haridwar, Dehradun, and Pauri Garhwal.
  • Rajaji National Park is known for its diverse flora and fauna, including elephants, tigers, leopards, deer, and a variety of bird species.

• Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve:

  • A UNESCO World Heritage Site, Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is located in the Chamoli district.
  • It includes the Nanda Devi National Park and the Valley of Flowers National Park.
  • The reserve is named after the Nanda Devi peak, one of the highest peaks in India.

• Valley of Flowers National Park:

  • Part of the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, this national park is renowned for its alpine meadows and diverse floral species.
  • It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and attracts trekkers and nature enthusiasts.

• Gangotri National Park:

  • Located in the Uttarkashi district, Gangotri National Park is named after the Gangotri Glacier.
  • The park is known for its high-altitude ecosystems and is home to species like the snow leopard, Himalayan tahr, and blue sheep.

• Govind Pashu Vihar Wildlife Sanctuary:

  • Situated in the Uttarkashi district, this sanctuary is a part of the Govind Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park.
  • It is known for its diverse wildlife, including the snow leopard, Himalayan black bear, and various species of pheasants

5. Way Forward

The Supreme Court on Wednesday condemned the illegal felling of over 6,000 trees to construct buildings, ostensibly for “eco-tourism” at the Jim Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand, as a “classic case” of nexus between politicians and officials working to ransack the environment for short-term commercial ends.

“The present case depicts a sorry state of affairs of human greed devastating one of the most celebrated abodes of tigers i.e. the Corbett Tiger Reserve,” a three-judge Bench 

The court also directed the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to form a specialised committee to study and recommend whether tiger safaris should be permitted in the buffer areas of a tiger reserve

 

 

Previous Year Questions 1.Consider the following pairs: (UPSC CSE 2013) National Park River flowing through the Park Corbett National Park : Ganga Kaziranga National Park : Manas Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) None Answer: (d)

Source: The Hindu

 

ARTICLE 371

 

 

 

1. Context

 

In the backdrop of protests across Ladakh, the Centre is mulling granting Article 371-like protection to the Union Territory. Sources said during a meeting of the representatives of the region Leh Apex Body and Kargil Democratic Alliance with Union Home Minister Amit Shah.

 

 

2. Part XXI of the constitution

Part XXI of the Indian Constitution is titled "Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions". It contains articles that deal with

• Special provisions for certain states: These provisions address the specific needs and circumstances of various states, aiming to ensure their smooth integration into the Indian Union and protect the interests of their population. This includes articles like:

1. Article 371, which grants special provisions to 12 Indian states, including six Northeastern states. These provisions cover aspects like the allotment of funds for development, reservation in public employment and educational institutions, and special representation in the state legislature.
2. Article 370, which was abrogated in 2019, previously granted special autonomous status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

• Temporary provisions: These provisions were meant to be temporary arrangements to facilitate the smooth transition from the pre-independence system to the new constitutional framework. However, some of these provisions, like those related to the distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and states, continue to be relevant even today.
• Transitional provisions: These provisions helped bridge the gap between the old and new legal systems and ensured a smooth transfer of power and authority.

 

3. Article 371 of the Constitution

Article 371 of the Indian Constitution is the first of a series of articles under Part XXI titled "Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions". These articles provide special provisions for specific states, addressing their unique needs and circumstances.

Article 371 itself empowers the Parliament to

1. Establish separate development boards for specific regions within the states of Maharashtra (Vidarbha and Marathwada) and Gujarat (Saurashtra and Kutch).
2. Ensure equitable allocation of funds for development expenditure across these regions.
3. Mandate the placement of a report on the functioning of these development boards before the respective state legislative assemblies every year.

 

4. Articles 371 to 371-J

Articles 371A to 371J have been introduced under Part XXI, each addressing the specific needs and circumstances of various states. 

Nagaland (Article 371A, 13th Amendment Act, 1962)

• Parliament can't legislate in matters of Naga religion or social practices, the Naga customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law and ownership and transfer of land and its resources, without the concurrence of the Legislative Assembly.
• This provision was inserted in the Constitution after a 16-point agreement between the Centre and the Naga People's Convention in 1960, which led to the creation of Nagaland in 1963.
• Also, there is a provision for a 35-member regional council for the Tuensang district, which elects the Tuensang members in the Assembly.
• A member from the Tuensang district is the Minister for Tuensang Affairs: The Governor has the final say on Tuensang-related matters.

 

Assam (Article 371B, 22nd Amendment Act, 1969)

 

The president may provide for the constitution and functions of a committee of the Assembly consisting of members elected from the tribal areas of the state.

 

 

Manipur (Article 371C, 27th Amendment Act, 1971)

• President may provide for the constitution and functions of a committee of elected members from the Hill areas in the Assembly; entrust "special responsibility" to the Governor to ensure its proper functioning.
• The Governor has to file a report every year on this to the President.

 

Andhra Pradesh & Telangana

(Article 371D, 32nd Amendment Act, 1973; substituted by the Andra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014)

• The president must ensure "equitable opportunities and facilities" in "Public employment and education to people from different parts of the state";
• he may require the state government to organise "any class or classes of posts in the civil service of or any class or classes of civil posts under, the State into different local cadres for different parts of the State" and allow them.
• The President has similar powers vis-a-vis admissions in any university or state government-run educational institution.
• Also, he may provide for the setting up of an administrative tribunal outside the jurisdiction of the High Court to deal with issues of appointment, allotment or promotion in state civil services.
• Article 371E allows for the establishment of a university in Andhra Pradesh by a law of Parliament. But this is not a "special provision".

 

 Sikkim (Article 371F, 36th Amendment Act, 1975)

• The members of the Legislative Assembly of Sikkim shall elect the representative of Sikkim in the House of the People.
• To protect the rights and interests of various sections of the population of Sikkim, Parliament may provide for the number of seats in the Assembly, which may be filled only by candidates from those sections.
• The governor shall have "Special responsibility for peace and for an equitable arrangement for ensuring the social and economic advancement of different sections of the population".
• All earlier laws in territories that formed Sikkim shall continue and any adaptation or modification shall not be questioned in any court.

 

Mizoram (Article 371G, 53rd Amendment Act, 1986)

 

Parliament cannot make laws on "religious or social practices of the Mizos, Mizo customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Mizo customary law, ownership and transfer of land unless the Legislative Assembly by a resolution so decides".

 

 

Arunachal Pradesh (Article 371H, 55th Amendment Act, 1986)

• The Governor has a special responsibility for law and order and "he shall, after consulting the Council of Ministers, exercise his judgment as to the action to be taken".
• Should a question arise over whether a particular matter is one in which the Governor is "required to act in the exercise of his judgment, the decision of the Governor in his discretion shall be final" and "shall not be called in question"?

 

Karnataka (Article 371J, 98th Amendment Act, 2012)

 

There is a provision for the establishment of a separate development board for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region, the working of which will be reported annually to the Assembly; There shall be

1. "equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the said region"
2. "equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the said region"; and 
3. "equitable opportunities and facilities" for people of this region in government jobs and education.

 

5. The Way Forward

 

The decision to grant Article 371-like protection to Ladakh requires careful consideration of its potential benefits and challenges. Open and inclusive dialogue involving all stakeholders, including Ladakhis, the central government, and other states, is crucial to finding a solution that addresses the region's aspirations while maintaining national unity.

 

 

For Prelims: Part XII of the Constitution, Article 371, Special Provisions, Ladakh For Mains:  1. Discuss the significance of Article 371 in the Indian Constitution and its role in addressing the unique needs and circumstances of certain states. Evaluate its effectiveness in ensuring the smooth integration of these states into the Indian Union while safeguarding their interests. (250 Words) 2. Imagine you are a policymaker involved in the decision-making process regarding Ladakh's demand for special protection. Outline the key factors you would consider before formulating a recommendation and suggest potential alternative solutions that could address the concerns of the Ladakhi people. (250 words)

 

 

Previous Year Questions   1. The status of "Special Category States" is given to certain states to target the fund flow for better-balanced growth. Which of the following states fall under this category? (UPSSSC Lower PCS Prelims 2016)  1. Rajasthan 2. Uttarakhand 3. Bihar 4. Jammu & Kashmir 5. Himachal Pradesh 6. Jharkhand Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A. 1, 5 and 6          B. 2, 4 and 5           C. 3, 5 and 6        D. 1, 3 and 6   2. With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2015) 1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent. 2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants. Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1 only          B.  2 only           C. Both 1 and 2          D. Neither 1 nor 2     3. Based on the Sixth Schedule of Indian Constitution, with respect to the tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram Which of the following can the Governor of a State do?  (DSSSB PRT General Section Officer 2019) 1. Can create a new autonomous district 2. The area of atonomous district can be increased A. 1 Only     B. 2 Only        C. Both 1 and 2         D. Neither 1 nor 2     4. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (UPSC 2022) A. This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people. B. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. C. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. D. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.     5. Article _____ of the Constitution of India deals with provisions related to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. (SSC CGL 2020) A. 222(1)         B. 244(1)          C. 244(2)            D.  222(2)     6. The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was formed by insertion of Article ______ in the Constitution of India. (SSC CGL 2020)  A. 328B         B.  338A            C. 338B            D. 328A   7. When did the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir come into force? (UPSC CAPF 2016) A.26th January 1957 B. 15th August 1947 C. 25th July 1956 D.14th November 1947   8. State Legislature of Jammu and Kashmir can confer special rights and privileges on permanent residents of J and K with respect to - (MPSC 2019) Find the correct options below. (a) Employment under State Government (b) Settlement in the state (c) Acquisition of immovable property (d) Right to Scholarship (e) Right to entry into heritage sites A.  (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)     B. (a), (b), (c), (d)        C. (a), (b), (c)            D. (a), (b)   Answers: 1-A, 2-A, 3-C, 4-A, 5-B, 6-B, 7-A, 8-B

 

Source: The Indian Express

METHANE 'SAT'

 

 

 

1. Context 

 

Recently, MethaneSAT, a satellite designed to monitor and measure methane emissions worldwide, was successfully launched into orbit aboard a SpaceX Falcon9 rocket from California. Although not the initial spacecraft tasked with detecting and quantifying methane emissions, MethaneSAT represents a significant advancement in this field. With its compact size akin to a washing machine, the satellite promises to offer more comprehensive data and a broader observational scope compared to its predecessors.

2. Reasons for Tracking and Measure Methane Emissions

• Methane, an invisible yet potent greenhouse gas, ranks as the second-largest contributor to global warming, following carbon dioxide. It has been responsible for approximately 30% of global heating since the Industrial Revolution.
• According to the United Nations Environment Programme, over a 20-year timeframe, methane exhibits 80 times more warming potency than carbon dioxide.
• Additionally, methane plays a significant role in the formation of ground-level ozone, a colourless and highly irritating gas found just above the Earth's surface.
• Studies indicate that exposure to ground-level ozone may contribute to approximately one million premature deaths annually.
• Given these factors, reducing methane emissions is imperative. The primary source of methane emissions stems from fossil fuel operations, accounting for about 40% of all human-caused methane emissions. The objective of MethaneSAT is to aid in achieving this crucial goal.

 

3. MethaneSAT

• MethaneSAT is a satellite project spearheaded by the Environmental Defense Fund (EDF), a nonprofit environmental advocacy group based in the United States.
• Collaborating with partners including Harvard University, the Smithsonian Astrophysical Observatory, and the New Zealand Space Agency, EDF has developed MethaneSAT to monitor methane emissions globally.
• MethaneSAT will orbit the Earth approximately 15 times a day, focusing its monitoring efforts primarily on the oil and gas sector.
• By doing so, it will generate a vast amount of data that will provide insights into the origins and trends of methane emissions.
• According to EDF, this data will reveal crucial information such as the sources of methane emissions, responsible entities, and whether emissions are increasing or decreasing over time.
• One of the notable aspects of MethaneSAT is its commitment to transparency. The data collected by the satellite will be made publicly available for free in near real-time.
• This accessibility will empower stakeholders and regulatory bodies to take prompt action in addressing methane emissions and implementing measures to reduce their environmental impact.

4. Key Features of MethaneSAT

•  Historically, tracking and measuring methane emissions have presented significant challenges. Some satellites offer high-resolution data but are limited to scanning specific, pre-targeted sites. Others can examine larger areas but struggle to detect smaller sources, which are often major contributors to emissions.
• MethaneSAT aims to address these challenges. Equipped with a high-resolution infrared sensor and a spectrometer, the satellite can detect methane concentrations as small as three parts per billion in the atmosphere. This capability allows it to identify smaller emissions sources that previous satellites might have missed.
• In addition to its high-resolution capabilities, MethaneSAT boasts a wide-camera view, covering an area of about 200 km by 200 km. This wide coverage enables it to identify larger emitters, known as "super emitters," providing a comprehensive understanding of methane emissions across various scales.
• The data collected by MethaneSAT will undergo analysis using cloud computing and AI technology developed by Google, a mission partner. Moreover, the collected data will be made publicly available through Google's Earth Engine platform, facilitating transparency and enabling stakeholders to access and utilize the information for addressing methane emissions effectively.

5. Significance of MethaneSAT

• The launch of MethaneSAT coincides with the implementation of more stringent methane management policies worldwide. Initiatives such as the Global Methane Pledge, signed by over 150 countries in 2021, aim to reduce collective methane emissions by at least 30% from 2020 levels by 2030.
• MethaneSAT's data will play a crucial role in helping countries and companies meet these ambitious targets.
• MethaneSAT introduces a new era of transparency by providing publicly available data accessible to anyone worldwide. This data will enable stakeholders to monitor and hold governments and corporations accountable for their methane reduction commitments.
• The satellite's observations will serve as a valuable tool for tracking progress and identifying areas that require further action.
• MethaneSAT's data holds the potential to drive change, but it may not necessarily compel polluters to curb their emissions.
• Drew Shindell, an earth science professor at Duke University, cautioned that the availability of information alone does not guarantee a behaviour change.
• Efforts to address methane emissions will require concerted action and collaboration among various stakeholders beyond the dissemination of data.

 

6. The Way Forward

 

By addressing the areas and fostering international cooperation, MethaneSAT's data can be effectively harnessed to drive concrete action and accelerate progress towards tackling the global challenge of methane emissions. It's crucial to remember that addressing this issue requires a multi-pronged approach, and the information provided by MethaneSAT serves as a valuable tool within a broader framework of collaborative efforts.

 

 

For Prelims: MethaneSAT, Climate Change, Carbon dioxide, Global Warming For Mains: 1. Discuss the significance of MethaneSAT in monitoring and measuring methane emissions globally. How does its compact size and advanced technology contribute to its effectiveness? (250 Words)

 

 

Previous Year Questions   1. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'? (UPSC 2019) 1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits. 2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor. 3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only      B. 2 and 3 only         C. 1 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3   2. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substance? (UPSC CSE 2015) A.Bretton woods conference B. Montreal Protocol C. Kyoto Protocol D. Nagoya Protocol   3. Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in (NDA  2017) A. Washington B. Geneva C. Moscow D. London     4. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2016) 1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017 2. The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels. 3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $ 1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 3 only   B. 2 only      C. 2 and 3 only    D.  1, 2 and 3   5. A new type of El Nino called El Nino Modoki appeared in the news. In this context, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2010)  1. Normal El Nino forms in the Central Pacific ocean whereas El Nino Modoki forms in the Eastern Pacific ocean. 2. Normal El Nino results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic ocean but El Nino Modoki results in a greater number of hurricanes with greater frequency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  A. 1 only       B. 2 only        C. Both 1 and 2             D. Neither 1 nor 2     6. La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How is La Nina different from El Nino? (UPSC 2011)  1. La Nina is characterized by unusually cold ocean temperature in the equatorial Indian Ocean whereas El Nino is characterized by unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial Pacific Ocean. 2. El Nino has an adverse effect on the south-west monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on the monsoon climate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  A. 1 only        B. 2 only         C. Both 1 and 2           D. Neither 1 nor 2     7. Consider the following statements:  (MPSC 2017) a. La Nina is a little girl. b. During the time of La Nina cold water in the ocean rises to the surface. c. La Nina strengthens the Indian monsoon. d. During the time of El Nino, trade winds weaken, and warm water moves east in the ocean. Which of the above statements is/are correct?  A. Only a and b          B. a, b and c         C. Only b and c           D. All of the above     8. Which of the following statements regarding 'Green Climate Fund' is/are correct? (UPSC 2015) 1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change. 2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECS, Asian Development Bank and World Bank.  Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1 only         B. 2 only           C. Both 1 and 2       D.  Neither 1 nor 2     9. Methane is a very potent greenhouse gas. It is converted to carbon dioxide to ease its overall effect on global warming. This process is known as: (UPSC CAPF 2014)  A. Blocking         B. Ceiling         C. Flaring         D. Stooping     10. Consider the following: (UPSC 2019) Carbon monoxide Methane Ozone Sulphur dioxide Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue? (a) 1 and 2 only        (b) 2, 3 and 4 only           (c) 1 and 4 only            (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 11. With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements (UPSC 2020) 1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body. 2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body. 3. They can be used in biochemical sensors. 4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable. Which of the statements given above are correct?   A. 1 and 2 only       B.  2, 3 and 4 only        C. 1, 3 and 4 only          D. 1, 2, 3 and 4   Answers: 1-D, 2-B, 3-B, 4-B, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-A. 9-A, 10-D, 11- C

 

Source: The Indian Express