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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 20 JANUARY 2026

SPECIAL INTENSIVE REVISION (SIR)

 
 
1. Context
 
The Supreme Court on Monday urged the Election Commission to avert causing “stress and strain” through its ongoing special intensive revision (SIR) exercise to the ordinary people of West Bengal, where approximately 1.36 crore people, almost 20% of the population, have received notices from the poll body to explain “logical discrepancies in their names and family backgrounds”
 
2. What is the Special Intensive Revision?
 
 
  • The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of the Electoral Rolls is an important exercise undertaken by the Election Commission of India (ECI) to ensure that the voter lists (electoral rolls) are accurate, updated, and inclusive before any major election or as part of the annual revision cycle.
  • In simpler terms, the SIR is a comprehensive verification and correction process of the electoral rolls — aimed at including eligible voters, removing ineligible ones, and rectifying errors in the existing list.
  • It is called “special” because it involves an intensified, house-to-house verification and greater public participation compared to the routine annual summary revision
  • The purpose of the Special Intensive Revision is to maintain the purity, accuracy, and inclusiveness of India’s democratic process. Clean and updated voter rolls are essential for free, fair, and credible elections, as they prevent issues like bogus voting, disenfranchisement, and duplication.
  • In summary, the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) is a focused, large-scale voter verification campaign conducted by the Election Commission to ensure that the electoral rolls are error-free, inclusive, and reflective of the current eligible voting population. It plays a crucial role in strengthening the integrity and transparency of India’s electoral system

During the Special Intensive Revision, Booth Level Officers (BLOs) visit households to verify voter details such as name, address, age, and photo identity. This exercise helps identify:

  • Citizens who have turned 18 years or older and are eligible to vote,

  • Entries that need to be corrected or deleted due to death, migration, or duplication, and

  • Any discrepancies in the voter’s details such as gender, address, or photo mismatch
 
 
3. Election Commission of India, its powers and functions
 
  • Article 324(1) of the Indian Constitution empowers the Election Commission of India (ECI) with the authority to oversee, guide, and manage the preparation of electoral rolls as well as the conduct of elections for both Parliament and the State Legislatures.
  • As per Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, the ECI holds the right to order a special revision of the electoral roll for any constituency, or part of it, at any time and in a manner it considers appropriate.
  • According to the Registration of Electors’ Rules, 1960, the revision of electoral rolls may be carried out intensively, summarily, or through a combination of both methods, as directed by the ECI.
  • An intensive revision involves preparing an entirely new roll, while a summary revision deals with updating or modifying the existing one
 
4. How is SIR different from the National Register of Citizens (NRC)?
 
 
 
 
Aspect  Special Intensive Revision (SIR) National Register of Citizens (NRC)
Purpose To verify, update, and correct the electoral rolls so that all eligible voters are included and ineligible names are removed To identify legal citizens of India and detect illegal immigrants
Authority / Governing Body Conducted by the Election Commission of India (ECI) Conducted under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
Legal Basis Based on Article 324(1) of the Constitution, Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, and the Registration of Electors' Rules, 1960. Governed by the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003
Scope Focuses only on Indian citizens aged 18 years and above who are eligible to vote Covers all residents of India (or a particular state) to determine their citizenship status
Nature of the Exercise A regular, recurring administrative exercise carried out to maintain accurate voter lists A special, large-scale verification exercise conducted under specific legal or political mandates.
Relation to Citizenship Does not determine citizenship — only eligibility to vote Directly determines citizenship status
 
 
5. What are the concerns related to SIR?
 

One of the major concerns is the erroneous deletion of eligible voters from the rolls.

  • Mistakes during house-to-house verification or data entry may lead to legitimate voters—especially migrants, daily-wage workers, and marginalized communities—being left out.

  • Such exclusions can directly affect voter participation and undermine the democratic process.

Despite the intensive verification, fake or duplicate names often remain due to poor coordination or outdated records.

  • Deaths, migrations, or multiple registrations in different constituencies are not always updated accurately.

  • This raises questions about the accuracy and credibility of the electoral rolls.

The SIR is a large-scale field operation requiring trained personnel, coordination among departments, and robust data systems.

  • Booth Level Officers (BLOs) are often overburdened with multiple duties and may not have sufficient time or training for thorough verification.

  • Limited digital infrastructure in rural areas can also hamper real-time data updates.

Electoral roll revisions, especially when conducted close to elections, can spark political allegations of bias or manipulation.

  • Parties may accuse each other or the Election Commission of targeting specific communities or constituencies.

  • Even unintentional errors can lead to trust deficits in the electoral process.

 
6. Way Forward
 
 
While the Special Intensive Revision is essential for ensuring clean and updated electoral rolls, its effectiveness depends on transparent procedures, proper training, digital accuracy, and public awareness.
Addressing these concerns is vital to maintain trust in the Election Commission and uphold the credibility of India’s democratic system
 
 
For Prelims: Special Intensive Revision (SIR), National Register of Citizens (NRC), Election Commission of India (ECI)
For Mains: GS II - Indian Polity
 
 

Previous year Question

1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Answer: D
 
2. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021)
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the- existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3
Answer: B
 
Mains
 
1.To enhance the quality of democracy in India the Election Commission of India has proposed electoral reforms in 2016. What are the suggested reforms and how far are they significant to make democracy successful? (UPSC CSE 2017)
Source: Indianexpress
 
 

GROSS DOMESTIC PRODUCT (GDP)

 
 
1. Context
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has revised upwards its estimate of India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth in the current financial year 2025-26 to 7.3% from its earlier prediction of 6.6%
 
2. Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
 
Gross domestic product (GDP) is the total monetary or market value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific time period. It is often used as a measure of a country's economic health
GDP provides insight into the overall economic health of a nation and is often used for comparing the economic output of different countries.

There are three primary ways to calculate GDP:

  1. Production Approach (GDP by Production): This approach calculates GDP by adding up the value-added at each stage of production. It involves summing up the value of all final goods and services produced in an economy.

  2. Income Approach (GDP by Income): This approach calculates GDP by summing up all the incomes earned in an economy, including wages, rents, interests, and profits. The idea is that all the income generated in an economy must ultimately be spent on purchasing goods and services.

  3. Expenditure Approach (GDP by Expenditure): This approach calculates GDP by summing up all the expenditures made on final goods and services. It includes consumption by households, investments by businesses, government spending, and net exports (exports minus imports).

3. Measuring GDP

GDP can be measured in three different ways:

  1. Nominal GDP: This is the raw GDP figure without adjusting for inflation. It reflects the total value of goods and services produced at current prices.

  2. Real GDP: Real GDP adjusts the nominal GDP for inflation, allowing for a more accurate comparison of economic performance over time. It represents the value of goods and services produced using constant prices from a specific base year.

  3. GDP per capita: This is the GDP divided by the population of a country. It provides a per-person measure of economic output and can be useful for comparing the relative economic well-being of different countries.

The GDP growth rate is the percentage change in the GDP from one year to the next. A positive GDP growth rate indicates that the economy is growing, while a negative GDP growth rate indicates that the economy is shrinking

The GDP is a useful measure of economic health, but it has some limitations. For example, it does not take into account the distribution of income in an economy. It also does not take into account the quality of goods and services produced.

Despite its limitations, the GDP is a widely used measure of economic health. It is used by economists, policymakers, and businesses to track the performance of an economy and to make decisions about economic policy

4. Gross Value Added (GVA)

 

Gross Value Added (GVA) is a closely related concept to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and is used to measure the economic value generated by various economic activities within a country. GVA represents the value of goods and services produced in an economy minus the value of inputs (such as raw materials and intermediate goods) used in production. It's a way to measure the contribution of each individual sector or industry to the overall economy.

GVA can be calculated using the production approach, similar to one of the methods used to calculate GDP. The formula for calculating GVA is as follows:

GVA = Output Value - Intermediate Consumption

Where:

  • Output Value: The total value of goods and services produced by an industry or sector.
  • Intermediate Consumption: The value of inputs used in the production process, including raw materials, energy, and other intermediate goods.
5. GDP vs GNP

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Gross National Product (GNP) are both important economic indicators used to measure the size and health of an economy, but they focus on slightly different aspects of economic activity and include different factors. Here are the key differences between GDP and GNP:

  1. Definition and Scope:

    • GDP: GDP measures the total value of all goods and services produced within a country's borders, regardless of whether the production is done by domestic or foreign entities. It only considers economic activities that take place within the country.
    • GNP: GNP measures the total value of all goods and services produced by a country's residents, whether they are located within the country's borders or abroad. It takes into account the production of residents, both domestically and internationally.

  2. Foreign Income and Payments:

    • GDP: GDP does not consider the income earned by residents of a country from their economic activities abroad, nor does it account for payments made to foreigners working within the country.
    • GNP: GNP includes the income earned by a country's residents from their investments and activities abroad, minus the income earned by foreign residents from their investments within the country.

  3. Net Factor Income from Abroad:

    • GDP: GDP does not account for net factor income from abroad, which is the difference between income earned by domestic residents abroad and income earned by foreign residents domestically.
    • GNP: GNP includes net factor income from abroad as part of its calculation.

  4. Foreign Direct Investment:

    • GDP: GDP does not directly consider foreign direct investment (FDI) flowing into or out of a country.
    • GNP: GNP considers the impact of FDI on the income of a country's residents, both from investments made within the country and from investments made by residents abroad.

  5. Measurement Approach:

    • GDP: GDP can be calculated using three different approaches: production, income, and expenditure approaches.
    • GNP: GNP is primarily calculated using the income approach, as it focuses on the income earned by residents from their economic activities.
 
 
 
 
For Prelims: GDP, GVA, FDI, GNP
For Mains: 1.Discuss the recent trends and challenges in India's GDP growth
2.Examine the role of the service sector in India's GDP growth
3.Compare and contrast the growth trajectories of India's GDP and GNP
 
 
Previous Year Questions
1.With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE, 2015)
1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b)
2.A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following? (UPSC CSE, 2015)
1. Slowing economic growth rate
2. Less equitable distribution of national income
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a)
Previous year UPSC Mains Question Covering similar theme:
Define potential GDP and explain its determinants. What are the factors that have been inhibiting India from realizing its potential GDP? (UPSC CSE GS3, 2020)
Explain the difference between computing methodology of India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) before the year 2015 and after the year 2015. (UPSC CSE GS3, 2021)
 
Source: indianexpress
 

FREE TRADE AGREEMENT 

1. Context

Amid the uncertainty over a trade deal with the US which is dampening investment and export prospects, India has made considerable progress in its trade deal negotiations with the European Union (EU)
 

2. About the Free Trade Agreement

  • A Free Trade Agreement (FTA) is an agreement between two or more countries to reduce or eliminate barriers to trade, such as tariffs, quotas, and subsidies.
  • FTAs can also include provisions on other issues, such as investment, intellectual property, and labour standards.
  • The goal of an FTA is to promote trade and economic growth between the signatory countries.
  • By reducing or eliminating trade barriers, FTAs can make it easier for businesses to export their goods and services to other countries, which can lead to increased production, employment, and innovation.

3. Types of Free Trade Agreement

  • Bilateral Free Trade Agreement (BFTA) involves two countries, aiming to promote trade and eliminate tariffs on goods and services between them.  It establishes a direct trade relationship, allowing for a more focused and tailored agreement between the two nations.
  • Multilateral Free Trade Agreement (MFTA) Involving three or more countries, an MFTA seeks to create a comprehensive trade bloc, promoting economic integration on a larger scale. It requires coordination among multiple parties, addressing diverse economic interests and fostering a broader regional economic landscape.
  • Regional Free Trade Agreement (RFTA) involves countries within a specific geographic region, aiming to enhance economic cooperation and integration within that particular area. It focuses on addressing regional economic challenges and fostering collaboration among neighbouring nations.
  • Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) involves a reciprocal reduction of tariffs and trade barriers between participating countries, granting preferential treatment to each other's goods and services. It allows countries to enjoy trading advantages with specific partners while maintaining autonomy in their trade policies with non-participating nations.
  • Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is a broad and advanced form of FTA that goes beyond traditional trade barriers, encompassing various economic aspects such as investment, intellectual property, and services. It aims for a more comprehensive economic partnership, encouraging deeper integration and collaboration between participating countries.
  • Customs Union While not strictly an FTA, a Customs Union involves the elimination of tariffs among member countries and the establishment of a common external tariff against non-member nations. It goes beyond standard FTAs by harmonizing external trade policies, creating a unified approach to trade with the rest of the world.
  • Free Trade Area (FTA) with Trade in Goods (TIG) and Trade in Services (TIS): Some FTAs specifically emphasize either trade in goods or trade in services, tailoring the agreement to the specific economic strengths and priorities of the participating countries. This approach allows nations to focus on areas where they have a comparative advantage, fostering specialization and efficiency.

4. India's Free Trade Agreements

India is a member of several free trade agreements (FTAs) and is currently negotiating others.  India's FTAs have helped to reduce trade barriers and promote trade and economic growth. They have also helped to attract foreign investment and create jobs. 

  • The South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was signed in 1995 by the seven countries of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). SAFTA aims to reduce or eliminate tariffs on trade between the member countries.
  • The India-Bangladesh FTA was signed in 2010 and came into force in 2011. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Sri Lanka FTA was signed in 1999 and came into force in 2000. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-ASEAN Free Trade Agreement was signed in 2002 and came into force in 2010. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Korea Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) was signed in 2010 and came into force in 2011. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement(CEPA) was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2023. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-UAE Comprehensive Partnership Agreement (CEPA) was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2022. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2022. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Malaysia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) was signed in 2010 and aims to enhance economic ties by addressing trade in goods and services, as well as investment and other areas of economic cooperation.
  • The India-Thailand Free Trade Agreement was signed in 2003 and focuses on reducing tariffs and promoting trade in goods and services between India and Thailand.
  • The India-Singapore Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) has been operational since 2005, this agreement covers trade in goods and services, as well as investment and intellectual property.
  • The India-Nepal Trade Treaty While not a comprehensive FTA, India and Nepal have a trade treaty that facilitates the exchange of goods between the two countries.
  • The India-Chile Preferential Trade Agreement was signed in 2006 and aims to enhance economic cooperation and reduce tariffs on certain products traded between India and Chile.

5.  India - UK Free Trade Agreement

5.1. Background

  • Both countries have agreed to avoid sensitive issues in the negotiations.
  • The interim (early harvest agreement) aims to achieve up to 65 per cent coverage for goods and up to 40 per cent coverage for services.
  • By the time the final agreement is inked, the coverage for goods is expected to go up to "90 plus a percentage" of goods.
  • India is also negotiating a similar early harvest agreement with Australia, which is supposed to set the stage for a long-pending Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement that both countries have been pursuing for nearly a decade.
  • While the commencement of negotiations does mark a step forward in the otherwise rigid stance adopted and when it comes to trade liberalisation, experts point to impediments and the potential for legal challenges going ahead.

5.2. GATT (General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs)

  • The exception to the rule is full-scale FTAs, subject to some conditions.
  • One rider, incorporated in Article XXIV.8 (b) of GATT, stipulates that a deal should aim to eliminate customs duties and other trade barriers on "Substantially all the trade" between the WTO member countries that are signatories to an FTA.
  • For this Agreement, a free-trade area shall be understood to mean a group of two or more customs territories in which the duties and other restrictive regulations of commerce are eliminated on substantially all the trade between the constituent territories in products originating in such territories.
  • It is often beneficial to negotiate the entire deal together, as an early harvest deal may reduce the incentive for one side to work towards a full FTA.
  • These agreements are not just about goods and services but also issues like investment.
  • If you are trying to weigh the costs and benefits, it is always better to have the larger picture in front of you.
  • In the case of the early harvest agreement inked with Thailand, automobile industry associations had complained that relaxations extended to Bangkok in the early harvest had reduced the incentive for Thailand to work towards a full FTA.
  • Early harvest agreements may serve the function of keeping trading partners interested as they promise some benefits without long delays, as India becomes known for long-drawn negotiations for FTAs.
  • Government emphasis on interim agreements may be tactical so that a deal may be achieved with minimum commitments and would allow for contentious issues to be resolved later.
 
For Prelims: Free Trade Agreement, India-U.K, Bilateral Free Trade Agreement, G-20 Summit, Agenda 2030, Covid-19 Pandemic, SAARC, General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs, Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement, Multilateral Free Trade Agreement, Regional Free Trade Agreement, Preferential Trade Agreement, Customs Union, 
For Mains: 
1. Evaluate the potential impact of the India-UK FTA on the Indian economy, considering both positive and negative aspects (250 Words)
2. Critically evaluate the significance of Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) in promoting trade and economic growth, considering their potential benefits and drawbacks. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. Consider the following countries:
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Which of the above are among the free-trade partners' of ASEAN? (UPSC 2018)
A. 1, 2, 4 and 5          B.  3, 4, 5 and 6      C.  1, 3, 4 and 5       D.  2, 3, 4 and 6
 
Answer: C
 

2. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if (UPSC 2018)

(a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
(b) Agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
(c) Poverty and unemployment increase.
(d) Imports grow faster than exports.

Answer: C

3. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following: (2010)

  1. Development of infrastructure facilities.
  2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources.
  3. Promotion of exports of services only.

Which of the above are the objectives of this Act?

(a) 1 and 2 only     (b) 3 only         (c) 2 and 3 only           (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

4. A “closed economy” is an economy in which (UPSC 2011)

(a) the money supply is fully controlled
(b) deficit financing takes place
(c) only exports take place
(d) neither exports nor imports take place

Answer: D

5. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only            (c) Both 1 and 2          (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
 
 Source: The Hindu
 
 

NATIONAL MEDICAL COMMISSION

 

1. Context

 
The National Medical Commission (NMC) has directed medical colleges not to submit separate proposals for recognition of MBBS seats, clarifying that the annual renewal of seats itself will be treated as recognition under the current regulatory framework

2. About the National Medical Commission

  • The National Medical Commission (NMC) is a statutory body in India that regulates medical education and medical professionals.
  • It was established by the National Medical Commission Act, 2019, which came into force on 25 September 2020.
  • The NMC replaced the Medical Council of India (MCI), which had been criticized for corruption and inefficiency.
  • The NMC is composed of 25 members, including doctors, medical educators, and government officials.
  • The members are appointed by the central government for a term of four years.

3. The role of the National Medical Commission

The NMC has several important roles, including:

  • The NMC sets the standards for medical colleges and courses and ensures that they are met. It also conducts regular inspections of medical colleges and takes action against those that do not meet the standards.
  • The NMC conducts several medical examinations, including the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) for undergraduate medical admissions and the National Eligibility Test (NET) for postgraduate medical admissions. It also issues medical licenses to qualified doctors.
  • The NMC approves the establishment of new medical colleges and assesses existing ones. It evaluates the infrastructure, faculty, curriculum, and other essential criteria before granting recognition to medical institutions.
  • The NMC assesses and accredits medical institutions and their programs to ensure they meet the prescribed standards for medical education. This process helps maintain and improve the quality of medical education.
  • The NMC maintains a register of all medical professionals in India. This register helps to ensure that only qualified doctors are practising in the country.
  • NMC supports and promotes research and innovation in the medical field. It encourages medical professionals to engage in research activities and contribute to advancing healthcare and medical knowledge.
  • The commission serves as an advisory body to the central and state governments on various matters related to medical education, healthcare policies, and the regulation of the medical profession.
  • The NMC enforces ethical standards in the medical profession. It also investigates complaints against medical professionals and takes disciplinary action against those who are found to have violated the ethical code.
  • The NMC redresses grievances from patients and medical professionals. It also provides information and guidance on medical education and practice.

4. Universal Health Coverage (UHC)

  • Universal health coverage (UHC) is the vision that all people have access to quality health services, where and when they need them, without financial hardship.
  • It is about ensuring that everyone can obtain the health care they need, without going broke.
  • UHC is a fundamental human right, and it is essential for sustainable development.
  • It is also a key component of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which aim to achieve a more just and equitable world by 2030.

UHC has three key dimensions:

  1. Everyone who needs health services should get them, not only those who can pay for them.
  2. People should not fall into debt paying for treatment and care.
  3.  Services should be adequate and effective.

To achieve UHC, countries need to have strong, efficient, and equitable health systems. This includes having a well-trained health workforce, accessible health facilities, and a reliable supply of essential medicines and vaccines.

5. The ratio of 100 MBBS seats for a 10 lakh population

  • The ratio of 100 MBBS seats for a 10 lakh population means that there should be 100 MBBS seats for every 1 million people.
  • This ratio was recommended by the National Medical Commission (NMC) in India in 2023 to ensure that there are enough doctors to meet the needs of the population.
  • The NMC's recommendation is based on the World Health Organization's (WHO) recommendation of 1 doctor per 1,000 people.
  • However, the WHO also acknowledges that this ratio may vary depending on the specific needs of a country or region.
  • In India, the current ratio of doctors to population is about 0.8 per 1,000 people.
  • This is below the WHO's recommended ratio, and it is also below the ratio of 100 MBBS seats per 1 million people.

6. The new guidelines by the National Medical Commission (NMC)

The NMC has released several new regulations, such as the National Medical Commission Registered Medical Practitioner (Professional Conduct) Regulations, 2023. These regulations set out the standards of professional conduct that medical practitioners in India must adhere to.
  • The NMC has introduced a new competency-based medical curriculum, which will be implemented in all medical colleges in India from the academic year 2023-24.
  • The new curriculum is focused on developing the skills and knowledge that doctors need to provide high-quality care to patients.
  • The NMC has streamlined the process for obtaining a medical license. Doctors can now apply for a license online, and the processing time has been reduced.
  • The NMC has established an online portal for medical professionals to register and renew their licenses. The portal also provides information on medical education and practice.
  • The NMC has increased the number of medical seats in India by 10%. This will help to increase the number of doctors in the country and improve the quality of healthcare.
  • The NMC has taken several steps to improve the quality of medical education and research in India. This includes conducting regular inspections of medical colleges and taking action against those that do not meet the standards. The NMC has also increased funding for medical research.
  • These guidelines outline the ethical standards that medical practitioners are expected to uphold in their practice.
 
For Prelims: National Medical Commission, National Medical Commission Registered Medical Practitioner (Professional Conduct) Regulations, 2023, Sustainable Development Goals, Universal Health Care, NET, NEET, Medical Council of India, 
For Mains:
1. Discuss the role of the National Medical Commission in regulating medical education and practice in India. (250 Words)

 

Previous Year Questions

1. Consider the following statements (UPSC CSE 2016)
1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the 'Club of Rome
2. Sustainable Development goals has to be achieved by the year 2030
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct
A. 1 Only            B. 2 Only                   C. Both 1 and 2                 D. Neither 1 Nor 2
 
Answer: B

2. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2022)

1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only      B. 3 only           C. 1 and 3 only           D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: B
 
Source: indianexpress
 
 

RETAIL INFLATION

 

1. Context

India’s retail inflation quickened to a three-month high of 1.33% in December 2025, which is still significantly below the lower comfort level of 2% set by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), official data released on Monday showed.

2. What is Inflation?

  • It is the rise in prices of goods and services within a particular economy wherein consumers' purchasing power decreases, and the value of the cash holdings erodes.
  • In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) measures inflation.
  • Some causes that lead to inflation are demand increases, reduction in supply, demand-supply gap, excess circulation of money, increase in input costs, devaluation of the currency, and rise in wages, among others.

3. Retail Inflation

Consumers often directly buy from retailers. So, the inflation experienced at retail reflects the actual price rise in the country. It also shows the cost of living better. In India, the index that reflects the inflation rate at the retail level is known as Consumer Price Index (CPI). Unlike WPI, CPI includes both goods and services. CPI is used to calculate the Dearness Allowance (DA) for government employees.

4. How Inflation is measured?

  • In India, inflation is primarily measured by two main indices- WPI (Wholesale Price Index) and CPI (Consumer Price Index), Which measures Wholesale and retail-level price changes, respectively.
  • The CPI calculates the difference in the price of commodities and services such as food, medical care, education, electronics, etc, which Indian consumers buy for use.
  • On the other hand, the goods or services sold by businesses to smaller businesses for selling further are captured by the WPI.
  • Both WPI (Wholesale Price Index) and CPI (Consumer Price Index) are used to measure inflation in India. 

5. What is the Inflation Target?

  • Under Section 45ZA, in consultation with the RBI Act, the Central Government determines the inflation target in terms of the Consumer Price Index (CPI), once in five years and notifies it in the Official Gazette.
  • Accordingly, on August 5, 2016, the Central Government notified in the Official Gazette 4 percent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from August 5, 2016, to March 31, 2021, with the upper tolerance limit of 6 percent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 percent.
  • On March 31, 2021, the Central Government retained the inflation target and the tolerance band for the next 5-year period-April 1, 2021 to March 31, 2026.
  • Section 45ZB of the RBI Act provides for the constitution of a six-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) to determine the policy rate required to achieve the inflation target.

6. Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)

  • The MPC is a statutory and institutionalized framework under the RBI Act, of 1934, for maintaining price stability, keeping in mind the objective of growth. It was created in 2016.
  • It was created to bring transparency and accountability in deciding monetary policy.
  • MPC determines the policy interest rate required to achieve the inflation target.
  • The committee comprises six members and Governor RBI acts as an ex-officio chairman. Three members are from RBI and three are selected by the government. The inflation target is to be set once every five years. It is set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India.
  • The current inflation target is pegged at 4% with -2/+2 tolerance till March 31, 2021.

7. What Caused the drop in Inflation?

  • Retail Inflation or price gains based on the Consumer Price Index, slowed to 6.77 % last month, from September's 7.41%, aided by an appreciable deceleration in food price inflation.
  • The year-on-year inflation based on the Consumer Food Price Index eased by almost 160 basis points in October, to 7.01%, from the preceding month's 8.60%, helped by a 'decline in prices of vegetables, fruits, pulses and oils, and fats', the Government said.
  • With the food and beverages sub-index representing almost 46% of the CPI's weight, the slowdown in food price gains understandably steered overall inflation lower even as price gains in three other essential categories, namely clothing, and footwear, housing, and health remained either little changed from September or quickened.
  • Inflation at the Wholesale Prices Level also continued to decelerate, with the headline reading easing into single digits for the first time in 19 months. A favorable base effect along with a distinct cooling in international prices of commodities including crude oil and steel amid gathering uncertainty in advanced economies was largely instrumental in tempering wholesale price gains.

8. Recent Measures by the Government

To soften the prices of edible oils and pulses, tariffs on imported items have been rationalized from time to time. The stock limits on edible oils are also maintained, to avoid hoarding.
The Government has taken trade-related measures on wheat and rice to keep domestic supplies steady and curb the rise in prices.
The impact of these measures is expected to be felt more significantly in the coming months.

For Prelims & Mains

 

For Prelims: Inflation, MPC, CPI, WPI, food Inflation, RBI, Headline inflation, Core inflation

For Mains: 
 1. Explain the concept of inflation and its impact on an economy. Discuss the various causes of inflation and the measures that can be taken to control it, with specific reference to India. (250 Words)
2. What are the challenges and opportunities associated with managing inflation in India? Evaluate the effectiveness of recent policy measures in addressing inflationary pressures and maintaining price stability. Suggest strategies for sustainable economic growth while managing inflation risks. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. Consider the following statements:  (UPSC 2021)
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his natural power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
A. 1 and 2 only    B.  2 and 3 only     C. 1 and 3 only     D. 1, 2 and 3
 
 
2. Concerning the Indian economy, consider the following: (UPSC 2015)
  1. Bank rate
  2. Open Market Operations
  3. Public debt
  4. Public revenue

Which of the above is/are component(s) of Monetary Policy?

(a) 1 only   (b) 2, 3 and 4    (c) 1 and 2     (d) 1, 3 and 4

 

3. An increase in Bank Rate generally indicates: (UPSC 2013)

(a) Market rate of interest is likely to fall.
(b) Central bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks.
(c) Central bank is following an easy money policy.
(d) Central bank is following a tight money policy.
 

4. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? (UPSC 2017) 

1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only      B.  1 and 2 only      C. 3 only      D. 2 and 3 only

 
5. Read the following passage and answer the question that follows. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Policymakers and media have placed the blame for skyrocketing food prices on a variety of factors, including high fuel prices, bad weather in key food producing countries, and the diversion of land to non-food production. Increased emphasis, however, has been placed on a surge in demand for food from the most populous emerging economics. It seems highly probable that mass consumption in these countries could be well poised to create a food crisis.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: (UPSC 2021)
1. Oil producing countries are one of the reasons for high food prices.
2. If there is a food crisis in the world in the near future, it will be in the emerging economies. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
A. 1 only        B. 2 only           C. Both 1 and 2         D.  Neither 1 nor 2
 
 
6. India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons? (UPSC 2011)
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30.
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 
A. 1 and 2 only          B. 2 and 3 only        C. 1 and 3 only          D. 1, 2 and 3
 
 
7. With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct? (UPSC 2015) 
A. Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only
B. The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
C. Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
D. Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
 
 
8. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2016)
1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017
2. The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.
3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $ 1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 3 only     B.  2 only        C. 2 and 3 only        D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answers: 1-C, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A, 5-D, 6-B, 6-C, 7-B
 
 
Source: The Hindu
 

ADITYA-L1 

1. Context 

The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on Saturday said its Aditya-L1 solar mission had provided new insights into how a powerful solar storm could impact earth’s magnetic shield.

2. About Aditya-L1

  • Aditya-L1's core objective revolves around positioning a spacecraft in the 'L1' spot in space, marking India's inaugural dedicated solar mission.
  • This mission follows ISRO's successful AstroSat (2015), making it the agency's second astronomy observatory-class endeavour.
Image Source: ISRO

3. A Paradigm Shift in Solar Observations

  • India's prior solar observations relied on ground-based telescopes and data from international solar missions.
  • With ageing ground-based telescopes, India lacked a modern observational facility.
  • Aditya-L1 seeks to address this gap and provide comprehensive solar data, advancing solar physics research.

4. Space weather alerts

  • Astronomy-based space missions are gaining prominence due to their potential to inspire youth and contribute to scientific advancements.
  • These missions, although time-consuming in development, play a crucial role in expanding our understanding of celestial phenomena.
  • Solar flares, Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs), and solar winds can disrupt space weather and impact satellite-dependent operations, such as telecommunications and power grids.
  • Aditya-L1's role in studying the Sun is pivotal in enhancing our ability to predict and manage space weather disruptions.
  • While AstroSat remains operational after eight years, Aditya-L1 presents a promising path for future Indian astronomy missions.
  • With seven payloads, including instruments dedicated to solar observation, Aditya-L1 aims to advance our understanding of solar eruptions and flares.
  • Solar physics now demands multiwavelength astronomy to comprehensively study solar events.
  • Coordinating data from various instruments on Aditya-L1 is crucial to unravelling the complexities of solar phenomena.
  • Aditya-L1 seeks to provide user-friendly information for safeguarding satellite-dependent operations.
  • It may generate space weather alerts based on data obtained, enhancing our preparedness for space weather disturbances.

5. The Significance of L1

  • Aditya-L1 embarks on a journey of nearly 100 days to reach L1, a location between the Earth and the Sun.
  • This journey is shorter than Mangalyaan's voyage to Mars in 2014.
  • After departing Earth's gravity, Aditya-L1 will enter a heliocentric path before reaching the L1 orbit.
  • Six of Aditya-L1's payloads will remain inactive until approximately January 6, 2024, when the spacecraft is expected to enter a 'halo' orbit near L1.
  • The activation of these payloads will enable the calibration of instruments before the commencement of scientific data collection.
  • The L1 point in space, where Aditya-L1 will position itself, is one of the five Lagrange Points existing between any two celestial bodies in space.
  • Being at L1 allows the spacecraft to make continuous observations with minimal energy expenditure.
  • L1 is favoured for its unobstructed view of the Sun, making it ideal for solar research.

12. The Way Forward

  • The Aditya-L1 mission represents a significant step in India's space exploration journey, offering the nation a unique opportunity to study the Sun comprehensively and contribute to space weather predictions.
  • Positioned at the L1 point, this mission holds great promise for advancing our understanding of the Sun and its impact on Earth's space environment.
 
For Prelims: ISRO, Aditya L1, AstroSat, Coronal Mass Ejections, 'halo' orbit, 
For Mains: 
1. Describe the significance of the Aditya-L1 mission in the context of India's space exploration efforts. Explain how it differs from India's previous solar experiments. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2018)
1. PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 only
Answer: A
 
2. ISRO is related to: (SSC JE EE 2020) 
A. space research       B. agricultural research       C. seed research          D. marine research
 
Answer: A
 
3. Aditya L1 is a ______. (ISRO IPRC Technical Assistant Mechanical 2016) 
A. Long-range missile
B. Rocket to moon
C. Spacecraft project
D. Light combat aircraft
 
Answer: C
 
4. With reference to 'Astrosat', the astronomical observatory launched by India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2016)
1. Other than USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space.
2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only           B.  2 only          C. Both 1 and 2         D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer: D
 
5. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (UPSC 2022)
1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only   
B. 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only   
C.  1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only   
D.  1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
 
Answer: C
 
Source: The Indian Express
 

JALLIKATTU

1. Context

The traditional Pasuvula Panduga, which has recently come to be known as ‘Andhra Jallikattu’, was organised with enthusiasm at Pullaiahgaripalle village of Chandragiri mandal of Tirupati district.

2. What is Jallikattu?

  • Jallikattu, a traditional bull-taming sport deeply rooted in Tamil culture, is particularly popular in the districts of Madurai, Tiruchirappalli, Theni, Pudukkottai, and Dindigul, collectively known as the Jallikattu belt.
  • Celebrated during the Tamil harvest festival, Pongal, in the second week of January, Jallikattu boasts a rich history spanning over 2,000 years.
  • Beyond its competitive aspect, Jallikattu serves as a cultural event honouring bull owners who meticulously rear these animals for breeding purposes.
  • The sport involves contestants attempting to tame a bull for a prize, with the bull owner emerging victorious if the contestant fails.
  • While the sport's origins can be traced back to an era when agriculture was heavily reliant on animal power, the mechanization of the farm sector has diminished the monetary benefits for bull owners.
  • Nonetheless, Jallikattu events continue to attract participants and spectators alike, with prizes evolving to include grinders, refrigerators, and small furniture in addition to traditional dhotis, towels, betel leaves, bananas, and a cash prize of Rs 101.

3. Significance of Jallikattu in Tamil Culture

  • Jallikattu holds a pivotal role in Tamil culture, especially for the peasant community, as it serves as a traditional method to safeguard their pure-breed native bulls.
  • In an era dominated by artificial processes in cattle breeding, Jallikattu emerges as a crucial means to preserve male animals that would otherwise find utility solely in meat production or ploughing.
  • The native cattle breeds integral to Jallikattu, such as Kangayam, Pulikulam, Umbalachery, Barugur, and Malai Maadu, assume cultural prominence.
  • These breeds not only contribute to the essence of the event but also elevate the status of their owners, who command local respect for their role in preserving these premium breeds.
4. Legal Contests Surrounding Jallikattu
  • Animal rights concerns have sparked legal battles surrounding Jallikattu since the early 1990s in India.
  • A 1991 notification issued by the Environment Ministry prohibited the training and exhibition of bears, monkeys, tigers, panthers, and dogs.
  • This notification was challenged by the Indian Circus Organization in the Delhi High Court, leading to the exclusion of dogs from the ban in 1998.
  • In 2007, Jallikattu came under legal scrutiny when the Animal Welfare Board of India and the animal rights group PETA filed petitions in the Supreme Court against Jallikattu and bullock cart races.
  • However, the Tamil Nadu government managed to circumvent the ban by enacting a law in 2009, which received the Governor's approval.
  • The issue resurfaced in 2011 when the central government under the UPA regime added bulls to the list of animals prohibited for training and exhibition.
  • In May 2014, just days before the BJP's election victory, the Supreme Court banned Jallikattu, citing the 2011 notification.

5. The Current Legal Status of Jallikattu

  • The legality of Jallikattu remains a subject of ongoing legal debate, with a case currently pending before the Supreme Court of India.
  • While the Tamil Nadu government has legalized Jallikattu events within the state, this decision has been challenged in court.
  • In 2017, following the death of Chief Minister J Jayalalithaa, massive protests erupted across Tamil Nadu in opposition to the Supreme Court's ban on Jallikattu.
  • These protests, culminating in a 15-day-long uprising in Chennai, highlighted the cultural significance of Jallikattu for the people of Tamil Nadu.
  • In response to these protests, the Tamil Nadu government issued an ordinance amending the central Act, effectively legalizing Jallikattu within the state.
  • This ordinance was subsequently ratified by the President of India. However, animal rights group PETA challenged the constitutionality of the state's move, leading to the current legal impasse.
  • The central question at the heart of the Jallikattu debate is whether the tradition can be protected as a fundamental cultural right under Article 29(1) of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right for any distinct group of citizens within India to conserve their language, script, or culture.
  • Similar to Tamil Nadu, the state of Karnataka has also enacted legislation to legalize a comparable bull-taming sport called Kambala.
  • While Maharashtra attempted to do the same, its efforts were initially challenged in court before eventually being approved as law.
  • Despite these legal developments, Jallikattu remains banned in all other Indian states, including Andhra Pradesh, Punjab, and Maharashtra, due to the 2014 Supreme Court ban order.
  • The ongoing legal battles surrounding Jallikattu underscore the complex interplay between cultural traditions, animal welfare concerns, and constitutional rights.
 
 
For Prelims: Jallikattu, Kambala, Pongal, Harvest Festivals, Animal Welfare Board of India, PETA, Article 29(1)
For Mains: 
1. Discuss the potential solutions to address the animal welfare concerns raised against Jallikattu while also ensuring the preservation of the sport's cultural heritage. (250 Words)
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. 'Jallikkattu', which was in the news for some time, is a ________. (MP Patwari 2017) 
A. dance form of Karnataka
B. boat race festival of Kerala
C. village carnival of Andhra Pradesh
D. traditional bull chasing sport of Tamil Nadu
 
2. ‘Jallikattu’, is a sport, popular in:- (West Bengal Police SI 2018) 
A. Karnataka       B. Tamil Nadu          C. Andhra Pradesh          D. Kerala
 
3. 'Kambala race' a traditional buffalo race is being held in _______. (Official Soldier GD 2021)
A. Karnataka       B. Tamil Nadu          C. Kerala            D. Telangana
 
4. In which of the following festivals of Karnataka is the buffalo race organised by the farming communities? (DSSSB Junior Secretariat Assistant 2022) 
A. Pattadakal         B. Kambala         C. Ugadi        D. Hampi
 
5. Pongal festival is celebrated for four days in Tamil Nadu. What is the fourth day of Pongal called? (SSC CGL 2020) 
A. Mattu Pongal          B.  Thai Pongal          C. Bhogi Pongal          D. Kaanum Pongal
 
6. Pongal is a festival of which state? (HSSC JE Civil 2018)
A. Andhra Pradesh        B. Tamil Nadu         C. Madhya Pradesh      D. Kerala
 
7. Consider the following pairs: (UPSC 2018)
Tradition                                    State
1. Chapchar Kut festival           Mizoram
2. Khongjom Parba ballad        Manipur
3. Thang-Ta dance                    Sikkim
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only         B. 1 and 2      C.  3 only          D. 2 and 3
 
8. Which of the following is the popular harvest festival of Meghalaya? (Delhi Police Constable 2020)
A. Hampi        B. Chapchar Kut           C.Wangala          D. Losar
 
9. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2014)
1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.
3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  
A. 1 only          B. 2 and 3 only       C.  2 only           D. 1, 2 and 3
 
10. People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA) has named whom as its Person of the Year 2021? (SSC CGL 2022)
A. Deepika Padukone        B. Anushka Sharma       C. Alia Bhatt     D. Shraddha Kapoor 
 
11. PETA stands for '_______ for the Ethical Treatment of Animals' (KVS Junior Secretariat Assistant (LDC) 2018) 
A. Platform   B. People     C. Provision         D. Prospects
 
12. Article 29 of the Constitution of India grants which of the following rights? (NTPC Tier I 2016) 
A. Protection in respect of conviction for offences
B. Prohibition of trafficking of human beings
C. Protection of interests of minorities
D. Prohibition of taxes on religious grounds
 
13. Which Article of the Constitution of India states that no citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State on receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them? (WBCS Prelims 2016)
A. Article 26          B. Article 27     C. Article 28       D. Article 29
 
Answers: 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-B, 5-D, 6-B, 7-B, 8-C, 9-B, 10-C, 11-B, 12-C, 13-D                    
 
Mains
1. What are the challenges to our cultural practices in the name of Secularism? (UPSC 2019)
 
Source: The Indian Express
 
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