NATIONAL GREEN TRIBUNAL
1. Context
2. What is National Green Tribunal (NGT)?
- The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a specialized judicial body established in India to handle cases related to environmental protection and conservation.
- It was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, of 2010, and its primary objective is to effectively and expeditiously address environmental disputes and promote sustainable development.
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With the establishment of the NGT, India became the third country in the world to set up a specialized environmental tribunal, only after Australia and New Zealand, and the first developing country to do so.
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NGT is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same.
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The NGT has five places of sittings, New Delhi is the Principal place of sitting, and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai are the other four.
3. Structure of the National Green Tribunal (NGT)
- Chairperson: The NGT is headed by a full-time Chairperson who is a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India. The Chairperson is responsible for the overall administration and functioning of the tribunal.
- Judicial Members: The NGT consists of judicial members who are retired judges of either the Supreme Court or a High Court. These members have extensive legal knowledge and experience in handling environmental matters.
- Expert Members: The tribunal also includes expert members who possess expertise in areas such as environmental science, ecology, hydrology, and forestry. These members provide valuable technical insights and guidance in the resolution of environmental disputes.
- The NGT is organized into multiple benches located across different regions of India. These benches are responsible for hearing cases specific to their respective jurisdictions. Each bench is headed by a judicial member and consists of one or more expert members, as required.
4. What are the Important Landmark Judgements of NGT?
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has delivered several landmark judgments that have had a significant impact on environmental protection and conservation in India. Here are some of the important landmark judgments delivered by the NGT:
- Vardhaman Kaushik v. Union of India (2013): This case dealt with the issue of groundwater depletion due to illegal extraction by industries in Uttar Pradesh. The NGT directed the closure of industries that were extracting groundwater without proper permissions and ordered the payment of compensation for environmental damage caused.
- Alembic Pharmaceuticals Ltd. v. Rohit Prajapati & Ors. (2014): In this case, the NGT ordered the closure of an industrial unit in Gujarat for releasing untreated effluents into a water body, causing pollution and harm to the environment and public health.
- M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (2014): The NGT issued a landmark judgment in this case regarding the pollution of the Yamuna River. It directed several measures to clean and rejuvenate the river, including the establishment of sewage treatment plants and the regulation of industries contributing to pollution.
- Subhash Chandra Sharma v. Union of India (2015): This case focused on the issue of air pollution caused by solid waste burning in open areas. The NGT imposed a ban on burning waste in open spaces and directed municipal authorities to take measures to manage waste effectively.
- Raghu Nath Sharma v. State of Himachal Pradesh (2016): The NGT ordered the closure of illegal hotels and structures in the eco-sensitive Rohtang Pass area of Himachal Pradesh to protect the fragile Himalayan ecosystem.
- Yamuna Muktikaran Abhiyan v. Union of India (2017): This case dealt with the rejuvenation of the Yamuna River and led to the NGT issuing directions to clean and restore the river, including measures to prevent encroachments and pollution.
- M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (2017): The NGT banned the use of disposable plastic in Delhi and the National Capital Region (NCR) and directed authorities to take steps to prevent the use and sale of such plastic.
- Shailesh Singh v. Hotel Holiday Regency (2019): In this case, the NGT imposed heavy fines on a hotel in Shimla, Himachal Pradesh, for causing air pollution by running diesel generators without proper emission control measures.
- Subhash Chandran vs. Tamil Nadu Pollution Control Board (2020): This judgment highlighted the importance of safeguarding coastal areas and wetlands from unauthorized construction and development activities, emphasizing the need for stringent environmental norms.
- In Re: Report by Comptroller and Auditor General of India (2021): The NGT directed the formulation of guidelines for the regulation of groundwater extraction and management to prevent overexploitation and depletion.
5. What is a dissolved oxygen level?
- Dissolved oxygen (DO) level refers to the concentration of oxygen gas (O2) that is dissolved in a liquid, typically water.
- It is a crucial parameter in aquatic ecosystems as it directly affects the survival and well-being of aquatic organisms.
- In natural water bodies like lakes, rivers, and oceans, oxygen dissolves from the atmosphere through processes such as diffusion and aeration.
- Aquatic plants, algae, and phytoplankton also contribute to the production of oxygen through photosynthesis. However, the level of dissolved oxygen can fluctuate based on various factors, including temperature, altitude, water flow, pollution, and organic matter decomposition.
- Dissolved oxygen is essential for aquatic organisms because they rely on it for their respiration process, similar to how animals breathe oxygen from the air.
- Insufficient levels of dissolved oxygen can lead to hypoxia, a condition where organisms are deprived of the oxygen they need to survive. This can result in stress, reduced growth, reproductive issues, and even mortality in aquatic species.
Different species of aquatic organisms have varying tolerance levels for dissolved oxygen. For example:
- Fish and other aquatic animals often require dissolved oxygen levels between 4 to 6 milligrams per liter (mg/L) to thrive.
- Some species of fish, insects, and other aquatic organisms can tolerate lower levels of dissolved oxygen, even below 2 mg/L, while others require higher concentrations.
6. What are chemical oxygen demand and biological oxygen demand?
Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD):
- COD is a measure of the amount of oxygen required to chemically oxidize and break down organic and inorganic substances present in water.
- It provides an indication of the total amount of pollutants that can be chemically oxidized by a strong oxidizing agent. COD is expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/L) of oxygen consumed.
- COD is useful in assessing the overall pollution load in a water sample, including both biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances.
- It is commonly used for industrial wastewater monitoring, as it provides a rapid estimation of the organic content and potential pollution levels. However, COD does not differentiate between different types of pollutants or indicate the potential impact on aquatic life.
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD):
- BOD measures the amount of dissolved oxygen consumed by microorganisms (bacteria) during the biological degradation of organic matter in water.
- It is a key indicator of the level of biodegradable organic pollutants present in water. BOD is expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/L) of oxygen consumed over a specific time period, usually 5 days (BODâ‚…).
- BOD is particularly important in assessing the impact of organic pollution on aquatic ecosystems.
- High BOD levels indicate that a water body may have a significant amount of organic pollutants, which can lead to oxygen depletion as microorganisms break down the organic matter. This oxygen depletion, known as hypoxia, can harm aquatic organisms and disrupt the ecological balance of the water body.
Comparing BOD and COD:
- BOD primarily measures the biologically degradable organic matter and provides information about the potential impact on aquatic life.
- COD measures both biologically and chemically degradable pollutants, giving an indication of the overall pollution load and oxygen demand.
- BOD is a more specific and ecologically relevant parameter, but it takes longer to determine (5 days), while COD can be measured more quickly.
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For Prelims: National Green Tribunal (NGT), National Green Tribunal Act, of 2010, Dissolved oxygen (DO), Chemical Oxygen demand (COD), and Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD).
For Mains: 1. Discuss the significance of Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) and Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) as critical indicators for assessing water pollution and quality. (250 Words)
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Previous year Question1. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)? (UPSC 2018)
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by the executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
2. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India? (UPSC 2012)
1. Right of a healthy environment, construed as a part of the Right to life under Article 21
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
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MANGROVES
- Mangroves are a special category of vegetation made up of salt-tolerant trees and shrubs that typically grow in coastal zones where freshwater from rivers and streams mixes with seawater — specifically in estuarine and intertidal environments.
- These plants are known for their specialized breathing or aerial roots and thick, waxy leaves, and they belong to the category of flowering plants.
- Mangroves flourish in regions that receive high annual rainfall ranging from 1,000 to 3,000 mm and have temperatures between 26°C and 35°C.
- A remarkable feature of mangroves is their method of reproduction. Their seeds, called propagules, begin germinating while still attached to the parent plant — a process termed vivipary.
- Once matured, these seedlings fall into the water and eventually establish themselves in muddy, sediment-rich environments. This adaptation enhances their survival in highly saline and unstable coastal conditions.
- Species like the red mangrove (Rhizophora), Avicennia marina, and the grey mangrove are among the commonly found varieties. These ecosystems are typically found in marshes and swamps and are classified as littoral forests, thriving in saline or brackish waters along coastal belts.
Mangrove Distribution in India
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- Mangrove forests are found across 123 countries and territories, predominantly within tropical and subtropical latitudes.
- According to the Indian State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023, India’s mangrove cover stands at approximately 4,992 square kilometers, making up about 0.15% of the nation’s total geographical area.
- West Bengal leads with the most extensive mangrove area, particularly in the Sundarbans. Gujarat ranks second, with about 1,177 sq. km, especially concentrated around the Gulf of Kutch and Gulf of Khambhat. Within Gujarat, Kutch district alone accounts for nearly 794 sq. km, the highest in the state.
- Other Indian states with significant mangrove ecosystems include Andhra Pradesh (notably in the Godavari-Krishna delta), Kerala, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
- The Sundarbans, extending across India and Bangladesh, represent the largest continuous mangrove forest on the planet and have been designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
- This biodiverse region is home to iconic species such as the Royal Bengal tiger and Gangetic dolphin. In contrast, Bhitarkanika, the second largest mangrove area in India, is well known for hosting Olive Ridley turtles and saltwater crocodiles, both considered ecologically significant and vulnerable species
- Coastal Protection (Natural Bio-shields):
Mangroves serve as a natural buffer against coastal hazards. Often termed ‘bio-shields’, these dense root systems absorb and reduce the intensity of storm surges, tidal waves, and high winds. They effectively minimize soil erosion and protect vulnerable coastlines from the impacts of climate-induced disasters. - Carbon Sequestration:
These forests are highly effective carbon sinks, meaning they absorb more carbon dioxide than they emit. According to UNESCO, one hectare of mangrove can store approximately 3,754 tonnes of carbon, equivalent to removing over 2,650 vehicles from the road for a year. - Unlike other trees that release stored carbon when they die, mangroves trap carbon in the underlying soil, where it can remain locked for thousands of years, even if the vegetation above is destroyed. This makes mangroves uniquely effective in combating global warming and contributing to long-term climate stability
- Livelihood and Economic Contributions:
Being located in coastal areas, mangroves are closely tied to the livelihoods of local communities. Activities such as fishing, aquaculture, collection of honey, non-timber forest produce, and small-scale boating are directly supported by these ecosystems. - Furthermore, mangroves support the growth of commercially valuable species like fish, shrimps, and prawns, making them critical for the blue economy
- Biodiversity Hotspots:
Mangrove ecosystems are teeming with life and support complex, interdependent communities. They act as nursery grounds for marine species, shelter for terrestrial animals like monkeys, deer, and birds, and feeding grounds for a variety of organisms. - Their flowers provide nectar for honeybees, while the dense vegetation offers refuge for endangered and migratory species alike. Some mangrove zones even support unusual inhabitants such as kangaroos in other parts of the world
- As per UNESCO, mangrove forests—despite their ecological and economic importance—are vanishing at a rate three to five times faster than other global forest types. This alarming trend has far-reaching environmental and socio-economic consequences. Over the past four decades, global mangrove cover has been reduced by half.
- Multiple human-induced pressures such as deforestation, pollution, and the construction of dams significantly endanger these ecosystems.
- Additionally, climate change has emerged as a critical threat, intensifying the risks through rising sea levels and the increased frequency of extreme weather events like storms and cyclones.
- Studies suggest that as sea levels rise, mangroves naturally migrate inland. However, this landward shift is increasingly being obstructed by urban development, human settlements, and industrial infrastructure, leaving the mangroves with no space to adapt.
- This "coastal squeeze" could eventually lead to their irreversible decline, hampering both conservation and restoration efforts.
- According to research based on the IUCN Red List of Ecosystems, nearly one-third (33%) of the world’s mangrove habitats are currently at risk due to the impacts of climate change.
- The study highlights that preserving healthy mangrove ecosystems is vital to climate resilience, as they can better adapt to rising seas and provide natural protection to inland areas from storm surges, hurricanes, and cyclones
- Mangrove ecosystems are under significant stress due to rapid urban expansion, conversion of coastal areas for agriculture and shrimp farming, and the detrimental effects of rising sea surface temperatures. Additionally, unsustainable tourism activities have further exacerbated the degradation of these fragile habitats.
- On a positive note, the role of mangroves in climate change mitigation and adaptation is increasingly being acknowledged worldwide. Among notable international efforts are the Mangroves for the Future (MFF) initiative and the Mangrove Alliance for Climate, both of which focus on conservation and resilience-building.
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Government Initiatives In India, several government-led programmes have emerged to promote mangrove protection. These include:
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Despite these efforts, there is a pressing need to go beyond schemes and adopt a multi-pronged conservation strategy. This includes:
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6. Way forward
Identifying local and regional challenges is essential to developing targeted solutions. Ultimately, there is a need for a unified global action plan with clearly defined objectives to ensure the long-term survival of mangrove ecosystems and promote a sustainable and climate-resilient future
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For Prelims: IUCN Red List of Ecosystems, Mangroves for the Future (MFF), Mangrove Ecosystems and Their Distribution in India
For Mains: GS III - Environment and ecology
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Previous Year Questions
1.Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest? (UPSC CSE 2015) (a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh (b) South-West Bengal (c) Southern Saurashtra (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2.With reference to the mangroves, consider the following statements: 1. They act as a buffer between the ocean and the land. 2. They prevent erosion by absorbing wave action. 3. Mangroves require carbon dioxide for their roots to survive. 4. Pichavaram Mangrove Forest is located in West Bengal. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four 3.With reference to the Sundarbans mangrove forest, consider the following statements: 1. It lies on the delta of the Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna rivers on the Bay of Bengal. 2. It is a World Heritage site which was inscribed in 1987. 3. It lies on the India-Myanmar border. 4. It is the world’s second-largest contiguous mangrove forest. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Answers: 1-d 2-b 3-b Mains Discuss the causes of depletion of mangroves and explain their importance in maintaining coastal ecology. (UPSC CSE 2019) |
FOREIGN PORTFOLIO INVESTMENT (FPI)
- Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) are overseas entities or individuals who invest in the financial assets of a country, such as shares, bonds, debentures, mutual funds, or other securities, without having direct control over the businesses they invest in.
- Unlike Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), which involves establishing a lasting interest in an enterprise, setting up facilities, or acquiring a controlling stake, FPIs are primarily concerned with earning returns from the movement of capital markets.
- Essentially, FPIs put their money into a country’s stock market or debt market to benefit from short- or medium-term price changes, dividends, or interest income.
- Their investment is often guided by considerations like the stability of the economy, growth prospects, interest rates, and global liquidity conditions.
- Because the money can be moved in and out relatively quickly, FPIs are often described as “hot money,” highlighting the fact that such investments can be highly volatile.
- In India, FPIs are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which set the rules regarding eligibility, permissible investment limits, and reporting requirements
- These investors can include foreign institutional investors such as pension funds, insurance companies, hedge funds, asset management companies, or even individual investors from abroad.
- Their participation is significant because it not only provides additional capital for companies and governments but also increases liquidity and depth in the financial markets.
- However, large-scale entry or exit of FPIs can impact stock prices, exchange rates, and overall financial stability
- That’s a very relevant follow-up. The key difference between Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) and Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) lies in the nature, purpose, and level of control over the assets being invested in.
- Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) refers to investment in a country’s financial markets—such as equities, bonds, or other securities—without seeking management control or a lasting interest in the company.
- An FPI is more like buying shares on the stock exchange: the investor becomes a shareholder but has little or no say in how the company is run.
- The intention is usually to earn returns from dividends, interest, or capital gains, and the money can move in and out relatively quickly depending on market conditions. Because of this, FPIs are generally considered more volatile and speculative in nature.
- On the other hand, Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) involves investing directly in productive assets of another country, such as setting up factories, infrastructure projects, offices, or acquiring a significant stake in a company to gain management influence.
- The idea here is to establish a long-term business presence and contribute to the host country’s economic activities.
- FDI is more stable because it ties the investor to physical assets and operational responsibilities, making it less prone to sudden withdrawal compared to FPI.
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In short:
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- FPI brings in foreign capital into a country’s stock and debt markets, which increases the liquidity and depth of those markets. This makes it easier for domestic companies and governments to raise funds, since more investors are available to buy their securities.
- It also improves market efficiency, as the entry of sophisticated foreign investors often brings in better practices in valuation, analysis, and corporate governance.
- For the broader economy, FPIs are an important source of foreign exchange inflow. This helps strengthen the balance of payments, stabilizes the currency in times of pressure, and gives policymakers more room to finance trade deficits.
- For emerging economies like India, FPIs signal international confidence in the domestic economy. When foreign investors channel funds into Indian markets, it reflects their positive outlook on India’s growth potential, macroeconomic stability, and regulatory environment.
- However, FPIs are equally significant because of their volatility. Since FPI money can be withdrawn at short notice—depending on global interest rates, risk perception, or geopolitical conditions—large inflows or sudden outflows can cause swings in stock markets and currency values.
- For example, massive withdrawals of FPI funds may lead to a depreciation of the rupee and stock market instability, affecting both investors and the wider economy.
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The Foreign Capital Paradox refers to the puzzling observation that capital (money for investment) does not always flow from rich countries to poor countries, even though economic theory suggests it should.
In theory, poorer countries, being capital-scarce, should offer higher returns on investment compared to rich countries where capital is already abundant and returns are relatively lower. Based on this logic, one would expect foreign capital—through FDI, FPI, or loans—to flow heavily into developing or low-income nations, helping them grow faster. This is consistent with the predictions of the neoclassical growth model.
However, in reality, the flow of capital is often the opposite. A large share of global investment moves among already rich, developed nations rather than toward poorer countries. Many developing countries actually see capital outflows instead of inflows, despite their greater need for funds. This mismatch between theory and reality is what economists call the “foreign capital paradox.”
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One of the best-known explanations for this paradox comes from Robert Lucas (1990), often referred to as the Lucas Paradox. He argued that capital doesn’t flow as expected due to several factors:
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For Prelims: Balance of payments (BOP), foreign portfolio investors (FPI), foreign direct investment(FDI)
For Prelims: GS III - Economy
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Previous Year Questions
1.Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly? (UPSC CSE 2019) (a) Certificate of Deposit (b) Commercial Paper (c) Promissory Note (d) Participatory Note Answer (d)
Participatory Notes (P-notes) are financial instruments issued by registered Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to overseas investors who wish to invest in Indian stock markets without directly registering with SEBI. They are essentially offshore derivative instruments, linked to Indian securities. For example, if an FPI buys shares of Infosys in India, it can issue a P-note to an overseas investor. That overseas investor will gain the benefits (returns) from Infosys’ shares without directly owning them in India. This route is often used by investors who want to save time and avoid the regulatory process of registration, though SEBI keeps a close watch on P-notes due to concerns about transparency and misuse |
OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES
1. Context
The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) has recommended the exclusion of 35 communities, mostly Muslim, from West Bengal’s Central list of Other Backward Classes (OBCs). This information was revealed in the winter session of Parliament this year by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, which added that this advice was tendered by the Commission in January this year
2. About the sub-categorization of OBCs
- The concept of sub-categorization of OBCs involves creating sub-groups within the larger OBC category for reservation purposes.
- Currently, OBCs are granted 27% reservation in jobs and education under the central government.
- However, there has been a debate over the equitable distribution of these benefits among the various OBC communities.
- Some argue that a few affluent communities within the Central List of OBCs have disproportionately secured the majority of the reservation benefits.
- Creating sub-categories aims to ensure a fairer distribution of representation among all OBC communities.
3. The Rohini Commission's Brief
- To examine the extent of inequitable distribution of reservation benefits among the OBC castes or communities included in the Central List.
- To devise a scientific approach for sub-categorization within the OBCs, including defining the mechanism, criteria, norms, and parameters.
- To identify respective castes, communities, sub-castes, or synonyms in the Central List of OBCs and classify them into their respective sub-categories.
- To study the Central List of OBCs and rectify any repetitions, ambiguities, inconsistencies, and errors.
- The Commission's progress has faced various challenges, including the absence of data on the population of different communities to compare their representation in jobs and education.
- Initially, the Commission had requested an all-India survey to estimate the caste-wise population of OBCs but later decided against it.
- Additionally, the government has remained silent on the collection of OBC data in the Census, despite demands from OBC groups.
4. The Extent of OBC Recruitment in Central Jobs
- As part of its findings, the Commission analyzed data from the preceding five years on OBC quota-based central jobs and admissions to central higher education institutions.
- It revealed that a disproportionate number of jobs and educational seats went to a small fraction of OBC sub-castes, with 37% of the total OBC communities having no representation in jobs and educational institutions.
- Regarding OBC representation in central jobs, as of March 17, the data showed that 20.26% of Group A to Group C employees were OBCs.
- However, the representation drops to 16.88% in Group A, where the reservation for OBCs is 27%.
5. The Way Forward
- Despite the challenges faced, the Commission has made significant progress, including drafting a report on sub-categorization.
- However, the final report is yet to be submitted. The extended tenure will provide the Commission with additional time to address the complexities of OBC sub-categorization and propose measures to achieve equitable distribution of reservation benefits among all OBC communities.
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For Prelims: Rohini Commission, OBCs, Central List
For Mains:
1. Discuss the role of the government in addressing the demand for the enumeration of OBCs in the Census and its potential impact on OBC representation and welfare." (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. Who was appointed as the head of the OBC Sub-categorisation Commission?
(Maharashtra Talathi 2019)
A. Justice Geeta Mittal
B. Justice Manjula Chellur
C. Justice Tahilramani
D. Justice G. Rohini
Answer: D
2. Which of the following pairs of list and contents is/are correctly matched? (UPSC CAPF 2019)
1. State list Public health and sanitation
2. Union list Citizenship, naturalisation and aliens
3. Concurrent list Legal, medical and other
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 3 only D. 3 only
Answer: B
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DIGITAL SERVICES ACT
1. Context
On December 6, Tesla CEO Elon Musk used his social media platform X to call for an end to the European Union, posting, “The EU should be abolished and sovereignty returned to individual countries, so that governments can better represent their people”
2.Key features of the Digital Services Act
- Faster removals and provisions to challenge: As part of the overhaul, social media companies will have to add “new procedures for faster removal” of content deemed illegal or harmful. They will also have to explain to users how their content takedown policy works.
- The DSA also allows users to challenge takedown decisions taken by platforms and seek out-of-court settlements
- Bigger platforms have greater responsibility: One of the most crucial features of the legislation is that it avoids a one-size fits all approach and places increased accountability on the Big Tech companies.
- Under the DSA, ‘Very Large Online Platforms’ (VLOPs) and ‘Very Large Online Search Engines’ (VLOSEs), that is platforms, having more than 45 million users in the EU, will have more stringent requirements
- Direct supervision by European Commission: More importantly, these requirements and their enforcement will be centrally supervised by the European Commission itself which is a key way to ensure that companies do not sidestep the legislation at the member-state level
- More transparency on how algorithms work: VLOPs and VLOSEs will face transparency measures and scrutiny of how their algorithms work and will be required to conduct systemic risk analysis and reduction to drive accountability about the societal impacts of their products.
- VLOPs must allow regulators to access their data to assess compliance and let researchers access their data to identify systemic risks of illegal or harmful content
- Clearer identifiers for ads and who’s paying for them: Online platforms must ensure that users can easily identify advertisements and understand who presents or pays for the advertisement.
- They must not display personalised advertising directed towards minors or based on sensitive personal data, according to the DSA
3.Indian Digital Laws vs European Digital Laws
- In February 2021, India had notified extensive changes to its social media regulations in the form of the Information Technology Rules, 2021 (IT Rules) which placed significant due diligence requirements on large social media platforms such as Meta and Twitter
- These included appointing key personnel to handle law enforcement requests and user grievances, enabling identification of the first originator of the information on its platform under certain conditions, and deploying technology-based measures on a best-effort basis to identify certain types of content
- Social media companies have objected to some of the provisions in the IT Rules, and WhatsApp has filed a case against a requirement which mandates it to trace the first originator of a message. One of the reasons that the platform may be required to trace the originator is if a user has shared child sexual abuse material on its platform.
- WhatsApp has, however, alleged that the requirement will dilute the encryption security on its platform and could compromise the personal messages of millions of Indians
- India is also working on a complete overhaul of its technology policies and is expected to soon come out with a replacement for its IT Act, 2000, which is expected to look at ensuring net neutrality and algorithmic accountability of social media platforms, among other things
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For Mains: Article 21, Right to Information Act, Right to Privacy
For Mains:1.Compare and contrast the Digital Services Act with India's legal framework for regulating digital platforms and online content. What lessons can India draw from the DSA in shaping its digital policies?.
2.How does the Digital Services Act address issues related to hate speech, misinformation, and online radicalization? Can similar measures be implemented in India to address these challenges effectively?
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Previous Year Questions
1.‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India? (UPSC CSE 2021 ) (a) Article 15 Answer: (c) 2.Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Indian Constitution correctly and appropriately imply the above Statements (UPSC CSE 2018) a. Article 14 and provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution b. Article 17 and Directive Principles of State policy in Part IV c. Article 21 and freedom guaranteed in Part III d. Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution Answer (c) |
Source: indianexpress
MAHATMA GANDHI NATIONAL RURAL EMPLOYMENT GUARANTEE ACT (MGNREGA)
1. Context
2. About the National Level Monitoring (NLM) report
- The National Level Monitoring (NLM) report is a study conducted by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) to assess the implementation of various rural development programs in India.
- The report is based on field visits and interviews with stakeholders at the grassroots level.
- The NLM report is an important tool for the government to identify areas where improvement is needed and track rural development programs' progress.
- The report also provides valuable insights into the challenges faced by rural communities and the impact of government interventions.
The NLM report typically identifies the following areas:
- The coverage of rural development programs
- The quality of implementation of rural development programs
- The impact of rural development programs on the lives of rural people
The NLM report also provides recommendations to the government on improving the implementation of rural development programs and making them more effective.
3. The findings of the NLM report
- In 2017-18, the NLM report found that the quality of construction of 87% of the verified works under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) was satisfactory. However, the report also found that only 139 out of 301 districts had seven registers maintained satisfactorily.
- In 2018-19, the NLM report found that the job cards, an important document that records entitlements received under MGNREGA, were not regularly updated in many districts. The report also found that there were significant delays in payments to workers.
- In 2019-20, the NLM report found that the Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana - Gramin (PMAY-G) program was facing challenges due to a shortage of construction materials and skilled labour. The report also found that there were delays in the processing of applications and the release of funds.
- The NLM report for 2020-21 found that the coverage of rural development programs had improved significantly in recent years. However, the report also found that there was still a need to improve the quality of implementation of these programs.
- The NLM report for 2021-22 found that the impact of rural development programs on the lives of rural people had been positive overall. However, the report also found that there were still some disparities in the impact of these programs across different regions and social groups.
4. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) is a social welfare program that guarantees 100 days of unskilled manual wage employment in a financial year to a rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. The Act was enacted by the Government of India in 2005 and came into force on February 2, 2006.
4.1. Mandate and Goals
- The mandate of MGNREGA is to provide employment and ensure food security for rural households.
- The scheme also aims to strengthen natural resource management, create durable assets, improve rural infrastructure, and promote social equity.
- The goals of MGNREGA are to Reduce rural poverty, Increase employment opportunities, Improve food security, Create durable assets, Improve rural infrastructure and Promote social equity.
4.2. Core Objectives
- The primary goal of MGNREGA is to provide at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
- The program aims to reduce poverty and distress by offering employment opportunities, especially during seasons of agricultural unemployment.
- MGNREGA encourages the creation of productive and durable assets such as water conservation structures, rural infrastructure, and land development. These assets not only improve rural livelihoods but also contribute to sustainable development.
- The Act promotes gender equality by ensuring that at least one-third of the beneficiaries are women and that their participation in the workforce is actively encouraged.
4.3. Key Stakeholders
- Rural households are the primary beneficiaries and participants in the MGNREGA scheme.
- Gram Panchayats play a pivotal role in implementing the program at the grassroots level. They are responsible for planning, execution, and monitoring of MGNREGA projects within their jurisdiction.
- The central government provides the funds and sets the broad guidelines, while the state governments are responsible for the program's effective implementation.
- The DPC is responsible for the overall coordination and monitoring of MGNREGA activities within a district.
- Rural labourers, both skilled and unskilled, participate in MGNREGA projects and directly benefit from the program.
4.4. Role of Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat
- The Gram Sabha is the village assembly consisting of all registered voters in a village. Its role in MGNREGA includes discussing and approving the annual development plan, ensuring transparency in project selection, and conducting social audits to monitor program implementation.
- The Gram Panchayat is responsible for planning, approving, executing, and monitoring MGNREGA projects within its jurisdiction. It also maintains records of employment provided, ensures timely wage payments, and conducts social audits. The Panchayat is accountable for the effective utilization of MGNREGA funds.
4.5. Issues with MGNREGA
- Delayed wage payments to labourers have been a persistent issue, affecting the livelihoods of beneficiaries.
- There have been cases of corruption and leakages in the implementation of MGNREGA projects, leading to suboptimal outcomes.
- Administrative inefficiencies, complex procedures, and bureaucratic hurdles have hampered program delivery.
- Some argue that the quality and effectiveness of assets created under MGNREGA projects have been variable and not always aligned with the intended goals.
- Not all eligible rural households are provided 100 days of guaranteed employment, which can limit the program's impact.
- Adequate budget allocation to meet the program's demands and inflation-adjusted wages remains a concern.
5. Conclusion
MGNREGA has made a positive impact on the lives of rural people, particularly in terms of employment opportunities and the creation of durable assets. It remains a crucial tool in India's efforts to promote rural development, reduce poverty, and achieve social equity. Addressing the identified issues will be critical in ensuring the continued success and effectiveness of the program in the years to come.
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For Prelims: MGNREGA, National Level Monitoring (NLM) report, Ministry of Rural Development, rural development, Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana - Gramin (PMAY-G),
For Mains:
1. Evaluate the importance of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act in the context of rural development and food security in India. How does MGNREGA contribute to sustainable development and rural infrastructure improvement? (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
Prelims
1. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”? (UPSC 2011) (a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households Answer: D 2. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following? (UPSC 2012)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: A 3. Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households? (UPSC 2013)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: C 4. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor? (UPSC 2012)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: B 5. Under the Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G), the ratio of the cost of unit assistance to be shared between the Central and State Governments is: (MP Patwari 2017) A. 60:40 in plain areas and 90:10 for North Eastern and the Himalayan States
B. 70:30 in plain areas and 80:20 for North Eastern and the Himalayan States
C. 50:50 in plain areas and 70:30 for North Eastern and the Himalayan States
D. 75:25 in Plain areas and 85:15 for North Eastern and the Himalayan States
Answer: A
Mains
1. The basis of providing urban amenities in rural areas (PURA) is rooted in establishing connectivity. Comment (UPSC 2013)
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AIR QUALITY INDEX (AQI)
1. Context
2. The Air Quality Index (AQI)
The AQI is a colour-coded index launched under the Swachh Bharat campaign to simplify the understanding of pollution levels. It helps convey the condition of the air and guides appropriate measures based on the severity of pollution. The AQI consists of six categories, each with a corresponding colour code: 'Good' (0-50), 'Satisfactory' (51-100), 'Moderately Polluted' (101-200), 'Poor' (201-300), 'Very Poor' (301-400) and 'Severe' (401-500).
3. Calculation of AQI
- To calculate the AQI, a technical study was conducted by an expert group, including medical professionals, air quality experts, and academics.
- Various pollutants, such as PM10, PM2.5, Nitrogen Dioxide, Ozone, Carbon, and others, are measured.
- Each pollutant is assigned a weight based on its impact on human health.
- The composite air quality index is determined by combining these weights, simplifying multiple data points into a single number and colour to represent overall air quality.
- Monitoring stations across the country assess these pollutant levels.
4. Impact of Pollutants on Health
- Among the most harmful pollutants are fine particulate matter, such as PM2.5, which has a diameter smaller than 2.5 micrometres.
- PM2.5 particles can easily enter the circulatory system, bypassing the nose and throat.
- They are associated with respiratory problems and reduced visibility, posing health risks such as asthma, heart attacks, bronchitis, and other respiratory issues.
5. Influence on Government Policy
- Governments, especially in areas like Delhi, use the AQI to announce measures to combat air pollution.
- When the AQI in the National Capital Region (NCR) reaches the 'severe' category, Stage 4 of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is implemented.
- GRAP is designed for emergency measures to prevent further deterioration of air quality.
- Specific actions may include prohibiting the use of non-BS-VI-compliant diesel four-wheelers and restricting the entry of trucks into the city while allowing petrol cars to continue operating as usual.
6. Conclusion
The Air Quality Index is an essential tool that simplifies the understanding of air pollution, assesses its health impacts, and influences government policies and actions to combat deteriorating air quality. As Mumbai braces for worsening air quality, the AQI will continue to be a critical resource for both the government and the public.
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For Prelims: Air Pollution, Air Quality Index, PM 2.5, PM 10, BS-VI Vehicles, Graded Response Action Plan, National Capital Region, Nitrogen Dioxide, Ozone, Carbon,
For Mains:
1. With the onset of worsening air quality in Mumbai, discuss the importance of the AQI as a critical resource for both the government and the public. How can the AQI assist in addressing air pollution-related challenges in the upcoming winter months? (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions 1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (UPSC 2016)
Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 4 and 5 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Answer: B 2. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (UPSC 2020)
Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2 and 4 only C. 1, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Answer: A 3. What is the ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? (UPSC 2016) (a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions (b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies. (c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022 (d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank Answer: A 4. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among (UPSC 2013) (a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight (b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight (c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature (d) high concentration of NO2 O3 and CO in the evening
Answer: A
5. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment (UPSC 2013, 2022) (a) Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen (b) Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide (c) Ozone and Carbon Dioxide (d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide Answer: D
6. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (UPSC 2017) (a) Measuring oxygen level in blood (b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem (d) Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions Answer: C 7. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently published the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, in 2020. Which of the following statements is correct about EIA? (Punjab Civil Service 2020)
1. It predicts the effect of a proposed industrial/infrastructural project on the environment.
2. It prevents the proposed activity/project from being approved without proper oversight or taking adverse consequences into account.
3. It compares various alternatives for a project and seeks to identify the one which represents the best combination of economic and environmental costs and benefits.
4. As per the new notification, Coal and non-Coal mineral prospecting and solar photovoltaic projects do not need prior environmental clearance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 1, 2 and 4
Answer: D
8. Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in (NDA 2017)
A. Washington B. Geneva C. Moscow D. London
Answer: B
9. With reference to the 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2017)
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
10. The IPCC is the United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change. IPCC stands for: (RRB NTPC CBT 2 2022)
A. Intergovernmental Provision on Climate Change
B. International Panel on Climate Change
C. International Provision on Climate Change
D. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
Answer: D
11. Comprehension (SSC CHSL 2020)
Direction: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Forest fire always (1) ______ by one of two reasons-naturally caused or human-caused. Natural fire is generally (2) ______ by lightning, with a very small percentage (3) ______ by spontaneous combustion of dry fuel such as sawdust and leaves. (4) ______, human-caused fire can happen (5) ______ any number of reasons.
Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1.
A. takes up B. happens C. causes D. creates
Answer: B
12. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the (UPSC 2020)
A. long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emission in a given year.
B. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.
C. efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
D. contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.
Answer: A
13. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (UPSC 2012)
A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
C. all the solar radiations
D. the infrared part of the solar radiation
Answer: D
14. As per the World Health Organisation (WHO) recommendation of a balanced diet, to avoid unhealthy weight gain, total fat should NOT exceed _______ of total energy intake. (UPSSSC Mandi Inspector 2019)
A. 20% B. 30% C. 10% D. 40%
Answer: B
15. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems? (UPSC 2012)
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
16. Which of the following ultraviolet rays is more dangerous? (UPTET 2017)
A. UV-A B. UV-B C. UV-C D. None of the above
Answer: C
17. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019)
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
18. Which of the following is a VOC? (MP Vyapam 2022)
A. Toulene B. Water C. Carbon dioxide D. Carbon monoxide
Answer: A
19. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are of great concern because (UGC NET Environmental Science 2020)
A. Once such compounds are in the vapour state, they are difficult to control in the environment.
B. Most of them are ozone depleting substances
C. They contribute to a general increase in reactive hydrocarbons in the atmosphere.
D. They are less soluble in water.
Answer: C
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Source: The Indian Express
