PREVENTION OF MONEY LAUNDERING ACT (PMLA)
1. Context
2. Why is the PMLA verdict under review?
Specific Concerns
- The PMLA's retrospective application, allowing for the prosecution of offences committed before the law's enactment, has been challenged as violative of the fundamental right against ex post facto laws.
- The PMLA places the burden of proof on the accused to establish innocence, a departure from the general principle of criminal law that presumes innocence until proven guilty.
- Critics argue that the PMLA's provisions are overly broad and draconian, giving the ED excessive powers to arrest, detain, and seize assets without adequate judicial oversight.
- The PMLA's lack of adequate safeguards against arbitrary actions and misuse of power has raised concerns about the potential for abuse of authority by the ED.
- The PMLA's provisions have been criticized for potentially infringing upon fundamental rights such as the right to personal liberty, the right to property, and the right against self-incrimination.
3. Money laundering
- Money laundering is the illegal process of making large amounts of money.
- This money is generated by criminal activity but may appear to come from a legitimate source.
- Criminal activities include drug trafficking, terrorist funding, illegal arms sales, smuggling, prostitution rings, insider trading, bribery and computer fraud schemes that produce large profits.
3.1. Different stages in money laundering
- Placement: The crime money is injected into the formal financial system.
- Layering: Money injected into the system is layered and spread over various transactions and book-keeping tricks to hide the source of origin.
- Integration: Laundered money is withdrawn from the legitimate account to be used for criminal purposes. Now, Money enters the financial system in such a way that the original association with the crime is disassociated. The money now can be used by the offender as legitimate money.
3.2. Impact of Money Laundering on Economic Development
Money laundering can have a significant impact on economic development by:
- When money laundering occurs, it can undermine public confidence in banks and other financial institutions. This can lead to increased risk aversion and a decline in investment, which can hamper economic growth.
- Money laundering can distort economic activity by directing funds away from legitimate businesses and into criminal enterprises. This can lead to inefficient allocation of resources and slower economic growth.
- Money laundering can facilitate corruption by providing a means to conceal the proceeds of corrupt activities. This can weaken governance and undermine the rule of law, further hindering economic development.
- Money laundering can also lead to a loss of tax revenue, as criminals seek to evade taxes on their illicit gains. This can deprive governments of much-needed funds for essential services, such as education and healthcare.
- Money laundering is often used to finance organized crime groups, which can lead to an increase in violence and instability.
- Money laundering can also be used to finance terrorist activities, posing a serious threat to international security.
- Money laundering can also have a direct impact on individuals and businesses, who may lose money or be victims of fraud as a result of this crime.
4. Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA)
The Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) is a comprehensive legislation enacted by the Indian Parliament to combat money laundering and other financial crimes. It aims to prevent the use of proceeds of crime, particularly those derived from drug trafficking, organized crime and corruption, from being laundered and utilized to finance further criminal activities or to gain legitimacy.
4.1. Key Features of the PMLA
- The PMLA prohibits the process of money laundering, defined as the act of concealing or disguising the proceeds of crime.
- The PMLA empowers the Enforcement Directorate (ED), the designated agency for investigating money laundering cases, to attach and seize property derived from or involved in money laundering.
- The PMLA provides for the confiscation of property that is involved in money laundering, even if it is not in the possession of the accused person.
- The PMLA grants the ED extensive powers to conduct searches, make arrests, and detain individuals suspected of money laundering.
- The PMLA facilitates international cooperation in combating money laundering through mutual legal assistance treaties and other mechanisms.
4.2. Significance of the PMLA
The PMLA has played a crucial role in strengthening India's anti-money laundering framework and enhancing its global standing in combating financial crimes. It has enabled the investigation and prosecution of numerous money laundering cases, leading to the recovery of substantial illicit funds.
4.3. Challenges in Implementing the PMLA
Despite its significance, the implementation of the PMLA has faced certain challenges, including:
- The PMLA and other laws, such as the Narcotics Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, have overlapping jurisdictions, which can lead to confusion and delays in investigations.
- There have been concerns about the lack of adequate safeguards against arbitrary actions and misuse of power under the PMLA.
- The ED faces resource constraints in terms of manpower and infrastructure, which can hamper its ability to effectively investigate and prosecute money laundering cases.
- The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is an agency in India that primarily deals with the enforcement of economic laws and regulations to combat money laundering, foreign exchange violations, and financial fraud.
- The ED is part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
- The Directorate of Enforcement was established on 1st May 1956, as the "Enforcement Unit" within the Department of Economic Affairs.
- Its primary focus was on preventing and detecting violations of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) of 1947.
- Over the years, the agency's role expanded, and in 1999, the Enforcement Directorate was established as a separate entity under the Ministry of Finance.
- The enactment of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) in 2002 further broadened its jurisdiction, giving it the power to investigate cases related to money laundering.
- Since its establishment, the ED has played a crucial role in combating economic offences and ensuring compliance with economic laws in India.
- It has been involved in several high-profile cases, including those related to financial scams, money laundering by influential individuals, and cross-border financial crimes.
- The ED collaborates with various domestic and international agencies, including financial intelligence units, law enforcement agencies, and Interpol, to gather information, share intelligence, and effectively coordinate efforts to combat economic offences.
5.1. Functions and Roles of ED
- Enforcing Economic Laws: The primary function of the ED is to enforce two key economic laws in India: the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) and the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA). It ensures compliance with these laws and investigates money laundering, foreign exchange violations, and economic fraud cases.
- Money Laundering Investigations: The ED investigates cases involving money laundering, which is the process of concealing the origins of illegally obtained money to make it appear legitimate. It identifies and seizes properties and assets derived from illicit activities and prevents their further use.
- Foreign Exchange Violations: The ED is responsible for investigating cases related to violations of foreign exchange laws and regulations. It monitors and controls foreign exchange transactions to maintain the stability of the Indian rupee and prevent illegal activities such as smuggling and illegal money transfers.
- Financial Frauds: The ED also investigates and takes action against financial frauds, including bank frauds, Ponzi schemes, and other fraudulent activities affecting the Indian financial system. It works closely with other law enforcement agencies, such as the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), to tackle complex financial crimes.
For Prelims: Prevention of Money Laundering Act, ED, CBI, Foreign Exchange Management Act,
For Mains:
1. Critically evaluate the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) in its effectiveness in combating money laundering in India. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Directorate of Enforcement? (CDS 2021)
A. It is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
B. It enforces the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
C. It enforces the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
D. It enforces the Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988.
2. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 become effective since which one of the following dates? (UKPSC RO/ARO 2012)
A. July 2002 B. August 2003 C. July 2004 D. July 2005
3. FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act) was finally implemented in the year (UPPSC 2013)
A. 1991 B. 1997 C. 2000 D. 2007
4. The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act was replaced by the ______ in India. (SSC Steno 2020)
A. Foreign Exchange Currency Act
B. Foreign Exchange Finances Act
C. Foreign Exchange Funds Act
D. Foreign Exchange Management Act
5. "Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation" is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. (SSC CGL 2017)
A. Union B. State C. Global D. Concurrent
Answers: 1-D, 2-D, 3-C, 4-D, 5-A
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MIG-21
1. Context

2. About the MIG-21 aircraft
- The MiG-21s are among the six fighter jets presently flown by the Indian Air Force (IAF) and for a long period has been the backbone of the IAF.
- The MiG-21s are single-engine, single-seater multi-role fighter/ground attack aircraft.
- While they were first inducted in 1963 as interceptor aircraft, over the next few decades they were upgraded to perform a variety of roles performed by a fighter aircraft, including ground attack.
- India has procured over 700 MiG-21 aircraft of different variants since then, such as the Type-77, Type-96 and the BIS.
- The latest of them is the MiG-21 Bison, which is an upgraded aircraft with advanced missiles and radars and better avionics.
- Over 100 MiG-21s with the IAF have been upgraded to Bison since 2006.
- The aircraft in the past had proved their mettle in several wars fought by India.
For instance, in the Bangladesh Liberation War of 1971, the Mi-21s (Type 77 variant) played a major role in swaying the war's result in India's favour. - The combat jet was also among the mainstay of the IAF in the 1965 war and the 1999 Kargil conflict with Pakistan.
- In 2019, Group Captain Abhinandan Varthaman (Then a Wing Commander) of the erstwhile Srinagar-based No 51 Squadron was flying a MiG-21 Bison when he downed an F-16 aircraft of the Pakistan Air Force.
3. Past MiG Accidents and Causes
- As per available government data, close to 500 MiG-21s have crashed in the last 60 years, killing over 170 pilots.
- More than 20 aircraft have crashed since 2010. In fact, in the very first year of its induction in 1963, two of the Soviet-era aircraft had crashed.
- A trainer version of the fighter aircraft crashed killing two pilots on board and in 2021, there were five MiG-21 Bison crashes that killed three pilots.
- The reasons for the crashes have been several ranging from technical defects, human error, bird hits or spatial disorientation of pilots in certain circumstances.
4. Phased out of the aircraft
- There are three squadrons of MiG-21 Bison aircraft currently in service in the IAF.
- Each squadron comprises 16-18 aircraft, aside from one or two trainer versions.
- In September last year, the decorated No 51 squadron was number plated.
- The three MiG-21 Bison Squadrons are planned to be phased out by December 2025.
5. Reasons for IAF to continue flying the MiG Aircraft
- The IAF has a sanctioned squadron strength of 42, even though its current squadron strength is around 30.
- Phasing out the fighter jets earlier would bring down the IAF's fighter squadron strength at dangerously low levels, especially till they are replaced by the indigenous Light Combat Aircraft Tejas Squadrons.
- The IAF can at the most reach 35 squadrons by the next decade even after considering new fighter acquisitions and the planned phasing out of existing squadrons of ageing fighter jets.
- Senior IAF officers, particularly those who have flown the aircraft, have often said the aircraft did not have an abysmal safety record when compared to the number of flying hours and the years in service and have on various occasions highlighted the rigorous maintenance and checks that every fighter aircraft undertakes before going on a sortie.
For Prelims: MiG-21 fighter jet, Indian Air Force, Kargil, F-16 aircraft, Bangladesh Liberation War, Light Combat Aircraft Tejas Squadrons,
For Mains:
1. What is the MiG-21 aircraft? Discuss why India continues flying the MiG Aircraft even though it has frequently crashed. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. The Bangladesh Liberation War ended on _____. (SSC CGL 2019)
A. 14th November 1972
B. 17th October 1971
C. 2nd October 1974
D. 16th December 1971
Answer: D
2. When did Bangladesh get independence from Pakistan? (SSC CHSL 2020)
A. 1971
B. 1965
C. 1949
D. 1976
Answer: A
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VICE PRESIDENT OF INDIA
- The Vice President serves as the Chairperson of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and presides over its sessions.
- They ensure the smooth functioning of the Rajya Sabha, maintain decorum, and decide on points of order
- In case of the resignation, death, removal, or inability of the President to discharge their duties, the Vice President acts as the President until a new President is elected
- The Vice President is elected by an electoral college, consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) through a secret ballot and proportional representation with a single transferable vote.
- Members of State Legislative Assemblies do not participate in this election
Eligibility Criteria:To be eligible for the office of Vice President:
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- As the second-highest constitutional authority after the President, the Vice President's powers are derived from Article 63 of the Constitution.
- Additionally, Article 64 designates the Vice President as the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, entrusting the officeholder with dual responsibilities as Vice President and Chairperson of the Upper House.
- The procedure for the removal of the Vice President, who also serves as the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, is outlined in Article 67.
- This article specifies that the Vice President's tenure is five years, beginning from the day they assume office. However, they may resign before completing the term by submitting a resignation to the President.
- Moreover, under Article 67(b), the Vice President can be removed if a resolution to that effect is passed by a majority in the Rajya Sabha and subsequently agreed upon by the Lok Sabha. It is stipulated that such a resolution requires a prior notice period of at least 14 days before it can be moved
- It is improbable that the no-confidence motion will be discussed in the House, as the Winter Session of Parliament is set to end on December 20, leaving fewer than 14 days for consideration.
- For example, in 2020, then Rajya Sabha Chairperson M. Venkaiah Naidu rejected a no-confidence motion against Deputy Chairperson Harivansh, citing the requirement of a 14-day notice.
- Even if the motion is brought before the House, it is unlikely to succeed due to the Opposition’s lack of sufficient numbers to ensure its passage. This initiative seems to primarily serve as a symbolic protest against Mr. Dhankhar’s alleged partisan behavior.
- Since it is a constitutional resolution, it does not expire with the prorogation of the session. It can be addressed in the next session of Parliament or during a specially convened session for that purpose
- No, the Vice President of India, in their capacity as the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, cannot preside over a motion concerning their own removal in the Upper House. This is in line with the principle of natural justice, which prevents an individual from judging a matter in which they have a direct interest.
- In such a scenario, Article 91 of the Constitution provides that the duties of the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha (the Vice President) will be performed by the Deputy Chairperson.
- If the Deputy Chairperson is unavailable or the office is vacant, any other member of the Rajya Sabha, as determined by the rules of procedure, may preside over the proceedings.
- This ensures impartiality and fairness in handling motions related to the removal of the Vice President
Article | Provision | Details |
63 | Office of the Vice President | Establishes the position of the Vice President of India |
64 | Vice President as Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha |
1.Serves as the head of the Rajya Sabha.
2.Has no voting rights in the Rajya Sabha except in case of a tie
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65 | Acting as President |
1.Takes over as President in the absence of the President.
2.Cannot hold the position of Rajya Sabha Chairperson during this period
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66 | Election of the Vice President | Elected by members of both Houses of Parliament through proportional representation and secret ballot |
Eligibility Criteria:
- Must be a citizen of India.
- Must be at least 35 years old.
- Must be eligible for Rajya Sabha membership.
- Cannot hold a government position
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67 | Term of Office and Removal |
1.Serves a five-year term.
2.Can resign or be removed by a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament
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For Prelims: Vice President of India, President of India
For Mains: GS II - IndianPolity & Governance
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Previous Year Questions
1.Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2013)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (b) Mains 1.Discuss the role of the Vice –Presidents of India as the chairman of the Rajya Sabha. (2022) |
POSH ACT
1. Context
2. The law against sexual harassment of women in the workplace
- The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, commonly known as the PoSH Act, was passed in 2013.
- It defined sexual harassment, lay down the procedures for complaint and inquiry and the action to be taken in cases of sexual harassment.
3. Vishaka Guidelines
- The 2013 law broadened and gave legislative backing to what is known as the Vishaka Guidelines, which were laid down by the Supreme Court in a judgment passed in 1997.
- The case in question was filed by women's rights groups, including one called Vishaka, over the alleged gangrape of a social worker from Rajasthan named Bhanwari Devi.
- Bhanwari had fought against the marriage of a one-year-old baby girl in 1992 and had been allegedly gang-raped as retribution.
- The Vishaka Guidelines defined sexual harassment and imposed three key obligations on institutions Prohibition, Prevention and Redress.
- The Supreme Court directed that they should establish a Complaints Committee, which would look into matters of sexual harassment of women in the workplace. The court made the guidelines legally binding.
4. PoSH Act about the complaints committee
- The PoSH Act subsequently mandated that every employer must constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) at each office or branch that had 10 or more employees.
- It defined various aspects of sexual harassment and lay down procedures for action in case of a complaint.
- The aggrieved victim under the Act can be a woman "of any age whether employed (at the workplace) or not, who "alleges to have been subjected to any act of sexual harassment".
- In effect, the Act protects the rights of all women who are working or visiting any workplace, in any capacity.
5. Sexual Harassment under the PoSH Act
- Physical contact and advances
- A demand or request for sexual favours
- Sexually coloured remarks
- Showing pornography
- Any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of sexual nature.
- Sexually suggestive remarks or innuendo
Serious or repeated offensive remarks - Inappropriate questions or remarks about a person's sex life
- Display of sexist or offensive pictures, posters, MMS, SMS, WhatsApp, or Emails
- Intimidation, threats, blackmail around sexual favours
- Threats, intimidation or retaliation against an employee who speaks up about these
- Unwelcome social invitations with sexual overtones, commonly seen as flirting
- Unwelcome sexual advances
- The Handbook Says "Unwelcome behaviour" is experienced when the victim feels bad or powerless and when it causes anger/sadness or negative self-esteem.
- Unwelcome behaviour is "illegal, demeaning, invading, one-sided and power based".
- Implied or explicit promise of preferential treatment in her employment
- The implied or explicit threat of detrimental treatment
- The implied or explicit threat about the complainant's present or future employment status
- Interference with the complainant's work or creating an offensive or hostile work environment
- Humiliating treatment of the complainant that is likely to affect her health or safety.
6. The procedure for a complaint under the Act
- The aggrieved victim does not need to file a complaint for the ICC to take action.
The Act says that she "may" do so and if she cannot, any member of the ICC "shall" render "all reasonable assistance" to her to complain in writing. - If the woman cannot complain because of "physical or mental incapacity or death or otherwise" her legal heir may do so.
- Under the Act, the complaint must be made within three months from the date of the incident.
- However, the ICC can "extend the time limit" if "it is satisfied that the circumstances were such which prevented the woman from filing a complaint within the said period".
- The ICC may before the inquiry and at the request of the aggrieved woman, take steps to settle the matter between her and the respondent through conciliation provided that "no monetary settlement shall be made as a basis of conciliation".
- The ICC may either forward the victim's complaint to the police or it can start an inquiry that has to be completed within 90 days.
- The ICC has powers similar to those of a civil court in respect of summoning and examining any person on oath and requiring the discovery and production of documents.
- When the inquiry is completed, the ICC must provide a report of its findings to the employer within 10 days. The report must also be made available to both parties.
- The identity of the woman, respondent, witness, and any information on the inquiry, recommendation and action taken, should not be made public.
7. ICC Action on the Complaint
- If the allegations of sexual harassment are proven, the ICC will recommend to the employer to take action "by the provisions of the service rules" of the company. These may vary from company to company.
- The ICC may also recommend that the company deduct the salary of the person found guilty, "as it may consider appropriate". The compensation is determined based on five aspects:
- Suffering and emotional distress caused to the woman
- Loss of career opportunity
- Her medical expenses
- Income and financial status of the respondent
- The feasibility of such payment
8. False complaint of sexual harassment
- Section 14 of the Act deals with punishment for false or malicious complaints and false evidence.
- In such a case, the ICC "may recommend" to the employer that it take action against the woman or the person who has made the complaint, in "accordance with the provisions of the service rules".
- The Act, however, makes it clear that action cannot be taken for "mere inability" to "Substantiate the complaint or provide adequate proof".
For Prelims: POSH Act, Vishaka guidelines, Internal Complaints Committee, sexual harassment,
For Mains:
1. What is the Prevention of Sexual Harassment (POSH) Act, 2013? Discuss the procedure for complaints against sexual harassment at the workplace. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. 'Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace', which court has been empowered to collect evidence to complaints committees set up under this Act? (Rajasthan PC 2020)
1. women's court
2. civil court
3. supreme court
4. special court
Answer: 2
2. The "Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act" was passed in which year to protect women at the workplace? (Rajasthan PC 2020)
1. 2010
2. 2011
3. 2012
4. 2013
Answer: 4
3. The case of Vishakha and others Vs. State of Rajasthan and others is related to - (RPSC RAS 2021)
1. Transfer policy for women
2. Maternity leaves in respect of working women
3. Prevention of the practice of dowry prevalent in the society
4. Prevention of sexual harassment of women at work place
Answer: 4
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ONE NATION-ONE ELECTION
1. Context
2. About the ONOE Plan
- The ONOE plan revolves around a core concept synchronizing the timing of Lok Sabha (India's lower house of Parliament) and State Assembly elections across all states.
- The primary objective is to reduce the frequency of elections throughout the country.
3. Historical Perspective on Simultaneous Elections
- Taking a historical glance, the first-ever general elections to Lok Sabha and all State Assemblies occurred simultaneously in 1951-1952, immediately following the enforcement of the Constitution on January 26, 1950.
- This practice persisted through three subsequent Lok Sabha elections until 1967 when it was disrupted.
- The initial disruption took place in 1959 when Article 356 of the Constitution was invoked by the Centre to dismiss the Kerala government.
- Subsequently, due to political defections and counter-defections, several Legislative Assemblies dissolved post-1960, ultimately leading to separate elections for Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
- Presently, assembly polls in the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha are held in conjunction with Lok Sabha elections.
4. Insights from Reports on ONOE
- In August 2018, the Law Commission of India (LCI), chaired by Justice B. S. Chauhan, released a draft report on simultaneous elections.
- This comprehensive report analyzed the constitutional and legal aspects of the ONOE issue.
- Notably, the LCI submitted that simultaneous elections are not feasible within the current framework of the Constitution.
- The LCI emphasized that conducting simultaneous polls would require amendments to the Constitution, the Representation of the People's Act 1951, and the Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
- Furthermore, the commission recommended that this proposal receive ratification from at least 50% of the states.
- However, in terms of the benefits of simultaneous elections, the commission argued that ONOE would result in substantial cost savings, reduced strain on the administrative setup and security forces, timely implementation of government policies, and a shift of managerial focus towards development activities instead of electioneering.
- Notably, this is not the first time such a proposal has been made, as a similar recommendation was made by the LCI in 1999, headed by Justice B. P. Jeevan Reddy.
5. Concerns Surrounding ONOE
- The feasibility of ONOE is a matter of paramount concern. Articles 83(2) and 172 of the Constitution specify that the tenure of Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, respectively, shall last for five years unless dissolved earlier.
- However, Article 356 provides for circumstances where assemblies can be dissolved earlier.
- Consequently, the ONOE plan raises crucial questions, such as what would happen if the Central or State government collapses mid-tenure.
- Would elections be held again in every state, or would President's rule be imposed
- Amending the Constitution to implement such a significant change would necessitate extensive consideration of various scenarios and provisions and could set a concerning precedent for further constitutional amendments.
- Another critical concern relates to the idea of ONOE not aligning with the concept of 'federalism.'
- Federalism is established on the notion that the entire nation is a "Union of States," which appears to contradict the concept of 'one nation' proposed by ONOE.
6. Benefits of Recurrent Elections
- The present system of recurrent elections is viewed by some as beneficial in a democracy.
- It allows voters to have their voices heard more frequently and ensures that issues at the national and state levels remain distinct.
- This separation of issues promotes greater accountability among elected officials.
- The Central government has highlighted the substantial costs associated with frequent elections as a key motivator for ONOE.
- The Election Commission's expenditure of ₹8,000 crore over five years, equivalent to ₹1,500 crore annually or ₹27 per voter per year, can truly be considered a 'massive' expense for maintaining India's status as the world's largest electoral democracy.
8. The Way Forward
- The 'One Nation, One Election' plan presents both advantages and challenges that warrant careful consideration and debate.
- It is essential to weigh the benefits of reduced election frequency against the potential disruption to the democratic process and the fundamental principles of federalism and accountability.
For Prelims: One Nation-One Election, Article 356, Law Commission of India, Representation of the People's Act 1951, Article 83(2), Article 172, federalism,
For Mains:
1. What is One Nation-One Election? Explain how having simultaneous elections across Lok Sabha and State assemblies counter federalism. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then (UPSC 2018)
A. the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
B. the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
C. Article 19 is suspended in that State.
D. the President can make laws relating to that State.
Answer: B
2. What is the provision in Article 356 of Indian Constitution? (Soldier Technical Paper 2021)
A. For jobs in reservation of backward classes
B. To impose President's rule in the states
C. For the protection of religious monument
D. To give special status to Jammu and kashmir
Answer: B
3. According to the Representation of the People Act, 1951, in the event of a person being elected to both houses of Parliament, he has to notify within ______ days in which house he intends to function. (Delhi Police Constable 2020)
A. 22 B. 10 C. 20 D. 15
Answer: B
4. Under what Article of the Constitution of India can the President take over the administration of a state in case its constitutional machinery breaks down? (MP Police Constable 2016)
A. Article 83 B. Article 352 C. Article 356 D. Article 343
Answer: C
5. Which one of the following in Indian Polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character? (UPSC 2021)
A. The independence of judiciary is safeguarded
B. The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units
C. The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties
D. The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law
Answer: A
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RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT
1. Context
2. The Right to Information (RTI) Act:
- The Right to Information (RTI) Act is a landmark legislation enacted in India in 2005.
- It empowers citizens to access information held by public authorities and promotes transparency and accountability in government functioning.
Here are key points about the RTI Act:
Objective
Applicability
Information Disclosure
Request Process
- Citizens can file RTI applications in writing, seeking specific information. They need to pay a nominal fee with the application.
- Information must be provided within 30 days (or 48 hours for information concerning life and liberty), failing which authorities must explain the delay.
Exemptions
Public Interest Override
Promoting Accountability
- The RTI Act is a powerful tool for holding public officials accountable for their actions and decisions.
- It has been instrumental in exposing corruption, inefficiency, and human rights violations.
Challenges and Amendments:
Impact
- The RTI Act has empowered citizens to participate in governance, making the government more transparent and accountable.
- It has been hailed as a significant step toward strengthening democracy in India.
Role of Information Commissions
3. RTI Act Amendment:
- The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, of 2023, amended the RTI Act.
- It changed the prohibition on disclosing personal data from qualified to the total.
- NCPRI opposed this change, as it hinders social audits and may protect powerful officials.
- The Right to Information (Amendment) Act, of 2019, gave Union Government unilateral power over information commissioners' tenure and salaries.
- This raised concerns about their independence and effectiveness.
4. Undermining the RTI Act:
Dependence on Subordinate Rules:
- The RTI Act's effectiveness relies on subordinate rules set by Union and State Governments.
- States have autonomy in determining payment methods for RTI applications, causing disparities.
Payment Method Variations
- Inconsistencies exist in payment methods across states.
- Example: Tamil Nadu doesn't accept Indian Postal Orders (IPOs), a convenient payment method.
- Court fee stamps and demand drafts may be less accessible and burdensome alternatives.
Tardy Appointments to Information Commissions
- Delays in appointing members to Information Commissions, like the Central Information Commission (CIC) and State Information Commissions (SICs), erode confidence.
- Appeals can languish for months or years without resolution.
- Jharkhand SIC, for instance, lacked commissioners since May 2020, rendering the appeals process ineffective.
5. Online RTIs:
- Online RTI applications ease accessibility by eliminating the need for uncommon financial instruments.
- Payment via UPI simplifies the process.
- Many Indian states lack online RTI portals, limiting access for citizens.
- Even when available, some state government bodies may not be registered on these portals.
- The Union Government's RTI portal, launched in 2013, faces usability issues.
- Account creation, which streamlined the application process, has been removed.
- Users must now enter personal details for each application.
- Past applicant data has experienced glitches, with applications disappearing and later being restored.
6. Challenges and Dissatisfaction:
- Dissatisfaction with the RTI Act's effectiveness is increasing at a fundamental level.
- More first appeals are being filed, indicating public dissatisfaction with the information provided by public officials.
- The RTI Act faces structural problems related to institutions and websites.
- These issues hinder citizens' ability to conveniently access information and file requests.
- Activists highlight that the weakening of the RTI Act isn't limited to changes in the law's text.
- It stems from various government institutions' ways of discharging duties, narrowing avenues for information access, and understaffed appellate bodies.
For Prelims: Right to Information Act, 2005, Central Information Commission (CIC), State Information Commissions (SICs), Indian Postal Orders (IPOs), Digital Personal Data Protection Act, of 2023.
For Mains: 1. Examine the impact of recent amendments to the Right to Information (RTI) Act on its core principles of transparency and accountability. How can the Act strike a balance between protecting sensitive information and ensuring citizens' access to government-held data?
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Previous year Question1. Which of the following is related to the Right to Information Act, of 2005? (UPPSC 2015)
A. Lily Thomas v/s Union of India
B. Nandini Sundar v/s State of Chhattisgarh
C. Namit Sharma v/s Union of India
D. None of the above
Answer: C
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CENSUS
1. Context
2. Key Takeaways
- India had conducted the Census every 10 years since 1881, but in 2020, the decennial exercise for Census 2021 had to be postponed due to the pandemic.
- Though the government has not announced fresh dates for the Census, the groundwork is being laid and details are emerging about some of the features.
- It will be the first digital Census allowing citizens to "self-enumerate". The NPR (National Population Register) has been made compulsory for citizens who want to exercise the right to fill out the Census form on their own rather than through government enumerators.
- For this, the Office of the Registrar General of India (RGI) has designed a "self-enumeration, Aadhaar or mobile number will be mandatorily collected.
3. Status of the Census exercise
- A January 2 notification extending the deadline for freezing administrative boundaries in States until June 30 has ruled out the exercise at least till September.
- As preparation and training take at least three months, the Census will have to be pushed to next year.
- Around 30 lakh government officials will be assigned as enumerators and each will have the task to collect the details of 650-800 people through both online and offline modes, covering an estimated population of 135 crore people.
- The Lok Sabha election is due in April-May 2024 and it is unlikely that the Census will be carried out before that since the same workforce will be dedicated to the elections.
- The completion of both phases of the Census will take at least 11 months, even if done at an accelerated pace from October 1.
4. Holding up the Census
- One reason which is holding up the exercise is the amendments proposed to the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, of 1969.
- The government wants to have a centralised register of births and deaths that can be used to update the population register, electoral register, Aadhaar, ration card, passport and driving license databases.
- The centrally stored data will be updated in real-time without a human interface leading to addition and deletion from electoral rolls when an individual turns 18 and after an individual's death respectively.
- A Bill to link the births and deaths registered with the population register and others are expected to be tabled in the next session of Parliament.
5. NPR
- The NPR, unlike the Census, is a comprehensive identity database of every "usual resident" in the country and the data proposed to be collected at the family level can be shared with States and other government departments.
- Though Census also collects similar information, the Census Act of 1948 bars sharing any individual's data with the State or Centre and only aggregate data at the administrative level can be released.
- According to Citizenship Rules 2003 under the Citizenship Act, 1955, NPR is the first step towards a compilation of the National Register of Indian Citizens (NRIC/NRC).
- Assam is the only State where an NRC has been compiled based on the directions of the Supreme Court, with the final draft of Assam's NRC excluding 19 lakhs of the 3.29 crores applicants.
- Assam Government has rejected the NRC in its current form and demanded re-verification of 30 per cent of names included in the NRC in areas bordering Bangladesh and 10 per cent in the remaining State.
- In 2020, the NPR was opposed by several State governments such as West Bengal, Kerala, Rajasthan, Odisha, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Punjab and Chhattisgarh and Civil Society Organisations due to its link with the proposed NRC as it might leave many people stateless for want of legacy documents.
- There are apprehensions that the Citizenship Amendment Act 9 (CAA), 2019 allows citizenship based on religion to six undocumented religious communities from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh who entered India on or before December 31, 2014, will benefit non-Muslims excluded from the proposed citizens' register, while excluded.
- Muslims will have to prove their citizenship. The government has denied that the CAA and NRC are linked and there are currently any plans to compile a countrywide NRC.
5.1. The current status of NPR
- The NPR was first collected in 2010 when the Congres government was in power at the Centre.
- It was updated in 2015 and already has details of 119 crore residents.
- In March 2020, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) amended the Census Rules framed in 1990 to capture and store the Census data in an electronic form and enabled self-enumeration by respondents.
- The NPR is scheduled to be updated with the first phase of Census 2021.
- For this phase (house listing and household phase), 31 questions have been notified, while for the population enumeration, the second and main phase 28 questions have been finalised but are yet to be notified.
- The NPR is expected to collect details on 21 parameters of all family members, up from 14 questions in 2010 and 2015.
- The Sub-heads include passport number, relationship to head of the family, whether divorced/ widowed or separated, mother tongue if non-worker, cultivator, labourer, government employee, daily wage earner among others.
- The form also has a column on Aadhar, mobile phone, Voter ID and driver's licence.
- Though the government has claimed that the NPR form has not been finalised yet, the sample form is part of the Census of India 2021 Handbook for Principal/District Census Officers and Charge Officers in 2021.
- The NPR has retained contentious questions such as "mother tongue, place of birth of father and mother and last place of residence", possible indicators to determine inclusion in the Citizenship register.
- The questions were opposed by the State governments of West Bengal, Kerala, Rajasthan and Odisha in 2020.
- The final set of questions of both the phases and NPR was asked during a pre-test exercise in 2019 in 76 districts in 36 States and Union Territories covering a population of more than 26 lakhs.
6. Expected expenditure for Census
- The initial draft was prepared by the office of the Registrar General of India and circulated to key Ministries and the Prime Minister's Office called for the conduct of Census 2021 at a cost of ₹9, 275 crores and not the NPR.
- The draft Expenditure Finance Committee (EFC) not was then revised and a financial provision of ₹4, 442.15 crores for updating the NPR was added on the directions of the MHA "subsequently".
- The proposal was cleared on August 16, 2019, and it received the Union Cabinet's nod on December 24, 2019.
- It was decided that the enumerator engaged for Census would also collect details for NPR.
- The Covid-19 pandemic struck in March 2020 and since then both exercises are on hold.
- Now, the NPR has been made compulsory if citizens want to exercise the right to fill out the Census form on their own.
- The deleted Handbook said that it is "mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR".
- Census is also mandatory and giving false information is a punishable offence.
For Prelims: NPR, CAA, Census, Covid-19, Expenditure Finance Committee, Registrar General of India, Registration of Births and Deaths Act, of 1969, The Treatise on Indian Censuses Since 1981, Assam,
For Mains:
1. How can citizens file Census details online? Explain the norms being laid down and discuss the reasons for National Population Register being made compulsory for those who want to fill out the form digitally. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
Prelims:
1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2009)
1. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the density of the population of India has increased more than three times.
2. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the annual growth rate (exponential) of the population of India has doubled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
2. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
3. Sinovac given for Covid-19 is a (UPPSC Combined State Exam 2022)
A. Protein sub-unit
B. Non-replicating viral vector
C. Whole virus vaccine
D. mRNA vaccine
Answer: C
4. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which Include "The Macro Economic Framework Statement". The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by (UPSC 2020)
A. Long-standing parliamentary convention
B. Article 112 and Article 110 (1) of the Constitution of India
C. Article 113 of the Constitution of India
D. Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
Answer: D
5. Who is the Census Commissioner of India in 2021? (ICAR Technician 2022)
A. Dr Vivek Joshi
B. Dr C Chandramouli
C. Shri Sailesh
D. DK Sikri
Answer: A
6. The Registration of Birth and Death Act came into force in the year _____. (UPSSSC Junior Assistant 2020)
A. 1964 B. 1969 C. 1972 D.1981
Answer: B
7. Consider the following States: (UPSC 2022)
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Tripura
How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?
A. Only one State
B. Only two States
C. Only three States
D. All four States
Answer: C
8. Consider the following rivers (UPSC 2014)
1. Barak
2. Lohit
3. Subansiri
Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal Pradesh?
A. 1 only B.2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Mains:
1. Two parallel run schemes of the Government, viz the Adhaar Card and NPR, one as voluntary and the other as compulsory, have led to debates at national levels and also litigations. On merits, discuss whether or not both schemes need run concurrently. Analyse the potential of the schemes to achieve developmental benefits and equitable growth. (UPSC 2014)
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SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA
The constitutional provisions related to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha in India are primarily outlined in the Constitution of India, particularly in Articles 93 to 97.
Here are the key constitutional provisions related to the Speaker:
- Article 93(1) states that the Lok Sabha (House of the People) shall choose two of its members to be the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.
- Article 94(1) provides that the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker may resign by writing addressed to the Deputy Speaker or, if the office of Deputy Speaker is vacant, to the President of India.
- Article 94(2) states that before the House of the People first meets after each general election and before the office of Speaker and Deputy Speaker becomes vacant, the President shall appoint from among the members of the House a Speaker pro tem.
- Article 95 provides for the election of a Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha by its members.
- Article 96 outlines the procedure for the removal of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker. It states that they may be removed from office by a resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by a majority of all the then members of the House, after giving not less than 14 days’ notice of the intention to move the resolution.
- Article 97 provides for the vacation of the office of Speaker or Deputy Speaker, stating that their office shall become vacant if they cease to be a member of the Lok Sabha.
In India, both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha are elected by the members of the Lok Sabha (House of the People), as per the provisions laid out in the Constitution of India and the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
Election of the Speaker:
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Nomination: Any member of the Lok Sabha who is eligible to be elected as Speaker may propose another member as a candidate for the office of Speaker. This proposal must be supported by at least 50 members.
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Voting: Once nominations are completed, voting takes place by a simple majority of members present and voting. The voting is conducted by means of a voice vote or a division (where members physically stand up to indicate their choice).
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Oath: After the election, the newly elected Speaker has to make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the President or some person appointed in that behalf by the President.
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Assumption of Office: The Speaker assumes office immediately after taking the oath or affirmation.
Election of the Deputy Speaker:
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Nomination: Similar to the Speaker, any member of the Lok Sabha may propose another member as a candidate for the office of Deputy Speaker. The proposal needs support from at least 50 members.
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Voting: Voting for the Deputy Speaker also takes place by a simple majority of members present and voting. The procedure for voting is the same as for the Speaker.
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Oath: Once elected, the Deputy Speaker has to make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the Speaker or some person appointed in that behalf by the Speaker.
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Assumption of Office: The Deputy Speaker assumes office immediately after taking the oath or affirmation.
- The pro-tem Speaker convenes the first meeting of the newly elected Lok Sabha. This includes overseeing the swearing-in ceremony of newly elected members.
- The pro-tem Speaker administers the oath or affirmation to all members-elect of the Lok Sabha.
- During the first meeting, the pro-tem Speaker presides over the House. They ensure that the proceedings are conducted in accordance with parliamentary rules and procedures.
- The primary duty of the pro-tem Speaker is to facilitate the election of the regular Speaker of the Lok Sabha. They oversee the process of nominations and the voting procedure until a Speaker is elected
- Similar to the regular Speaker, the pro-tem Speaker maintains order and decorum in the House. They have the authority to call members to order and ensure that debates and discussions are conducted respectfully
- The pro-tem Speaker decides on points of order raised during the proceedings and interprets parliamentary rules as necessary
- Until the regular Speaker assumes office, the pro-tem Speaker represents the Lok Sabha in ceremonial functions or interactions with the President or other dignitaries.
- Once the regular Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha, the pro-tem Speaker facilitates the smooth transition of responsibilities and hands over charge to the elected Speaker
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A resolution for the removal of the Speaker can be moved in the Lok Sabha. This resolution must be supported by at least 50 members of the House
- A minimum notice period of 14 days is required before the resolution can be taken up for consideration in the House. This notice period allows for adequate preparation and notification to all members
- The resolution for removal is debated and discussed in the Lok Sabha. Members are given an opportunity to present arguments for or against the removal of the Speaker.
- After the debate, the resolution is put to vote. The resolution for removal of the Speaker requires a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha (i.e., a simple majority of members present and voting is not sufficient)
- If the resolution for removal is passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha, the Speaker ceases to hold office from the date of the passing of the resolution
- Upon the removal of the Speaker, the office of the Speaker becomes vacant. The Deputy Speaker or, in their absence, any other member of the Lok Sabha presides over the House until a new Speaker is elected
For Prelims: Indian Polity
For Mains: GS-II: Governance, Constitution and Polity
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Previous Year Questions
1.With reference to the Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2024)
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration 1. He/She shall not preside. 2. He/She shall not have the right to speak. 3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (a)
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ANTI-DEFECTION LAW
2. About anti-defection law
The anti-defection law in India refers to the provisions laid down in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which was inserted by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985. The primary purpose of the anti-defection law is to curb "political defections" by legislators for personal gains or due to extraneous considerations, thereby promoting stability and integrity in the political system.
Key features and purposes of the anti-defection law include
- The law provides for the disqualification of elected legislators if they voluntarily give up the membership of their political party or disobey the directives issued by their party leadership on voting in legislative matters.
- By penalizing defections, the law aims to preserve stability and discipline within political parties. It discourages legislators from switching parties solely for opportunistic reasons, thereby promoting a more principled approach to politics.
- Preventing defections helps in maintaining stable governments by reducing the likelihood of frequent changes in government formation due to opportunistic alliances or individual defections. This stability is essential for effective governance and policy implementation.
- The law seeks to protect the mandate given by voters to a particular political party during elections. Defections can undermine the trust placed by voters in a party's policies and candidates, and the anti-defection law aims to safeguard the integrity of the electoral process.
- By discouraging defections and ensuring that legislators adhere to the party's stance on legislative matters, the law contributes to the smooth functioning of legislatures. It reduces disruptions caused by political uncertainties and promotes a more focused approach to lawmaking and governance.
- The anti-defection law upholds democratic principles by emphasizing the importance of party discipline and accountability. It encourages elected representatives to remain committed to the party's ideology and manifesto, thereby fostering a more transparent and accountable political system.
3. Has the anti-defection law ensured the stability of governments?
The effectiveness of the anti-defection law in ensuring the stability of governments in India is a subject of debate. While the law has certainly had some impact on curbing defections and promoting party discipline, its efficacy in maintaining government stability is not absolute.
Several factors contribute to this nuanced perspective
- The anti-defection law has succeeded in reducing blatant opportunistic defections where legislators switch parties solely for personal gains or political expediency. This has helped in preventing frequent changes in government formation and instability arising from such defections.
- In a multi-party democracy like India, coalition governments are common, and the anti-defection law has played a role in preserving these coalitions by deterring individual legislators from defecting and causing the collapse of the government.
- By discouraging defections and ensuring party discipline, the law has contributed to the smooth functioning of legislatures, which is essential for passing legislation and conducting parliamentary business. This has indirectly supported government stability by facilitating the enactment of policies and laws.
- Despite its provisions, the anti-defection law has faced challenges and criticisms. Some critics argue that the law has not entirely prevented defections, as legislators often find loopholes or exploit exceptions in the law to switch parties without facing disqualification.
- Government stability is influenced by various factors beyond the anti-defection law, including political dynamics, coalition dynamics, public opinion, and socio-economic factors. The law alone cannot guarantee government stability in the face of broader political uncertainties and challenges.
- While promoting stability, the anti-defection law has also raised concerns about its impact on democratic values such as freedom of speech and dissent within political parties. Critics argue that the law may stifle legitimate dissent and independent decision-making among legislators.
4. What constitutes defection? Who is the deciding authority?
Defection refers to the act of an elected representative or member of a political party abandoning their original party affiliation and joining another political party or forming a separate group, either independently or in association with others, without following the procedures laid down by their party or the law.
In the context of the anti-defection law in India, defection is specifically defined as:
- If a member of a political party voluntarily gives up their membership of that party.
- If an elected member votes or abstains from voting against the directives issued by their party leadership (whip) on a particular legislative matter, without obtaining prior permission.
- If a member of a political party joins another political party after being elected as a representative.
- If a member of a political party forms or joins a new group or political party, and such group consists of at least one-third of the members of the original political party in the legislature.
The deciding authority regarding defection cases is typically the Speaker or Chairman of the concerned legislative body (e.g., Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assembly, or State Legislative Council). Upon receiving a complaint or petition regarding a defection case, the Speaker or Chairman examines the matter and makes a decision based on the provisions of the anti-defection law.
The Speaker or Chairman is responsible for determining whether the actions of the member(s) constitute defection as per the law and, if so, for issuing appropriate orders, including disqualification of the defectors from membership of the legislature. The decision of the Speaker or Chairman can be challenged in the courts through legal recourse if it is perceived to be arbitrary or in violation of constitutional principles.
5. Kihoto Hollohan case (1993)
The Kihoto Hollohan vs. Zachillhu and Others case, decided by the Supreme Court of India in 1992, is a landmark case related to defection and the role of the Speaker in Indian politics.
- The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, introduced through the 52nd Amendment in 1985, laid down provisions to curb defection by elected representatives. This case challenged the constitutionality of the Tenth Schedule, particularly the broad powers it granted to the Speaker in deciding defection cases.
- The petitioners argued that giving the Speaker such extensive power violated the doctrine of basic structure and potentially infringed on the freedom of speech, dissent, and conscience of elected representatives.
- The Supreme Court, in a majority judgment, upheld the Tenth Schedule and the Speaker's broad powers. The court reasoned that:
- The Speaker occupies a crucial position in the parliamentary system and is expected to handle sensitive matters.
- Granting the Speaker broad discretion is necessary for the efficient and effective functioning of the anti-defection law.
- The court acknowledged the potential for bias but believed it was minimized by the Speaker's constitutional position and the requirement to act in good faith.
Significance: The Kihoto Hollohan case remains a pivotal judgment shaping Indian politics. It
- Established the Speaker's authority in deciding defection cases.
- affirmed the constitutionality of the anti-defection law.
- However, the case also sparked discussions about the balance between stability and individual rights in the context of defection. It continues to be debated whether the broad powers granted to the Speaker are truly necessary or pose a risk to democratic principles.
6. SR Bommai case (1994)
The SR Bommai case, officially known as S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India, is a landmark judgment delivered by the Supreme Court of India in 1994. This case dealt with issues related to the dismissal of state governments under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, popularly known as the President's Rule.
The case was prompted by the dismissal of the government in the state of Karnataka in 1989 under Article 356 by the then-central government led by Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi. This dismissal led to legal challenges, including petitions filed by S.R. Bommai, who was the Chief Minister of Karnataka at the time of dismissal.
Key Issues
- Whether the decision of the President to impose President's Rule in a state under Article 356 was immune from judicial review.
- Whether the power of the President to dismiss a state government was absolute or whether there were limitations on this power.
- Whether there were grounds for judicial intervention in cases of misuse or abuse of Article 356 by the Central government.
Key Judgments
- The Supreme Court held that the imposition of the President's Rule in a state is subject to judicial review. The Court ruled that the exercise of power under Article 356 is justiciable, and the President's satisfaction with imposing the President's Rule can be questioned in a court of law.
- The Court laid down guidelines and limitations on the exercise of power under Article 356. It held that the President's Rule can only be imposed in exceptional circumstances where the constitutional machinery in a state has completely broken down, and the Governor's report justifying the imposition of the President's Rule must be based on relevant material.
- The Court ruled that a floor test in the legislative assembly is the most effective way to determine the strength of the government and resolve political uncertainties. It held that the majority enjoyed by a government in the assembly should be tested on the floor of the House.
Significance: The SR Bommai case is significant as it established judicial guidelines and limitations on the use of Article 356 and provided clarity on the scope of judicial review in matters related to the dismissal of state governments. It reinforced the principles of federalism and democracy by limiting the Central government's power to dismiss state governments arbitrarily and ensuring accountability in the exercise of such powers.
7. The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 and the 10th Schedule of the Constitution
The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 was a significant amendment to the Constitution of India. It introduced the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, commonly known as the anti-defection law. The primary objective of this amendment was to curb the practice of political defections by legislators, which often led to instability in governments and undermined the democratic process.
Key provisions of the 52nd Amendment Act and the Tenth Schedule include
- The Tenth Schedule defines defection and provides criteria for disqualification of legislators who defect from their political party.
- Legislators can be disqualified if they voluntarily give up their party membership or violate the directives issued by their party leadership on voting in legislative matters.
- The Tenth Schedule empowers the Speaker or Chairman of the legislative body to decide on defection cases. The decision of the Speaker or Chairman regarding disqualification is final and cannot be questioned in a court of law except on certain grounds such as mala fide or violation of principles of natural justice.
- The Tenth Schedule provides certain exceptions to disqualification, such as when a political party merges with another party, and two-thirds of its members agree to the merger.
- While the decision of the Speaker or Chairman is generally final, it is subject to judicial review on certain grounds, such as violation of constitutional provisions or principles of natural justice.
The 52nd Amendment Act and the Tenth Schedule were introduced to promote stability and integrity in the political system by discouraging defections and preserving party discipline. However, over the years, there have been debates and discussions about the effectiveness of the anti-defection law and its impact on democratic principles such as freedom of speech and dissent within political parties. Nevertheless, the introduction of the Tenth Schedule remains a significant milestone in the constitutional history of India aimed at strengthening the democratic framework of the country.
8. 91st Amendment Act of 2003
The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 is an important amendment to the Constitution of India. This amendment introduced changes to Article 75 and Article 164, which deal with the appointment of Ministers in the Union Council of Ministers and State Council of Ministers, respectively. The primary objective of the 91st Amendment Act was to prevent the practice of "office of profit" by Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of the State Legislature (MLAs).
Key provisions of the 91st Amendment Act include
- The amendment clarified the definition of "office of profit" held by MPs and MLAs. An office of profit refers to any position held by a person which brings them some financial gain, advantage, or benefit.
- The amendment exempted certain offices from being considered as offices of profit. These include offices held by MPs or MLAs as Ministers, or positions that the Parliament or State Legislature has specifically declared as not being offices of profit.
- The amendment specified that a person shall be disqualified from being a member of Parliament or State Legislature if they hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any state, other than offices exempted by law.
- The amendment allowed for the Parliament or State Legislature to make laws specifying the offices that are exempted from disqualification. It also provided for the interpretation of the term "office of profit" by the Parliament or State Legislature.
The 91st Amendment Act aimed to ensure that legislators do not hold positions that could potentially compromise their independence and impartiality in discharging their duties as elected representatives. By preventing MPs and MLAs from holding offices of profit, the amendment sought to uphold the principles of transparency, accountability, and integrity in the functioning of the legislative bodies in India.
8.1. What is that ‘exception’?
- The exception mentioned in the context of the 91st Amendment Act of 2003 refers to certain offices that are exempted from being considered as "office of profit" and, therefore, do not lead to disqualification of MPs or MLAs holding such positions.
- The amendment provides that certain offices can be specifically exempted by law from being considered as offices of profit. This means that the Parliament or State Legislature can pass laws to declare certain positions or offices as not falling under the definition of office of profit, thereby allowing MPs or MLAs to hold these positions without facing disqualification.
- The purpose of this exception is to provide clarity and flexibility in determining which positions should be considered as offices of profit and which should be exempted. It allows for a case-by-case examination of positions held by legislators to ensure that they do not hold any office that could potentially compromise their independence or impartiality in discharging their duties as elected representatives.
- Examples of offices that may be exempted from being considered as offices of profit include positions held by legislators as Ministers or positions that are honorary or ceremonial, without any substantial remuneration or executive authority attached to them. However, the specific exemptions may vary depending on the laws passed by the Parliament or State Legislature.
9. The Way Forward
The anti-defection law remains a significant milestone in India's constitutional history, aimed at strengthening democratic principles and promoting a more transparent and accountable political system. There is a need to review and strengthen the implementation of the law, enhance transparency in defection cases, promote intra-party democracy, and encourage public awareness to uphold the integrity of the electoral process and ensure the stability of governments.
For Prelims: Anti-Defection Law, 91st Amendment Act of 2003, 52nd Amendment Act of 1985, the 10th Schedule of the Constitution, Kihoto Hollohan case, SR Bommai case, Article 356 For Mains:
1. Discuss the significance of the anti-defection law in India's political landscape, highlighting its objectives and key features. Also, analyze the effectiveness of the law in curbing political defections and promoting stability within political parties. (250 Words)
2. Discuss the significance of intra-party democracy in strengthening the anti-defection law and promoting a more accountable political system in India. Highlight the importance of transparency and public awareness in upholding the integrity of the electoral process. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. Regarding anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
2. Consider the following statements in respect of Anti-defection Law in India? (OPSC OAS 2022)
(i) Political Parties got Constitutional recognition by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment.
(ii) Anti-defection Law came into effect on March 18, 1985.
(iii) The decision of the Speaker in disqualifying an elected member is subject to judicial review.
(iv) Anti-defection law comes into action if there is a split in the Political Party.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
A. (ii), (iii) and (iv) B. (i), (iii) and (iv) C. (i), (ii) and (iii) D. (i), (ii) and (iv)
3. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection? (UPSC 2014) (a) Second Schedule 4. The 91st Amendment Act (2003), was made so that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed ___ percent of total number of members of the House of the People (or Assembly, in the case of the States). (DSSSB JE CE 2019) (DSSSB Junior Steno 2021) A. 16 B. 20 C. 15 D. 18 5. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government: (UPSC 2017) (a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
Answers: 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-C, 5-C Mains 1. The role of individual MPs (Members of Parliament) has diminished over the years and as a result healthy constructive debates on policy issues are not usually witnessed. How far can this be attributed to the anti-defection law which was legislated but with a different intention? (UPSC 2013)
2. ‘Once a Speaker, Always a Speaker’! Do you think this practice should be adopted to impart objectivity to the office of the Speaker of Lok Sabha? What could be its implications for the robust functioning of parliamentary business in India? (UPSC 2020)
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Source: The Indian Express