Current Affair

Back
DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 23 OCTOBER 2024

AIR QUALITY INDEX (AQI)

1. Context

Delhi’s 24-hour average air quality index (AQI) was 327 (very poor) at 4 p.m. on Tuesday, up from 310 (very poor) a day earlier, as per the Central Pollution Control Board’s (CPCB) daily official bulletin. A higher value of AQI means an increase in air pollution.
 

2. The Air Quality Index (AQI)

The AQI is a colour-coded index launched under the Swachh Bharat campaign to simplify the understanding of pollution levels. It helps convey the condition of the air and guides appropriate measures based on the severity of pollution. The AQI consists of six categories, each with a corresponding colour code: 'Good' (0-50), 'Satisfactory' (51-100), 'Moderately Polluted' (101-200), 'Poor' (201-300), 'Very Poor' (301-400) and 'Severe' (401-500).

3. Calculation of AQI

  • To calculate the AQI, a technical study was conducted by an expert group, including medical professionals, air quality experts, and academics.
  • Various pollutants, such as PM10, PM2.5, Nitrogen Dioxide, Ozone, Carbon, and others, are measured.
  • Each pollutant is assigned a weight based on its impact on human health.
  • The composite air quality index is determined by combining these weights, simplifying multiple data points into a single number and colour to represent overall air quality.
  • Monitoring stations across the country assess these pollutant levels.

4. Impact of Pollutants on Health

  • Among the most harmful pollutants are fine particulate matter, such as PM2.5, which has a diameter smaller than 2.5 micrometres.
  • PM2.5 particles can easily enter the circulatory system, bypassing the nose and throat.
  • They are associated with respiratory problems and reduced visibility, posing health risks such as asthma, heart attacks, bronchitis, and other respiratory issues.

5. Influence on Government Policy

  • Governments, especially in areas like Delhi, use the AQI to announce measures to combat air pollution.
  • When the AQI in the National Capital Region (NCR) reaches the 'severe' category, Stage 4 of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is implemented.
  • GRAP is designed for emergency measures to prevent further deterioration of air quality.
  • Specific actions may include prohibiting the use of non-BS-VI-compliant diesel four-wheelers and restricting the entry of trucks into the city while allowing petrol cars to continue operating as usual.

6. Conclusion

The Air Quality Index is an essential tool that simplifies the understanding of air pollution, assesses its health impacts, and influences government policies and actions to combat deteriorating air quality. As Mumbai braces for worsening air quality, the AQI will continue to be a critical resource for both the government and the public.

 
For Prelims: Air Pollution, Air Quality Index, PM 2.5, PM 10, BS-VI Vehicles, Graded Response Action Plan, National Capital Region, Nitrogen Dioxide, Ozone, Carbon, 
For Mains: 
1. With the onset of worsening air quality in Mumbai, discuss the importance of the AQI as a critical resource for both the government and the public. How can the AQI assist in addressing air pollution-related challenges in the upcoming winter months? (250 Words)

 

Previous Year Questions

1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (UPSC 2016)
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nitrogen dioxide
  4. Sulfur dioxide
  5. Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only      B. 2, 3 and 4 only   C. 1, 4 and 5 only     D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: B

2. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (UPSC 2020)

  1. Automobile exhaust
  2. Tobacco smoke
  3. Wood burning
  4. Using varnished wooden furniture
  5. Using products made of polyurethane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only  B. 2 and 4 only   C. 1, 3 and 4 only     D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

AnswerA

3. What is the ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? (UPSC 2016)

(a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions

(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies.

(c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022

(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank

Answer: A

4. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among (UPSC 2013)

(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

(c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature

(d) high concentration of NO2 O3 and CO in the evening

Answer: A

 

5. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment (UPSC 2013, 2022)

(a) Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen

(b) Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide

(c) Ozone and Carbon Dioxide

(d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide

 Answer: D

 

6. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (UPSC 2017)

(a) Measuring oxygen level in blood

(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems

(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem

(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions

Answer: C

7. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently published the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, in 2020. Which of the following statements is correct about EIA? (Punjab Civil Service 2020)
1. It predicts the effect of a proposed industrial/infrastructural project on the environment.
2. It prevents the proposed activity/project from being approved without proper oversight or taking adverse consequences into account.
3. It compares various alternatives for a project and seeks to identify the one which represents the best combination of economic and environmental costs and benefits.
4. As per the new notification, Coal and non-Coal mineral prospecting and solar photovoltaic projects do not need prior environmental clearance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 1, 2 and 4
Answer: D
 
8.  Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in (NDA 2017)
A. Washington        B. Geneva         C. Moscow         D.  London
 
Answer: B
 
 
9. With reference to the 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2017)
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only            B. 3 only           C. 2 and 3 only              D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
 
10. The IPCC is the United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change. IPCC stands for: (RRB NTPC CBT 2 2022)
A. Intergovernmental Provision on Climate Change
B. International Panel on Climate Change
C. International Provision on Climate Change
D. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
 
Answer: D
 
 
11. Comprehension (SSC CHSL 2020)
 
Direction: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Forest fire always (1) ______ by one of two reasons-naturally caused or human-caused. Natural fire is generally (2) ______ by lightning, with a very small percentage (3) ______ by spontaneous combustion of dry fuel such as sawdust and leaves. (4) ______, human-caused fire can happen (5) ______ any number of reasons.
Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1.
A. takes up    B. happens    C. causes    D. creates
 
Answer: B
 
12. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the (UPSC 2020) 
A. long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emission in a given year.
B. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.
C. efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
D. contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.
 
Answer: A
 
13. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (UPSC 2012)
A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
C. all the solar radiations
D. the infrared part of the solar radiation
 
Answer: D
 
14. As per the World Health Organisation (WHO) recommendation of a balanced diet, to avoid unhealthy weight gain, total fat should NOT exceed _______ of total energy intake. (UPSSSC Mandi Inspector 2019)
A. 20%         B.  30%        C. 10%          D. 40%
 
Answer: B
 
15. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems? (UPSC 2012)
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only        B. 2 and 3 only          C. 1 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: A
 
16. Which of the following ultraviolet rays is more dangerous? (UPTET 2017)
A. UV-A        B. UV-B          C.  UV-C          D.  None of the above
 
Answer: C
 
17. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019) 
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only         B. 2 and 3 only          C. 2 only          D.  1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: D
 
18. Which of the following is a VOC? (MP Vyapam 2022) 
A. Toulene          B. Water            C. Carbon dioxide          D. Carbon monoxide
 
Answer: A
 
19. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are of great concern because (UGC NET  Environmental Science  2020)
A. Once such compounds are in the vapour state, they are difficult to control in the environment.
B. Most of them are ozone depleting substances
C. They contribute to a general increase in reactive hydrocarbons in the atmosphere.
D. They are less soluble in water.
 
Answer: C

 Source: The Indian Express

 

SECTION 6A OF CITIZENSHIP ACT

 
 

1. Context

In a landmark ruling,a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court on October 18 upheld the constitutional validity of Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955 (1955 Act) which laid out an exclusive regime for migrants in Assam from erstwhile East Pakistan (present Bangladesh) to obtain Indian citizenship as long as they entered India before March 25, 1971. The decision was rendered by a 4:1 majority.Justice Surya Kant authored the lead majority opinion on behalf of himself, CJI D.Y. Chandrachud, Justices M. M. Sundresh, and Manoj Misra, while Justice Pardiwala delivered the lone dissenting opinion.
 
 

2. What is Section 6A of the Citizenship Act?

Section 6A is a special provision inserted into the Indian Citizenship Act, 1955, in 1985, as part of the Assam Accord. It deals with the citizenship of people who migrated to Assam from Bangladesh:

  • It applies to people who entered Assam on or after January 1, 1966, but before March 25, 1971.
  • It grants citizenship to these people if they can prove that they were "ordinarily resident" in Assam on March 24, 1971.
  • People who claim citizenship under Section 6A must apply to a Foreigners Tribunal. The Tribunal will then decide whether or not to grant them citizenship based on the evidence they provide.
 

3. Questions surrounding Section 6A

  • The constitutionality of Section 6A has been challenged in court, with some arguing that it is discriminatory against people who migrated to Assam after 1971.
  • There have been concerns about how Section 6A has been implemented, with some people alleging that it has led to the disenfranchisement of legitimate citizens.
  • Some Assamese people argue that Section 6A has led to a large influx of migrants, which has threatened their culture and identity.

 

4. Citizens and Aliens

Citizens

  • A citizen is a person who has full legal membership in a country.
  • Citizens have certain rights and privileges that are not available to non-citizens, such as the right to vote, hold public office, and own property.
  • Citizens also have certain responsibilities, such as obeying the law and paying taxes.

Aliens

  • An alien is a person who is not a citizen of the country in which they are living.
  • Aliens may have some of the same rights as citizens, such as the right to freedom of speech and religion. However, they do not have all of the same rights as citizens, and they may be subject to certain restrictions, such as not being able to vote or hold public office.
  • Aliens are also subject to the laws of the country in which they are living, and they may be deported if they break the law.

 

5. Ways of Acquiring Citizenship

The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of acquiring Indian citizenship:

  1. By birth: A person born in India after January 26, 1950, is a citizen of India by birth.
  2. By descent: A person born in India on or after January 26, 1950, but before December 10, 1992, whose father was an Indian citizen at the time of his birth, is a citizen of India by descent.
  3. By registration: A person who is a citizen of another country may apply for Indian citizenship by registration if they have been residing in India for a continuous period of 12 months immediately before the date of application.
  4. By naturalization: A person who is not a citizen of India may apply for Indian citizenship by naturalization if they have been residing in India for a continuous period of 11 years immediately before the date of application.
  5. By incorporation of territory: When territory is incorporated into India, the people who were residing in that territory at the time of incorporation are granted Indian citizenship.
 

6. Ways of Losing Citizenship

The Citizenship Act, 1955, prescribes three ways of losing Indian citizenship:

1. Renunciation involves a voluntary surrender of Indian citizenship by a citizen through a formal declaration. This declaration can only be made if the individual has acquired the citizenship of another country. This is a straightforward process and does not require any prior approval from the Indian government. Once renounced, Indian citizenship cannot be regained automatically. However, a former citizen can reapply for Indian citizenship through naturalization, subject to meeting the eligibility criteria.

2. Termination occurs automatically when an Indian citizen acquires the citizenship of another country without fulfilling the conditions for retaining Indian citizenship. Specifically, an Indian citizen who lives outside India for a continuous period of 7 years without registering with an Indian diplomatic or consular officer loses their citizenship. This period can be extended under certain exceptional circumstances, such as serving in the employment of the Indian government or a public sector undertaking.

3. Deprivation involves the withdrawal of Indian citizenship by the Indian government on specific grounds outlined in the Citizenship Act. These grounds include:

    • Obtaining Indian citizenship by fraud, false representation, or concealment of a material fact.
    • Disloyalty or disaffection towards the Constitution of India.
    • Trading with the enemy during a war.
    • Engaging in activities prejudicial to the sovereignty and integrity of India.
    • Being convicted of an offence for which they are sentenced to imprisonment for 2 years or more.

The process of deprivation involves a formal inquiry and hearing by a designated authority. The individual has the right to be represented by a lawyer and to present their defence. If found guilty, their citizenship is revoked by the Central government.

 

7. Assam Accord

  • The plea before the Constitutional bench in the Supreme Court challenges one of the core elements of the Accord which determines who is a foreigner in the state and the basis of the final National Register of Citizens in Assam, published in 2019.
  • Clause 5 of the Assam Accord states that January 1, 1966, shall serve as the base cutoff date for the detection and deletion of “foreigners” but it also contains provisions for the regularisation of those who arrived in the state after that date and up till.
Section 6 A of the Citizenship Act was inserted as an amendment to accommodate this.
What Section 6 A essentially does is establish March 24, 1971, as the cut-off date for entry into the state, meaning that those entering the state after that would be considered “illegal immigrants”.
 
  • It states that while those who came to Assam on or after January 1, 1966, but before March 25, 1971, from Bangladesh shall be detected as “foreigners”, they would have to register themselves according to rules made by the Central Government.
  • Till a period of 10 years from the date they were detected as foreigners, they would have the same rights and obligations as Indian citizens except for being included in electoral rolls for any assembly or parliamentary constituency.
  • At the end of the ten years, they were to be deemed citizens.
  • The final National Register of Citizens in Assam which was published in 2019 was conducted with this cut-off date of 24 March 1971.

 

For Prelims: Citizenship Act 1955, Aliens, Assam Accord
 
For Mains: 
1. Discuss the challenges and concerns surrounding the implementation of Section 6A. How can these be addressed to ensure a fair and impartial process? (250 words)
2. Examine the administrative challenges associated with the implementation of Section 6A. How can these be overcome to ensure efficient and effective decision-making? (250 words)

 

Previous Year Questions

Consider the following statements: (2018)

  1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
  2. Once issued, the Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only       (b) 2 only          (c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

2. What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (UPSC  2021)

(a) Legal right available to citizens only

(b) Legal right available to any person

(c) Fundamental Rights available to citizens only

(d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right

 

3.  With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2012)
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only             B. 2 only           C. Both 1 and 2               D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
 
4. Barak Valley in Assam is famous for which among the following? (MSTET 2019)
A.  Bamboo Industry
B. Petroleum Production
C. Cottage Industries
D. Tea Cultivation
 
 
5. Which one of the following is an important crop of the Barak Valley? (Karnataka Civil Police Constable 2019)
A. Sugarcane           B.  Jute            C. Tea                    D. Cotton
 
 
6. Under Assam Accord of 1985, foreigners who had entered Assam before March 25, _____ were to be given citizenship.  (DSSSB JE & Section Officer 2022)
A. 1954           B. 1971         C.  1981           D. 1966
 
Answers: 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-B, 6-B
 
 
Source: The Indian Express
 

NUCLEAR ENERGY

 
 
1. Context
On October 14, Google announced the “first corporate agreement” to buy nuclear energy from multiple Small Modular Reactors (SMR). These SMRs will be developed by Kairos Power. The initial phase of the work will bring up the first SMR by 2030, and subsequent deployments will continue through 2035. Per Google, this deal will provide 500 MW of carbon-free power to the U.S. electricity grid. They said this agreement will help in the development of AI technologies to power scientific advances.
 
2. What is Nuclear Energy?

Nuclear energy is a form of energy that is generated from the nucleus of an atom. It is released through two main processes: nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.

  1. Nuclear Fission: Nuclear fission is the process by which the nucleus of a heavy atom, such as uranium-235 or plutonium-239, is split into two or more smaller nuclei, along with the release of a significant amount of energy. This process can be controlled and sustained in a nuclear reactor. In a nuclear power plant, the heat produced by nuclear fission is used to generate steam, which, in turn, drives turbines connected to generators. These generators produce electricity, which is then distributed for various purposes.

  2. Nuclear Fusion: Nuclear fusion is the process of combining the nuclei of light atoms, such as isotopes of hydrogen (e.g., deuterium and tritium), to form a heavier nucleus, along with the release of energy. Fusion is the process that powers the sun and other stars. It has the potential to provide a nearly limitless and cleaner source of energy compared to fission. However, achieving controlled nuclear fusion on Earth has proven to be technologically challenging and has not yet been realized for widespread energy production.

3. Why do we need nuclear energy?

Nuclear energy serves several important purposes and is considered valuable for various reasons, which include:

  1. Low Greenhouse Gas Emissions: Nuclear power plants produce electricity with very low greenhouse gas emissions. This makes nuclear energy an attractive option for countries aiming to reduce their carbon footprint and combat climate change. It provides a source of electricity that is relatively clean and doesn't release significant amounts of carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.

  2. Reliable Baseload Power: Nuclear energy provides a consistent and reliable source of electricity, known as baseload power. Unlike some renewable energy sources, such as wind and solar, which are intermittent and weather-dependent, nuclear power can operate continuously and meet the minimum electricity demand, ensuring grid stability.

  3. Energy Security: Nuclear energy can contribute to energy security by diversifying a nation's energy sources. This reduces the reliance on fossil fuels, which can be subject to price volatility and supply disruptions due to geopolitical conflicts.

  4. High Energy Density: Nuclear fission, the process used in nuclear power plants, has a high energy density, meaning that a small amount of nuclear fuel can produce a large amount of energy. This is particularly important in scenarios where space and resource constraints are factors.

  5. Long Fuel Supply: Uranium, the primary fuel used in nuclear reactors, is relatively abundant and can provide a stable and long-term source of energy. Additionally, there is ongoing research into advanced nuclear technologies, such as breeder reactors, which can extend the use of nuclear fuel resources.

  6. Reduced Air Pollution: In addition to lower greenhouse gas emissions, nuclear power plants do not produce the air pollutants associated with fossil fuel combustion, such as sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, and particulate matter, which can have adverse health effects and contribute to air pollution.
  7. High Energy Independence: Nations with nuclear power capabilities can reduce their dependence on imported fossil fuels. This enhances energy independence and can have economic and geopolitical benefits.
4.Types of Water reactor

Water reactors are a common type of nuclear reactor that use water as a coolant and/or moderator. There are several types of water reactors, including pressurized water reactors (PWRs) and boiling water reactors (BWRs). Here's an overview of these two main types:

  1. Pressurized Water Reactors (PWRs):

    • Pressurized Water Reactors (PWRs) are the most prevalent type of commercial nuclear reactors in the world.
    • PWRs use ordinary water (light water) as both a coolant and a moderator. The water is kept at high pressure to prevent it from boiling.
    • The reactor core contains fuel rods, typically enriched uranium, and control rods to regulate the nuclear reaction.
    • The heat generated in the reactor core is transferred to a secondary loop of water (usually at lower pressure) through a heat exchanger. This secondary loop is used to produce steam to drive turbines and generate electricity.
    • PWRs are known for their safety features, as the high pressure in the primary coolant loop helps prevent the release of radioactive materials.
  2. Boiling Water Reactors (BWRs):

    • Boiling Water Reactors (BWRs) also use water as a coolant and moderator, but they allow the water in the reactor core to boil.
    • The fuel rods are located in the reactor core, and as the nuclear fission reactions occur, they generate heat, causing the water in direct contact with the fuel rods to boil and produce steam.
    • The steam from the reactor core is directly used to drive turbines and generate electricity without the need for a separate heat exchanger.
    • BWRs are simpler in design but have different safety features compared to PWRs.
 
 5. Pressurized Heavy Water Reactor vs Light Water Reactor vs Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor
  Pressurized Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR)  Light Water Reactor (LWR) Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR) 
Coolant and Moderator Uses heavy water (deuterium oxide, D2O) as both the coolant and moderator. Heavy water moderates the neutrons and helps sustain the nuclear chain reaction Uses ordinary light water (H2O) as both the coolant and moderator. The light water absorbs some neutrons, which affects the reactivity of the reactor Uses a liquid metal coolant (sodium or lead) and typically does not use a separate moderator. The fast neutrons produced in the reactor core drive the breeding of fissile material.
Fuel Typically uses natural uranium or slightly enriched uranium as fuel. It relies on heavy water to sustain the chain reaction Uses enriched uranium (typically U-235) or mixed oxide (MOX) fuel, which contains both uranium and plutonium. Light water reactors require enriched fuel to compensate for neutron absorption by the coolant Uses plutonium or enriched uranium as fuel. The reactor is designed to create more fissile material (usually plutonium-239) than it consumes
Neutron Spectrum Has a thermal neutron spectrum, where neutrons have lower energy and are moderated by heavy water Also has a thermal neutron spectrum, where neutrons are moderated by light water Operates with a fast neutron spectrum, meaning that neutrons have higher energy and are not significantly moderated. This allows for efficient breeding of fissile material
Efficiency Relatively low thermal efficiency due to the neutron-absorbing properties of heavy water Moderate thermal efficiency. Most commercial nuclear power plants worldwide are LWRs High potential for efficiency as it can produce more fissile material than it consumes, making it a potential source of sustainable nuclear fuel.
Development and Use Used in some countries like Canada and India for power generation The most common reactor type for commercial power generation worldwide Developed as a prototype for future breeder reactor technology. Few operational FBRs exist
 
 
6. Nuclear power plants in India?

The following are nuclear power plants in India:

  1. Tarapur Atomic Power Station (TAPS):

    • Located in Tarapur, Maharashtra.
    • Features two boiling water reactors (BWRs) and two pressurized heavy water reactors (PHWRs).
  2. Kakrapar Atomic Power Station (KAPS):

    • Located in Kakrapar, Gujarat.
    • Consists of two pressurized heavy water reactors (PHWRs).
  3. Rajasthan Atomic Power Station (RAPS):

    • Located in Rawatbhata, Rajasthan.
    • Comprises several units, including both pressurized heavy water reactors (PHWRs) and pressurized heavy water reactors with enriched uranium (PHWRs-PU).
  4. Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS):

    • Located in Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu.
    • Features two pressurized heavy water reactors (PHWRs) and a Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR).
  5. Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS):

    • Located in Narora, Uttar Pradesh.
    • Houses two pressurized heavy water reactors (PHWRs).
  6. Kaiga Generating Station (KGS):

    • Located in Kaiga, Karnataka.
    • Operates with pressurized heavy water reactors (PHWRs).
  7. Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant:

    • Located in Kudankulam, Tamil Nadu.
    • Currently, it has two VVER-1000 pressurized water reactors (PWRs) in operation, and additional units were under construction.
  8. Gorakhpur Haryana Anu Vidyut Pariyojana (GHAVP):

    • Located in Fatehabad, Haryana.
    • Houses two pressurized heavy water reactors (PHWRs).
 
7. Way forward
The role of nuclear energy in a country's energy mix is often a subject of debate, and it depends on a combination of factors, including national energy policy, safety measures, public opinion, and the availability of alternative energy sources
 
 
For Prelims:  Current events of national and international importance and General Science
For Mains:  General Studies III: Science and Technology- developments and their applications and effects in everyday life
Source: indianexpress
 

INSURANCE REGULATORY DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY OF INDIA (IRDAI)

 

1. Context

Bima Sugam, a digital insurance platform, is all set for launch, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) chairperson

2. Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDAI)

  • The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India or the IRDAI is the apex body responsible for the regulation and development of the insurance industry in India.
  • It is an autonomous body.
  • It was established by an act of Parliament known as the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, of 1999. Hence, it is a statutory body.

3. IRDA Functions

  • Its primary purpose is to protect the rights of the policyholders in India.
  • It gives the registration certificate to insurance companies in the country.
  • It also engages in the renewal, modification, cancellation, etc. of this registration.
  • It also creates regulations to protect policyholders interests in India.

4. What does the new IRDAI rule say?

  • IRDAI has asked insurance companies, including life and non-life, to fix an overall cap on commission to agents, brokers, and other intermediaries, giving more flexibility to insurers in managing their expenses.
  • This means the regulator has replaced the earlier cap on different commission payments to various types of intermediaries with an overall board-approved cap which should be within the allowed expenses.

5. What is the Objective?

The rationale of the regulation is to enable and provide flexibility to the insurers, both life and general insurers to manage their expenses within the overall limits based on their gross written premium to optimally utilize their resources for enhancing benefits to policyholders.

6. How will this move benefit insurance companies and agents?

  • The insurance sector participants have welcomed the change in the regulation and termed it a major reform.
  • They said the removal of the cap on commission payments will positively impact the sector.
  • Currently, the limit of EOM in the general insurance business is 30 percent, and in health insurance is 35 percent.
  • The insurance companies are paying insurance intermediaries a commission of 15 percent of the total premium business they are bringing in.
  • The new regulation has removed the cap. However, the overall limit of EOM will remain.
  • With the new regulations, an insurance company can pay a higher commission to an agent if the business brought in is good and claim-free.
  • The liberty to give a commission to an agent is left to the company.
  • The new norms will facilitate greater product innovation and the development of new product distribution models and lead to more customer-centric operations.
  • It will also increase insurance penetration and provide flexibility to insurers in managing their expenses. Overall, it will smoothen adherence to compliance norms.

7. What benefit will consumers get?

  • Post the changes in regulations, insurance agents are likely to be more interested in selling insurance products and explaining policy details to consumers beforehand.
  • The claim ratio of these agents will also be better.
  • When claim outgoes are within the overall manageable limit, an insurance company may not increase the premium, which will be beneficial for consumers.
  • This move will also help in increasing insurance penetration as agents will get higher commissions.
  • IRDAI said the regulation will come into force from April 1, 2023, and will remain in force for a period of three years thereafter. 

8. What do Expenses of Mangement mean?

  • Expenses of Management (EOM) include all expenses in the nature of operation expenses of general or health Insurance business and commission to the insurance agents or insurance intermediaries.
  • It also includes commission and expenses on reinsurance inward, which are charged to the revenue account.

For Prelims

For Prelims: Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDAI), Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, of 1999, and Expenses of Management (EOM).
 
Source: The Indian Express
 
Previous year Question
 
1. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) Act was passed in the year? (TNPSC Group -1, 2014)
A. 1986
B. 1991
C. 1999
D. 2005
Answer: B
 
2. IRDAI has set up a panel under whose chairmanship to examine the need for standard cyber liability insurance product? (CGPSC Civil service 2020)
A. Pravin Kutumbe
B. P. Umesh
C. K. Ganesh
D. T. L. Alamelu
Answer: B
 
 
 

INDIA-CHINA BORDER DISPUTE 

 
 
 

1.Context 

Four-and-half years after the standoff between India and China, New Delhi and Beijing have agreed on the disengagement on the border where 50,000 to 60,000 troops are stationed on both sides

2.Key points

  • China informed India that it should be happy with what has been achieved regarding the disengagement in the Pangong Tso area.
  • At two friction points, Patrolling Point 15 (PP 15) in Hot Springs and PP 17A near Gogra Post, China still has a platoon-level strength each along with vehicles.

3.Chinese troops crossed the LAC

  • In May 2020 China diverted its troops to the Tibetan Plateau region for their annual exercise and came towards the Line of Actual Control (LAC) in Eastern Ladakh.
  • It is creating a standoff with India, PP15 and PP17A was two of the four points where the soldiers were eyeball-to-eyeball.
  • The other points of friction at that time were PP14 in Galwan Valley and the north bank of Pangong Tso.
  • Chinese troops crossed the LAC at all these points and positioned themselves across.
The maximum ingress was on the north bank of Pangong Tso, where the Chinese troops were at Finger 4, which is 8 km west of Finger 8 where India says the LAC lies.
 

4.China Study Group

  • Along the LAC between India and China, the Indian Army has been given certain locations that its troops can access to patrol the area under its control.
  • These points are known as Patrolling points or PPs and are decided by the China Study Group (CSG).
  • CSG was set up in 1976 when Indira Gandhi was the Prime Minister and is the apex decision-making body on China.
  • Barring certain areas, like Depsang Plains, these patrolling points are on the LAC and troops access these points to assert their control over the territory.
  • It is an important exercise since the boundary between India and China is not yet officially demarcated.

5.What are PP15 and 17A?

PP15 and PP17A are two of the 65 patrolling points in Ladakh along the LAC.
 
Some of these 65 also have additional Alpha PPs, which are further ahead of the original PPs.
So PP17A is different from but close to, PP17.
 
PP 15 is located in an area known as the Hot Springs, while PP17A is near an area called the Gogra post.
 

6.Where are these two areas?

  • Both of these are close to the Chang Chenmo river in the Galwan sub-sector of the LAC in Eastern Ladakh.
  • While Hot Springs is just north of the Chang Chenmo river, Gogra Post is east of the point where the river takes a hairpin bend coming southeast from Galwan Valley and turning southwest.
  • The area is north of the Karakoram Range of mountains, which lies north of the Pangong Tso lake and south-east of Galwan Valley, which became a major flashpoint and a violent faceoff in June 2020 had left 20 Indian and at least four Chinese troops dead.

7.Importance of this region 

  • The area lies close to KongakaPass, one of the main passes, which marks the boundary between India and China according to China.
  • India's claim of the international boundary lies significantly east, as it includes the entire Aksai Chin area as well.
During the official negotiations on the boundary between India and China in 1960, Yang Kung-su the Tibet Bureau of Foreign Affairs in the Chinese Foreign office stated that the Western Sector of the boundary "is divided into two portions, with Kongka Pass as the dividing point" and the portion "north of Kongka Pass is the boundary between Sinkiang (now Xinjiang) and Ladakh and the portion south of it is that between Tibet and Ladak".
 
  • Hot springs and Gogra Post are close to the boundary between two of the most historically disturbed provinces of China.

8.Significant to military

  • Both PP15 and PP17A are in an area where India and China largely agree on the alignment of the LAC which comes southeast from Galwan Valley, turns down at Konga La and moves towards Ann Pass before reaching the north bank of Pangong Tso.
  • China has a major People's Liberation Army post a few km east of Kongaka La, while Indian posts lie southwest of it.
  • According to the official history of the 1962 war between India and China, the region is not identified as a major "launchpad" for where an offensive can be launched by either side.
  • The official history notes that the Chinese had " succeeded in eliminating possible launch pads for any offensive against the Aksai Chin highway by eliminating DBO, Chushul and Demchok positions.
  • It said that it "all the more strengthens the contention that Indians should have attempted to retain at least one jump-off point; Chushul".

9.Hot Springs post 

  • But the history notes that Hot Springs was an important post even during the 1962 conflict.
  • In October 1962 there was a company strength at the Galwan Post, while three other posts Hot springs, Nala Junction and Patrol Base had the strengths of a platoon.
  • Hot Spring also served as the Company headquarter and was shelled by the Chinese on October 21.
  • Chinese troops had wanted to get behind Hot Spring but were resisted at the Nala Junction.

10.Present Situation 

  • India and China have made notable progress in resolving the military standoff along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) in eastern Ladakh by agreeing to restore mutual patrolling rights in the Depsang Plains and Demchok regions, which are considered legacy issues predating the 2020 Chinese incursions.
  • This agreement is significant, as China had previously been reluctant to discuss Depsang Plains and Charding Nullah in Demchok, even while cooperating on disengagement at other points of conflict.
  • Since May 2020, there have been seven areas of friction in eastern Ladakh where Indian and Chinese troops have faced off, including PP 14 (Galwan), PP 15 (Hot Springs), PP 17A (Gogra), the northern and southern banks of Pangong Tso, Depsang Plains (where Chinese forces blocked Indian access to patrol points), and Charding Nullah.
     
  • The strategic importance of the Depsang Plains lies not only in its proximity to the Daulat Beg Oldie post, about 30 km southeast near the Karakoram Pass, but also in its relatively flat terrain, which could be used by either side to launch military offensives, similar to the Spanggur Gap in the Chushul sub-sector.
  • Bottleneck, a rocky area that connects the Depsang Plains, is located about 7 km east of Burtse, where the Indian Army has a base along the Darbuk-Shyok-Daulat Beg Oldie (DSDBO) road. The route from Burtse splits at Bottleneck (also called the Y-Junction), with one path leading to PP10 via the Raki Nala and the other southeast to PP-13 along Jiwan Nala.
     
  • The LAC is the boundary that separates Indian-controlled and Chinese-controlled areas. India claims the LAC to be 3,488 km long, while China asserts it is approximately 2,000 km. The LAC is divided into three sectors: the eastern sector (Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim), the middle sector (Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh), and the western sector (Ladakh).
  • In the eastern sector, the LAC aligns with the 1914 McMahon Line, with minor disputes over the precise location based on the high Himalayan watershed principle, including areas such as Longju and Asaphila. The middle sector is less contentious, except for disagreements over the Barahoti plains' alignment
    .

11.Conclusion 

  • After the disengagement in the Pangong Tso Region, when both India and China had pulled back their troops and armoured columns in February, as per the agreement, the senior military commanders were to meet to discuss the other friction points, including these two and Depsang Plains.
  • However, no fresh ground could be broken in the talks and China has refused to pull back.
Prelims & Mains Perspective
For Prelims: LAC and areas involved in it, the importance of the areas in it.
For Mains:
1. Explain the India-china border dispute and discuss the key issues and areas involved in it (250 words)
 
Source: The Indian Express
 

BRICS

 

1. Context

As the BRICS Summit begins in Kazan on Tuesday, all eyes are on a possible meeting between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Chinese President Xi Jinping there. This is the first summit that will be taking place after the first-ever expansion of BRICS in January this year

2. BRICS

  • The BRICS alliance, composed of Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa, has evolved from an economic consortium to a multifaceted geopolitical force.
  • Emerging economies with considerable potential, these countries together form a collective that challenges traditional power dynamics and fosters cooperation in an increasingly interconnected world.

3. Formation and Evolution

  • BRICS was officially established in 2006, with the objective of fostering economic growth, development, and cooperation among member nations.
  • Over time, it has transformed into a platform for addressing a broader spectrum of global challenges, encompassing political, security, and social concerns alongside economic issues.

4. Geopolitical Relevance

  • Counterbalance to Western Influence: BRICS serves as a counterweight to the dominance of Western powers. The coalition's diverse representation from different regions empowers non-Western countries to assert their interests on the global stage.
  • Global South Unity: BRICS resonates with many countries in the Global South that seek a voice in international affairs. It presents an alternative to the traditional Western-dominated institutions, offering a platform for collaboration and advocacy.

5. Economic Cooperation and Growth

  • Economic Powerhouses: Collectively, BRICS nations account for a substantial portion of the world's population and GDP. Their economic potential has led to discussions on reforming global financial institutions to better reflect contemporary realities.
  • Intra-BRICS Trade: Trade among BRICS members has grown significantly. Initiatives like the New Development Bank (NDB) and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) bolster financial cooperation and stability within the group.

6. Geopolitical Challenges and Opportunities

  • Diverse Interests: As BRICS expands and diversifies, differing geopolitical interests may arise, potentially leading to internal divisions. However, this diversity also presents opportunities for creative solutions to global challenges.
  • Diplomatic Outreach: BRICS engages with other regional and international organizations, strengthening its influence. The expansion of the group's membership underscores its growing geopolitical relevance.

7. India's Role and Beyond

  • India's Diplomacy: India has played an active role within BRICS, emphasizing issues such as counter-terrorism, cybersecurity, and climate change. Its strategic partnerships contribute to the coalition's expansion and its influence in shaping its direction.
  • Global Impact: BRICS expansion into a broader coalition incorporating West Asian countries like Egypt, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the UAE signifies a deliberate shift towards greater global political relevance. This expansion highlights BRICS' adaptability to changing geopolitical dynamics.

8. BRICS New Members Dynamics

  • Unanimous Decisions: BRICS decisions require unanimous agreement, reflecting collective decision-making.
  • Geopolitical Partnerships: While Russia and China confront West-related challenges, Brazil, South Africa, and India maintain significant partnerships with the US and Europe.
  • China's Expansion Drive: China spearheads BRICS expansion, prioritizing membership growth.
  • Inclusion of Iran: China and Russia's influence is seen in Iran's inclusion, showcasing their collaboration.
  • Mediation Efforts: China's role reconciles rivals Saudi Arabia and Iran within the alliance.
  • Saudi Arabia's Shift: Saudi Arabia's entry signifies a move towards an independent foreign policy, diverging from the US alliance.
  • Global Significance for Russia and Iran: BRICS membership elevates Russia and Iran's global partnerships, challenging Western dominance.

9. Implications for India

  • Strategic Role: India played a lead role in drafting BRICS membership criteria, demonstrating its strategic influence within the alliance.
  • Expanded Influence: The inclusion of new members who are strategic partners of India enhances its influence within BRICS.
  • Geopolitical Balancing: BRICS expansion allows India to navigate between its ties with the West and its position within this non-Western coalition.
  • Global Advocacy: With more representation and diverse members, India can push for UN reforms and increased Global South representation.
  • Diplomatic Challenges: India might need to exert more effort to assert its influence in an alliance with a wider range of members and potential competing interests.
  • Economic Opportunities: Collaboration with economically strong members like China can lead to enhanced trade and investment prospects for India.
For Prelims: BRICS, Global South Unity, Western Influence, New Development Bank (NDB), and Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA).
For Mains: 1. Discuss the Implications of BRICS' Expansion for India's Geopolitical Positioning and Influence within the Alliance.
2. Analyze India's Role in Shaping BRICS' Membership Criteria and Its Strategic Significance in the Expanded Coalition.
 

Previous year Questions

1. With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2014)
1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
 
2. With reference to BRIC countries, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2010)
1. At present, China's GDP is more than the combined GDP of all three other countries.
2. China's population is more than the combined population of any two other countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
 
3. The 'Fortaleza Declaration', recently in the news, is related to the affairs of  (UPSC 2015)
A. ASEAN
B. BRICS
C. OECD
D. WTO
Answer: B
Source: The Hindu

Share to Social