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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 26 FEBRUARY 2024

WORLD TRADE ORGANISATION (WTO)

 

1. Context

Concerns of farmers, small retailers and fisherfolk against the agendas placed before the World Trade Organisation’s 13th ministerial conference, scheduled to begin in Abu Dhabi on Monday, are bridging the gaps between both the factions of Samyukt Kisan Morcha (SKM)

2. What is WTO?

  • The World Trade Organization is the only international organization that deals with the rules of trade between countries.
  • The WTO officially commenced in 1995 under the Marrakesh Agreement signed by 124 nations, replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
  • Currently, it has 164 members and 23 observer governments (like Iran, Iraq, Bhutan, Libya, etc).
  • According to its rules, all decisions are taken through consensus and any member can exercise a veto.
  • It aims to promote free trade, which is done through trade agreements that are discussed and signed by the member states.
  • The WTO also provides a forum for countries to negotiate trade rules and settle economic disputes between them. 

3. What is WTO's Ministerial Conference?

  • The Ministerial Conference is the WTO’s top decision-making body and usually meets every two years.
  • All members of the WTO are involved in the Ministerial Conference and they can take decisions on all matters covered under any multilateral trade agreements.
  • The WTO’s 12th Ministerial Conference was held in Geneva from 12-17 June.
  • It was supposed to end on 15 June, but with intensifying negotiations, the conference was extended by two days. 

4. Key takeaways from the meeting

4.1 Curtailing harmful fishing subsidies

  • The WTO passed a multilateral agreement that would curb ‘harmful’ subsidies on illegal, unreported, and unregulated fishing for the next four years, to better protect global fish stocks.
  • Since 2001, member states have been negotiating the banning of subsidies that promote overfishing.
  • The current agreement, which establishes new trading rules, is the second multilateral agreement in WTO history. 
  • India and other developing countries were able to win some concessions in this agreement.

4.2 Global food security

  • Members agreed to a binding decision to exempt food purchased by the UN's World Food Programme (WFP) for humanitarian purposes, from any export restrictions.
  • In light of the global food shortages and rising prices caused by the war between Ukraine and Russia, the group's members issued a declaration on the importance of trade in global food security and that they would avoid bans on food exports.
  • However, countries would be allowed to restrict food supplies to ensure domestic food security needs.
  • India's key demand to allow it to export food from its public stockholdings to other countries will reportedly be discussed in the next Ministerial Conference in 2023.

4.3 E-Commerce transactions

  • Members agreed to continue the long-standing moratorium on customs duties on e-commerce transmissions.
  • It will be continued until the subsequent Ministerial Conference or until March 31, 2024, depending on whichever comes first.

4.4 Covid-19 vaccine production

  • WTO members agreed to temporarily waive intellectual property patents on Covid19 vaccines without the consent of the patent holder for 5 years so that they can more easily manufacture them domestically.
  • The current agreement is a watered-down version of the original proposal made by India and South Africa in 2020.
  • They had wanted broader intellectual property waivers on vaccines, treatments, and tests.
  • Rich pharmaceutical companies had strongly opposed this, arguing that IPs do not restrict access to Covid vaccines and that the removal of patent protections gives researchers that quickly produced life-saving vaccines, a negative message. 
  • The waiver agreed upon by the WTO was criticized by advocacy groups for being narrow in scope, as it did not cover all medical tools like diagnostics and treatments.

5. Significance of the Recent Agreements

  • The fisheries agreement is of immense significance as it is the first time that members agreed with environmental sustainability at its heart.
  • It will also help in the protection of the livelihoods of the 260 million people who depend directly or indirectly on marine fisheries. It is only the second multilateral agreement on global trade rules struck in its 27-year history.
  • Second, the exemption of WFP's food from tariffs is vital for promoting global food security, especially in light of the global food shortages and rising prices caused by the war between Ukraine and Russia.
  • Third, the temporary waiver will contribute to ongoing efforts to concentrate and diversify vaccine manufacturing capacity so that a crisis in one region does not leave others cut off.

6. Issues surrounding WTO

6.1 The burden for Poor countries

  • The WTO rules include many Non-trade subjects as well. The subjects like environment, labor standards, fossil fuel subsidies, plastic pollution, and transparency in government procurement have been brought into the fold of the WTO.
  • This is expected to raise costs for the poor and developing countries and impact the competitiveness of their goods.
  • For instance, a poor country exporting cotton shirts must first meet high environmental standards at home. This will only raise costs and cut exports from poor countries.

6.2 Trade wars

  • The US administration imposed steep tariffs in January 2018 on China alleging IP violations.
  • In December 2019 the US also blocked the appointment of new nominees to WTO’s appellate body. This has paralyzed the WTO as a judge and enforcer of global trade rules.

6.3 Lack of consensus

  • The developed nations’ game plan is to put the old obligations on the back burner and push the WTO to form rules on new areas like e-commerce.
  • It is an area where the US firms have a clear edge.
  • Most WTO member countries want them to first deliver on the agreed issues like reduction in agriculture subsidies.
 
For Prelims: General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), Marrakesh Agreement, World Trade Organisation (WTO), 12th Ministerial Conference of WTO, and UN's World Food Programme (WFP).
For Mains: 1. What have been the recent issue related to dispute settlement at WTO? Have the policies at WTO worked against the interest of emerging economies like India?(250 Words)
 

Previous year Questions

1. In the context of which of the following do you sometimes find the terms 'amber box, blue box, and green box' in the news? (UPSC 2016)
A. WTO affairs
B. SAARC affairs
C. UNFCCC affairs
D. India-EU negotiations on FTA
Answer: A
 
2. In the context of the affairs which of the following is the phrase "Special Safeguard Mechanisms" mentioned in the news frequently? (UPSC 2010)
A. United Nations Environment Program
B. World Trade Organization Agreement
C. ASEAN-India Free Trade
D. G-20 Summits
Answer: B
 
3. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of the WTO.
2. TFA is a part of WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
3. TFA came into force in January 2016
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
 
Source: The Indian Express

QUAD

 

1. Context

Stating that the Quad grouping is here to stay, grow and contribute, External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar said on Saturday that it stands as a statement that in this day and age, “others cannot have a veto on our choices.” He said the grouping — comprising India, Australia, Japan, and the U.S. — is facilitated by the emergence of the Indo-Pacific region, and is propelled by a change in the global order that requires more, not less, collaboration among like-minded countries

2. Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD)

  • The Quad, short for the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue, is a strategic forum comprising four major Indo-Pacific countries: the United States, Japan, India, and Australia.
  • The Quad was initiated in 2007 but was relatively dormant for several years before experiencing a revival and increased prominence in recent times.

3. Objectives

  • The Quad aims to promote a free, open, and inclusive Indo-Pacific region. Its core objectives include ensuring regional security, stability, and economic prosperity.
  • It seeks to uphold the rules-based international order and address common challenges such as maritime security, infrastructure development, economic connectivity, and disaster response.

4. Member Countries

  • United States: As a major Pacific power, the U.S. plays a central role in the Quad, emphasizing its commitment to the Indo-Pacific region's security and stability.
  • Japan: Japan is a key member, contributing its economic and technological prowess, and advocating for a rules-based international order.
  • India: India brings its strategic location and growing influence in the Indo-Pacific to the Quad, strengthening regional security cooperation.
  • Australia: Australia is a significant player, contributing to maritime security efforts and championing economic development in the Indo-Pacific.

5. Meetings and Engagement

  • The Quad holds regular meetings at various levels, including ministerial meetings and consultations among senior officials.
  • It engages in dialogues on a wide range of regional and global issues, from security and defense to infrastructure development and technology cooperation.

Regional Implications:

  • The Quad has been viewed as a response to China's rising influence in the Indo-Pacific. However, member countries emphasize that it is not an alliance against any specific country but rather a platform for cooperation on shared interests.
  • Some view the Quad as a potential counterbalance to China's assertive behavior in the South China Sea and its Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) infrastructure projects.

Expanding Partnerships:

  • The Quad has sought to expand its partnerships with other countries in the Indo-Pacific, including Southeast Asian nations. This approach reflects its commitment to inclusivity and regional engagement.

6. Significance of QUAD for India

The Quad holds significant importance for India due to several strategic, economic, and geopolitical reasons:

Countering Regional Challenges:

  • The Quad provides India with a platform to collaborate with like-minded countries, such as the United States, Japan, and Australia, to address common regional challenges. These challenges include maritime security, territorial disputes, and economic concerns in the Indo-Pacific.

Strengthening Regional Security:

  • As a member of the Quad, India gains access to enhanced security cooperation, intelligence sharing, and joint exercises. This bolsters its ability to protect its interests and contribute to regional stability in the face of security threats.

Balancing China's Influence:

  • India views the Quad as a mechanism to balance China's growing influence in the Indo-Pacific. It helps deter aggressive actions and assertive behavior by China, particularly in areas like the South China Sea and the Indian Ocean region.

Economic Opportunities:

  • The Quad promotes economic connectivity and infrastructure development in the Indo-Pacific. India can leverage these initiatives to enhance its trade, investment, and connectivity in the region, which is vital for its economic growth.

Strengthening Ties with Key Allies:

  • The Quad allows India to deepen its strategic partnerships with key allies, such as the United States and Japan. These relationships have resulted in increased defense cooperation, technology sharing, and economic collaboration.

Regional Leadership Role:

  • Participation in the Quad elevates India's status as a regional leader in the Indo-Pacific. It aligns with India's "Act East" policy, reinforcing its commitment to the stability and prosperity of the broader region.

7. Challenges

  • China's Territorial Claims: China claims that it has historical ownership over nearly the entire region of the South China Sea, which gives it the right to manufacture islands. However, the International Court of Arbitration rejected the claim in 2016.
  • China's Closeness to ASEAN: The ASEAN countries also have a well-knit relationship with China. The Regional Cooperation Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a recent example of China's increasing influence over ASEAN nations.
  • Economic Power of China: Considering the economic might of China and the dependence of QUAD nations like Japan and Australia on China, the QUAD nations can not afford to have strained relations with it.
  • Convergence among Quad Nations: The nations in the Quad grouping have different aspirations, and aims at balancing their own interest. Therefore, coherence in the vision of the Quad nation as a grouping is absent.

8. Way forward

The Quad represents a forum for strategic cooperation among four major Indo-Pacific nations, with a focus on regional security, economic development, and upholding the rules-based international order. Its evolving role in the region will likely be a subject of ongoing geopolitical interest and debate.
 
For Prelims: Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD), South China Sea, Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), Indo-Pacific region, ASEAN, and Regional Cooperation Economic Partnership (RCEP).
For Mains: 1. Discuss the evolution, objectives, and geopolitical significance of the Quad (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue) in the context of the Indo-Pacific region. Analyze the challenges and opportunities it presents for the member countries, particularly India. (250 words).
Source: The Indian Express
 

FINANCIAL ACTION TASK FORCE (FATF)

 

1. Context

The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) plenary has finalised the modifications to its assessment methodology to reflect the recent revisions to its standards for the protection of non-profit organisations (NPOs) from potential abuse for terrorist financing.

2. Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

  • The FATF is an inter-governmental body that sets international standards seeking to prevent international financial crimes that aid terrorism. The FATF  was established in July 1989 by a G-7 summit in Paris to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering.
  • The FATF currently comprises 37 member jurisdictions and two regional organizations European Commission and Gulf Cooperation Council, representing most major financial centers in all parts of the globe. India has been a member of the FATF since 2010. India is also a member of its regional partners, the Asia Pacific Group (APG) and the Eurasian Group (EAG).
  • Its secretariat is located at the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) headquarters in Paris.

3. Mandate of FATF

After the 9/11 attacks, the FATF in October 2001 expanded its mandate to incorporate efforts to combat terrorist financing. In April 2012, it added efforts to counter the financing of the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction. The FATF has developed the FATF recommendations, or FATF standards, which ensure a coordinated global response to prevent organized crime, corruption, and terrorism.

4. FATF Lists

4.1 Grey List
Countries that are considered safe heaven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put on the FATF Grey list. This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the Black list.
Recently Democratic Republic of Congo, Mozambique, and Tanzania are added to the Grey List.
4.2 Black List
Countries known as Non-cooperative countries or Territories are put on the Black list. These countries support Terror funding and Money Laundering activities. The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.
Currently, Iran and the Democratic people's Republic of Korea are under High-risk jurisdiction or Black list. Myanmar was added to the list.
Moved Myanmar is from the "grey list" taken by the military junta since they overthrew the government in a coup last February.

5. Why Pakistan is removed from the Grey List?

  • Deliberations of the FATF are made in complete secrecy, and decisions are meant to be made strictly on the basis of technicalities and procedure, so the greylisting of Pakisthan has to be seen in the totality of the process and measures it has undertaken.
  • Pakistan was also on the "grey list" from 2012-2015 when FATF mandated many steps. Since 2018, it has been handed two action plans, comprising 34 points (27+7), asking Islamabad to bring in laws on money laundering, and anti-terror laws in line with international requirements.
  • Pakistan also had to maintain a database of terror groups operating on its soil and the actions taken against them.

6. Benefits for Pakistan

  • If removed from the grey list Pakistan would essentially receive a reputational boost and get a clean bill of health from the international community on terror financing. 
  • There is research that suggests grey listing negatively impacts the relationship of the concerned countries with the international funders including Banks and financial institutions that take note of FATF rankings as well as existing potential overseas investors in those countries.

7. Indias Response

  • India is a member, and hence party to all FATF decisions that are made by consensus. As a result, it also agreed to the decision to take Pakistan off the list, conceding in a statement that due to the FATF, Pakistan had been "forced to take" some action against well-known terrorists", including those involved in the Mumbai 26/11 attacks.
  • The Narendra Modi Government is preparing for India's turn at FATF scrutiny or MER process, set to begin in early 2023, which it hopes will be a smooth process. In July this year while introducing the Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Amendment. 
  • External Minister S. Jaishankar told parliament that India had to take its international commitments on WMD seriously, both at the UN Security Council, and FATF recommendations which had "mandated provisions against financing in relation to WMDs.

For Prelims & Mains

For Prelims: FATF, Grey list, Black List, UN Security Council, Weapons of mass destruction, Asia Pacific Group (APG), Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), and the Eurasian Group (EAG).
For Mains: 1. Discuss the mandate of FAFT on Terror Financing and explain the benefits of Pakistan after removing it from the grey list. 
 
Source: The Hindu
 

FOREST CONSERVATION (AMENDMENT) ACT 2023

1. Context

The Supreme Court ordered the government to continue following the all-encompassing “dictionary meaning” of forest as upheld in a 1996 Supreme Court decision in the T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad case till a final verdict is handed out on a petition challenging the amended Forest Conservation Act of 2023. The court has also asked the government to make public, by April, a consolidated record of land deemed as forest by States and Union Territories.

2. The Key Provisions of the New Amendment

  • The amendment aims to tackle the critical issues of climate change and deforestation's adverse effects, focusing on effective management and afforestation.
  • The law further aims to determine how forests can be utilised for economic gain, and how it seeks to achieve this goal is outlined in the legislation.
  • The primary method used to achieve this objective involves removing forests from the law's jurisdiction, thereby facilitating various forms of economic exploitation.
  • As per the amendment, the forest law will now apply exclusively to areas categorised under the 1927 Forest Act and those designated as such on or after October 25, 1980.
  • The Act will not apply to forests that were converted for non-forest use on or after December 12, 1996 and land which falls under 100 kilometres from the China and Pakistan border where the central government can build linear projects.
  • The central government is authorised to construct security measures in areas up to ten hectares to establish security infrastructure and facilities for surveillance.
  • Initiatives like ecotourism, safari, environmental entertainment, and more may be implemented in these areas.

3. Reasons for the Amendment Brought In

  • The Godavarman Thirumulkpad case led to an interpretation of forest land by its 'dictionary meaning'.
  • Subsequently, all private forests were brought under the ambit of the 1980 law.
  • This has been a subject of debate as it was argued that the legislation primarily aims to restrict forest land from being used for various non-forest purposes, including the conversion of land for large-scale industries.
  • The law has faced significant opposition, especially from private landowners, individuals, and organisations involved in forest conservation, for its perceived adverse impact on the country's industrial progress.

4. Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) Recommendations

  • Of the 31-member JPC addressing the issue, only six individuals were from the opposition.
  • The JPC submitted its report to Parliament on July 20, within three months.
  • The critical comments from the committee members and the public appear to have been largely disregarded; reduced to dissenting notes, holding a minority viewpoint on the Bill.

5. What Happened to the Stipulation of 'Prior Consent'?

  • The Forest Conservation Act underwent important amendments in 2016 and 2017, which stipulated that prior consent from the tribal grama sabha was mandatory for any alterations to forests for non-forest purposes.
  • However, the recent revisions to the legislation have removed the necessity for such consent.
  • Nevertheless, in this situation, State governments can proactively engage in specific activities within this framework through the inclusion of grama sabhas, particularly in matters of land acquisition for various purposes, by establishing State-level steering committees.

6. About Compensatory Afforestation

  • Compensatory afforestation, as outlined in the new legislation, encompasses various projects and schemes that can be undertaken by both private individuals and organisations (including large corporations) for afforestation or reforestation purposes.
  • The law mandates that for every parcel of land that is lost due to afforestation efforts, an equivalent amount of land must be afforested elsewhere.
  • It does not specify the type of trees that should be planted, leaving room for discretion.

7. Impact on the Forest Rights Act (FRA)

  • The FRA has had notable impacts in various regions.
  • Despite the initial enthusiasm, it appears that both the Central and State governments have become less enthusiastic about implementing the FRA in their States.
  • Many consider the Act as an impediment to converting forest land for non-forest purposes.
  • The amendment also fails to address the growing issue of human-animal conflicts in forest areas.
  • When examined superficially, the law appears to address issues without complications.
  • However, once the law is put into practice, it presents substantial challenges to forest-dwelling communities and government agencies.
  • The concept of afforestation, which offers considerable financial incentives to private individuals and institutions for afforestation projects, fundamentally clashes with the idea of forest governance.
  • Furthermore, it contradicts the concept of decentralised forest governance as forests in the country fall under the concurrent list.
  • Defining strategic linear projects becomes exceptionally difficult and vague. Unlike external security threats like border disputes and cross-border skirmishes, internal environmental security should also be considered a significant concern, especially in States that consistently face natural disasters.

8. The Way Forward

The Forest Conservation (Amendment) Act 2023 is a varied and controversial piece of legislation that raises significant concerns about its potential impact on forests and their inhabitants. Careful consideration and analysis of the Act's provisions are essential to ensure that it does not harm the environment or the rights of indigenous communities.

For Prelims: Forest Conservation (Amendment) Act 2023,  climate change, deforestation, afforestation, Forest Act 1927, Godavarman Thirumulkpad case, Forest Conservation Act,  concurrent list, 
For Mains: 
1. Examine the key provisions of the Forest Conservation (Amendment) Act 2023 and analyze its potential impact on the rights of indigenous communities. Discuss the historical context that led to the introduction of this amendment. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
Prelims
 
1. Which of the following statements about tropical rainforests are correct? (UPSC CAPF 2021)
1. The soils of tropical rainforests are quite infertile.
2. The vegetation is evergreen, enabling photosynthesis to take place year around.
3. They have been described as 'deserts covered by trees'.
4. They are the most productive land-based ecosystem.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 2 and 4 only             B. 1, 3, and 4 only        C. 1, 2, and 3 only           D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
 
2. "If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys." Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement? (UPSC 2022)
A. The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation, and evaporation.
B. Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles, and mammals thrive.
C. Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
D. Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
Answer: D
 
3. If the tropical rainforest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to the tropical deciduous forest. This is because (UPSC 2011)
A. The soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients.
B. propagules of the trees in the rainforest have poor viability.
C. The rainforest species are slow-growing.
D. exotic species invades the fertile soil of rain forest.
Answer: A
 
4. Consider the following States:
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Mizoram
In which of the above States do 'Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests' occur? (UPSC 2015)
A. 1 only       B. 2 and 3 only           C. 1 and 3 only          D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: C
 
5. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently published the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, in 2020. Which of the following statements is correct about EIA? (Punjab Civil Service 2020)
1. It predicts the effect of a proposed industrial/infrastructural project on the environment.
2. It prevents the proposed activity/project from being approved without proper oversight or taking adverse consequences into account.
3. It compares various alternatives for a project and seeks to identify the one which represents the best combination of economic and environmental costs and benefits.
4. As per the new notification, Coal and non-Coal mineral prospecting and solar photovoltaic projects do not need prior environmental clearance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only 1 and 2  B. Only 2, 3 and 4      C. Only 1, 2 and 3      D. Only 1, 2 and 4
Answer: D
 
6. With reference to the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements: (UPSC 2014)
1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education, and public awareness.
3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only          B. 2 only            C. 2 and 3 only              D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: C
7. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019)
1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only          B. 2 only             C. Both 1 and 2                D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
8. Consider the following States: (UPSC 2019)
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
With reference to the State mentioned above, in terms of the percentage of forest cover to the total area of the State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
A. 2-3-1-4        B. 2-3-4-1         C. 3-2-4-1                D. 3-2-1-4
Answer: C
 

9. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (UPSC 2021)

(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Answer: D

10. A particular State in India has the following characteristics: (UPSC 2012)

  1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
  2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
  3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes the Protected Area Network in this State.

Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh          (b) Assam       (c) Himachal Pradesh        (d) Uttarakhand

Answer: A

11. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019)
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only         B. 2 and 3 only         C. 3 only             D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: B
 
12. The Indian Forest Act 1927 was enacted after repealing which of the following Indian forest acts? (SSC CGL 2021)
A. Indian Forest Act, 1922
B. Indian Forest Act, 1878
C. Indian Forest Act, 1865
D. Indian Forest Act, 1882
 
Answer: B
 
13. In which year Forest Conservation Act was passed? (UPTET 2019)
A.  1986     B. 1990           C. 1980         D. 1988
 
Answer: C
 

Mains

1. What are the consequences of Illegal mining? Discuss the Ministry of Environment and Forests’ concept of GO AND NO GO zones for coal mining sector. (UPSC 2013)
2. Examine the status of forest resources of India and its resultant impact on climate change. (UPSC 2020)
Source: The Hindu
 

ANTIMICROBIAL RESISTANCE

 

1. Context

In 2011, the Indian government introduced the H1 rule to prohibit the over-the-counter (OTC) sales of antibiotics without a prescription, responding to the growing concern over antimicrobial resistance (AMR). However, due to the healthcare system’s heterogeneity across the country, the implementation of this rule faced significant challenges. In 2013, following the Chennai Declaration document and initiative by medical societies in India, the Indian government modified the rule to limit the OTC restriction to second and third-line antibiotics, allowing the sale of first-line antibiotics without a prescription

2. What is Anti Microbial Resistance?

Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) occurs when bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites change over time and no longer respond to medicine making infections harder to treat and increasing the risk of disease spread severe illness, and death.

3. Emergence and spread of AMR

  • AMR occurs naturally over time, usually through genetic changes.
  • Antimicrobial-resistant organisms are found in people, animals, food, plants, and the environment (in water, soil, and air).
  • They can spread from person to person or between people and animals, including from food of animal origin.
  • The main drivers of antimicrobial resistance include the misuse and overuse of antimicrobials, lack of access to clean water, sanitation, and hygiene (WASH) for both humans and animals, and poor infection and disease prevention and control in healthcare facilities and farms. Poor access to quality, affordable medicines, vaccines, and diagnostics, lack of awareness and knowledge, and lack of enforcement of legislation.

4. Factors causing AMR in India

Inappropriate consumption of board-spectrum (last resort) antibiotics is high because of changing prescription practices in the healthcare system due to the non-availability of a narrow spectrum of antibiotics.
Inappropriate antibiotics use among the general public like self-medication to avoid the financial burden.
A large proportion of sewage is disposed of untreated into receiving water bodies, leading to gross contamination of rivers with antibiotic residues, and antibiotic-resistant organisms.
 
5. Reasons for the recent increase in the use of antibiotics in India
  • The high disease burden
  • The rising income
  • The easy and cheap availability of these medicines to the public.
  • The uncontrolled sales of antibiotics
  • Poor Public health infrastructure
  • Lack of awareness regarding the misuse of antibiotics.

6. Government Initiatives that help to curb Antimicrobial Resistance In India

The Union Health Minister of India in the International Conference on Anti-Microbial Resistance stated that the first step in addressing the problem of AMR is to avoid the need for antibiotics at all in the first place. Improved water, vaccination, and sanitation may control inappropriate antibiotic use indirectly. The main government policies that help in this process are:
  • Through the Swacch Bharat Program, the government has taken active steps to improve hygiene and sanitation and reduce the environmental spread of pathogens.
  • Vaccination is an equally important public health measure, and through Mission Indradhaniush, India has set itself an ambitious goal of increasing routine immunization coverage to 90% within just a few years.

6.1 Red Line Campaign

The Union health ministry's Anti-Microbial Resistance awareness campaign urges people not to use medicines marked with a red vertical line, including antibiotics, without a doctor's prescription.
These medicines are called the 'Medicines with the Red Line.
To check the irrational use of antibiotics, the 'red line' will help the users to differentiate them from the drugs.
This campaign is aimed at discouraging unnecessary prescription and the counter sale of antibiotics causing drug resistance for several critical diseases including TB, malaria, urinary tract infection, and even HIV. 

7. WHO's Global plan on Anti-Microbial Resistance?

  • To improve awareness and understanding of antimicrobial resistance through effective communication, education, and training.
  • To Strengthen the knowledge and evidence base through surveillance and research.
  • To reduce the incidence of infection through effective sanitation, hygiene, and infection prevention measures.
  • To Optimize the use of antimicrobial medicines in human and animal health.
  • To develop the economic case for sustainable investment that takes account of the needs of all countries and to increase investment in new medicines, diagnostic tools, vaccines, and other interventions.

8. Global efforts

8.1 Global Action Plan on Antimicrobial Resistance (GAP): Globally, countries committed to the framework set out in the Global Action Plan1 (GAP) 2015 on AMR during the 2015 World Health Assembly and committed to the development and implementation of multisectoral national action plans.
8.2 Tripartite Joint Secretariat on Antimicrobial Resistance: Tripartite joint secretariat (FAO, OIE, and WHO) has been established and is hosted by WHO to drive multi-stakeholder engagement in AMR.
8.3 World Antimicrobial Awareness Week (WAAW): WAAW was previously called World Antibiotic Awareness Week. From 2020, it will be called world Anti-Microbial Awareness Week. It is a global campaign that aims to raise awareness of antimicrobial resistance worldwide.
8.4 Global Antimicrobial Resistance and use surveillance system (GLASS): WHO launched it in 2015 to continue filling knowledge gaps and to inform strategies at all levels. GLASS has been conceived to progressively incorporate data from surveillance of AMR in humans, surveillance of the use of Antimicrobial medicines, and AMR in the food chain and the environment.
 
For Prelims & Mains
 
For Prelims: Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), UN Environment Programme, the World Health Organization (WHO), World Organisation for Animal Health, Mission Indradhaniush, Red Line Campaign.
For Mains: 1.Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is considered one of the most significant challenges the world faces today. Discuss.

 

Previous Year Questions

1.Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India? ( UPSC CSE 2019)

  1. Genetic predisposition of some people
  2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
  3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
  4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)
 Source: Down to Earth
 

CURRENT ACCOUNT DEFICIT

1. Context 

While the Finance Ministry this week said it expects the current account deficit (CAD) to narrow to 1.3% of GDP this fiscal after the provisional merchandise trade deficit eased to a nine-month low of $17.5 billion in January 2024, DBS Bank economists went a step further and projected the year’s CAD to come under 0.8%, citing strong services exports and declining goods import bills

2. What is a Current Account Deficit (CAD)?

  • The Current Account Deficit (CAD) refers to a situation where a country's total imports of goods, services, investment incomes, and unilateral transfers exceed its total exports. It represents a deficit or negative balance in the country's current account, which is a component of its balance of payments.
  • CAD reflects a nation's dependence on foreign sources to finance its consumption and investment. A persistent deficit in the current account might indicate that a country is spending more on foreign goods and services than it is earning, leading to increased borrowing from other countries to cover the shortfall.
  • This deficit is not necessarily negative on its own, as it can be financed by foreign investments or borrowing. However, if it becomes unsustainable or grows excessively large, it could pose risks to the country's economic stability, currency value, and overall financial health. Governments often monitor and aim to manage their current account deficits to maintain a healthy balance in their economy.

3. The significance of CAD

  • When the value of the goods and services that a country imports exceed the value of the products it exports, it is called the current account deficit.
  • CAD and the fiscal deficit together make up the twin deficits the enemies of the stock market and investors.
  • If the current account of the country's trade and transactions with other countries show a surplus, that indicates money is flowing into the country, boosting the foreign exchange reserves and the value of the rupee against the dollar.
  • These are factors that will have ramifications on the economy and the stock markets as well as on returns on investments by people.

4. RBI on CAD

  • According to the RBI, the CAD which was at $36.4 billion for the quarter ending September 2022, is expected to moderate in the second half of 2022-23 and remain eminently manageable and within the parameters of viability.
  • CAD for the first half of 2022-23 stood at 3.3. per cent of the GDP.
  • The situation has shown improvement in Q3: 2022-23 as imports moderated in the wake of lower commodity prices, resulting in the narrowing of the merchandise trade deficit.

5. Narrowed Trade deficit 

  • January trade deficit narrowed to $17.7 billion, led by a sharp fall in imports, while exports fell by a smaller amount.
  •  The sharp drop in imports was due to non-oil imports falling, mainly due to a price impact (softening in coal prices from mid-December), likely softening in domestic demand post the festival season (Such as lower imports of transport equipment) and the seasonal impact of the Chinese New Year holidays.
  • On the other hand, after the Rs 26, 000 crore sell-off by foreign portfolio investors in January, FPI outflows have come down to Rs 4, 400 crores in February so far.
  • Workers' remittances went up to $ 30 billion in the April-September 2022 period from $ 25. 48 billion in the same period a year ago.
  • At the same time, gold imports fell to $20 billion from $ 23.9 billion a year ago.

6. Improvement of Capital flow

  • While there is a perception in the markets that capital flows could come under some pressure with China's reopening and any deviations in monetary policy expectations, inflows are expected to increase the economy on the whole as foreign investors are unlikely to keep away from India, which is expected to witness one of the highest growth rates among large economies.
  • At a time when the economies of many developed markets are expected to take a hit, the RBI has projected the GDP growth for the next fiscal (FY2024) at 6.4 per cent and the Union Budget has indicated a capital expenditure of Rs 10 lakh crore (over $120 billion).
  • Moreover, with the rise in interest rates in India after the RBI hiked the repo rate by 250 basis points to 6.50 per cent, non-resident Indian deposits, remittances and FPI investment in debt are expected to rise further.
  • NRI deposits had increased by $3.62 billion to $ 134.49 billion in the April-November period of 2022.
  • Capital flow into India came under pressure in 2022 following the sharp rise in interest rates in the US.
  • While FPIs pulled out Rs 121, 439 crores in 2022, even in the first six weeks of 2023, the FPI flow has been negative and the equity markets have witnessed a net outflow of Rs 32, 887 crores till February 16.
  • While the flow of capital will depend upon the interest rate movement and currency movements vis-a-vis the US dollar, there is optimism among global investors about India.

7. Moderate CAD impact on Market

  • While rising CAD raises concerns among investors as it hurts the currency and thereby the inflow of funds into the markets a notable decline in CAD in January has improved market sentiments.
  • The benchmark Sensex at BSE rose 407 points intraday on Thursday before closing at 61, 319 with a gain of 44 points or 0.07 per cent.
  • CAD is very important for the currency and the value of an economy hinges a lot on the value of its currency thereby, it also supports the equity markets by keeping the fund flow intact.
  • While the numbers for January have come good, experts say this needs to be sustained.

For Prelims & Mains

For Prelims: Current Account Deficit, RBI, Union Budget, GDP, Capital flow, 
For Mains:
1. What is Current Account Deficit? Discuss its significance and impact on the Indian market (250 Words)

Source: The Indian Express

AIR QUALITY INDEX (AQI)

1. Context

The National Green Tribunal has directed 53 cities which witnessed deterioration in air quality to submit a complete report on the contribution of each polluting source and measures taken to reduce pollution.

The tribunal was hearing the issue of air quality deterioration in different cities across India as reflected in the Air Quality Index (AQI) maintained by the Central Pollution Control Board

 

2. The Air Quality Index (AQI)

The AQI is a colour-coded index launched under the Swachh Bharat campaign to simplify the understanding of pollution levels. It helps convey the condition of the air and guides appropriate measures based on the severity of pollution. The AQI consists of six categories, each with a corresponding colour code: 'Good' (0-50), 'Satisfactory' (51-100), 'Moderately Polluted' (101-200), 'Poor' (201-300), 'Very Poor' (301-400) and 'Severe' (401-500).

3. Calculation of AQI

  • To calculate the AQI, a technical study was conducted by an expert group, including medical professionals, air quality experts, and academics.
  • Various pollutants, such as PM10, PM2.5, Nitrogen Dioxide, Ozone, Carbon, and others, are measured.
  • Each pollutant is assigned a weight based on its impact on human health.
  • The composite air quality index is determined by combining these weights, simplifying multiple data points into a single number and colour to represent overall air quality.
  • Monitoring stations across the country assess these pollutant levels.

4. Impact of Pollutants on Health

  • Among the most harmful pollutants are fine particulate matter, such as PM2.5, which has a diameter smaller than 2.5 micrometres.
  • PM2.5 particles can easily enter the circulatory system, bypassing the nose and throat.
  • They are associated with respiratory problems and reduced visibility, posing health risks such as asthma, heart attacks, bronchitis, and other respiratory issues.

5. Influence on Government Policy

  • Governments, especially in areas like Delhi, use the AQI to announce measures to combat air pollution.
  • When the AQI in the National Capital Region (NCR) reaches the 'severe' category, Stage 4 of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is implemented.
  • GRAP is designed for emergency measures to prevent further deterioration of air quality.
  • Specific actions may include prohibiting the use of non-BS-VI-compliant diesel four-wheelers and restricting the entry of trucks into the city while allowing petrol cars to continue operating as usual.

6. Conclusion

The Air Quality Index is an essential tool that simplifies the understanding of air pollution, assesses its health impacts, and influences government policies and actions to combat deteriorating air quality. As Mumbai braces for worsening air quality, the AQI will continue to be a critical resource for both the government and the public.

 
For Prelims: Air Pollution, Air Quality Index, PM 2.5, PM 10, BS-VI Vehicles, Graded Response Action Plan, National Capital Region, Nitrogen Dioxide, Ozone, Carbon, 
For Mains: 
1. With the onset of worsening air quality in Mumbai, discuss the importance of the AQI as a critical resource for both the government and the public. How can the AQI assist in addressing air pollution-related challenges in the upcoming winter months? (250 Words)

 

Previous Year Questions

1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (UPSC 2016)
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nitrogen dioxide
  4. Sulfur dioxide
  5. Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only      B. 2, 3 and 4 only   C. 1, 4 and 5 only     D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: B

2. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (UPSC 2020)

  1. Automobile exhaust
  2. Tobacco smoke
  3. Wood burning
  4. Using varnished wooden furniture
  5. Using products made of polyurethane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only  B. 2 and 4 only   C. 1, 3 and 4 only     D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: A

3. What is the ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? (UPSC 2016)

(a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions

(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies.

(c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022

(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank

Answer: A

4. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among (UPSC 2013)

(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

(c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature

(d) high concentration of NO2 O3 and CO in the evening

Answer: A

 

5. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment (UPSC 2013, 2022)

(a) Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen

(b) Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide

(c) Ozone and Carbon Dioxide

(d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide

 Answer: D

 

6. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (UPSC 2017)

(a) Measuring oxygen level in blood

(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems

(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem

(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions

Answer: C

7. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently published the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, in 2020. Which of the following statements is correct about EIA? (Punjab Civil Service 2020)
1. It predicts the effect of a proposed industrial/infrastructural project on the environment.
2. It prevents the proposed activity/project from being approved without proper oversight or taking adverse consequences into account.
3. It compares various alternatives for a project and seeks to identify the one which represents the best combination of economic and environmental costs and benefits.
4. As per the new notification, Coal and non-Coal mineral prospecting and solar photovoltaic projects do not need prior environmental clearance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 1, 2 and 4
Answer: D
 
8.  Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in (NDA 2017)
A. Washington        B. Geneva         C. Moscow         D.  London
 
Answer: B
 
 
9. With reference to the 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2017)
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only            B. 3 only           C. 2 and 3 only              D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
 
10. The IPCC is the United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change. IPCC stands for: (RRB NTPC CBT 2 2022)
A. Intergovernmental Provision on Climate Change
B. International Panel on Climate Change
C. International Provision on Climate Change
D. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
 
Answer: D
 
 
11. Comprehension (SSC CHSL 2020)
 
Direction: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Forest fire always (1) ______ by one of two reasons-naturally caused or human-caused. Natural fire is generally (2) ______ by lightning, with a very small percentage (3) ______ by spontaneous combustion of dry fuel such as sawdust and leaves. (4) ______, human-caused fire can happen (5) ______ any number of reasons.
Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1.
A. takes up    B. happens    C. causes    D. creates
 
Answer: B
 
12. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the (UPSC 2020) 
A. long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emission in a given year.
B. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.
C. efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
D. contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.
 
Answer: A
 
13. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (UPSC 2012)
A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
C. all the solar radiations
D. the infrared part of the solar radiation
 
Answer: D
 
14. As per the World Health Organisation (WHO) recommendation of a balanced diet, to avoid unhealthy weight gain, total fat should NOT exceed _______ of total energy intake. (UPSSSC Mandi Inspector 2019)
A. 20%         B.  30%        C. 10%          D. 40%
 
Answer: B
 
15. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems? (UPSC 2012)
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only        B. 2 and 3 only          C. 1 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: A
 
16. Which of the following ultraviolet rays is more dangerous? (UPTET 2017)
A. UV-A        B. UV-B          C.  UV-C          D.  None of the above
 
Answer: C
 
17. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019) 
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only         B. 2 and 3 only          C. 2 only          D.  1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: D
 
18. Which of the following is a VOC? (MP Vyapam 2022) 
A. Toulene          B. Water            C. Carbon dioxide          D. Carbon monoxide
 
Answer: A
 
19. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are of great concern because (UGC NET  Environmental Science  2020)
A. Once such compounds are in the vapour state, they are difficult to control in the environment.
B. Most of them are ozone depleting substances
C. They contribute to a general increase in reactive hydrocarbons in the atmosphere.
D. They are less soluble in water.
 
Answer: C

 Source: The Indian Express

SURROGACY (REGULATION) RULES 2022

 
 
 
1. Context
 
 
Recently, the Union government revised the Surrogacy (Regulation) Rules of 2022, allowing married couples to utilize donor eggs or sperm for surrogacy, a change that greatly benefits individuals facing medical complications. This decision reversed a previous amendment from March 2023 that had prohibited the use of such donor gametes. The alteration in the surrogacy regulations occurred over a month after Additional Solicitor General Aishwarya Bhati informed the Supreme Court that the government was contemplating amendments to the 2023 amendment to enable married couples with medical conditions that hinder conception to use donor gametes for surrogacy.
 
 
2. New Surrogacy Amendment
  • On March 14, 2023, an amendment to Form 2 (Consent of the Surrogate Mother and Agreement for Surrogacy) of the Surrogacy Rules, along with Rule 7, prohibited the use of donor eggs for gestational surrogacy by intending couples.
  • However, this restriction has been revised by a notification from the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
  • The new amendment permits married couples to use donor gametes, provided that a District Magistrate Board certifies that either the husband or the wife has a medical condition that prevents conception.
  • The notification also specifies that the child born through surrogacy must have at least one gamete from the intending parents. This means that if both partners in a married couple are medically unable to use their own gametes, they cannot pursue surrogacy.
  • However, this change does not apply to widowed or divorced women, who are allowed to use self-eggs and donor sperm for surrogacy.
  • The modified rules state, "Single woman (widow or divorcee) undergoing surrogacy must use self-eggs and donor sperms to avail surrogacy procedure."
 
3. Supreme Court's Response to the 2023 Amendment Banning Donor Gametes for Surrogacy
  • The 2023 amendment, which prohibited the use of donor eggs for gestational surrogacy by intending couples, was challenged before the Supreme Court by a woman with Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser (MRKH) Syndrome.
  • The medical records showed that she was unable to produce her own eggs due to absent ovaries or a uterus. Her petition argued that the amendment violated a woman's right to parenthood and contradicted Sections 2(r) and 4 of the Surrogacy Act, 2021 (2021 Act), which recognized situations where a medical condition would necessitate gestational surrogacy for a couple to become parents.
  • It was also noted that the petitioner had begun the surrogacy process before the amendment, which could not be applied retroactively.
  • The Centre, however, argued that the use of donor eggs was exempted because surrogacy cannot be availed of under existing laws unless the child is "genetically related" to the intending couple.
  • The Supreme Court, staying the operation of the law, emphasized that it prevented intending couples from achieving parenthood through surrogacy, which was prima facie contrary to the objective of the parent law—the 2021 Act.
  • The court recognized that the law permitting gestational surrogacy was "woman-centric" as it was a woman's choice to have a surrogate child due to existing medical or congenital conditions.
  • These conditions included the "absence of a uterus or repeatedly failed pregnancies, multiple pregnancies, or an illness that makes it impossible for her to carry a pregnancy to term or would make the pregnancy life-threatening."
  • Agreeing with the petitioner's submissions, the court acknowledged that Rule 14(a) specifically recognized the absence of a uterus or any related condition as a medical indication necessitating gestational surrogacy.
  • Addressing the government's contentions, the Bench underscored, "In this regard, it may be noted that the expression 'genetically' related to the intending couple has to be read as being related to the husband when Rule 14(a) applies."
  • The Centre informed a bench of Justices B.V. Nagarathna and Sanjay Karol that following its observations, the amendment barring married couples from availing donor gametes was under active reconsideration.
 

4. Exclusion of Single Women from Surrogacy Regulation Raises Concerns

  • The recent regulatory change allowing married couples to use donor gametes for surrogacy does not extend to single women.
  • The amendment specifies that a widow or divorcee undergoing surrogacy must use her own eggs and donor sperm. This decision has sparked debate and legal challenges in Indian courts, with questions being raised about the exclusion of single women from accessing surrogacy services and the resulting discrimination.
  • In the Delhi High Court, a 44-year-old unmarried woman has filed a petition challenging provisions of the 2021 Surrogacy Act, arguing that the restrictions violate her fundamental rights under Articles 14 (right to equality) and 21 (right to life) of the Constitution.
  • She questions the link between marital status and eligibility for surrogacy, especially since medical practitioners recommend the use of donor eggs for women her age. To maintain a genetic connection, the petitioner's brother has agreed to donate his male gametes.
  • Experts have also criticized the limitations on surrogacy access for single individuals, live-in couples, and LGBTQ couples.
 
5. The Way Forward
 
The new amendment provides some flexibility for married couples facing medical challenges, the exclusion of single women and other groups continues to be a subject of debate and legal challenges.
 
 
For  Prelims: Surrogcy, LGBTQ, Surrogacy Act, 2021
For Mains: 
1. What are the ethical considerations surrounding the use of donor gametes in surrogacy? Discuss the arguments for and against allowing single women access to surrogacy with donor gametes. (250 words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions

1. In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, “Pronuclear Transfer” is used for (UPSC 2020)

(a) fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor sperm
(b) genetic modification of sperm producing cells
(c) development of stem cells into functional embryos
(d) prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring

Answer: D

2. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc., conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation? (UPSC 2018)

(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee

Answer: B

3. Who among the following devised the technique IVF (In vitro Fertilization)? (SSC CGL 2017) 

A. Sir Frank Whittle
B. Robert Edwards
C. Edward Jenner
D. Dr. Martin Cooper

Answer: B

4. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019)

1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent.
2. A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage.
3. Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only       (b) 2 and 3 only         (c) 2 only           (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D
Source: The Hindu

UKRAINE WAR AND WORLD ORDER

 
 
 
1. Context
 
Russia’s war in Ukraine has entered its third year. What many thought on February 24, 2022 would be a swift Russian military operation against its smaller neighbour has turned out to be the largest land war in Europe since the end of the Second World War. The war has pushed Russia to turn towards Asia and the Global South in general, while the West continues to support Ukraine in its bid to push back and weaken Russia. A vast majority of countries, including India, remain neutral as the violence continues.
 
2. Where does the war stand now?
 
  • After eight months of Ukraine's counteroffensive, it is now apparent that the operation was unsuccessful.
  • This acknowledgment comes from Gen. Valerii Zaluzhnyi, the former commander of Ukrainian forces, who was dismissed by President Volodymyr Zelenskyy this month. Gen. Zaluzhnyi had advocated for a mass mobilization, indicating a critical shortage of frontline fighters for Ukraine.
  • The country lost a considerable number of weapons supplied by the West during the counteroffensive and is awaiting fresh supplies. However, assistance from the U.S. is currently stalled in Congress due to opposition from Republicans.
  • Meanwhile, the Russians are actively pursuing an offensive strategy. In December, Russia claimed its first victory since the fall of Bakhmut by capturing Maryinka in Donetsk. Recently, Ukraine was compelled to abandon Avdiivka, a strategically important town in Donetsk, after enduring months of intense fighting and significant losses.
  • Russian forces are now pushing westward in Donetsk, exerting pressure on Ukrainian forces in Krynky and Kherson in the south

3.What is the West’s strategy?

  • The Western strategy toward Ukraine encompassed a dual-sided strategy. Firstly, there was an effort to support Kyiv economically and militarily to sustain its resistance against Russia. Simultaneously, the second facet aimed to undermine Russia's economy and military capabilities through the implementation of sanctions.
  • However, with the setback in Ukraine's counteroffensive and a shifting political landscape in Washington, where the potential for a second Trump presidency looms, the viability of the first aspect of this policy is now uncertain, if not precarious.
  • On the other hand, the second element involving sanctions has inflicted significant damage on Russia.
  • According to Western officials, these sanctions are believed to have cost Russia more than $430 billion in revenue that it would have otherwise accrued since the commencement of the conflict
4.How have the sanctions affected Russia?
 
  • Russia has devised various strategies to navigate around sanctions and sustain its economy. In response to reduced energy sales from Europe, Russia offered discounted crude oil to rapidly growing economies like China, India, and Brazil.
  • To maintain oil shipments to these new markets independently of Western shipping companies and insurers, Russia assembled a concealed fleet of ships.
  • Additionally, it established shell companies and private corporations in neighboring regions, such as Armenia or Turkey, to facilitate the import of dual-use technologies, which were subsequently re-exported to Russia for use in defense production.
  • China, as the world's second-largest economy, escalated its financial and trade connections with Russia, even engaging in the export of dual-use technologies.
  • Russia diversified its currency usage, moving away from the dollar to primarily utilize the Chinese yuan in trade. It also increased domestic defense and public spending, with a notable nearly 70% rise in its defense budget.
  • Strengthening ties with countries like Iran and North Korea, both grappling with American sanctions, Russia imported various weapons, including drones, cruise missiles, and ammunition.
  • Despite the imposition of sanctions, two years into the conflict, both Russia's energy sector and military-industrial complex remain robust.
  • In January 2024, Russia generated $15.6 billion from oil exports alone, a notable increase from $11.8 billion in the previous summer, according to the International Energy Agency. The Russian Defence Ministry reported manufacturing 1,530 tanks and 2,518 armored vehicles in 2023
5.How is the war transforming Russia?
  • It doesn't imply that everything is progressing favorably for Mr. Putin and his associates. Since the commencement of the conflict, two neighboring countries, Sweden and Finland, have joined NATO, thereby extending the alliance's border with Russia.
  • Despite Mr. Putin's efforts to establish robust economic connections with Europe over the years, these ties are now in disarray.
  • Russia's influence in its immediate vicinity is diminishing, as evident in tensions with Armenia, leading to the latter's decision to suspend participation in the Moscow-led Collective Security Treaty Organization (CSTO).
  • Russia is also developing a reliance on China, although the Kremlin is cautious not to disturb its delicate relationship with New Delhi.
  • Internally, the Russian government is intensifying its control over society and suppressing any dissent regarding the war.
  • The Prigozhin rebellion last year revealed vulnerabilities in the state structure that Mr. Putin had constructed.
  • The recent death of Alexei Navalny, a prominent critic of President Putin in Russia, in a remote Arctic prison on February 16 2024 further supports criticisms of Russia's approach to handling dissent.
  • If post-Soviet Russia seemed to be a "managed democracy," post-war Russia is sliding toward a tightly controlled authoritarian state
6.Way Forward
 
The Western approach of bolstering Ukraine through assistance and undermining Russia via sanctions appears to have fallen short. The conflict has highlighted the constraints of Western influence in an evolving global landscape — for sanctions to be impactful, the trans-Atlantic alliance now requires backing from other major economies like China and India. While Russia has consistently found ways to navigate around sanctions, it has also incurred significant losses and will grapple with the enduring repercussions of these sanctions. Amidst this turmoil, if there is a major power relatively unaffected, it is China. As Beijing assesses the situation, it observes both the West and Russia entangled in Ukraine, compelling the latter to shift focus towards Asia and reshaping the global balance of power
 
 
Source: The Hindu
 
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