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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 1 MAY 2024

INDEX OF INDUSTRIAL PRODUCTION (IIP)

1. Context

The Index of Core Industries rose at a three-year low pace of 7.5% through 2023-24, but hit a multi-year high in March; for the first time in 12 years all 8 sectors recorded annual growth, led by double-digit upticks in steel and coal

2. About the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)

  • The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is a macroeconomic indicator that measures the changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial goods over some time.
  • It is a composite index that reflects the performance of the industrial sector of an economy.
  • The IIP is compiled and released by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) in India.
  • The IIP is calculated using a Laspeyres index formula, which means that the weights assigned to different industries are based on their relative importance in a base year. The current base year for the IIP is 2011-12.
  • The eight core sector industries represent about 40% of the weight of items that are included in the IIP.
  • The eight core industries are Refinery Products, Electricity, Steel, Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Cement and Fertilizers.
  • It covers 407 item groups included into 3 categories viz. Manufacturing, Mining and Electricity.
  • The IIP is a useful tool for assessing the health of the industrial sector and the overall economy.
  • It is used by policymakers, businesses, and investors to track trends in industrial production and make informed decisions.

3. Significance of IIP

The IIP is a significant economic indicator that provides insights into the following aspects

  • The IIP reflects the growth or decline of the industrial sector, which is a major contributor to overall economic growth.
  • The IIP measures the level of industrial activity, indicating the production volume of various industries.
  • The IIP serves as a guide for policymakers to assess the effectiveness of economic policies and make informed decisions.
  • Businesses use the IIP to assess market conditions, make production plans, and evaluate investment opportunities.
  • The IIP influences investor sentiment as it reflects the overall health of the industrial sector.

4. Service Sector and IIP

  • The IIP does not include the service sector. It focuses on the production of goods in the industrial sector, such as manufacturing, mining, and electricity.
  • The service sector is measured by a separate index, the Index of Services Production (ISP).
  • The IIP data is released monthly by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) in India.
  • The data is released with a lag of six weeks, allowing for the collection and compilation of information from various industries.

6. Users of IIP Data

The IIP data is used by a wide range of stakeholders, including:

  • Government agencies and central banks use the IIP to assess economic conditions and formulate policies.
  • Companies use the IIP to evaluate market trends, make production decisions, and assess investment opportunities.
  • Investors use the IIP to gauge the health of the industrial sector and make investment decisions.
  • Economic analysts and researchers use the IIP to study economic trends and develop forecasts.
  • The IIP is widely reported in the media and is of interest to the general public as an indicator of economic performance.

7. Manufacturing Drives Industrial Production Growth

  • Factory output gained on the back of a 9.3 per cent increase in manufacturing, which accounts for 77.6 per cent of the weight of the IIP (Index of Industrial Production).
  • Manufacturing output had grown by 5 per cent in July and had contracted by 0.5 per cent in August 2022.
  • In absolute terms, it improved to 143.5 in August from 141.8 in July and 131.3 in the year-ago period.
  • As per the IIP data, seven of the 23 sectors in manufacturing registered a contraction in August, with furniture, apparel, and computer and electronics among the significant non-performers.
  • Among the performing sectors, fabricated metal products, electrical equipment and basic metals fared better.
  • Garments and chemicals witnessed negative growth. This can be attributed to lower growth in exports as these two are export-dependent.
  • The electronics industry also witnessed negative growth, which again can be linked to existing high stocks and lower export demand.
  • In terms of the use-based industries, consumer durables output returned to positive territory for the second time this fiscal with 5.7 per cent growth in August, reflecting a pickup in consumption demand.
  • However, it came on the back of a 4.4 per cent contraction in consumer durables output in the year-ago period.
  • Primary, infrastructure/ construction, and capital goods recorded double-digit growth rates in August at 12.4 per cent, 14.9 per cent and 12.6 per cent, respectively.
 
For Prelims: The Index of Industrial Production (IIP), Central Statistical Organisation, 
For Mains: 
1. Discuss the significance of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) as an economic indicator and its role in assessing the health of the industrial sector and the overall economy. (250 Words)
 
 
 Previous Year Questions
 
1. In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries? (UPSC CSE 2012)
1. Cement
2. Fertilizers
3. Natural gas
4. Refinery products
5. Textiles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 and 5 only       B. 2, 3 and 4 only           C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only         D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
 
Answer: C
 
 
Source: indianexpress

INTERNATIONAL COURT OF JUSTICE (ICJ)

 
 
 
1. Context
Israel is voicing concern that the International Criminal Court could be preparing to issue arrest warrants for government officials on charges related to the conduct of its war against Hamas
 
2.Why Israel faced accusations at the World Court?
 
  • South Africa brought a case against Israel to the ICJ on December 29, under UN’s 1948 Genocide Convention. In its application, South Africa argued that Israel, in its ongoing Gaza assault, has transgressed from the provisions of Article 2 of the Convention. This article defines the term “genocide” to mean “acts committed with intent to destroy, wholly or partly, a national, ethnic, racial, or religious group”.
  • The ICJ will eventually decide whether Israel is committing genocide or not — this may take years. But first, it will decide whether it has jurisdiction on this matter, and whether the alleged acts fall under the 1948 Convention.
  • South Africa has also sought interim relief for the Palestinians, and asked the ICJ to order Israel to immediately suspend all military operations in Gaza, as an interim measure.
  • The court is likely to rule on this in a matter of weeks. While the court’s rulings are legally binding, it has no way to enforce them. Nonetheless, its opinions carry weight with the UN and other international institutions
3.What is UN’s 1948 Genocide Convention?
 
  • The United Nations Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide, commonly known as the Genocide Convention, was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on December 9, 1948, and entered into force on January 12, 1951. It was one of the first major international treaties established in the aftermath of World War II, aiming to prevent and punish the crime of genocide.
  • The Genocide Convention defines genocide as certain acts committed with the intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial, or religious group. The acts specified in the convention include killing members of the group, causing serious bodily or mental harm, deliberately inflicting conditions leading to the group's physical destruction, imposing measures to prevent births within the group, and forcibly transferring children from the group to another.
  • The convention recognizes genocide as a crime under international law and obligates its signatories to prevent and punish acts of genocide. Signatory states are required to take measures within their jurisdiction to prevent and punish genocide, both in times of peace and during armed conflicts. Additionally, the convention established the International Court of Justice (ICJ) as the primary judicial organ for disputes related to its interpretation and application.
  • The Genocide Convention remains a crucial international legal instrument for addressing and preventing the most egregious crimes against humanity. It has played a significant role in shaping the framework for international criminal law and promoting accountability for those responsible for genocide

 

4.What is International Court of Justice?

 

 

The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It was established in 1945 and began its activities in 1946. The ICJ is located in The Hague, Netherlands.

The main functions of the International Court of Justice include settling legal disputes between states and providing advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by the UN General Assembly, the UN Security Council, or other specialized agencies and organs authorized by the UN. It is important to note that the ICJ only deals with legal disputes between states and does not have jurisdiction over individuals or non-state entities.

Key features of the International Court of Justice:

  • Composition: The ICJ consists of 15 judges elected by the UN General Assembly and the UN Security Council. These judges serve nine-year terms, and the composition aims to represent a fair geographical distribution.

  • Jurisdiction: The ICJ has two main types of jurisdiction:

    • Contentious Jurisdiction: The ICJ hears cases between states that voluntarily submit their disputes to the Court. Both parties must agree to the Court's jurisdiction.
    • Advisory Jurisdiction: The ICJ provides advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by UN organs and specialized agencies. These opinions are advisory and not binding.

  • Adjudication: The Court uses a range of legal principles, treaties, and customary international law to make its decisions. The judgments of the ICJ are final and binding on the parties involved in the case.

  • Independence: The ICJ operates independently of the UN General Assembly and the UN Security Council in its judicial functions. It is intended to function as a separate judicial body.

  • Role in International Law: The ICJ contributes to the development and clarification of international law through its judgments and advisory opinions. Its decisions are considered influential in shaping the principles of international law

 
5.International Criminal Court and International Court of Justice
 
Aspect International Criminal Court (ICC) International Court of Justice (ICJ)
Establishment Established in 2002 by the Rome Statute Established in 1945 by the United Nations Charter
Nature Criminal court with jurisdiction over individuals for serious crimes Principal judicial organ of the United Nations, handles state disputes
Jurisdiction Primarily focuses on individuals for crimes like genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and aggression Resolves legal disputes between states, gives advisory opinions
Membership States become members by ratifying the Rome Statute Open to UN member states; states must accept ICJ's jurisdiction
Prosecutorial Authority Independent Prosecutor appointed by the Assembly of States Parties No prosecuting authority; relies on disputing states to present cases
Adjudication Adjudicates cases against individuals for criminal responsibility Adjudicates disputes between states; provides advisory opinions
Composition Judges elected by the Assembly of States Parties 15 judges elected by the UN General Assembly and the UN Security Council
Location The Hague, Netherlands The Hague, Netherlands
Focus Individual criminal responsibility State-to-state disputes, advisory opinions
Binding Decisions Decisions are binding on individuals and states Judgments and opinions are binding only on the parties involved
Role in International Law Enforces and develops international criminal law Contributes to the development of general principles of international law
Relationship with the UN Independent organization but cooperates with the UN Principal judicial organ of the UN
 
 
6. Way forward
 
The ICJ will eventually decide whether Israel is committing genocide or not — this may take years. But first, it will decide whether it has jurisdiction on this matter, and whether the alleged acts fall under the 1948 Convention. South Africa has also sought interim relief for the Palestinians, and asked the ICJ to order Israel to immediately suspend all military operations in Gaza, as an interim measure. The court is likely to rule on this in a matter of weeks. While the court’s rulings are legally binding, it has no way to enforce them. Nonetheless, its opinions carry weight with the UN and other international institutions
 
 
 
 
 
For Prelims: Current events of national and international importance.
For Mains: General Studies II: Important International institutions, agencies and fora- their structure, mandate.
 
Source: Indianexpress

MODEL CODE OF CONDUCT (MCC)

 
 
1. Context
 
 Former Election Commissioner Ashok Lavasa writes: a significant gap in the present framework is that the Model Code of Conduct for elections has not clearly spelt out the consequences of defaults, thus diluting its deterrent effect.
 
2.How Election Commission describe MCC?
 
  • The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India (ECI) for political parties and candidates during elections.
  • The MCC is designed to ensure free and fair elections by preventing the misuse of government machinery, maintaining a level playing field for all candidates, and avoiding any activities that could unduly influence voters.
  • The Election Commission describes the Model Code of Conduct as a set of norms and rules that political parties and candidates must adhere to during the election process.
  • The MCC comes into effect as soon as the election dates are announced and remains in force until the results are declared.
  • It includes guidelines on various aspects of electioneering, such as campaigning, speeches, processions, polling day activities, and the content of election manifestos.
  • The goal is to promote a fair and ethical electoral process, minimizing the chances of corrupt practices and ensuring that the democratic principles are upheld during elections

 

3.What is the Model Code of Conduct?

  • The Model Code of Conduct, issued by the Election Commission, serves as a set of guidelines to oversee the conduct of political parties and candidates before elections.
  • These guidelines encompass various aspects such as speeches, polling day procedures, polling booths, ministerial portfolios, election manifesto content, processions, and overall behavior. The aim is to ensure the integrity of elections.
  • According to information from the Press Information Bureau, a version of the MCC was initially introduced during the 1960 state assembly elections in Kerala.
  • It gained widespread adherence in the 1962 elections and has been consistently followed in subsequent general elections. In October 1979, the Election Commission expanded the MCC to include a section regulating the conduct of the 'party in power' to prevent any undue advantage during elections.
  • The MCC is activated from the announcement of the election schedule until the declaration of results. Consequently, it comes into effect from the present evening and remains applicable until the conclusion of the entire election process.
  • The MCC comprises eight provisions addressing general conduct, meetings, processions, polling day, polling booths, observers, the party in power, and election manifestos

4.When does the Model Code of Conduct come into effect?

  • Once the code comes into effect, the governing party, whether at the national or state level, must ensure that its official position is not exploited for campaign purposes.
  • Consequently, no policies, projects, or schemes should be announced that could sway voting behavior. The party is also prohibited from utilizing public funds for advertising or using official media platforms to publicize achievements with the intention of enhancing electoral prospects.
  • The guidelines further dictate that ministers should refrain from combining official visits with election-related activities or utilizing official resources for such purposes.
  • The ruling party is barred from employing government transportation or machinery for campaign activities. Additionally, it is mandated to provide opposition parties with equal access to public spaces like grounds for conducting election meetings, as well as amenities such as helipads, under the same terms and conditions applied to the ruling party.
  • Any advertisements at the expense of the public treasury in newspapers and other media outlets are considered an offense. The ruling government is also restricted from making ad-hoc appointments in governmental bodies and public enterprises that may unduly influence voters.
  • The Model Code of Conduct strictly prohibits the use of caste and communal sentiments to attract voters, allowing criticism of political parties or candidates solely based on their track record. Places of worship, including mosques, churches, and temples, are not to be employed for election propaganda.
  • Practices such as bribery, intimidation, and voter impersonation are explicitly forbidden. Public meetings within the 48-hour period leading up to the poll closing time are also proscribed, known as the "election silence," aiming to provide voters with a campaign-free environment for reflection before casting their votes

5.Is the Model Code of Conduct legally binding?

 

  • The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is not a legally binding document in the sense that it is not enforceable by law. It is a set of guidelines and ethical standards issued by election management bodies, such as the Election Commission of India, to ensure fair play and ethical behavior during elections.
  • The MCC is followed by political parties and candidates on a voluntary basis, and adherence is more a matter of political ethics and a commitment to maintaining the integrity of the electoral process.
  • While the MCC itself does not have statutory backing, certain aspects of it may be supported by legal provisions. For example, if a political party or candidate violates specific principles outlined in the MCC, they may be subject to legal action under relevant electoral laws. However, the MCC, as a whole, is more of a moral and ethical code that relies on the cooperation and voluntary compliance of political participants.
  • The Election Commission, as the custodian of the MCC, can take various actions against those who violate its principles.
  • These actions may include issuing warnings, reprimands, and, in severe cases, canceling candidature or disqualification. The idea behind the MCC is to foster a fair and transparent electoral process and to prevent the misuse of power during election campaigns

6. Way forward

The ECI can issue a notice to a politician or a party for alleged breach of the MCC either on its own or on the basis of a complaint by another party or individual. Once a notice is issued, the person or party must reply in writing — either accepting fault and tendering an unconditional apology or rebutting the allegation. In the latter case, if the person or party is found guilty subsequently, he/it can attract a written censure from the ECI — something that many see as a mere slap on the wrist

 

For Prelims: Current events of national and international importance.

For Mains: General Studies II: Salient features of the Representation of People’s Act.

Source: Indianexpress

CRITICAL MINERALS

1. Context 

 The government will put on sale around 20 critical mineral blocks in the fourth round of auction by the end of June, mines secretary V L Kantha Rao said

2. Previous Efforts and International Commitments

  • Previous initiatives in India to identify critical minerals for industrial growth and resource management.
  • The recent focus is on exploring and developing rare earth elements in the country.
  • The trigger for the latest exercise is India's international commitments to reduce carbon emissions and transition to cleaner energy sources.

3. Three-Stage Assessment Process

  • First Stage: Studying strategies and priorities of major global economies and identifying 69 elements or minerals considered critical.
  • Second Stage: Inter-ministerial consultations to identify minerals critical to specific sectors
  • Third Stage: Develop an empirical formula to evaluate criticality based on economic importance and supply risk.

4. Critical Minerals

  • Critical minerals are a group of minerals that are essential for a country's economic development and national security.
  • These minerals play a crucial role in various industries and sectors including clean technologies, advanced manufacturing, telecommunications, defence and transportation.
  • The lack of availability or concentration of extraction in a few geographic locations can lead to supply chain vulnerabilities and disrupt the supply of critical minerals.

4.1. List of Critical Minerals

  • A total of 30 minerals were identified as most critical for India, including lithium, cobalt, nickel, graphite, tin and copper.
  • Importance of these minerals in various sectors like high-tech electronics, telecommunications, transport and defence.
  • Two critical minerals identified as fertiliser minerals: Selenium and Cadmium.

5. Establishment of a Specialized Agency

  • Proposal to establish a National Institute or Centre of Excellence on critical minerals similar to Australia's CSIRO.
  • This agency will periodically update the list of critical minerals, develop strategies and facilitate the value chain development.

6. Global Practices

  • Overview of critical mineral identification methodologies in the US, UK, European Union, Japan and Australia.
  • Parameters considered include supply risk, economic importance, production concentration and recycling rate.

7. Domestic and Global Outreach

  • Geological Survey of India's exploration of lithium ore reserves in Jammu & Kashmir.
  • Khanij Bidesh India Ltd. (KABIL) was established to acquire overseas mineral assets of critical and strategic nature.
  • India's inclusion in the US-led Mineral Security Partnership to secure critical mineral supply chains and reduce dependency on China.

8. The Way Forward

  • India's identification of critical minerals supports economic growth, national security and international commitments.
  • Focus on developing competitive value chains and utilizing advanced technologies for mineral exploration.
  • The list of critical minerals will guide India in planning for acquisition, reducing import dependency and ensuring long-term supply. 
 
 
For Prelims: Critical minerals, Ministry of Mines, carbon emissions,  cleaner energy,  lithium, cobalt, nickel, graphite, tin, copper, Selenium, Cadmium, Centre of Excellence on critical minerals, Australia's CSIRO, Geological Survey of India, 
 
For Mains: 
1. What are critical minerals? Discuss their significance for a country's economic development and national security. Explain how the identification of critical minerals helps in reducing import dependency and ensuring resource security. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. With reference to the mineral resources of India, consider the following pairs: (UPSC 2010)
Mineral                         90%Natural sources in
1. Copper                       Jharkhand
2. Nickel                        Orissa
3. Tungsten                    Kerala
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?  
A. 1 and 2 only            B. 2 only             C. 1 and 3 only            D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: B
 
2. Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called 'rare earth metals.' Why? (UPSC 2012)
1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export.
2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country. 3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only              B. 2 and 3 only           C. 1 and 3 only          D.  1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: C
 
3. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO)? (UPSC 2022)
1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
3. It hears any objection to the Government's notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3            B. 3 and 4 only           C. 1 and 2 only          D. 1, 2 and 4
 
Answer: A
 
4. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the (UPSC 2020) 
A. long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emission in a given year.
B. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.
C. efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
D. contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.
 
Answer: A
 
5. Direction: It consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement (I)’ and the others as ‘Statement (II)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answer using the codes given below: (UPSC ESE 2018)
Statement (I): Green energy refers to one which does not harm the ecosystem of planet earth. Statement (II): All renewable energy is green energy.
A. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I)
B. Both statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true, but Statement (II) is not the correct explanation of Statement (I)
C. Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is false
D. Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is true
 
Answer: C
 
6. Which type of battery is used in the recently launched world's first fully electric cargo ship by change? (Delhi Police Constable 2017)
A.  Lead Acid        B. Manganese        C. Lithium ion        D. Nickel metal hydride
 
Answer: C
 
7. White gold is an alloy of (UPSC CAPF 2022) 
A. gold, nickel and palladium
B. gold, cobalt and palladium
C. gold, titanium and platinum
D. gold, magnesium and palladium
 
Answer: A
 
8. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance? (UPSC 2012) 
1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.
2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.
3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
4. It can be used as 'conducting electrodes' required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only          B. 3 and 4 only         C.  1, 2 and 4 only          D.  1, 2, 3 and 4
 
Answer: C
 
9. Graphite and diamonds are__________. (WBCS Prelims 2020)
 
A. isotopes           B.  isomers             C. isotones           D. allotropes
 
Answer: D
 
10. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2020)
1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. 3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only         B. 2 and 3 only        C.  3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: D
 
11. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India? (UPSC 2013)
1. Arsenic
2. Sorbitol
3. Fluoride
4. Formaldehyde
5. Uranium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A. 1 and 3 only           B. 2, 4 and 5 only          C. 1, 3 and 5 only           D.  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
 
Answer: C
 
12. In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of the bioremediation technique? (UPSC 2017)
1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
A. 1 only         B.  2 and 3 only          C.  1 and 3 only             D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: C
 
13. Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste? (UPSC 2013) 
1. Beryllium
2. Cadmium
3. Chromium
4. Heptachlor
5. Mercury
6. Lead
7. Plutonium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 
A. 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only           B. 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only         
C. 2, 4, 5 and 7 only               D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
 
Answer: B
 
14. When was the Geological Survey of India (GSI) of India founded? (UPRVUNL Staff Nurse 2021)
A. 1851             B. 1951            C. 1871              D. 1931
 
Answer: A
 
 
Source: The Indian Express

KHALISTAN MOVEMENT

1. Context 

 India summoned the Canadian Deputy High Commissioner and lodged a strong protest over the pro-Khalistan slogans raised during a public event in Toronto in the presence of Prime Minister Justin Trudeau

2. Khalistan movement

  • The Khalistan movement is a fight for a separate, sovereign Sikh state in present-day Punjab (both India and Pakistan).
  • Over the years, it has survived in various forms, in various places and amongst different populations.
  • The movement was crushed in India following Operation Blue star (1984) and Operation Black Thunder (1986 and 1988), but it continues to evoke sympathy and support among sections of the Sikh population, especially in the Sikh diaspora in countries such as Canada, the UK and Australia.

3. Reasons for the origin of the movement

  • The origins of the movement have been traced back to India's independence and subsequent Partition along religious lines.
The Punjab province, which was divided between India and Pakistan, saw some of the worst communal violence and generated millions of refugees: Sikha and Hindus stranded in the West (in Pakistan) rushed to the east, whereas Muslims in the east fled westward.
  • Lahore, the capital of Maharaja Ranjit Singh's great Sikh Empire, went to Pakistan as did holy Sikh sites including Nankana Sahib, the birthplace of Guru Nanak, the founder of Sikhism.
  • While most Sikhs found themselves in India, they were a small minority in the country, making up around 2 per cent of the population.
  • The political struggle for greater autonomy began around the time of Independence, with the Punjabi Suba Movement for the creation of a Punjabi-speaking state.
  • The States Reorganisation Commission, in its 1955 report rejected this demand, but in 1966 after years of protest, the state of Punjab was reorganised to reflect the Punjabi Suba demand.
  • The erstwhile Punjab state was trifurcated into the Hindi-speaking, Hindu-majority states of Himachal Pradesh and Haryana and the Punjabi-speaking, Sikh-majority Punjab.

4. The Anandpur Sahib Resolution

  • The Punjabi Suba Movement had galvanised the Akali Dal which became a major force in the new Sikh-majority Punjab and gave Congress hard fights in the Legislative Assembly elections of 1967 and 1969.
  • But in 1972, in the aftermath of Indira Gandhi's resounding victory in the 1971 Lok Sabha elections, the Akali Dal's performance in the state was underwhelming.
  • The party met at the sacred town of Anandpur Sahib the birthplace of the Khalsa, in 1973 and released a list of demands that would guide the political path of the Akali Dal.
  • Among other things, the Anandpur Sahib Resolution demanded autonomy for the state of Punjab, identified regions that would be part of a separate state and sought the right to frame its internal constitution.
  • The Akali Dal was trying to cash in on the growing demand for an autonomous state which had emerged alongside the Punjabi Suba movement and had gone global by 1971 when an advertisement appeared in the New York Times proclaiming the birth of Khalistan.
  • While the Akalis themselves repeatedly made it clear that they were not demanding secession from India, for the Indian state, the Anandpur Sahib Resolution was of grave concern.

5. Jarnail Singh Bhindranwale

  • Many in Punjab sought to go beyond just a demand for greater autonomy.
  • One such man was Jarnail Singh Bhindranwale, a charismatic preacher who soon positioned himself as "the authentic voice of the Sikhs, in contrast to the Akali Dal's lukewarm, vacillating leadership".
  • Some accounts claim that Bhindranwale was propped up by Sanjay Gandhi, Indira's son, to stand against the Akalis for Congress's political benefit.
  • However, by the 1980s the appeal of Bhindranwale had grown so much that he started to become a problem for the government.
  • He found a captive audience in the state's youth, especially those in the lower rungs of the social ladder and massed a massive following. He and his followers were also getting increasingly violent.
  • In the summer of 1982, Bhindranwale, with support from the Akali Dal's leadership, launched a civil disobedience movement called Dharam Yudh Morcha.
  • He took up residence inside the Golden Temple, directing demonstrations and clashes with the Police.
  • The Movement was geared towards the demands first articulated in the Anandpur Sahib Resolution, especially the socio-economic demands, which addressed concerns of the state's rural Sikh population.
  • However, amidst growing religious polarisation, sectarian violence and Bhindranwale's harsh rhetoric against Hindus, Indira Gandhi's government declared the movement tantamount to secession.

6. Operation Blue Star

  • By 1984, the situation in Punjab had become increasingly untenable for the government.
  • Bhindranwale had given a call to arms and instances of violence against Hindus, as well as government officers, had become common.
  • In 1983, a senior police officer was shot dead after praying at the Golden Temple and his body was left to decay in the sun, while the local police station did nothing perhaps both out of fear and sympathy for Bhindranwale's cause.
  • Indira Gandhi took the fateful decision to order the Indian Army to flush out militants from the Golden Temple and neutralise Bhindranwale.
  • Operation Blue Star began on June 1, 1984, but due to fierce resistance from Bhindranwale and his heavily armed supporters, the Army's operation became larger and more violent than had been originally intended, with the use of tanks and air support.
  • The image of Indian Army tanks shelling the holiest shrine of Sikhism was traumatic and the very large number of civilian casualties that occurred during the operation added to the trauma.
  • According to the government, 83 Indian Army soldiers were killed and 249 were injured in the operation.  A total of 493 militants and civilians were killed in the operation.
  • Other estimates peg the number of casualties much higher as much as 3, 000.
  • The operation coincided with the martyrdom day of Guru Arjan Dev, the fifth Guru of the Sikhs; hence the number of pilgrims in the Golden Temple was higher than usual.

7. The aftermath of Operation Blue Star

  • While the operation was ostensibly successful in its aims Bhindranwale was killed and the Golden Temple was freed of militants it gravely wounded the Sikh community around the world. It also galvanised the demand for Khalistan.
  • On October 31, 1984, Prime Minister Indira Gandhi was assassinated by two Sikh bodyguards.
  • This triggered the worst communal violence since Partition even according to conservative estimates, over 8, 000 Sikha were massacred in massive anti-Sikh street violence.
  • A year later, Sikh nationalists based in Canada blew up an Air India flight killing 329 people.
  • They claimed that the attack was to "avenge Bhindranwale's killing".
  • Punjab saw the worst violence, becoming the hub of a long-drawn-out insurgency that lasted till 1995.
  • While the movement was allegedly supported by Pakistan to cause internal unrest in its neighbouring country, it would slowly peter out by the 1990s as the violence took its toll, the bulk of the population turned against the militants and India headed towards economic liberalisation

8. The status of the Khalistan movement today

  • Punjab has long been peaceful, but the movement lives among some Sikh communities overseas.
  • The deep-rooted anger over Operation Blue Star and the desecration of the Golden Temple continues to resonate with some of the newer generations of Sikhs.
  • However, even though Bhindranwale is viewed as a martyr by many and the 1980s are remembered as dark times, this has not manifested into tangible political support for the Khalistna cause.

For Prelims & Mains

For Prelims: Khalistan Movement, Operation Bluestar, Golden Temple, Indira Gandhi Assassination, Bhindranwale, Operation Black Thunder, Sikhs, Guru Nanak, States Reorganisation Commission, The Punjabi Suba Movement, Guru Arjan Dev, 
For Mains:
1. What is Khalistan Movement and Explain the consequences which led to Operation Bluestar and its aftermath? (250 Words)
 
Source: The Indian Express
 
 
 
REDISTRIBUTION OF WEALTH 
 
 
 
 
1. Context
 
During the ongoing election campaign, there has been intense debate between the governing party and the opposition regarding the redistribution of wealth. Additionally, the Supreme Court has formed a nine-judge Bench to elucidate the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) concerning the ownership and control of material resources.
 
 
2.  About Redistribution of Wealth 
 
  • Redistribution of wealth refers to the process of reallocating resources, assets, or income from those who possess more wealth to those with less.
  • This redistribution can occur through various mechanisms, such as taxation, welfare programs, subsidies, or government policies aimed at promoting economic equality.
  • The goal is typically to reduce socioeconomic disparities by ensuring a more equitable distribution of resources and opportunities among different segments of society.

3. Constitutional Provisions for Social and Economic Justice
 
  • The preamble of the Constitution is dedicated to securing social and economic justice, liberty, and equality for all citizens.
  • Part III outlines fundamental rights ensuring liberty and equality, while Part IV encompasses the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
  • These principles serve as guidelines for both central and state governments to achieve social and economic justice in the nation.
  • Unlike the enforceable fundamental rights in Part III, the DPSP is not subject to court enforcement but remains integral to governance.
  • Article 39(b) and (c) of Part IV specifically address economic justice, emphasizing the equitable distribution of material resources for the common good and preventing wealth concentration to the detriment of society.

4. Historical Context of Property Rights in the Constitution

 
  • Initially, the Constitution enshrined the right to property as a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(f), ensuring compensation by the state in case of property acquisition (Article 31).
  • At independence, property rights, particularly related to agricultural and other lands, were significant.
  • Land reforms and public infrastructure development necessitated government acquisition of such estates.
  • Due to resource constraints and the need for flexibility in land acquisition, amendments were introduced, notably exceptions under Articles 31A, 31B, and 31C.
  • The Supreme Court, in various cases, explored the interplay between fundamental rights and the DPSP, particularly concerning property rights.
  • In the Golak Nath case (1967), the Court asserted that fundamental rights couldn't be compromised to implement DPSP.
  • Subsequently, the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) validated Article 31C, subject to judicial review.
  • In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Court emphasized the harmony between fundamental rights and DPSP.
  • In 1978, to streamline property-related litigation, the 44th Amendment Act removed property rights as a fundamental right, repositioning it under Article 300A as a constitutional right.
  • The right to private property remains significant, requiring state acquisition laws to be for public purposes and entail adequate compensation.

 

5. Evolution of Economic Policies

 

  • In the decades following independence, Indian governments embraced a socialist economic model. Land acquisition laws targeted zamindars and large landlords for public purposes. Nationalization of banking and insurance, along with high direct taxes and regulations like the MRTP Act, aimed to reduce inequality and redistribute wealth. However, these measures stifled growth and led to income/wealth concealment, with taxes like estate duty and wealth tax proving inefficient.
  • In the 1990s, India transitioned from a closed economy to liberalization, globalization, and privatization. The 1991 industrial policy focused on empowering market forces, enhancing efficiency, and reforming industrial structures. Repealing the MRTP Act and reducing income tax rates were key steps. Estate duty was abolished in 1985 and wealth tax in 2016.
  • While the market-driven approach lifted many out of poverty, it also exacerbated inequality. A report by the World Inequality Lab highlights significant wealth and income disparities, with the top 10% holding a majority share while the bottom 50% possess significantly less.
  • The Congress, in its Lok Sabha election manifesto, pledges measures to assist the poor, including financial aid and wealth distribution surveys. Rahul Gandhi emphasizes addressing inequality. The ruling party, led by the Prime Minister, accuses the opposition of intending to reintroduce inheritance taxes, even affecting poorer sections.
  • The Supreme Court has convened a nine-judge Bench to clarify whether Article 39(b) encompasses private resources, indicating a pivotal legal interpretation in the ongoing debate over wealth redistribution.

 

6. The way forward

 

Widening income inequality is a global challenge linked to open-market economies. However, governments must ensure the most vulnerable aren't left behind. While past policies with very high taxes and wealth redistribution didn't work perfectly, neglecting the poor is unacceptable. The key is to find a balance. We need to foster innovation and economic growth, but also ensure everyone benefits, especially those on the margins. The best policies will vary based on current economic realities and require open discussion. Ultimately, the goal remains constant: achieving economic justice for all, as promised by our Constitution.

 

For Prelims: Redistribution of wealth, Article 19 (1) (f), Article 31 A, Article 31 B. Article 31 C, First Amendment Act, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, Golak Nath case, Kesavananda Bharati case, Minerva Mills case
For Mains: 
1. Explain the concept of redistribution of wealth and discuss its importance in addressing socioeconomic disparities in society. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth is the violation of  (UPSC 2021) 
A. Right to Equality
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. Right to Freedom
D. Concept of Welfare
 
2. Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India, as it stands amended, includes which of the following? (CDS 01/2022)
1. Freedom of speech and expression
2. Assemble peaceably and without arms
3. To acquire and dispose property
4. To move freely throughout the territory of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only          B. 1, 2, 3 and 4           C. 4 only            D. 1, 2 and 4 only
 
3. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution includes which of the following right? (DSSSB LDC 2019)
A. Right to Constitutional Remedies
B. Right against exploitation
C. Right to freedom of speech and expression
D. Right to freedom of Religion
 
4. Which of the following Articles in the Constitution of India are exceptions to the Fundamental Rights enumerated in Article 14 and Article 19? (CDS GK 2020) 
A. Article 31A and Article 31C
B. Article 31B and Article 31D
C. Article 12 and Article 13
D. Article 16 and Article 17
 
5. Article related to compulsory acquisition of property has been omitted now from the Indian constitution. What is the number of this article? (SSC CHSL 2023) 
A. 31D         B. 31        C. 31B           D. 31A
 
6. The First Amendment Act of the Constitution of India came up in ______. (SSC CGL 2022) A. 1954          B. 1951          C. 1952          D. 1953
 
7. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights? (UPSC 2023)
A. 1st Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 44th Amendment
D. 86th Amendment
Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A, 5- B, 6-B, 7-A
 
Source: The Hindu

FSSAI

 
 
1. Context
 
 
Recently, questions have been raised about India’s food safety regime in the wake of allegations against products as varied as infant food, “health drinks” and spices. 
 
 
2. What is Salmonella?
 
  • Salmonella is a genus of bacteria that includes a wide range of species, some of which can cause illness in humans and animals. These bacteria are commonly associated with foodborne illnesses, particularly through the consumption of contaminated food or water.
  • Salmonella infections in humans can lead to symptoms such as diarrhoea, abdominal cramps, fever, and vomiting. In severe cases, particularly in vulnerable populations such as infants, elderly individuals, or those with weakened immune systems, Salmonella infections can be life-threatening and may require medical intervention.
  • Salmonella bacteria are often found in raw or undercooked animal products, such as poultry, eggs, meat, and dairy, but they can also contaminate fruits, vegetables, and other foods during processing or handling. Proper food handling, cooking, and hygiene practices are essential for preventing Salmonella infections.
 

3.  What is ethylene oxide?

 

  • Ethylene oxide is a colourless, flammable gas with a slightly sweet odour. It is a highly reactive compound used primarily as an intermediate in the production of other chemicals, including ethylene glycol, which is commonly used as antifreeze and in the production of polyester fibres and resins.
  • Ethylene oxide is also widely used as a sterilizing agent for medical equipment and supplies, as it has excellent penetrating properties and can effectively kill bacteria, viruses, and fungi.
  • Additionally, it is used in the production of various consumer products such as detergents, solvents, and plastics.
  • While ethylene oxide has many industrial applications, it is also considered a hazardous substance due to its flammability and potential health risks.
  • Prolonged exposure to ethylene oxide can irritate the eyes, skin, and respiratory tract, and may cause headaches, nausea, and dizziness.
  • Long-term exposure to high levels of ethylene oxide has been associated with an increased risk of certain cancers, particularly leukaemia and lymphoma.
  • As a result, strict safety regulations and guidelines are in place to minimize exposure to ethylene oxide in occupational settings and to ensure its safe handling and disposal.

 

4. Importance of food safety and WHO’s five keys to safer food

 

  • Food safety is a critical issue because unsafe food can lead to various health problems, including foodborne illnesses, which can range from mild gastrointestinal discomfort to severe and life-threatening conditions.
  • Foodborne illnesses are caused by consuming food or beverages contaminated with harmful bacteria, viruses, parasites, or chemical substances. These contaminants can enter the food supply chain at any stage, from production and processing to distribution, preparation, and consumption.
  • Ensuring food safety is essential for protecting public health, reducing the burden of foodborne diseases, and promoting overall well-being. Unsafe food can pose significant economic costs, including medical expenses, lost productivity, and damage to the reputation of food producers and suppliers.
  • The World Health Organization (WHO) has developed five keys to safer food, which are practical guidelines aimed at reducing the risk of foodborne illnesses. These keys emphasize basic principles of food safety and hygiene that should be followed by individuals, food producers, and food handlers:
  1. The importance of maintaining good personal hygiene, such as washing hands thoroughly with soap and water before handling food, especially after using the toilet, changing diapers, or handling pets.
  2. Prevent cross-contamination by keeping raw meat, poultry, seafood, and eggs separate from cooked or ready-to-eat foods during storage, preparation, and serving.
  3. The importance of cooking food thoroughly to kill harmful bacteria, viruses, and parasites. Food should be cooked to the appropriate internal temperature, using a food thermometer to ensure that it reaches the recommended safe temperature.
  4. The importance of keeping food at safe temperatures to prevent the growth of harmful microorganisms. Perishable foods should be stored in the refrigerator or freezer, and cooked food should be kept hot or cold as appropriate.
  5. The importance of using safe water and raw materials to prevent contamination of food. Water used for drinking, cooking, and washing should be safe and free from contaminants, and raw materials should be sourced from reputable suppliers and inspected for quality and safety.
 
5. The challenges associated with food safety in India
 

Food safety in India faces several challenges, including

  • Contamination of food with bacteria, viruses, parasites, and chemical substances is a significant challenge. This contamination can occur at various stages of the food supply chain, including production, processing, distribution, and preparation.
  • India's food safety infrastructure, including laboratories, testing facilities, and regulatory agencies, is often inadequate, particularly in rural areas. Limited resources and capacity constraints hinder effective monitoring and enforcement of food safety regulations.
  • A significant portion of India's food production and distribution occurs in the informal sector, which may lack proper hygiene practices, quality control measures, and regulatory oversight. Informal vendors, street food vendors, and small-scale producers may operate in unregulated environments, increasing the risk of foodborne illnesses.
  • Inadequate sanitation and hygiene practices at various stages of food production, handling, and preparation contribute to food contamination. Issues such as improper handwashing, inadequate cleaning of utensils and equipment, and lack of safe water sources can compromise food safety.
  • Foodborne illnesses are a major public health concern in India, with millions of cases reported annually. Poor food safety practices, contaminated food and water sources, and inadequate surveillance and reporting contribute to the prevalence of foodborne diseases.
  • Limited awareness among consumers about food safety practices, foodborne hazards, and their rights and responsibilities regarding food safety contributes to the challenge. Many consumers may lack knowledge about safe food handling, storage, and preparation practices.
  • While India has food safety regulations in place, there are gaps in enforcement and compliance. Weak regulatory oversight, inadequate inspection mechanisms, and corruption can undermine the effectiveness of food safety regulations.

 

6. The important initiatives for food safety in India

 

Several important initiatives have been implemented in India to improve food safety and ensure the well-being of consumers. Some of these initiatives include

  • The Food Safety and Standards Act (FSSA) established a comprehensive regulatory framework for food safety in India. It created the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), which is responsible for setting food safety standards, regulating food production and distribution, and ensuring compliance with food safety regulations.
  • The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is the apex regulatory body for food safety in India. It is responsible for setting food safety standards, regulating food businesses, conducting surveillance and monitoring, and promoting awareness about food safety among consumers and food handlers.
  • FSSAI launched the Eat Right India campaign aims to promote healthy eating habits and safe food practices among consumers. It includes initiatives such as the Eat Right Challenge, Eat Right Campus, and Eat Right School program to encourage healthy eating choices and raise awareness about food safety.
  • FSSAI has introduced the Food Safety Training and Certification (FoSTaC) program to provide training and certification in food safety and hygiene to food handlers and industry professionals. The program aims to improve food safety standards and practices across the food industry.
  • FSSAI conducts regular surveillance and monitoring of food products to ensure compliance with food safety standards. This includes sampling and testing of food products for contaminants, adulterants, and other hazards to identify and address potential risks to public health.
  • FSSAI has embraced technology to enhance food safety compliance and monitoring. Initiatives such as the Food Safety Compliance System (FoSCoS) enable online registration, licensing, and monitoring of food businesses, streamlining regulatory processes and improving transparency.
  • The Government of India has established a network of national food testing laboratories to enhance food safety testing and analysis capabilities. These laboratories play a crucial role in ensuring the quality and safety of food products through rigorous testing and analysis.

 

7. The State Food Safety Index (SFSI)

 

The State Food Safety Index (SFSI) is an initiative launched by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) to assess and rank the performance of states and union territories in implementing food safety standards and regulations. The SFSI aims to promote healthy competition among states and territories, encourage improvements in food safety standards, and enhance transparency and accountability in food safety governance.

The SFSI evaluates states and union territories based on various parameters related to food safety, including

  •  Assessment of compliance with food safety regulations, including licensing, registration, and hygiene standards for food businesses.
  • Evaluation of the availability and capacity of food testing laboratories for analyzing food samples and detecting contaminants and adulterants.
  • Assessment of the availability of trained personnel and resources for food safety management and enforcement, including training programs and capacity-building initiatives.
  • Evaluation of measures to promote consumer awareness about food safety, including information dissemination, education campaigns, and grievance redressal mechanisms.
  • Assessment of the effectiveness of governance structures, institutional mechanisms, and regulatory frameworks for ensuring food safety at the state and local levels.

 

8. About FSSAI

 

The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. It operates under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India. FSSAI is responsible for formulating and enforcing food safety standards, regulating food production, processing, distribution, and sale, and promoting public health through safe food practices.

Key functions of FSSAI include

  • FSSAI establishes scientific standards for food safety, quality, and hygiene, covering various aspects of food production, processing, packaging, labelling, and distribution.
  • FSSAI regulates food businesses by issuing licenses and registrations to ensure compliance with food safety regulations. It categorizes food businesses based on size, scale, and nature of operations and mandates licensing or registration accordingly.
  • FSSAI conducts surveillance, monitoring, and inspection of food products and food businesses to ensure compliance with food safety standards. It samples and tests food products for contaminants, adulterants, and other hazards to protect public health.
  • FSSAI promotes consumer awareness about food safety and hygiene through various initiatives, campaigns, and educational programs. It provides information and resources to empower consumers to make informed choices about safe food practices.
  • FSSAI conducts capacity-building programs, training workshops, and skill development initiatives to enhance the knowledge and skills of food handlers, industry professionals, and regulatory authorities in food safety management and enforcement.
  • FSSAI collaborates with various stakeholders, including government agencies, industry associations, academic institutions, and international organizations, to strengthen food safety governance, promote best practices, and address emerging challenges in food safety.
 

9. The legislative frameworks of FSSAI

 

The legislative framework of the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) primarily consists of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, along with related rules, regulations, and guidelines. 

  • Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (FSS Act) is the primary legislation governing food safety and standards in India. It establishes FSSAI as the apex regulatory body responsible for formulating, implementing, and enforcing food safety standards and regulations across the country.
  • Food Safety and Standards Rules, 2011 provide detailed provisions and procedures for the implementation of the FSS Act. These rules cover various aspects of food safety, including licensing and registration of food businesses, food safety standards, labelling and packaging requirements, food additives, contaminants, and enforcement mechanisms.
  • Food Safety and Standards (Licensing and Registration of Food Businesses) Regulations, 2011 prescribe the requirements and procedures for obtaining licenses and registrations for food businesses, including manufacturers, processors, distributors, retailers, and importers.
  • Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labeling) Regulations, 2011 specify the labelling and packaging requirements for food products, including mandatory labelling information such as product name, ingredients, nutritional information, allergen declarations, and date marking.
  • Food Safety and Standards (Contaminants, Toxins, and Residues) Regulations, 2011 establish maximum limits for various contaminants, toxins, and residues in food products to ensure consumer safety and prevent adverse health effects.
  • Food Safety and Standards (Food Product Standards and Food Additives) Regulations, 2011 prescribe food product standards and specifications, including permitted additives, colours, flavours, and other ingredients used in food processing.
  • Food Safety and Standards (Prohibition and Restrictions on Sales) Regulations, 2011 prohibit or restrict the sale and distribution of certain food products that are deemed unsafe or harmful to health, such as adulterated, misbranded, or substandard foods.
 
10. The Way Forward
 
By prioritizing the focus areas and fostering collaboration between consumers, food businesses, regulatory bodies, and NGOs, India can significantly improve its food safety standards. This will not only protect public health but also boost consumer confidence and strengthen the country's food industry.
 
 
For Prelims: FSSAI, Salmonella, Ethylene oxide, 
For Mains: 
1. Discuss the significance of food safety in India, highlighting its impact on public health and the economy. Evaluate the effectiveness of existing food safety regulations and suggest measures to address the challenges associated with ensuring food safety. (250 Words)
2.  “Food safety is not just a regulatory issue, it is a societal concern.”  Explain the significance of this statement in the context of ensuring food safety in India. (250 words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. Read the following passage and answer the question that follows. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Policymakers and media have placed the blame for skyrocketing food prices on a variety of factors, including high fuel prices, bad weather in key food producing countries, and the diversion of land to non-food production. Increased emphasis, however, has been placed on a surge in demand for food from the most populous emerging economics. It seems highly probable that mass consumption in these countries could be well poised to create a food crisis.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: (UPSC 2021)
1. Oil producing countries are one of the reasons for high food prices.
2. If there is a food crisis in the world in the near future, it will be in the emerging economies.
 
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
A. 1 only        B. 2 only           C. Both 1 and 2         D.  Neither 1 nor 2
 
2. India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons? (UPSC 2011)
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30.
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 
A. 1 and 2 only          B. 2 and 3 only        C. 1 and 3 only          D. 1, 2 and 3
 
3. Consider the following crops of India: (UPSC 2012)
1. Groundnut
2. Sesamum
3. Pearl millet
Which of the above is/are predominantly rainfed crop/crops?
A. 1 and 2 only      B. 2 and 3 only      C. 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 

4. Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop? (UPSC 2021) 

A. Sugarcane      B. Sunflower     C. Pearl millet     D.  Red gram

5. With reference to 'Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millets Promotion, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2016) 
1. This initiative aims to demonstrate the improved production and post-harvest technologies and to demonstrate value addition techniques, in an integrated manner, with a cluster approach.
2. Poor, small, marginal and tribal farmers have a larger stake in this scheme.
3. An important objective of the scheme is to encourage farmers of commercial crops to shift to millet cultivation by offering them free kits of critical inputs of nutrients and micro-irrigation equipment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only     B.  2 and 3 only    C. 1 and 2 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
6. With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct? (UPSC 2015)
A. Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only
B. The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
C. Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
D. Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
 
7. With reference to India, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2010)
1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis only.
2. As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI(IW)), the WPI gives less weight to food articles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only       B. 2 only       C. Both 1 and 2          D.  Neither 1 nor 2
 
8. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2020)
1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 A. 1 and  2 only       B. 2 only       C. 3 only           D. 1, 2 and 3
 
9. Which one of the following most appropriately describes the nature of Green Revolution of the late sixties of 20th century? (BPSC CCE 2015)
A.Intensive cultivation of green vegetable
B.Intensive agriculture district programme
C.High-yielding varieties programme
D.Seed-Fertilizer-Water technology
E.None of the above/More than one of the above
 
Answers: 1-D, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A, 5- C, 6-C, 7- C, 8-A , 9-E
Source: The Indian Express
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