BOOTH LEVEL OFFICERS (BLO)
- A Booth Level Officer (BLO) is typically a government or semi-government employee who is familiar with the voters in a particular area and generally resides or casts their vote in the same locality.
- Their primary responsibility is to assist in updating the electoral roll by using their on-ground knowledge.
- As per Section 13B(2) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, BLOs are selected from staff working in government schools, government offices, and various local bodies.
A BLO acts as the grassroots representative of the Election Commission of India (ECI). Their key duties include:
-
Ensuring the electoral roll is accurate and free of errors
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Collecting, verifying, and revising voter information
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Supplying necessary forms for inclusion, deletion, or correction of voter details
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Assisting eligible residents in registering as voters and obtaining voter ID cards
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Conducting field verification and sending reports to the Electoral Registration Officer (ERO)
They also coordinate with residents and political party representatives to identify voters who have died, relocated, or have duplicate entries so that they can be removed. This makes their work demanding and labor-intensive.
4. Why are BLOs under stress?
- A Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls is currently being conducted in nine states and three Union Territories.
- During this process, several deaths of BLOs have been reported in the regions undergoing SIR, raising concerns about heavy workload and pressure.
- As per the Election Commission’s announcement on October 27, the SIR commenced on November 4.
- Citizens in these 12 states/UTs were required to submit their enumeration forms by December 4, ahead of the publication of draft rolls on December 9.
- According to Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, the Election Commission of India (ECI) has the authority to order a special revision of the electoral roll for any constituency or a part of it, whenever it considers necessary and in a manner it deems appropriate.
- The Registration of Electors’ Rules, 1960 further provide that electoral roll revisions may be conducted in three ways — intensive, summary, or a mix of both — depending on the ECI’s directions.
- An intensive revision involves preparing the electoral roll anew, whereas a summary revision focuses on updating or modifying the existing roll
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Once a person casts their vote, an indelible ink mark is applied to their finger to ensure they cannot vote again. This practice is provided for under the Representation of the People Act (RoPA), 1951. The ink used contains silver nitrate, a colourless chemical that turns visible when exposed to ultraviolet rays, including sunlight.
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The formulation for this indelible ink was created in 1961 by the National Physical Laboratory (NPL), New Delhi, which is part of the CSIR network. In 1962, the technology was licensed to Mysore Paints and Varnish Limited (MPVL), a Karnataka government enterprise.
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From 1962 onwards, Mysore Paints & Varnish Ltd. has been the sole producer of this ink. Formerly known as Mysore Lac & Paint Works Ltd, the company was founded in 1937 by Nalwadi Krishnaraja Wodeyar, the then Maharaja of Mysore
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For Prelims: Representation of People Act 1951, Special Intensive Revision (SIR), Election Commission of India (ECI)
For Mains: GS II - Indian Polity
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Previous Year Questions
1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Answer: D
2. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021)
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the- existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3
Answer: B
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SIMULTANEOUS ELECTIONS
Simultaneous elections(One Nation One Election) in India refer to the idea of holding the Lok Sabha (parliamentary) and state legislative assembly elections across the country at the same time, rather than the current system of staggered elections where polls are held at different times for different states and union territories. This concept has been a topic of discussion and debate in Indian politics for several years.
Key characteristics related to simultaneous elections in India:
-
Current Election System: India follows a federal system of government, which means that elections are held separately for the Lok Sabha (federal parliament) and state legislative assemblies. Furthermore, the terms of different state assemblies can vary, leading to elections happening at different times across the country.
-
Arguments in Favor:
- Cost and Resource Efficiency: Conducting elections at different times is expensive and requires significant resources. Simultaneous elections could save time and money.
- Stability and Governance: Proponents argue that simultaneous elections can provide more political stability and allow governments to focus on governance instead of frequent election campaigning.
-
Challenges and Concerns:
- Constitutional Hurdles: Implementing simultaneous elections would require constitutional amendments, as the terms of state assemblies cannot be easily synchronized with the Lok Sabha.
- Logistical Challenges: Organizing simultaneous elections for a country as vast and diverse as India is a complex logistical challenge.
- Impact on Regional Parties: Smaller regional parties are concerned that simultaneous elections might undermine their ability to campaign effectively.
Components of an EVM:
- Control Unit: This is the main unit of the EVM. It is operated by a polling officer and manages the authentication of voters.
- Balloting Unit: This unit is where voters cast their votes. It is connected to the control unit and displays the list of candidates and their respective symbols
- When a voter casts their vote by pressing the button next to their chosen candidate's name, the EVM records the vote electronically.
- EVMs are designed to ensure secrecy and prevent double voting.
- After the election, the data stored in the EVMs is used to tally the votes
- EVMs are designed with multiple layers of security to prevent tampering or hacking.
- They use a one-time programmable (OTP) chip to store voting data securely.
- Before and after elections, EVMs are subject to rigorous testing and sealing to ensure their integrity
- Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) machines are used during election process to verify that the vote polled by a voter goes to the correct candidate.
- VVPATs are a second line of verification and are particularly useful in the time when allegations around Electronic Voting Machines’ tampering crop up.
- Parties have been making regular demands for VVPATs to be used during elections after alleging EVMs may not be completely secure and tamper proof.
VVPAT system gives instant feedback to the voter showing that the vote polled has in fact been allotted against the candidate chosen. - After a voter presses the button on the EVM against the chosen candidate, the VVPAT prints a slip containing name of the candidate and the election symbol and drops it automatically into a sealed box. The machines give the chance for the voter to verify their vote.
- The machine is placed in a glass case in a way that only the voter can see it. The slip is displayed to the voter for seven seconds after which the VVPAT machine cuts it and drops in into the storage box with a beep. The machines can be accessed, though, by the polling officials and not by the voter.
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For Prelims: Indian Polity and Governance
For Mains: General Studies II: Salient features of the Representation of People’s Act
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Previous Year Questions
1. The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) system was used for the first time by the Election Commission of India in (UPSC CSE 2019)
A. North Paravur Assembly Constituency
B. Kerala Noksen Assembly Constituency
C. Nagaland Mapusa Assembly Constituency, Goa
D. Nambol Assembly Constituency, Manipur
Answer (B)
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SIMULTANEOUS ELECTIONS
Simultaneous elections(One Nation One Election) in India refer to the idea of holding the Lok Sabha (parliamentary) and state legislative assembly elections across the country at the same time, rather than the current system of staggered elections where polls are held at different times for different states and union territories. This concept has been a topic of discussion and debate in Indian politics for several years.
Key characteristics related to simultaneous elections in India:
-
Current Election System: India follows a federal system of government, which means that elections are held separately for the Lok Sabha (federal parliament) and state legislative assemblies. Furthermore, the terms of different state assemblies can vary, leading to elections happening at different times across the country.
-
Arguments in Favor:
- Cost and Resource Efficiency: Conducting elections at different times is expensive and requires significant resources. Simultaneous elections could save time and money.
- Stability and Governance: Proponents argue that simultaneous elections can provide more political stability and allow governments to focus on governance instead of frequent election campaigning.
-
Challenges and Concerns:
- Constitutional Hurdles: Implementing simultaneous elections would require constitutional amendments, as the terms of state assemblies cannot be easily synchronized with the Lok Sabha.
- Logistical Challenges: Organizing simultaneous elections for a country as vast and diverse as India is a complex logistical challenge.
- Impact on Regional Parties: Smaller regional parties are concerned that simultaneous elections might undermine their ability to campaign effectively.
Components of an EVM:
- Control Unit: This is the main unit of the EVM. It is operated by a polling officer and manages the authentication of voters.
- Balloting Unit: This unit is where voters cast their votes. It is connected to the control unit and displays the list of candidates and their respective symbols
- When a voter casts their vote by pressing the button next to their chosen candidate's name, the EVM records the vote electronically.
- EVMs are designed to ensure secrecy and prevent double voting.
- After the election, the data stored in the EVMs is used to tally the votes
- EVMs are designed with multiple layers of security to prevent tampering or hacking.
- They use a one-time programmable (OTP) chip to store voting data securely.
- Before and after elections, EVMs are subject to rigorous testing and sealing to ensure their integrity
- Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) machines are used during election process to verify that the vote polled by a voter goes to the correct candidate.
- VVPATs are a second line of verification and are particularly useful in the time when allegations around Electronic Voting Machines’ tampering crop up.
- Parties have been making regular demands for VVPATs to be used during elections after alleging EVMs may not be completely secure and tamper proof.
VVPAT system gives instant feedback to the voter showing that the vote polled has in fact been allotted against the candidate chosen. - After a voter presses the button on the EVM against the chosen candidate, the VVPAT prints a slip containing name of the candidate and the election symbol and drops it automatically into a sealed box. The machines give the chance for the voter to verify their vote.
- The machine is placed in a glass case in a way that only the voter can see it. The slip is displayed to the voter for seven seconds after which the VVPAT machine cuts it and drops in into the storage box with a beep. The machines can be accessed, though, by the polling officials and not by the voter.
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For Prelims: Indian Polity and Governance
For Mains: General Studies II: Salient features of the Representation of People’s Act
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Previous Year Questions
1. The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) system was used for the first time by the Election Commission of India in (UPSC CSE 2019)
A. North Paravur Assembly Constituency
B. Kerala Noksen Assembly Constituency
C. Nagaland Mapusa Assembly Constituency, Goa
D. Nambol Assembly Constituency, Manipur
Answer (B)
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MAHAD SATYAGRAHA
- The events that led to the Mahad Satyagraha began to unfold in August 1923.
- The Bombay Legislative Council passed a resolution moved by the social reformer Rao Bahadur S K Bole, which said “the Untouchable classes be allowed to use all public water sources, wells and dharmashalas which are built and maintained out of public funds or administered by bodies appointed by the Government or created by statute, as well as public schools, courts, offices and dispensaries.”
- Albeit with reluctance, the Bombay government adopted the resolution in the following month, and issued directions for its implementation
- The situation on the ground, however, remained unchanged upper caste Hindus would not allow the lower castes to access public water sources
- At that point, Ramchandra Babaji More, a Mahad-based Dalit political leader, approached Ambedkar to preside “over a conference of the Untouchables in Konkan”
- Ambedkar at the time was helping Dalits fight against the social evil of untouchability through the Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha, the institution that he had founded in 1924
- Ambedkar agreed to More’s proposition, and involved himself in overseeing the preparations for the conference, which was to take place in Mahad town in the Konkan (now in Maharashtra’s Raigad district) on March 19 and 20, 1927
- He conducted meetings with local Dalit leaders, stressed on creating “a wave of awakening” among the lower caste people of Konkan, and directed other organisers to conduct meetings to propagate news of the conference
- The volunteers collected Rs 3 from each of the 40 villages and also collected rice and wheat to feed the participants at Mahad. It took nearly two months of preparations to hold the Conference
- Workers and leaders personally met depressed class people and explained to them the importance of the Conference
- Soon after the conference came to an end, a priest of a local temple went around the town claiming that Dalits were planning to enter the temple, and asked people to help thwart them.
- This resulted in a clash in which “20 people were seriously injured and 60-70 people, including 3 to 4 women were wounded”, Teltumbde wrote.
- Some upper caste Hindus filed a case in court against Ambedkar and his followers on December 12, claiming that the tank was private property
- Two days later, the court issued a temporary injunction, prohibiting Babasaheb and other Dalits from going to the tank or taking water from it until further orders.
- The Mahad Satyagraha is considered to be the “foundational event” of the Dalit movement. This was the first time that the community collectively displayed its resolve to reject the caste system and assert their human rights.
- Although anti-caste protests had taken place before the Mahad Satyagraha, they were mostly localised and sporadic
- The difference between (the) Mahad (Satyagraha) and them mainly lay in the organisation and leadership; they lacked in elements of organisation and the charismatic leadership of Dr Ambedkar
- The Mahad Satyagraha was to become the blueprint for organising future movements against the caste system and its practices.
- It marked an important point in Ambedkar’s political journey, catapulting him to the leadership of the downtrodden and oppressed classes in the country
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Previous Year Questions:
1. In 1927, Who started the Mahad Satyagraha in Maharashtra (NDA 2022)
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
C. Dr. Ambedkar
D. Jyotiba Phule
Answer: C
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PARIS AGREEMENT
1. Context
2. What is Paris Agreement?
- Paris Agreement is a multinational agreement that was signed as part of the UNFCCC with the intention of reducing and mitigating greenhouse gas emissions.
- 196 nations ratified the climate change agreement at the Conference of the Parties (COP 21) in Paris in December 2015. It is an international agreement that is binding on all parties involved.
- Achieving the long-term temperature goal was the purpose of the Paris Climate Accord. To attain a world without greenhouse gas emissions by the middle of the century, nations strive to peak global greenhouse gas emissions as soon as possible.
- The Paris Climate Accord's major objective is to keep global warming well below 2° Celsius and ideally below 1.5° Celsius in comparison to pre-industrial levels.
- The Paris Agreement is a watershed moment in the multilateral climate change process because it brings all nations together for the first time in a binding agreement to undertake ambitious efforts to combat climate change and adapt to its effects.
3. COP21
- To keep the rise in the average world temperature to well under 2°C above pre-industrial levels. To continue making efforts to keep global warming to 1.5°C over pre-industrial levels, knowing that doing so would greatly lessen the dangers and effects of climate change.
- The Agreement also mentions achieving the global peaking of emissions by the middle of the century while taking into account the fact that developing nation Parties will have a longer peaking period.
4. What are NDCs
- At the Conference of the Parties (COP21) of the U.N. Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), which took place in Paris in December 2015, nations from all over the world pledged to establish a new global climate agreement by that time.
- In advance of a new international agreement, nations have committed to publicly state their Intended Nationally Determined Contributions or the climate activities they plan to take after 2020.
- The 2015 agreement's ambitious goals and whether the world is put on a course toward a low-carbon, climate-resilient future will be largely determined by the INDCs.
- The Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) of India has also been submitted to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
- Countries communicate actions they will take to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to meet the Paris Agreement's goals in their NDCs.
- Countries also communicate actions they will take to build resilience to adapt to the effects of rising temperatures in their NDCs.
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5. Highlights of the report on the performance of the Paris Agreement
- After the signing of the Agreement, the last eight years (2015-2022) have consecutively been the warmest years on record globally.
- The situation could have been far worse if the La Nina weather event had not occurred in the past three years, which has a cooling effect on the weather system.
- Globally updated Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) to limit global warming to 1.5 degrees Celsius have failed even to achieve a 2-degree Celsius target.
- The Paris Agreement has not been able to equitably phase out fossil fuels predominantly responsible for the climate crisis.
- Neither the NDCs nor the disaster risk reduction and climate risk management plans are in place to combat climate-induced extreme weather phenomena.
6. A series of climate records fell over in 2022, the report showed.
- Global mean temperature rising: The global mean temperature in 2022 was 1.15°C, ranging from 1.02°C to 1.28°C above the 1850–1900 average. This was the highest on record for the past eight years. The value is about 0.2°C higher than the statistic before 2015. The pre-industrialisation era is considered a benchmark as there was no significant anthropogenic emission at the time.
- Record melting of Antarctica ice: Sea ice in Antarctica dropped to an all-time low, 1.92 million square kilometres, on February 25, 2022. This was almost a million sq km below the mean of the last three decades till 2020.
- Greenhouse gases surged: The levels of three major greenhouse gases — carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide — continued to increase in 2022. The data shows that growth rates of all three gases have increased around 20 per cent compared to 2011-15 levels.
- Sea level rise doubled: Global mean sea level continued to rise in 2022. It has doubled to 4.62 millimetres per year during 2013–2022 from 2.27 mm recorded in the first decade of the satellite record (1993–2002). The rate of increase quickened after 2015. Ocean heat content, which measures this gain in energy, reached a new observed record.
- Record thinning of glaciers: Long-term observational data is available for glaciers, which were found to have thinned over 1.3 metres between October 2021 and October 2022. The loss is much larger than before. The cumulative thickness loss since 1970 amounts to almost 30 metres.
- More than half of the oceans saw marine heatwaves in 2022: Despite continuing La Nina conditions, 58 per cent of the ocean surface experienced at least one marine heatwave during 2022.
- Heatwaves killed 15,000 in Europe: Record-breaking heatwaves affected China and Europe during the summer, with excess deaths associated with the heat in Europe exceeding 15000. Casualties were reported across Spain, Germany, the United Kingdom, France and Portugal.
- 1,600 suffered deaths from weather extremes in India: India suffered from significant flooding at various stages during monsoon, particularly in the northeast in June, with over 700 deaths reported from flooding and landslides and a further 900 from lightning.
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For Prelims: Paris Agreement, Conference of the Parties (COP 21), World Meteorological Organization (WMO), UNFCCC, Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).
For Mains: 1. Describe the major outcomes of the 26th session of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). What are the commitments made by India in this conference? (UPSC 2021)
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Previous year Question1. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2016)
1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017. 2. The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels. 3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility for global warming and committed to donate $1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries cope with climate change.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: B
2. The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of ( UPSC 2016)
A. pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East B. plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change C. capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank D. plan of action outlined by the countries of the world regarding Sustainable Development Goals Answer: B |
Source: Down to Earth
SESSIONS OF PARLIAMENT
- The power to convene a session of Parliament rests with the government. The decision is taken by the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs, which currently comprises nine ministers, including those for Defence, Home, Finance, and Law.
- The decision of the Committee is formalised by the President, in whose name MPs are summoned to meet for a session
- India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar. By convention, Parliament meets for three sessions in a year.
- The longest, the Budget Session, starts towards the end of January, and concludes by the end of April or first week of May.
- The session has a recess so that Parliamentary Committees can discuss the budgetary proposals
- The second session is the three-week Monsoon Session, which usually begins in July and finishes in August.
- The parliamentary year ends with a three week-long Winter Session, which is held from November to December
- A general scheme of sittings was recommended in 1955 by the General Purpose Committee of Lok Sabha.
- It was accepted by the government of Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, but was not implemented.
- The summoning of Parliament is specified in Article 85 of the Constitution. Like many other articles, it is based on a provision of The Government of India Act, 1935.
- This provision specified that the central legislature had to be summoned to meet at least once a year, and that not more than 12 months could elapse between two sessions
- Dr B R Ambedkar stated that the purpose of this provision was to summon the legislature only to collect revenue, and that the once-a-year meeting was designed to avoid scrutiny of the government by the legislature.
- On the floor of the Constituent Assembly, he said: “We thought and personally I also think that the atmosphere has completely changed and I do not think any executive would hereafter be capable of showing this kind of callous conduct towards the legislature.”
- His drafting of the provision reduced the gap between sessions to six months, and specified that Parliament should meet at least twice a year
- He argued that “The clause as it stands does not prevent the legislature from being summoned more often than what has been provided for in the clause itself
- During the debate, members of the Constituent Assembly highlighted three issues: (i) the number of sessions in a year, (ii) the number of days of sitting and, (iii) who should have the power to convene Parliament
- Over the years, governments have shuffled around the dates of sessions to accommodate political and legislative exigencies. In 2017, the Winter Session was delayed on account of the Gujarat Assembly elections.
- In 2011, political parties agreed to cut short the Budget Session so they could campaign for Vidhan Sabha elections in five states.
- Sessions have also been cut short or delayed to allow the government to issue Ordinances.
- For example, in 2016, the Budget Session was broken up into two separate sessions to enable the issuance of an Ordinance
- Sessions have been stretched — in 2008, the two-day Monsoon Session (in which a no-confidence motion was moved against the UPA-I government over the India-US nuclear deal) was extended until December.
- The ostensible reason was to prevent the moving of another no-confidence motion. It meant that there were only two sessions that year
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For Prelims: Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, Standing Committee, Procedures of Parliament
For Mains: 1.Discuss the significance of Parliamentary Committees in the Indian legislative process. How do they contribute to the functioning of the Parliament? (15 marks)
2.Enumerate and explain the different types of Parliamentary Committees in India.
Discuss their roles and functions. (20 marks)
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Previous Year Questions
1.With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the Ilouse whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?( UPSC CSE 2018)
Answer (b) 2.Consider the following statements:(UPSC CSE 2013) The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts (PAC)
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Answer (b)
1.Why do you think the Committees are considered to be useful for parliamentary work? Discuss, in this context, the role of the Estimates Committee. (UPSC CSE Mains 2018) 2. Do Department -related Parliamentary Standing Committees keep the administration on its toes and inspire reverence for parliamentary control? Evaluate the working of such Committees with suitable examples. (UPSC CSE Mains 2020) |
RUPEE EXCHANGE RATE
Exchange rate for 1 Indian Rupee (INR) is as follows:
- United States Dollar (USD): 0.012011 INR
- Euro (EUR): 0.011223 INR
- British Pound (GBP): 0.009784 INR
- Australian Dollar (AUD): 0.018827 INR
- Singapore Dollar (SGD): 0.016343 INR
- Swiss Franc (CHF): 0.010845 INR
- Malaysian Ringgit (MYR): 0.056619 INR
- Japanese Yen (JPY): 1.824210 INR
- If the rupee experiences a faster depreciation rate than its long-term average, it surpasses the dotted line, and vice versa.
- Over the past couple of years, the rupee has demonstrated greater resilience than the long-term trend, but the current decline indicates a correction.
- When considering a diverse range of currencies, data indicates that the rupee has strengthened or appreciated against this basket.
- To clarify, while the US dollar has strengthened against various major currencies, including the rupee, the rupee, in contrast, has strengthened compared to many other currencies like the euro. For example, forex reserves have decreased by over $50 billion between September 2021 and now. Over these 10 months, the rupee's exchange rate with the dollar has declined by 8.7%, from 73.6 to 80.
- To provide context, historically, the rupee typically depreciates by around 3% to 3.5% in a year. Moreover, many experts anticipate further weakening of the rupee in the next 3-4 months, potentially falling to as low as 82 to a dollar.
When the rupee depreciates, it has several implications:
Import Costs: Imported goods and services become more expensive, as it takes more rupees to buy the same amount of foreign currency needed for these transactions. This can contribute to inflationary pressures in the economy.
Export Competitiveness: On the positive side, a depreciated rupee can make the country's exports more competitive in the global market. Foreign buyers find the country's products and services relatively cheaper, potentially boosting export volumes.
External Debt: Countries with significant external debt denominated in foreign currencies may face increased repayment burdens when their domestic currency depreciates. Servicing debt in stronger foreign currencies becomes more expensive.
Inflation: Depreciation can contribute to inflationary pressures by increasing the cost of imported goods and raw materials.
5. Effects on the Indian economy
- Due to a substantial portion of India's imports being priced in dollars, these imports will become more expensive.
- An illustrative example is the higher cost associated with the crude oil import bill. The increased expense of imports, in turn, will contribute to the expansion of the trade deficit and the current account deficit.
- This, in consequence, will exert pressure on the exchange rate. On the export side, the situation is more complex, as noted by Sen.
- In bilateral trade, the rupee has strengthened against many currencies. In exports conducted in dollars, the impact is contingent on factors such as how much other currencies have depreciated against the dollar.
- If the depreciation of other currencies against the dollar is greater than that of the rupee, the overall effect could be negative.
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For Prelims: Inflation, Deflation, Depreciation, Appreciation
For Mains: General Studies III: How does Depreciation of rupee affect Indian economy
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Previous Year Questions
1. Which one of the following groups of items is included in India's foreign exchange reserves? (UPSC CSE 2013)
A.Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries B.Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs
C.Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
D.Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank
Answer (B)
2.Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee? (UPSC CSE 2019)
A.Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
B.Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee-denominated Masala Bonds
C.Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
D.Following an expansionary monetary policy
Answer (D)
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THREE LANGUAGE POLICY
- The NEP 2020 continues with the three-language formula, originally introduced in the 1968 NEP. However, a key distinction is that while the earlier policy mandated Hindi as a compulsory language nationwide, NEP 2020 adopts a more flexible approach.
- Under the 1968 policy, Hindi-speaking states were required to teach Hindi, English, and a modern Indian language—preferably one from southern India—whereas non-Hindi-speaking states had to include their regional language, Hindi, and English in their curriculum.
- In contrast, the NEP 2020 does not impose any particular language on states. Instead, it allows states, regions, and students to choose their three languages, provided that at least two of them are Indian languages.
- This implies that while students must learn their state’s language, the additional Indian language does not have to be Hindi. The policy also highlights the importance of bilingual education, particularly in the home language or mother tongue alongside English.
- Additionally, Sanskrit is given notable emphasis as an optional choice within the three-language framework
The Three-Language Formula is an educational policy in India designed to promote multilingualism and linguistic harmony in a country with immense linguistic diversity. It was first proposed by the Kothari Commission in 1968 and has since been adopted by many states, with variations based on regional needs. The formula aims to balance the learning of regional, national, and international languages to foster unity, cultural preservation, and global competitiveness.
Key Objectives of the Three-Language Formula:
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Promote National Integration:
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By encouraging the study of Hindi (the official language of the Union) and English (an associate official language), the formula seeks to bridge communication gaps between states and promote national unity.
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It also respects regional languages, ensuring that local cultures and identities are preserved.
-
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Preserve Linguistic Diversity:
-
India is home to hundreds of languages and dialects. The formula ensures that students learn their mother tongue or regional language, helping to sustain linguistic heritage.
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Enhance Global Competence:
-
The inclusion of English, a global lingua franca, prepares students for higher education and professional opportunities in an increasingly interconnected world.
-
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Facilitate Communication:
-
The formula aims to equip students with proficiency in multiple languages, enabling them to communicate effectively across different regions and cultures within India.
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Structure of the Three-Language Formula:
-
First Language: The mother tongue or regional language of the state.
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Second Language: Hindi (in non-Hindi-speaking states) or another Indian language (in Hindi-speaking states).
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Third Language: English or a modern Indian language (depending on the state's policy)
- Tamil Nadu has historically opposed the imposition of Hindi. In 1937, when the C. Rajagopalachari-led government in Madras sought to make Hindi a compulsory subject in secondary schools, the Justice Party strongly resisted the move.
- During the protests, two young activists, Thalamuthu and Natarajan, lost their lives and became symbols of the anti-Hindi movement. Following widespread opposition, Rajaji resigned, and the British administration repealed the order.
- In 1965, as the deadline for making Hindi the sole official language of India approached, large-scale protests erupted in Tamil Nadu, resulting in the deaths of at least 70 people due to police action or self-immolation.
- The issue resurfaced when Parliament passed the Official Languages (Amendment) Act, 1967, and the Official Language Resolution, 1968, which mandated Hindi instruction under the three-language formula.
- In response, the C.N. Annadurai-led DMK government passed a resolution in January 1968, advocating for the abolition of the three-language policy and the removal of Hindi from Tamil Nadu's school curriculum.
- Since then, the state has consistently adhered to a two-language system, offering instruction only in Tamil and English. Both the ruling DMK and the opposition AIADMK have steadfastly resisted any attempts to modify this approach. In 2019, widespread opposition led the Kasturirangan Committee to drop the mandatory Hindi clause from the draft National Education Policy (NEP
- Political parties and activists in Tamil Nadu perceive the three-language policy as a covert attempt to introduce Hindi under the guise of linguistic diversity. They argue that, in reality, implementing this policy would inevitably result in Hindi being taught, as there are limited resources available for recruiting teachers and developing learning materials for other languages.
- Additionally, the Union Government and key BJP leaders have consistently advocated for the expansion of Hindi. In 2019, the Union Budget allocated ₹50 crore for hiring Hindi teachers in non-Hindi-speaking states.
- Critics argue that the Centre’s actions contradict its stated commitment to promoting regional languages, pointing to the insufficient recruitment of regional language teachers in Kendriya Vidyalayas and the lack of efforts to introduce South Indian languages in schools north of the Vindhyas
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For Prelims: NEP 2020, National Curriculum Framework, Sustainable Development Goals, University Grants Commission, Kothari Commission, Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan,
For Mains:
1. Discuss the key provisions and objectives of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. How does it aim to transform the Indian education system, and what are its implications for inclusive development? (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2018)
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the State Council of Teacher Education concerned.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Answer: B
2. Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2016)
1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the 'Club of Rome'.
2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
3. The objective(s) of Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyaan is/are: (UKSSSC Forest Guard 2021)
A. To provide quality based education to all children from 14 to 18 years
B. Universal standstill till the year 2020
C. To provide residential school for the students of remote areas
D. All of the above
Answer: D
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NATIONAL CLEAN AIR PROGRAM (NCAP)
2. Abour National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was initiated by the Indian government to address the alarming levels of atmospheric pollution, particularly the concentration of Particulate Matter (PM). Under NCAP, cities in India exceeding annual PM levels are required to develop and execute Clean Air Action Plans (CAAPs) annually. To support this initiative, the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change has allocated ₹10,422.73 crore.
Challenges in NCAP Implementation
Despite the proactive submission of CAAPs by most cities, the implementation of NCAP has faced inconsistencies. According to the Ministry, only 60% of the allocated funds have been utilized on average, with 27% of cities spending less than 30% of their designated budgets. Notably, cities like Visakhapatnam and Bengaluru have spent minimal percentages of their NCAP funds, hindering progress.
Barriers to Implementation
- Delays in implementation primarily stem from bureaucratic hurdles and a lack of standard operating procedures.
- Approval delays from competent authorities, such as technical specifications for tendering processes and procurement of necessary equipment like mechanical sweepers and electric buses, have been significant impediments.
- Additionally, the absence of well-defined timelines and time-consuming tasks further exacerbate delays.
- Overcoming these challenges requires a systematic approach integrating Emissions Inventory (EI), Air Quality (AQ) modelling, and Source Apportionment (SA).
- Recent findings questioning the efficacy of outdoor smog towers have also fueled doubts among decision-makers, necessitating a comprehensive reevaluation of proposed mitigation measures.
3. Role of Scientific Tools in Pollution Management
Scientific tools play a crucial role in addressing air pollution challenges, particularly in identifying and understanding its origins.
- EI studies provide valuable insights into local pollution sources and their contributions, enabling experts to forecast future emissions and shape targeted pollution control strategies.
- Despite their usefulness, EI studies have limitations, especially in assessing the impact of transboundary pollution sources, such as stubble burning outside Delhi, on local air quality.
- SA studies offer detailed analyses of contributions from various pollution sources, including distant ones.
- However, they lack predictive capabilities and require substantial resources for chemical analysis.
- Additionally, SA studies struggle to differentiate between pollution origins with similar chemical signatures, such as emissions from diesel trucks nearby versus those further away.
- AQ modelling bridges gaps left by EI and SA studies by informing our understanding of pollution dispersion, including from distant sources.
- By simulating the movement of pollutants in the atmosphere, AQ modelling enhances our ability to assess and mitigate air pollution's impacts.
4. Utilization of Scientific Data in Air Pollution Management
- Cities ideally utilize Emissions Inventory (EI) and Source Apportionment (SA) data to identify air pollutants and devise targeted mitigation measures for each polluting activity.
- However, according to the Portal for Regulation of Air Pollution in Non-Attainment Cities, only 37% of cities have completed EI and SA studies, leaving 63% without a clear understanding of their air pollution sources.
- This lack of data raises concerns about the effectiveness of Clean Air Action Plans (CAAPs), as cities may not accurately gauge the emission reduction potential of proposed measures.
- To address this, cities must establish proper yearly targets based on their potential and infrastructure capabilities.
Challenges and Considerations
- The reliance of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) on concentration data, which measures population exposure to pollution, adds complexity.
- Pollution from high-emitting industries and sources beyond city limits, transported into urban areas by wind, complicates urban air quality management.
- Additionally, many existing control measures primarily target primary PM emissions, overlooking their secondary precursors.
- There's a need for a shift towards comprehensive strategies addressing both primary and secondary pollutants.
- Furthermore, while NCAP aims to establish infrastructure for air quality forecasting, only a few cities like Delhi, Pune, Mumbai, and Ahmedabad have implemented decision-support systems.
- Implementing such systems across cities is crucial for timely and effective pollution management.
5. Key Factors for NCAP Success
The success of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) relies on several critical elements beyond just data and models.
- Efficient implementation on the ground is paramount. To achieve this, implementation agencies must streamline bureaucratic processes by adopting shared, standardized technical evaluations. This will expedite the execution of NCAP initiatives and ensure timely action on pollution reduction measures.
- Given that NCAP funding is tied to cities' performance in reducing annual average PM concentrations, proactive budgeting and meticulous time management are essential. Initial plans should encompass thorough assessments of technical feasibility, budget requirements, and timeframes to facilitate successful execution.
- NCAP's vision for cleaner air in India necessitates a multifaceted approach. Success requires integrating rigorous scientific studies, strategic allocation of funds, and prompt, efficient implementation of mitigation measures.
6. The Way Forward
The successful implementation of the NCAP requires concerted efforts to address challenges, utilize scientific data effectively, and adopt a comprehensive approach towards pollution management. By addressing these key factors, India can make significant progress towards achieving cleaner air for its citizens.
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For Prelims: National Clean Air Programme, Air Pollution, Particulate Matter, Clean Air Action Plans For Mains:
1. What are the challenges and opportunities presented by the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) for improving air quality in Indian cities? Discuss the measures required to overcome implementation hurdles and ensure the effective management of air pollution. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (UPSC 2016)
Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 4 and 5 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 2. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (UPSC 2020)
Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2 and 4 only C. 1, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. What is the ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? (UPSC 2016) (a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions
(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies.
(c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022
(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank
4. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among (UPSC 2013) (a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature
(d) high concentration of NO2 O3 and CO in the evening
5. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment (UPSC 2013, 2022) (a) Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen
(b) Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide
(c) Ozone and Carbon Dioxide
(d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide
6. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (UPSC 2017) (a) Measuring oxygen level in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions
7. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently published the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, in 2020. Which of the following statements is correct about EIA? (Punjab Civil Service 2020)
1. It predicts the effect of a proposed industrial/infrastructural project on the environment.
2. It prevents the proposed activity/project from being approved without proper oversight or taking adverse consequences into account.
3. It compares various alternatives for a project and seeks to identify the one which represents the best combination of economic and environmental costs and benefits.
4. As per the new notification, Coal and non-Coal mineral prospecting and solar photovoltaic projects do not need prior environmental clearance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 1, 2 and 4
8. Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in (NDA 2017)
A. Washington B. Geneva C. Moscow D. London
9. With reference to the 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2017)
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
10. The IPCC is the United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change. IPCC stands for: (RRB NTPC CBT 2 2022)
A. Intergovernmental Provision on Climate Change
B. International Panel on Climate Change
C. International Provision on Climate Change
D. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
11. Comprehension (SSC CHSL 2020)
Direction: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Forest fire always (1) ______ by one of two reasons-naturally caused or human-caused. Natural fire is generally (2) ______ by lightning, with a very small percentage (3) ______ by spontaneous combustion of dry fuel such as sawdust and leaves. (4) ______, human-caused fire can happen (5) ______ any number of reasons.
Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1.
A. takes up B. happens C. causes D. creates
12. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the (UPSC 2020)
A. long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emission in a given year.
B. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.
C. efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
D. contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.
13. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (UPSC 2012)
A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
C. all the solar radiations
D. the infrared part of the solar radiation
14. As per the World Health Organisation (WHO) recommendation of a balanced diet, to avoid unhealthy weight gain, total fat should NOT exceed _______ of total energy intake. (UPSSSC Mandi Inspector 2019)
A. 20% B. 30% C. 10% D. 40%
15. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems? (UPSC 2012)
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
16. Which of the following ultraviolet rays is more dangerous? (UPTET 2017)
A. UV-A B. UV-B C. UV-C D. None of the above
17. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019)
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3
18. Which of the following is a VOC? (MP Vyapam 2022)
A. Toulene B. Water C. Carbon dioxide D. Carbon monoxide
19. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are of great concern because (UGC NET Environmental Science 2020)
A. Once such compounds are in the vapour state, they are difficult to control in the environment.
B. Most of them are ozone-depleting substances
C. They contribute to a general increase in reactive hydrocarbons in the atmosphere.
D. They are less soluble in water.
Answers: 1-B, 2-A, 3-A, 4-A, 5-D, 6-C, 7-D, 8-B, 9-A, 10-D, 11-B, 12-A, 13-D, 14-B, 15-A, 16-C, 17-D, 18-A, 19-C
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