PREVENTION OF MONEY LAUNDERING ACT

1. Context 

2. About PMLA

• The Anti-money laundering legislation was passed by the National Democratic Alliance government in 2002 and came into force on July 1, 2005.
• The PMLA was showcased as India's commitment to the Vienna Convention on combating money, drug trafficking and countering the financing of terror (CFT).
• The law was aimed at curbing the process of converting illegally earned money into legal cash.
• The Act empowered the Enforcement Directorate (ED) to control money laundering, confiscate property and punish offenders.
• ED recorded around 5,422 cases, attached proceeds to the tune of ₹ 1,04,702 crores (approx), filed Prosecution Complaints in 992 cases resulting in the confiscation of ₹ 869. 31 crores and convicted 23 accused persons under PMLA by the end of March 31, 2022.

3. Effect on crypto

• The gazette notification by the Ministry brings cryptocurrency transactions within the ambit of PMLA.
• This means that Indian crypto exchanges will have to report any suspicious activity related to buying or selling of cryptocurrency to the Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND).
• This central agency is responsible for receiving, processing, analysing and disseminating information related to suspicious financial transactions to law enforcement agencies and overseas FIUs.
• In its analysis, if the FIU-IND finds wrongdoing, it will alert the ED.
• Under Sections 5 and 8 (4) of the Act, the ED has discretionary powers to search and seize suspected property without any judicial permission.

4. Reasons for tightening the digital trade

• For a little more than a decade, cryptocurrencies, non-fungible tokens (NFT) and other digital assets enjoyed a regulation-free environment.
• But, in the past couple of years, as the use of digital assets has gone mainstream, regulators have turned hawkish.
• The value of all existing cryptocurrencies is about $804 billion as of January 3, 2023.
• It is about twice the GDP of Singapore in 2021.
• In India, over 10 crore Indians have invested in cryptocurrencies.
• The illegal use of cryptocurrencies hit a record $ 20.1 billion last year. 
• Transactions associated with sanctioned entities jumped over 1, 00, 000-fold, making up 44 per cent of last year's illegal activity.

5. Tools used to track money laundering via crypto transactions

• Tracking money trail in cryptocurrency transactions may require new tools and approaches as such transfers differ fundamentally from traditional banking channels.
• FIUs may be familiar with Know Your Customer (KYC) or Customer Due Diligence (CDD) norms.
• But the technological nature of VDAs presents a new challenge in gathering information.
• This requires the intelligence unit to broaden its intelligence framework.

6. Regulations in other Countries

• The Global Crypto Regulations Report 2023 a large proportion of countries are at various stages of drafting regulations around crypto.
• Most countries have already brought digital assets under anti-money laundering laws.
• Singapore, Japan, Switzerland and Malaysia have legislation on the regulatory framework.
• The U.S., U.K., Australia and Canada have initiated plans for regulation.
• So far, China, Qatar and Saudi Arabia have issued a blanket ban on cryptocurrency.
• The EU is also preparing a cross-jurisdictional regulatory and supervisory framework for crypto-assets.
• The framework seeks to provide legal clarity, consumer and investor protection and market integrity while promoting innovation in digital assets.

7. The Changes imply

• The new clause in the rules for PMLA compliance defines "Politically Exposed Persons" as individuals who have been entrusted with prominent public functions by a foreign country, including the heads of State or Governments, Senior politicians, Senior government or judicial or military officers, senior executives of state-owned corporations and important political party officials.
• The amendment is about foreign PEPs and not domestic ones.
• The move to define politically exposed persons under PMLA is to bring uniformity with a 2008 circular of the RBI for KYC norms/Anti-money laundering standards for banks and financial institutions, which had defined PEPs in line with FATF norms.
• PEP has already been in the RBI's master circular, in line with FATF.
• The definition has now been given in the PMLA rules so that the same definition is applicable everywhere.

8. Significance of the FATF-related changes

• The amendments assume significance ahead of India's proposed FATF assessment, which is expected to be undertaken later this year.
• India's assessment is likely to come up for discussion in the plenary discussion in June, while the possible onsite assessment is slated for November.
• Due to the pandemic and the pause in the FATF's assessment process, the fourth round of mutual evaluation of India had been postponed to 2023.
• Before this, the FATF had undertaken an evaluation for India in June 2010.
• The FATF, which is the global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog, has 40 recommendations.
• In its recommendations, the FATF states that financial institutions should be required to have appropriate risk-management systems to determine whether a customer or beneficial owner is a domestic PEP or a person who is or has been entrusted with a prominent function by an international organisation.
• The broader objective is to bring in legal uniformity and remove ambiguities before the FATF assessment.
• The 40 recommendations cover seven areas and provide a framework of measures.
• This is to help countries tackle illicit financial flows through laws, regulations and operational measures to ensure authorities can take action to detect and disrupt financial flows that fuel crime and terrorism.

1. Policies and coordination;
2. Money laundering and confiscation;
3. Terrorist financing and financing of proliferation;
4. Preventive measures;
5. Transparency and beneficial ownership of legal persons and arrangements
6. Powers and responsibilities of competent authorities and other institutional measures and
7. International cooperation.

9. Other Changes in the PMLA rules

• The Amended rules have also lowered the threshold for identifying beneficial owners by reporting entities, where the client is acting on behalf of its beneficial owner, in line with the Companies Act and Income-tax Act.
• The term "beneficial owner" was defined to mean ownership of or entitlement to more than 25 per cent of shares or capital or profit of the company, which has now been reduced to 10 per cent, thereby bringing more indirect participants within the reporting net.
• Also, reporting entities are now required to register details of the client if it's a non-profit organisation on the DARPAN portal of NITI Aayog.
• Every Banking Company or Financial Institution or intermediary, as the case may be, shall register the details of the client, in case of the client is a non-profit organisation, on the DARPAN portal of NITI Aayog, if not already registered and maintain such registration records for five years after the business relationship between a client and a reporting entity has ended or the account has been closed, whichever is later.
• The definition of a non-profit organisation has also been amended and linked to the definition of charitable purpose provided under Section 2 (15) of the Income-tax Act 1961 to include any entity or organisation, constituted for religious or charitable purposes under I-T Act, that is registered as a trust or society under the Societies Registration Act or any similar state legislation or a company registered under the Companies Act.
• The due diligence documentation requirements, which were until now limited to obtaining the basic KYCs of clients such as registration certificates PAN copies and documents of officers holding an attorney to transact on behalf of the client have now been extended.
• It now includes the submission of details such as names of persons holding senior management positions, names of partners, names of beneficiaries, trustees, settlors and authors, as the case may be, depending upon the legal form of the organisation.
• Also, the details of the registered office address and principal place of business are now required to be submitted by clients to financial institutions, banking companies or intermediaries.

For Prelims & Mains

UNLAWFUL ACTIVITIES (PREVENTION) ACT (UAPA)

 

 

 

1. Context

 

 

The Human resources head of NewsClick, Amit Chakraborty, has moved an application in a Delhi court, seeking permission to turn approver in a case filed under provisions of the stringent Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) against the news portal.

 

 

2. About Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA)

 

The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) is an Indian law that was enacted in 1967 to effectively prevent unlawful activities that pose a threat to the sovereignty and integrity of India.

Key highlights of the UAPA

• Objective: The primary objective of the UAPA is to provide law enforcement agencies with effective tools to combat terrorism and other activities that threaten the security of the nation.
• Definition of Unlawful Activities: The act defines unlawful activities to include actions that intend to or support the cession of a part of the territory of India or disrupt the sovereignty and integrity of the country.
• Powers of Designation: The government has the authority to designate an organization as a terrorist organization if it believes that such an organization is involved in terrorism. This designation has significant legal consequences, including the freezing of assets.
• Powers of Arrest and Detention: The UAPA provides law enforcement agencies with powers of arrest and detention to prevent individuals from engaging in unlawful activities. The act allows for preventive detention to curb potential threats before they materialise.
• Banning of Terrorist Organizations: The government can proscribe organizations as terrorist organizations, making their activities illegal. This includes banning these organisations, freezing their assets, and taking other measures to curb their operations.
• Admissibility of Confessions: The UAPA allows for confessions made to police officers to be admissible in court, subject to certain safeguards. This provision has been a point of contention, with concerns about potential misuse and coercion.
• Designation of Individuals as Terrorists: In addition to organizations, the UAPA allows the government to designate individuals as terrorists. This designation carries legal consequences, including restrictions on travel and freezing of assets.
• Amendments and Stringency: Over the years, the UAPA has undergone several amendments to strengthen its provisions and make it more effective in dealing with emerging threats. However, these amendments have also been criticized for potential violations of civil liberties.
• International Cooperation: The UAPA allows for cooperation with foreign countries in matters related to the prevention of unlawful activities. This includes extradition of individuals involved in such activities.

 

3. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and Human Rights

 

The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and human rights lie in the impact the act can have on various fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India and international human rights standards.

The key points connecting the UAPA and human rights:

• The UAPA allows for preventive detention, which means individuals can be detained without formal charges based on suspicions of involvement in unlawful activities. This raises concerns about the right to liberty, as individuals may be deprived of their freedom without the presumption of innocence until proven guilty.
• The admissibility of confessions made to police officers under the UAPA raises issues related to the right against self-incrimination. There is a risk that such confessions might be obtained under duress or coercion, compromising the fairness of legal proceedings.
• Designating individuals as terrorists and proscribing organizations without due process may impinge on the right to a fair trial. This includes the right to be informed of charges, the right to legal representation, and the right to present a defense.
• The UAPA provides authorities with the power to proscribe organizations as terrorist organizations, limiting their activities. Critics argue that this may infringe upon the right to freedom of association, particularly when such designations are made without sufficient evidence or proper legal procedures.
• The potential for misuse of the UAPA to target individuals or organizations critical of the government raises concerns about freedom of expression. If the act is used to suppress dissent or stifle legitimate political or social activities, it can undermine this fundamental right.
• The UAPA grants authorities the power to intercept communications and conduct surveillance on individuals suspected of engaging in unlawful activities. This raises concerns about the right to privacy, as individuals may be subjected to intrusive surveillance without adequate safeguards.
• Human rights standards require that any restrictions on rights, such as those imposed by the UAPA, must be proportionate and necessary for achieving a legitimate aim. Critics argue that the broad scope of the UAPA may lead to disproportionate measures that unduly restrict individual rights.
• The UAPA's compatibility with international human rights standards, including the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR), is a critical point of consideration. Ensuring that the act aligns with these standards is essential to upholding human rights principles.

 

4. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and Article 22 of the Constitution

 

The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and Article 22 of the Indian Constitution lie in how the UAPA's provisions for arrest and detention intersect with the constitutional safeguards provided under Article 22. 

• Article 22 provides certain protections to individuals who are arrested or detained. It outlines the rights of arrested individuals, emphasizing safeguards to prevent arbitrary or unlawful detention.
• Article 22(1) states that every person who is arrested and detained shall be informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest. This provision ensures that individuals are aware of the reasons behind their arrest, preventing arbitrary or secret detentions.
• Article 22(1) also guarantees the right of an arrested person to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of their choice. This ensures that individuals have access to legal assistance during the legal process, contributing to a fair and just legal system.
• The UAPA includes provisions for preventive detention, allowing authorities to detain individuals to prevent them from committing certain offences. However, Article 22(4) allows preventive detention only under specific circumstances, and certain safeguards must be followed, such as providing the detenu with the grounds for detention and an opportunity to make a representation against the detention.
• Article 22(4) further mandates that a person detained under a law providing for preventive detention must be afforded the earliest opportunity to make a representation against the detention. Additionally, the case of every person detained is required to be placed before an advisory board within three months.
• The UAPA allows for confessions made to police officers to be admissible in court, subject to certain safeguards. However, this provision has been a point of concern concerning Article 22, as confessions obtained under duress or coercion may violate the right against self-incrimination.
• Article 22(2) ensures the right to be brought before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours of arrest, excluding the time necessary for the journey. This provision aims to prevent prolonged detention without judicial oversight and contributes to the right to a speedy trial.

 

 

For Prelims: Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, Article 22, Terrorism For Mains:  1. Discuss the key provisions of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and analyze how they may impact fundamental human rights. Elaborate on the balance between national security concerns and the protection of individual rights. (250 Words)

 

Previous Year Questions 1. Under Article 22 of the Constitution of India, with the exception of certain provisions stated there in, what is the maximum period for detention of a person under preventive detention? (MPSC 2014) A. 2 months       B. 3 months         C. 4 months           D. 6 months   2. Article 22 of the Constitution ensures (CTET 2016) A. Right not to be ill-treated during arrest or while in custody B. Right to Constitutional Remedies C. Right against Exploitation D. Right to Education Answers: 1-B, 2-A Mains 1. Indian government has recently strengthed the anti-terrorism laws by amending the Unlawful Activities(Prevention) Act, (UAPA), 1967 and the NIA Act. Analyze the changes in the context of prevailing security environment while discussing scope and reasons for opposing the UAPA by human rights organizations. (UPSC 2019)

Source: The Indian Express

 

HUMAN AND ANIMAL CONFLICT

 

 

 

1. Context

 

For the second consecutive day in Kerala, a wild elephant trampled to death a woman on Tuesday. Valsala, a 64-year-old tribal woman, who went to the forest at Peringalkuthu in Thrissur for collecting forest resources was trampled to death by the animal around 3.30 p.m

 

2. What is a Human and Animal Conflict?

 

Human-animal conflict refers to the interactions and conflicts that arise between humans and wildlife when their interests and activities overlap. This conflict often occurs when human activities and development encroach upon natural habitats, leading to increased contact and competition for resources between humans and animals. The consequences of human-animal conflict can be detrimental to both parties and may include economic losses, damage to property, injury, and loss of life for both humans and animals.

Common scenarios of human-animal conflict include:

• Crop Raiding: Wild animals may enter agricultural fields and damage crops, leading to economic losses for farmers.

• Livestock Predation: Predatory animals may attack and kill domesticated animals, such as cattle, sheep, or poultry, causing financial losses for livestock farmers.

• Urban Encroachment: As human populations expand and urban areas expand into natural habitats, animals may find themselves in close proximity to human settlements, leading to conflicts over space and resources.

• Road Accidents: Animals crossing roads, especially in areas near forests or wildlife habitats, can lead to collisions with vehicles, resulting in injuries or fatalities for both humans and animals.

• Attacks on Humans: In some cases, wild animals may perceive humans as a threat and may attack, leading to injuries or fatalities.

• Conservation Challenges: Human-animal conflict can pose challenges for wildlife conservation efforts, as negative interactions with humans may lead to retaliation against wildlife, posing a threat to endangered species

3. What are the reasons for the increase in human-wildlife conflict?

 

Experts attribute the surge in incidents of human-wildlife conflict to various factors, including the expansion of cultivated areas around wildlife habitats, alterations in cropping patterns, a notable rise in the populations of animals like elephants and tigers resulting from conservation initiatives, and the movement of livestock and humans into wildlife habitats during unconventional hours. Additionally, there has been a significant upturn in the populations of prolific breeders such as wild boars and peacocks.

Notably, the increased frequency of conflicts involving elephants is primarily attributed to habitat depletion and fragmentation caused by human activities. Furthermore, the invasion of alien species has diminished the availability of food and water, while the cultivation of monoculture species like eucalyptus and acacia has adversely impacted plant biodiversity

4. Kerala State vs Human and Animal Conflict

• Approximately 30% of Kerala's land area is covered by forests. Given the relatively small size of the state, with an average width of approximately 70 km and a population exceeding 3.46 crore, numerous densely populated human settlements are situated in close proximity to protected forest regions.
• Additionally, many agricultural plantations are located near wildlife habitats, particularly in hilly areas, including the heavily forested eastern part of the state. While this geographical arrangement inevitably results in human-animal conflict, Kerala has experienced a notable surge in such incidents in recent years.
• Residents living near the fringes of forests have suffered substantial financial losses to their livelihoods, primarily due to frequent raids by elephants and wild boars. Since 2015, over 600 people in Kerala have lost their lives in conflicts with animals.
• This has triggered protests among affected villagers, some of which have escalated into open confrontations between protesters and officials from the State Forest department
• According to a study conducted by the State Forest department, Kerala experienced human-wildlife conflicts in 1,004 areas.
• The study documented more than 48,000 incidents of crop damage from 2013-14 to 2018-19. Among the 35 forest and wildlife divisions in the state, Nilambur north (94), Wayanad south (92), and Wayanad north (70) forest ranges reported the highest numbers of major conflict locations.
• The State recorded the highest number of incidents involving wild elephants, accounting for 14,611 occurrences between 2013-14 and 2018-19. Other contributors to these incidents include wild boars (5,518), bonnet macaques (4,405), and snakes (2,531).
• Elephants, bonnet macaques, and wild boars have caused significant damage to farmers living in forest fringe areas. Herbivores like sambar, spotted deer, and gaur have also played a considerable role in crop damage.
• The study reported a total of 814 livestock animals, including cattle, buffalo, and goats, being killed or injured in such attacks, with tigers preying on 420 of these animals

5.What are the reasons for the increase in human-wildlife conflict?

 

• Experts attribute the escalation in human-wildlife conflict incidents to several factors, including the expansion of cultivated areas surrounding wildlife habitats, alterations in cropping patterns, a notable rise in the populations of animals like elephants and tigers resulting from conservation efforts, and the movement of livestock and humans into wildlife habitats during unconventional hours.
• Additionally, there has been a significant upturn in the populations of prolific breeders such as wild boars and peacocks.
• However, the increased frequency of conflicts involving elephants can be traced to habitat depletion and fragmentation caused by human activities. Furthermore, the presence of invasive alien species has diminished the availability of food and water. The cultivation of monoculture species like eucalyptus and acacia has also had adverse effects on plant biodiversity

6.What are the proposed solutions and why are they not effective?

 

• Elephant-resistant trenches and solar-powered fences are commonly employed in Kerala and are generally deemed effective, provided they receive proper maintenance. However, there are several areas where these protective measures have not been implemented.
• Additionally, nearby residents often break these fences to allow their cattle to graze in the forests, and elephants themselves may damage the fences using their legs and tusks.
• In a master plan costing ₹620 crores to address this issue, the Forest department proposes the installation of elevated power fences that are beyond the reach of elephants.
• Furthermore, as part of the State government's new eco-restoration policy, the Forest department aims to plant suitable indigenous vegetation (wild mango, wild gooseberry, and wild jackfruit) in the forests to ensure food security for wild animals and discourage them from entering agricultural lands.
• Complementary measures include establishing early warning systems that utilize drones and human observers to track the movement of elephants and other dangerous animals, allowing people to avoid areas where they have been spotted. However, the widespread implementation of such warning mechanisms is lacking in Kerala.
• On the contrary, these measures are not effective against wild boars. Despite Kerala's request to declare wild boars as vermin still pending with the Centre, the State government has recently granted local bodies the authority to cull wild boars that pose threats to agricultural crops or human life.
• Other alternatives include capturing and neutering the boars or relocating them to forests where predators like tigers and leopards are present

7.How is human-animal conflict connected to the ESZ norm?

 

Human-animal conflict is connected to the concept of Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZ) norms through the need to establish buffer areas around protected areas, wildlife habitats, and other ecologically sensitive zones. ESZ norms are guidelines and regulations aimed at minimizing human disturbances and activities that could negatively impact biodiversity and ecosystems in designated areas. These zones are established to create a buffer between human settlements and wildlife habitats, reducing the chances of conflict between humans and animals.

Here's how human-animal conflict is connected to ESZ norms:

• Buffer Zones: ESZ norms often define buffer zones around national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and other ecologically sensitive areas. These buffer zones act as a transitional space to mitigate the impacts of human activities on wildlife and vice versa.

• Land Use Planning: ESZ norms include regulations related to land use planning around protected areas. By controlling and guiding developmental activities in these zones, there is an attempt to minimize disturbances to wildlife and their habitats, consequently reducing the likelihood of conflict.

• Wildlife Corridors: ESZ norms may address the creation and preservation of wildlife corridors, which are crucial for the movement of animals between different habitats. Ensuring the connectivity of habitats helps in preventing isolated populations, which can lead to increased interactions and conflicts with humans.

• Conservation Measures: ESZ norms may include measures to conserve and restore natural habitats. By maintaining the integrity of these habitats, the likelihood of wildlife straying into human-dominated landscapes in search of food or suitable habitat is reduced.

• Community Engagement: Some ESZ norms encourage community engagement and participation in conservation efforts. Involving local communities in wildlife conservation can lead to better understanding and cooperation, reducing conflicts by promoting coexistence

 

Previous Year Questions   1.Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC): (UPSC CSE 2017) TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (b)

 

Source: The Hindu

 

MARATHA RESERVATION

 

 

1. Context

On February 20 2024, the Maharashtra Assembly unanimously passed a Bill granting 10% reservation in education and government jobs to the Maratha community. However, activists have claimed that the new legislation is a “betrayal” of the community and instead seek a Maratha quota carved out from the existing reservation for the Other Backward Classes (OBCs) category

 

2. Who are Marathas?

• The Marathas are a group of castes comprising peasants and landowners among others constituting nearly 33 per cent of the state’s population
• While most Marathas are Marathi-speaking, not all Marathi-speaking people belong to the Maratha community
• This politically dominant community in state comprises nearly one-third of the population of the state
• Historically, they have been identified as a ‘warrior’ caste with large land holdings
• Since the formation of Maharashtra state in 1960, of its 20 chief ministers, 12 (including Eknath Shinde) have been from the Maratha community
• While division of land and agrarian problems over the years have led to a decline of prosperity among middle class and lower middle-class Marathas, the community still plays an important role in the rural economy

3. Demand for reservation

• Maratha reservation is a demand for reservation for the Maratha community in government jobs and educational institutions in Maharashtra, India.
• The Maratha community is a large and influential community in Maharashtra, and they have been at the forefront of the Indian independence movement and other social movements. However, they argue that they are still socially and economically backward, and that they need reservation to improve their condition
• In 2018, the Maharashtra government passed a law to provide 16% reservation to Marathas in government jobs and educational institutions.
• However, the law was challenged in the Supreme Court, and in 2021, the Supreme Court struck down the law on the grounds that it violated the 50% ceiling on reservation set by the court in its 1992 Indra Sawhney (Mandal) judgment
• The new Maharashtra government, which was formed in June 2023, has said that it is committed to providing reservation to Marathas. However, it is unclear how the government will achieve this goal without violating the Supreme Court's 50% ceiling on reservation
• Some people argue that Marathas do not need reservation because they are not socially and economically backward.
• They point to the fact that the Maratha community has produced many successful politicians, businessmen, and professionals. Others argue that Marathas do need reservation because they are still struggling to achieve equality with other communities.
• They point to the fact that Marathas are overrepresented in manual labor and underrepresented in white-collar jobs.

4. Courts on Maratha reservation

• The court heavily relied on the findings of the 11-member Maharashtra State Backward Class Commission (MSBCC) headed by Justice G M Gaikwad (retd). The commission surveyed nearly 45, 000 families from two villages from each of 355 talukas with more than 50 per cent Maratha population
• The HC expressed satisfaction over the data and observed that the commission had conclusively established the social, economic and educational backwardness of the Maratha community.
• It had also established inadequacy of representation of Maratha community in public employment in the state.
• In May 2021, a five-judge Constitution bench of the Supreme Court headed by Justice Ashok Bhushan struck down the provisions of Maharashtra law providing reservation to the Maratha community, which took the total quota in the state above the 50 per cent ceiling set by the court in its 1992 Indra Sawhney (Mandal) judgment.
• In November 2022, after the SC upheld the 10 per cent quota for the Economically Weaker Sections, the state government said that until the issue of Maratha reservation is resolved, economically weaker members of the community can benefit from the EWS quota

5. Way forward

Nearly five years later, Deputy Chief Minister Devendra Fadnavis, who holds the important home portfolio, is once again the target of his opponents riding the Maratha quota politics. When MVA was in power (2019 to 2022), BJP also explored reservation issues to consolidate its base among Marathas. It yielded results, with BJP emerging as the number one party in local bodies elections

 

Source: indianexpress

 

SUSPENSION OF MPs

 

1. Context

MEMBERS OF Parliament and state legislatures who take bribes to vote or speak in a certain manner in the House are not immune from prosecution, the Supreme Court said in a landmark order on Monday, overruling its 1998 judgment (JMM bribery case) which granted immunity to such lawmakers

2. Suspension of MPs

• It is the role and duty of the Presiding officer- Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha to maintain order so that the House can function smoothly.
• In order to ensure that proceedings are conducted in the proper manner, the Speaker/Chairman is empowered to force a member to withdraw from the House.

3. Why do MPs disrupt Parliament?

• Over the years, the presiding officers of the legislature and political leaders have discussed and identified four broad reasons leading to disorder in the legislature.
• One reason is the lack of time available to MPs for raising important matters; a second is the "unresponsive attitude of the government and retaliatory posture by Treasury benches".
• The other two reasons are deliberate disruption by parties for political or publicity purposes, and the absence of prompt action against MPs disrupting parliamentary proceedings.

4. Rules under which the Presiding Officer/Chairman acts

4.1 For Loksabha

Rule number 373 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business.

• It empowers presiding officers to direct an MP to withdraw from the house for any disorderly conduct.
• This rule says that any Member so ordered to withdraw shall remain absent during the remainder of the day's sitting.

Rule Number 374 and 374A

• To deal with more recalcitrant (uncooperative)
• Rule 374 empowers the Presiding officers to name the legislators of the MP who continue disrupting the House even after repeated warnings.
• After that, the House can move a motion to suspend the MP for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session.
• Rule 374A was incorporated into the Rule book in December 2001. The intention was to circumvent the necessity of adopting a motion for suspension.
• Under this rule, the speaker can name an MP, who shall then automatically stand suspended for five days or the remaining part of the session, whichever is less.
• Provided that the House may, at any time, on a motion being made, resolve that such suspension be terminated.

4.2 For Rajya Sabha

Rule 255 of the Rule Book of Rajya Sabha

It empowers the Chairman of Rajya Sabha to direct any Member to withdraw immediately from the House for any disorderly conduct. 

Rule 256

• This rule empowers the Chairman to name the members who persistently disregard the authority of the Chair or abuse the rules of the Council.
• After that, the House may adopt a motion suspending the Member for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session.
• It should be noted that, unlike Lok Sabha (under rule 374A), Rajya Sabha can not suspend its members without passing a motion for the same.

5. Can courts intervene in a matter of suspension of MPs?

• Article 122 of the Indian Constitution says parliamentary proceedings cannot be questioned before a court.
• In some cases, however, courts have intervened in the procedural functioning of legislatures.
• For example, the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly passed a resolution in its 2021 Monsoon Session suspending 12 BJP MLAs for a year.
• The matter came before the supreme court, which held that the resolution was ineffective in law beyond the remainder of the Monsoon Session.

6. What has Parliament done to address these issues?

• The government and not Parliament decides the parliamentary calendar.
• Therefore, the decision about the time available with Parliament for discussions rests with the government.
• The parliamentary procedure also prioritizes government business over other debates that take place in the legislature.
• In this regard, Parliament has not updated its rules over the last 70 years to give Opposition parties a say in deciding the agenda for discussion.
• The stance of political parties on uninterrupted parliamentary functioning depends on whether they belong to the ruling party/coalition or are in the opposition.
• In 2001, Lok sabha amended its rules to give the speaker more powers to discipline MPs who disrupt House proceedings.

7. Other Key information

The BJP has asked Speaker Om Birla to set up a special committee of Lok Sabha to explore whether Congress leader Rahul Gandhi should be suspended for allegedly insulting the country, its democracy, and Parliament during his recent visit to the United Kingdom. Rahul has rejected the allegations and refused to apologize for his statements.

8. What is the legal basis for setting up the special committee?

• The House can set up a committee and decide its terms of reference. It is entirely within its power.
• A special committee could be formed by moving a motion for the establishment of such a committee and its terms of reference.
• The offense will have to be defined before anyone can be punished for it.
  A committee that was similar to the one that was set up to investigate the cash-for-votes scandal in 2008 could be formed to investigate and punish an MP.
• A mechanism to look into the “moral and ethical conduct of the members” already exists in the Ethics Committee of Lok Sabha.
• However, the BJP does not want Rahul’s case to be “one of the many issues before the committee”.
• Instead, it wants a special committee along the lines of the one constituted to look into the cash-for-query scandal in 2005.

Previous year Question

1. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha speaker, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2012) 1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President. 2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election. 3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A.  1 and 2 only                 B.  3 only                 C.  1, 2 and 3                 D. None Answer: B The Speaker is elected by the members of Lok Sabha from amongst its members (as soon as may be, after its first sitting).

For Prelims & Mains

For Prelims: Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Chairman of Rajya Sabha, Rule Number 373, 374, and 374A of Lok Sabha, Rule 255 and Rule 256 of the Rule Book of Rajya Sabha, Special Committee. For Mains: 1. The Indian Constitution has provisions for holding joint session of the two houses of the Parliament. Enumerate the occasions when this would normally happen and also the occasions when it cannot, with reasons thereof. (UPSC 2017).

Source: The Indian Express

 

CRITICAL MINERALS

1. Context 

The Ministry of Mines hosted two meetings with industry stakeholders in January to discuss opportunities for the mining of critical minerals by Indian companies in Sri Lanka and Australia. These meetings were organised in line with the ministry’s broader push to strengthen India’s critical minerals supply chain through the acquisition of overseas mineral assets

 

2. Previous Efforts and International Commitments

• Previous initiatives in India to identify critical minerals for industrial growth and resource management.
• The recent focus is on exploring and developing rare earth elements in the country.
• The trigger for the latest exercise is India's international commitments to reduce carbon emissions and transition to cleaner energy sources.

3. Three-Stage Assessment Process

• First Stage: Studying strategies and priorities of major global economies and identifying 69 elements or minerals considered critical.
• Second Stage: Inter-ministerial consultations to identify minerals critical to specific sectors
• Third Stage: Develop an empirical formula to evaluate criticality based on economic importance and supply risk.

4. Critical Minerals

• Critical minerals are a group of minerals that are essential for a country's economic development and national security.
• These minerals play a crucial role in various industries and sectors including clean technologies, advanced manufacturing, telecommunications, defence and transportation.
• The lack of availability or concentration of extraction in a few geographic locations can lead to supply chain vulnerabilities and disrupt the supply of critical minerals.

4.1. List of Critical Minerals

• A total of 30 minerals were identified as most critical for India, including lithium, cobalt, nickel, graphite, tin and copper.
• Importance of these minerals in various sectors like high-tech electronics, telecommunications, transport and defence.
• Two critical minerals identified as fertiliser minerals: Selenium and Cadmium.

5. Establishment of a Specialized Agency

• Proposal to establish a National Institute or Centre of Excellence on critical minerals similar to Australia's CSIRO.
• This agency will periodically update the list of critical minerals, develop strategies and facilitate the value chain development.

6. Global Practices

• Overview of critical mineral identification methodologies in the US, UK, European Union, Japan and Australia.
• Parameters considered include supply risk, economic importance, production concentration and recycling rate.

7. Domestic and Global Outreach

• Geological Survey of India's exploration of lithium ore reserves in Jammu & Kashmir.
• Khanij Bidesh India Ltd. (KABIL) was established to acquire overseas mineral assets of critical and strategic nature.
• India's inclusion in the US-led Mineral Security Partnership to secure critical mineral supply chains and reduce dependency on China.

8. The Way Forward

• India's identification of critical minerals supports economic growth, national security and international commitments.
• Focus on developing competitive value chains and utilizing advanced technologies for mineral exploration.
• The list of critical minerals will guide India in planning for acquisition, reducing import dependency and ensuring long-term supply. 

 

 

For Prelims: Critical minerals, Ministry of Mines, carbon emissions,  cleaner energy,  lithium, cobalt, nickel, graphite, tin, copper, Selenium, Cadmium, Centre of Excellence on critical minerals, Australia's CSIRO, Geological Survey of India,    For Mains:  1. What are critical minerals? Discuss their significance for a country's economic development and national security. Explain how the identification of critical minerals helps in reducing import dependency and ensuring resource security. (250 Words)

 

 

Previous Year Questions   1. With reference to the mineral resources of India, consider the following pairs: (UPSC 2010) Mineral                         90%Natural sources in 1. Copper                       Jharkhand 2. Nickel                        Orissa 3. Tungsten                    Kerala Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?   A. 1 and 2 only            B. 2 only             C. 1 and 3 only            D. 1, 2 and 3   Answer: B   2. Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called 'rare earth metals.' Why? (UPSC 2012) 1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export. 2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country. 3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only              B. 2 and 3 only           C. 1 and 3 only          D.  1, 2 and 3   Answer: C   3. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO)? (UPSC 2022) 1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India. 2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks. 3. It hears any objection to the Government's notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas. 4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 3            B. 3 and 4 only           C. 1 and 2 only          D. 1, 2 and 4   Answer: A   4. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the (UPSC 2020)  A. long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emission in a given year. B. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels. C. efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place. D. contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.   Answer: A   5. Direction: It consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement (I)’ and the others as ‘Statement (II)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answer using the codes given below: (UPSC ESE 2018) Statement (I): Green energy refers to one which does not harm the ecosystem of planet earth. Statement (II): All renewable energy is green energy. A. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I) B. Both statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true, but Statement (II) is not the correct explanation of Statement (I) C. Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is false D. Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is true   Answer: C   6. Which type of battery is used in the recently launched world's first fully electric cargo ship by change? (Delhi Police Constable 2017) A.  Lead Acid        B. Manganese        C. Lithium ion        D. Nickel metal hydride   Answer: C   7. White gold is an alloy of (UPSC CAPF 2022)  A. gold, nickel and palladium B. gold, cobalt and palladium C. gold, titanium and platinum D. gold, magnesium and palladium   Answer: A   8. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance? (UPSC 2012)  1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity. 2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far. 3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency. 4. It can be used as 'conducting electrodes' required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs. Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1 and 2 only          B. 3 and 4 only         C.  1, 2 and 4 only          D.  1, 2, 3 and 4   Answer: C   9. Graphite and diamonds are__________. (WBCS Prelims 2020)   A. isotopes           B.  isomers             C. isotones           D. allotropes   Answer: D   10. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2020) 1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury. 2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. 3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only         B. 2 and 3 only        C.  3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3   Answer: D   11. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India? (UPSC 2013) 1. Arsenic 2. Sorbitol 3. Fluoride 4. Formaldehyde 5. Uranium Select the correct answer using the codes given below. A. 1 and 3 only           B. 2, 4 and 5 only          C. 1, 3 and 5 only           D.  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5   Answer: C   12. In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of the bioremediation technique? (UPSC 2017) 1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature. 2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. 3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:  A. 1 only         B.  2 and 3 only          C.  1 and 3 only             D. 1, 2 and 3   Answer: C   13. Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste? (UPSC 2013)  1. Beryllium 2. Cadmium 3. Chromium 4. Heptachlor 5. Mercury 6. Lead 7. Plutonium Select the correct answer using the codes given below.  A. 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only           B. 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only          C. 2, 4, 5 and 7 only               D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7   Answer: B   14. When was the Geological Survey of India (GSI) of India founded? (UPRVUNL Staff Nurse 2021) A. 1851             B. 1951            C. 1871              D. 1931   Answer: A

 

 

Source: The Indian Express

 

INS JATAYU 

 

 

 

1. Context

 

Recently, The Naval Detachment Minicoy will be officially commissioned as INS Jatayu, representing a significant upgrade to the naval infrastructure in the Lakshadweep Islands. This development underscores the Indian Navy's ongoing efforts to bolster security measures in this strategically vital region.

Although India has maintained a naval presence in Minicoy since the 1980s, the establishment of INS Jatayu will mark the country's second naval base in the Lakshadweep Islands. The first base, INS Dweeprakshak in Kavaratti, was commissioned back in 2012.

The commissioning of INS Jatayu follows closely on the heels of a joint inauguration by Prime Ministers Narendra Modi and Pravind Jugnauth of Mauritius. Together, they unveiled an airstrip and jetty constructed by India on the Mauritian island of Agaléga, situated in the western Indian Ocean off the coast of Africa.

 

 

2. About INS Jatayu

INS Jatayu is a naval base being established on Minicoy Island, Lakshadweep, India. It will be an upgrade of the existing Naval Detachment Minicoy, which currently functions under the operational command of the Naval Officer-in-Charge (Lakshadweep).

Significance

• INS Jatayu marks a crucial step in India's efforts to fortify its security presence in the strategically important Lakshadweep Islands.
• The base will improve the Navy's operational reach and capacity in the region, allowing it better to address threats and challenges like piracy and narcotics trafficking.
• The establishment of the base is aligned with the government's focus on the comprehensive development of the Lakshadweep Islands.

3. The Strategic Significance of the Lakshadweep Islands

• Lakshadweep, derived from Sanskrit and Malayalam meaning 'a hundred thousand islands', comprises 36 islands situated between 220 km and 440 km from Kochi.
• Among these islands, only 11 are inhabited, collectively occupying a mere 32 sq km of land. This archipelago forms part of a series of coral islands in the Indian Ocean, extending southward to the Maldives and further to the Chagos archipelago beyond the equator.
• The Lakshadweep Islands hold immense strategic importance for India due to their location in the Indian Ocean. Minicoy, one of the islands, occupies a critical position, intersecting vital Sea Lines of Communications (SLOCs), which are essentially the world’s primary maritime highways.
• Notably, these include the Eight Degree Channel between Minicoy and the Maldives, as well as the Nine Degree Channel between Minicoy and the primary cluster of Lakshadweep islands.
• However, alongside their strategic significance, the Lakshadweep Islands also face vulnerabilities, particularly concerning marine pollution. The island chain's position in key maritime routes underscores the need for heightened security measures and environmental conservation efforts in the region.

 

4. Transformation of Naval Detachment Minicoy into INS Jatayu

• The current Naval Detachment Minicoy, operating under the jurisdiction of the Naval Officer-in-Charge (Lakshadweep), is set to undergo a significant transformation as it is commissioned as INS Jatayu.
• Initially serving with administrative, logistical, and medical facilities, INS Jatayu will evolve into a full-fledged naval base with enhanced infrastructure upon securing necessary environmental and regulatory approvals.
• Challenges may arise concerning the delicate ecological balance of the island, particularly in the construction of a jetty.
• However, there are strategic plans in place to address this concern by developing a new airfield capable of accommodating both military and civilian aircraft operations.
• This transition signifies a substantial upgrade in the capabilities and scope of operations for INS Jatayu, reflecting the Indian Navy's commitment to bolstering security infrastructure in the region.

 

5. INS Jatayu's Role

• The establishment of INS Jatayu marks a significant stride in bolstering the Indian Navy's operational capabilities in the Lakshadweep Islands, aligning with the government's broader agenda of comprehensive island development. By providing an independent naval unit with essential infrastructure and resources, the Navy anticipates a notable enhancement in its operational efficiency within the region.
• The strategic positioning of the base is intended to fortify the Navy's operational reach, particularly in conducting anti-piracy and anti-narcotics operations across the western Arabian Sea. Additionally, INS Jatayu's commissioning will contribute to reinforcing the Navy's presence along the western seaboard, amplifying its capacity to safeguard maritime interests.
• Furthermore, the proposed airfield associated with INS Jatayu is poised to support a diverse range of aircraft, including P8I maritime reconnaissance planes and fighter jets. This expansion is pivotal in extending the Navy's operational surveillance capabilities, a crucial endeavour amid India's efforts to counter the escalating Chinese influence within the Indian Ocean Region.
• The timing of these developments is particularly pertinent against the backdrop of strained relations between India and the Maldives, exacerbated by the election of President Mohamed Muizzu, perceived as pro-China. INS Jatayu's establishment underscores India's strategic imperative to assert its presence and safeguard its interests in the region amidst evolving geopolitical dynamics.

 

6. The Way Forward

 

By effectively addressing the key areas, India can leverage INS Jatayu as a catalyst for enhanced maritime security, sustainable development, and strategic influence in the Lakshadweep Islands and the wider Indian Ocean Region.

 

 

For Prelims: INS Jatayu, Lakshadweep, Indian Ocean Region,  Naval Detachment Minicoy, INS Dweeprakshak For Mains:  1. Discuss the strategic significance of the Lakshadweep Islands for India's maritime security objectives, highlighting key geographical features and challenges faced in the region. (250 Words)

 

 

Previous Year Questions   1. Which is India's first indigenous Aircraft carrier? (KSP Civil SI 2020) A. INS Vikrant         B. INS Virat           C. INS Vaibhav          D. INS Varaha   2. Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (UPSC 2016) (a) Amphibious warfare ship (b) Nuclear-powered submarine  (c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel (d) Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier 3 Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (UPSC 2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only      (b) 2 only           (c) Both 1 and 2                 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. The Lakshadweep islands are located in the ________  (SSC GD 2019)  A. Indian Ocean      B. Pacific Ocean       C. Arabian Sea       D. Bay of Bengal   5. With reference to 'Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)', consider the following statements: (UPSC 2015) 1. It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills. 2. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 Only          B. 2 Only    C. Both 1 and 2            D. Neither 1 nor 2   6. With reference to 'Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)' sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2017)  1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. 2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an EI Nino's impact on the monsoon. ' Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only          B. 2 only          C. Both 1 and 2             D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answers: 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-C, 5-D, 6-B

 

Source: The Indian Express

METHANE 'SAT'

 

 

 

1. Context 

 

Recently, MethaneSAT, a satellite designed to monitor and measure methane emissions worldwide, was successfully launched into orbit aboard a SpaceX Falcon9 rocket from California. Although not the initial spacecraft tasked with detecting and quantifying methane emissions, MethaneSAT represents a significant advancement in this field. With its compact size akin to a washing machine, the satellite promises to offer more comprehensive data and a broader observational scope compared to its predecessors.

2. Reasons for Tracking and Measure Methane Emissions

• Methane, an invisible yet potent greenhouse gas, ranks as the second-largest contributor to global warming, following carbon dioxide. It has been responsible for approximately 30% of global heating since the Industrial Revolution.
• According to the United Nations Environment Programme, over a 20-year timeframe, methane exhibits 80 times more warming potency than carbon dioxide.
• Additionally, methane plays a significant role in the formation of ground-level ozone, a colourless and highly irritating gas found just above the Earth's surface.
• Studies indicate that exposure to ground-level ozone may contribute to approximately one million premature deaths annually.
• Given these factors, reducing methane emissions is imperative. The primary source of methane emissions stems from fossil fuel operations, accounting for about 40% of all human-caused methane emissions. The objective of MethaneSAT is to aid in achieving this crucial goal.

 

3. MethaneSAT

• MethaneSAT is a satellite project spearheaded by the Environmental Defense Fund (EDF), a nonprofit environmental advocacy group based in the United States.
• Collaborating with partners including Harvard University, the Smithsonian Astrophysical Observatory, and the New Zealand Space Agency, EDF has developed MethaneSAT to monitor methane emissions globally.
• MethaneSAT will orbit the Earth approximately 15 times a day, focusing its monitoring efforts primarily on the oil and gas sector.
• By doing so, it will generate a vast amount of data that will provide insights into the origins and trends of methane emissions.
• According to EDF, this data will reveal crucial information such as the sources of methane emissions, responsible entities, and whether emissions are increasing or decreasing over time.
• One of the notable aspects of MethaneSAT is its commitment to transparency. The data collected by the satellite will be made publicly available for free in near real-time.
• This accessibility will empower stakeholders and regulatory bodies to take prompt action in addressing methane emissions and implementing measures to reduce their environmental impact.

4. Key Features of MethaneSAT

•  Historically, tracking and measuring methane emissions have presented significant challenges. Some satellites offer high-resolution data but are limited to scanning specific, pre-targeted sites. Others can examine larger areas but struggle to detect smaller sources, which are often major contributors to emissions.
• MethaneSAT aims to address these challenges. Equipped with a high-resolution infrared sensor and a spectrometer, the satellite can detect methane concentrations as small as three parts per billion in the atmosphere. This capability allows it to identify smaller emissions sources that previous satellites might have missed.
• In addition to its high-resolution capabilities, MethaneSAT boasts a wide-camera view, covering an area of about 200 km by 200 km. This wide coverage enables it to identify larger emitters, known as "super emitters," providing a comprehensive understanding of methane emissions across various scales.
• The data collected by MethaneSAT will undergo analysis using cloud computing and AI technology developed by Google, a mission partner. Moreover, the collected data will be made publicly available through Google's Earth Engine platform, facilitating transparency and enabling stakeholders to access and utilize the information for addressing methane emissions effectively.

5. Significance of MethaneSAT

• The launch of MethaneSAT coincides with the implementation of more stringent methane management policies worldwide. Initiatives such as the Global Methane Pledge, signed by over 150 countries in 2021, aim to reduce collective methane emissions by at least 30% from 2020 levels by 2030.
• MethaneSAT's data will play a crucial role in helping countries and companies meet these ambitious targets.
• MethaneSAT introduces a new era of transparency by providing publicly available data accessible to anyone worldwide. This data will enable stakeholders to monitor and hold governments and corporations accountable for their methane reduction commitments.
• The satellite's observations will serve as a valuable tool for tracking progress and identifying areas that require further action.
• MethaneSAT's data holds the potential to drive change, but it may not necessarily compel polluters to curb their emissions.
• Drew Shindell, an earth science professor at Duke University, cautioned that the availability of information alone does not guarantee a behaviour change.
• Efforts to address methane emissions will require concerted action and collaboration among various stakeholders beyond the dissemination of data.

 

6. The Way Forward

 

By addressing the areas and fostering international cooperation, MethaneSAT's data can be effectively harnessed to drive concrete action and accelerate progress towards tackling the global challenge of methane emissions. It's crucial to remember that addressing this issue requires a multi-pronged approach, and the information provided by MethaneSAT serves as a valuable tool within a broader framework of collaborative efforts.

 

 

For Prelims: MethaneSAT, Climate Change, Carbon dioxide, Global Warming For Mains: 1. Discuss the significance of MethaneSAT in monitoring and measuring methane emissions globally. How does its compact size and advanced technology contribute to its effectiveness? (250 Words)

 

 

Previous Year Questions   1. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'? (UPSC 2019) 1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits. 2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor. 3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only      B. 2 and 3 only         C. 1 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3   2. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substance? (UPSC CSE 2015) A.Bretton woods conference B. Montreal Protocol C. Kyoto Protocol D. Nagoya Protocol   3. Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in (NDA  2017) A. Washington B. Geneva C. Moscow D. London     4. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2016) 1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017 2. The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels. 3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $ 1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 3 only   B. 2 only      C. 2 and 3 only    D.  1, 2 and 3   5. A new type of El Nino called El Nino Modoki appeared in the news. In this context, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2010)  1. Normal El Nino forms in the Central Pacific ocean whereas El Nino Modoki forms in the Eastern Pacific ocean. 2. Normal El Nino results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic ocean but El Nino Modoki results in a greater number of hurricanes with greater frequency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  A. 1 only       B. 2 only        C. Both 1 and 2             D. Neither 1 nor 2     6. La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How is La Nina different from El Nino? (UPSC 2011)  1. La Nina is characterized by unusually cold ocean temperature in the equatorial Indian Ocean whereas El Nino is characterized by unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial Pacific Ocean. 2. El Nino has an adverse effect on the south-west monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on the monsoon climate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  A. 1 only        B. 2 only         C. Both 1 and 2           D. Neither 1 nor 2     7. Consider the following statements:  (MPSC 2017) a. La Nina is a little girl. b. During the time of La Nina cold water in the ocean rises to the surface. c. La Nina strengthens the Indian monsoon. d. During the time of El Nino, trade winds weaken, and warm water moves east in the ocean. Which of the above statements is/are correct?  A. Only a and b          B. a, b and c         C. Only b and c           D. All of the above     8. Which of the following statements regarding 'Green Climate Fund' is/are correct? (UPSC 2015) 1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change. 2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECS, Asian Development Bank and World Bank.  Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1 only         B. 2 only           C. Both 1 and 2       D.  Neither 1 nor 2     9. Methane is a very potent greenhouse gas. It is converted to carbon dioxide to ease its overall effect on global warming. This process is known as: (UPSC CAPF 2014)  A. Blocking         B. Ceiling         C. Flaring         D. Stooping     10. Consider the following: (UPSC 2019) Carbon monoxide Methane Ozone Sulphur dioxide Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue? (a) 1 and 2 only        (b) 2, 3 and 4 only           (c) 1 and 4 only            (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 11. With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements (UPSC 2020) 1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body. 2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body. 3. They can be used in biochemical sensors. 4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable. Which of the statements given above are correct?   A. 1 and 2 only       B.  2, 3 and 4 only        C. 1, 3 and 4 only          D. 1, 2, 3 and 4   Answers: 1-D, 2-B, 3-B, 4-B, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-A. 9-A, 10-D, 11- C

 

Source: The Indian Express