OLIVE RIDLEY TURTLES
1. Context
2. Olive Ridley Turtles
- The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
- These turtles are carnivores and get their name from their olive-colored carapace.
- They are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs.
- They are found in warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian oceans.
- Odisha's Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary is known as the world's largest rookery of sea turtles.
Image Source: Down to Earth3. Conservation of Olive Ridley Turtles
- Conservation of the Olive Ridley turtles in Odisha began with the discovery and worldwide recognition of the Gahirmatha rookery close to the mouth of the Brahmani-Baitarani (Dharma) River, in 1974.
- A second mass nesting was discovered in 1981 at the Devi River mouth, about 55 nautical miles south of Gahirmatha.
- In 1994, a third mass nesting area was also discovered at the Rushkulya river mouth, 162 nautical miles south of Gahirmatha.
- The Olive Ridley Turtles come to the beaches of the Odisha coast annually between November and December and stay on until April and May for nesting.
- Off late, nesting has been observed to start from late January to early February. The turtles choose the narrow beaches near estuaries and bays for laying their eggs.
- Each adult female lays approximately a hundred to hundred and forty eggs at a time.
4. Threats faced by Olive Ridley Turtles
- The Olive Ridleys face serious threats across their migratory route, habitat, and nesting beaches, due to human activities such as turtle-unfriendly fishing practices, and the development and exploitation of nesting beaches for ports, and tourist centers.
- Though international trade in these turtles and their products is banned, they are still extensively poached for their meat, shell, and leather.
- Turtles eggs, though illegal to harvest, have a significantly large market around the coastal regions.
- The most severe threat faced by the Olive Ridleys is the accidental killing of adult turtles through entanglement in trawl nets and gill nets due to uncontrolled fishing around nesting beaches during their mating season.
- Over 1.3 lakh turtles are believed to have been killed after being entangled in the nets of mechanized fishing trawlers in the last thirteen years.
5. Legislation for the Protection of Olive Ridley Turtles
- All five species of sea turtles occurring in India, including the Olive Ridley Turtles, are legally protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, and Appendix I of the CITES convention which prohibits trade in turtle products.
- The mass nesting beach of Gahirmatha is a part of Bhitarkanika Wildlife sanctuary and the waters around Bhitarkanika was declared as Gahirmatha (Marine) Wildlife Sanctuary in September 1997, to protect the nesting and breeding habitat of the Olive Ridley.
- The coastal waters off Devi and Rushikulya rookery are declared as a no-fishing zone during the sea turtle breeding season under the Odisha Marine.
- Fisheries Regulation Act (OMFRA), 1982, and Odisha Marine Fisheries Regulation Rules, 1983. The Coast Guard is empowered to enforce the provisions of the Act.
- To reduce accidental entrapment and death of turtles, the Odisha government has made it mandatory for the mechanized fishing trawlers to use Turtle Excluder Devices or TEDs, which is a specially designed net with an exit cover that retains the catch while allowing the turtles to escape.
6. Operation Olivia, 2014
- As the nesting period stretched over six months, the Indian Coast Guard undertakes the Olive Ridley Turtle protection program under the code name 'Operation Olivia' every year.
- Coast Guard District No.7 (Odisha) commenced Operation Olivia 2014 on 08 Nov 2014 under the coordination and control of Commander Coast Guard Region (North East).
- As part of the operation, fishing boats found close to the marine reserve area were regularly checked by the ship's boarding party for confirming the usage of turtle excluder devices (TEDs).
- Offenders were warned and reported to the Assistant Director of Fisheries. Close coordination was maintained with the fisheries and forest department during the entire operation.
7. Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary
- Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary is a marine wildlife sanctuary located in Odisha.
- It extends from the Dhamra River mouth in the north to the Mahanadi river mouth in the south.
- It is very famous for its nesting beach for olive ridley sea turtles.
- It is the one of world's most important nesting beaches for turtles.
- The olive ridley turtles turn up in millions for mass nesting along the Odisha coast every year. This phenomenon is referred to as 'arribada'.
- Apart from Gahirmatha, these aquatic animals turn up at the Rushikulya river mouth and Devi river mouth for mass nesting.
- Rushikulya river mouth is considered the second-biggest nesting site for Olive Ridley Turtles in India.
Previous year question
| 1. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India? (UPSC 2015)
A.Saltwater crocodile Answer: C 2. The 'Olive Ridley Turtles are considered to be endangered because of their few remaining nesting sites in the world. In this context, which among the following statement(s) is/are correct? (OPSC 2016) (1) Their peculiar behavior of synchronized nesting in mass numbers is known as Arribada'. (2) Gahirmatha Beach in Orissa is one of their few nesting grounds in the world. A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: C 3. Which of the following statements about the olive ridley turtles is/are correct? (CDS 2018) 1. They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world. 2. They live in warm waters of Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans. 3. The Coromandel Coast in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley turtles. Select the correct Answer using the code given below. A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 only Answer: B |
For Prelims
| For Prelims: Olive Ridley turtles, arribada, Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary, Brahmani-Baitarani (Dharma) River, Devi River, Rushkulya river, Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, CITES convention, Bhitarkanika Wildlife sanctuary, Fisheries Regulation Act (OMFRA), 1982, and Turtle Excluder Devices or TEDs. |
NATIONAL INVESTIGATION AGENCY (NIA)
1. Context
The National Investigation Agency (NIA) on Thursday raided multiple locations across Telangana, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala in a case involving an alleged top CPI (Maoist) leader.
The NIA teams searched the premises of the accused and suspects at six places, including two in Hyderabad, and one each in Thane, Chennai, Mallapuram, and Palakkad, leading to the seizure of documents and books related to the banned outfit
2. About National Investigation Agency (NIA)
- The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is a federal counter-terrorism law enforcement agency in India.
- It was established in 2008 after the Mumbai terror attack the same year.
- The NIA is empowered to deal with the investigation of terror-related crimes across states without special permission from the states under written proclamation from the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- The primary mandate of the National Investigation Agency is to investigate and prosecute offences that have national and cross-border implications, specifically focusing on terrorism, insurgency, and other related matters.
- The NIA is headquartered in New Delhi and has 12 regional offices across the country.
- It is headed by a Director General of Police (DGP) rank officer.
- The NIA has a team of highly trained and experienced officers who are experts in counter-terrorism investigations.
- The NIA has been successful in investigating and prosecuting several high-profile terrorism cases, including the 26/11 Mumbai attacks, the 2012 Pune bombing, the 2013 Hyderabad blasts, and the 2014 Pathankot attack.
- The NIA has also played a key role in disrupting terrorist networks and preventing terrorist attacks.
- It has arrested several senior terrorist operatives and seized a large quantity of arms and ammunition.
3. The Changes Made under the NIA (Amendment) Act 2019
The National Investigation Agency (Amendment) Act, 2019, brought significant changes and enhancements to the powers and jurisdiction of the National Investigation Agency (NIA) in India. The amendments aimed to strengthen the agency's ability to combat terrorism and other transnational crimes effectively.
The key changes made under the NIA (Amendment) Act, 2019
- The amendment expanded the jurisdiction of the NIA. Previously, the agency could investigate cases related to terrorism and certain other offences listed in the NIA Act.
- The Act adds new offences to the list of scheduled offences that can be investigated by the NIA. These include
- Cyber terrorism under Section 66-F of the Information Technology Act, 2000
- Human trafficking under Section 370 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
- Counterfeiting of currency or bank notes under Sections 489C and 489E of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
- Manufacture or sale of prohibited arms or ammunition under Sections 25 and 26 of the Arms Act, 1959
- Offenses under the Explosive Substances Act, 1908
- This extension of jurisdiction gives the NIA greater reach and authority in handling cases with international ramifications.
- The amendment allowed for the establishment of special courts for the trial of NIA cases.
- These courts are designated to expedite the trial process and ensure that cases are heard and disposed of more quickly, particularly in terrorism-related cases.
- The NIA (Amendment) Act introduced provisions for the protection of witnesses.
- It empowers the NIA to request the central government to issue orders for the protection of witnesses.
- Ensuring the safety of witnesses is crucial for the successful prosecution of cases, especially in terrorism-related trials.
- The amended law allows the NIA to seize and attach properties that are believed to be the proceeds of terrorism or used for terrorism-related activities.
- This provision is essential in disrupting the financial networks of terrorist organizations.
- The NIA can now request the central government to seek extradition of individuals involved in terrorism and other offences under the NIA Act.
- This provision facilitates the extradition of accused persons from foreign countries to face trial in India.
- The central government has the authority to designate session courts as NIA Special Courts.
- These courts are responsible for the trial of NIA cases and follow the procedures outlined in the NIA Act.
- The NIA Act includes a schedule listing offences that fall under its jurisdiction.
- The amendment allows for offences in this schedule to be amended by the central government through notification.
- This flexibility allows for the inclusion of new offences based on emerging threats and challenges.
- The NIA (Amendment) Act includes provisions to enhance transparency and accountability in the agency's functioning.
- It mandates the submission of an annual report on its activities to the central government, which is then laid before both houses of Parliament.
4. The Way Forward
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For Prelims: National Investigation Agency, Terrorism, NIA Act,2008, NIA (Amendment) Act, 2019, the Ministry of Home Affairs, Information Technology Act, 2000, Indian Penal Code, Arms Act 1959, Explosive Substances Act, 1908,
For Mains:
1. "The NIA (Amendment) Act, 2019, introduced provisions for the confiscation of property believed to be connected to terrorism." Analyze the significance of this provision in curbing the financial networks of terrorist organizations and its alignment with international counter-terrorism efforts. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. The Stiglitz Commission established by the President of the United Nations General Assembly was in the international news. The commission was supposed to deal with: (UPSC CSE 2010) (a) The challenges posed by the impending global climate change and prepare a road map Answer: B 2. Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: (UPPSC 2020) List – I List – II A. Indian Arm Act 1. 1876 B. Royal Title Act 2. 1878 C. Indian High Court Act 3. 1869 D. Indian Divorce Act 4. 1861 A. (A) 2, (B) 3, (C) 1, (D) 4 B. (A) 3, (B) 1, (C) 2, (D) 4 C. (A) 1, (B) 2, (C) 3, (D) 4 D. (A) 2, (B) 1, (C) 4, (D) 3 Answer: D 3. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched? (UPPSC RO/ARO 2020) A. Prevention of Sedition Meetings Act - 1908
B. Explosive Substances Act - 1908
C. Indian Criminal Law Amendment Act - 1908
D. Newspaper (Incentive to Offence) Act - 1908
Answer: A |
DIRECTORATE OF ENFORCEMENT (ED)
1. Context
2. About the Directorate of Enforcement
- The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is an agency in India that primarily deals with the enforcement of economic laws and regulations to combat money laundering, foreign exchange violations, and financial fraud.
- The ED is part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
3. Establishment and History
- The Directorate of Enforcement was established on 1st May 1956, as the "Enforcement Unit" within the Department of Economic Affairs.
- Its primary focus was on preventing and detecting violations of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) of 1947.
- Over the years, the agency's role expanded, and in 1999, the Enforcement Directorate was established as a separate entity under the Ministry of Finance.
- The enactment of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) in 2002 further broadened its jurisdiction, giving it the power to investigate cases related to money laundering.
- Since its establishment, the ED has played a crucial role in combating economic offences and ensuring compliance with economic laws in India.
- It has been involved in several high-profile cases, including those related to financial scams, money laundering by influential individuals, and cross-border financial crimes.
- The ED collaborates with various domestic and international agencies, including financial intelligence units, law enforcement agencies, and Interpol, to gather information, share intelligence, and effectively coordinate efforts to combat economic offences.
4. Functions and Roles of ED
4.1. Enforcing Economic Laws
- The primary function of the ED is to enforce two key economic laws in India: the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) and the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA).
- It ensures compliance with these laws and investigates money laundering, foreign exchange violations, and economic fraud cases.
4.2. Money Laundering Investigations
- The ED investigates cases involving money laundering, which is the process of concealing the origins of illegally obtained money to make it appear legitimate.
- It identifies and seizes properties and assets derived from illicit activities and prevents their further use.
4.3. Foreign Exchange Violations
- The ED is responsible for investigating cases related to violations of foreign exchange laws and regulations.
- It monitors and controls foreign exchange transactions to maintain the stability of the Indian rupee and prevent illegal activities such as smuggling and illegal money transfers.
4.4 Financial Frauds
- The ED also investigates and takes action against financial frauds, including bank frauds, Ponzi schemes, and other fraudulent activities affecting the Indian financial system.
- It works closely with other law enforcement agencies, such as the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), to tackle complex financial crimes.
5. Challenges
5.1. The complexity of economic crimes.
- Economic crimes are often complex and involve a variety of financial transactions.
- This can make it difficult for the ED to trace the proceeds of crime and to build a case against the perpetrators.
5.2. The difficulty of tracing the proceeds of crime
- The proceeds of crime are often hidden in complex financial structures, making it difficult for the ED to track them down.
- The ED also faces challenges in obtaining information from foreign jurisdictions, where the proceeds of crime may have been transferred.
5.3. The lack of international cooperation
- Economic crime is often transnational, making it difficult for the ED to cooperate with foreign law enforcement agencies.
- This is due to differences in legal systems, as well as political and economic considerations.
5.4. Political interference
- The ED has been accused of being used as a political tool by the ruling party to target its opponents and critics.
- This has raised questions about the independence and impartiality of the ED.
5.5. Lack of transparency
- The ED has been criticized for its lack of transparency.
- The agency does not publish its annual reports, and it is difficult to obtain information about its investigations.
- This has made it difficult for the public to hold the ED accountable.
5.6. Human rights violations
- The ED has been accused of violating the human rights of those it investigates.
- The agency has been accused of using coercive tactics, such as prolonged detention and interrogation, to extract confessions from suspects.
5.7. The limited resources
- The ED is a relatively small agency with limited resources.
- This can make it difficult for the ED to investigate complex economic crimes and prosecute the perpetrators.
6. Conclusion
- The Directorate of Enforcement in India plays a crucial role in enforcing economic laws, preventing money laundering, and combating financial crimes.
- With its specialized expertise, investigative capabilities, and coordination with domestic and international partners, the ED contributes to the integrity of the financial system, national security, and the country's overall socio-economic development.
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For Prelims: Directorate of Enforcement, Financial Action Task Force, Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), Supreme Court, Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) of 1947, Central Bureau of Investigation,
For Mains:
1. Discuss the establishment and evolution of the Directorate of Enforcement in India. Explain its key functions and roles in combating economic offences. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions 1. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Directorate of Enforcement ? (CDS 2021)
A. It is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
B. It enforces the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
C. It enforces the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
D. It enforces the Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988.
Answer: D
2. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 become effective since which one of the following dates? (UKPSC RO/ARO 2012)
A. July 2002 B. August 2003 C. July 2004 D. July 2005
Answer: D
3. FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act) was finally implemented in the year (UPPSC 2013)
A. 1991 B. 1997 C. 2000 D. 2007
Answer: C
4. The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act was replaced by the ______ in India. (SSC Steno 2020)
A. Foreign Exchange Currency Act
B. Foreign Exchange Finances Act
C. Foreign Exchange Funds Act
D. Foreign Exchange Management Act
Answer: D
5. "Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation" is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. (SSC CGL 2017)
A. Union B. State C. Global D. Concurrent
Answer: A
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FREE MOVEMENT REGIME (FMR)
Manipur Chief Minister N. Biren Singh on Thursday welcomed the Centre’s decision to scrap India’s Free Movement Regime (FMR) agreement.
His counterparts in other northeastern States also hailed the announcement by Union Home Minister Amit Shah, which miffed political parties and NGOs in Mizoram and Nagaland.
2. About The Free Movement Regime (FMR)
- Much of present-day northeast India witnessed temporary Burmese occupation until the British expelled them in the 1800s. The Treaty of Yandaboo in 1826, signed by the victors and vanquished, delineated the boundary between India and Burma, now Myanmar. Unfortunately, this division separated people of shared ethnicity and culture, including the Nagas of Nagaland and Manipur and the Kuki-Chin-Mizo communities of Manipur and Mizoram, without their consent.
- The border, established by the treaty, often cut through villages or houses, further complicating the lives of those on either side. The lack of consent in these divisions created lasting challenges for communities split by the border.
- Concerned about growing Chinese influence in Myanmar, New Delhi initiated efforts to strengthen diplomatic ties with the Myanmar government a decade ago. This initiative aimed at addressing historical challenges and fostering better relations between the two nations.
- The Free Movement Regime (FMR), conceived as part of the government's Act East policy, faced a nearly year-long delay, primarily due to the Rohingya refugee crisis that began in August 2017.
- The FMR finally realized in 2018, enables individuals living on either side of the border to travel up to 16 km within each other's country without requiring a visa. Border residents, however, need a valid border pass, lasting a year, to stay in the other country for approximately two weeks per visit.
- Beyond facilitating cross-border movement, the FMR also seeks to promote localized border trade through customs stations and designated markets. Additionally, it aims to improve educational and healthcare access for the people of Myanmar on the Indian side of the border.
- The India-Myanmar border, except for a 10 km stretch in Manipur, remains unfenced, traversing hills and jungles. Security forces have long grappled with extremist groups operating from clandestine bases in the Chin and Sagaing regions of Myanmar, conducting hit-and-run operations.
- Even before the implementation of the Free Movement Regime (FMR), the ease of cross-border movement raised concerns about the inward trafficking of drugs and the outward trafficking of wildlife body parts. These challenges have persisted for decades.
- The catalyst for reevaluating the FMR was the conflict that erupted on May 3, 2023, between the majority of Meitei and the tribal Kuki-Zo communities in Manipur. Over the past decade, the Manipur government expressed apprehension about the "influx" of Myanmar nationals, particularly the Kuki-Chins, leading to calls for an Assam-like National Register of Citizens to identify and address "illegal immigrants."
- The Manipur government's concerns gained momentum after the conflict coincided with Myanmar nationals seeking refuge in Manipur to escape a civil war in their home country. In September 2023, Manipur Chief Minister Nongthombam Biren Singh attributed the ethnic violence to the free movement of Myanmar nationals into India. He urged the Ministry of Home Affairs to terminate the FMR, which had been suspended on April 1, 2020, during the COVID-19 lockdown and extended after the military coup in Myanmar in February 2021.
- In response to the Chief Minister's stance, Kuki-Zo organizations accused him of unfairly labelling their community as "illegal immigrants" and "narco-terrorists" as a justification for what they perceive as "ethnic cleansing."
4. The scale of Migration from Myanmar to India
- The ongoing civil war in Myanmar has resulted in a significant influx of individuals seeking refuge in India. The scale of migration surged notably during this tumultuous period.
- In September 2022, authorities in Manipur took action by pushing back 4,300 out of approximately 5,500 Myanmar nationals from the Moreh area along the border after recording their biometrics.
- A committee established by the State government estimated the number of such migrants in 2023 to be 2,187.
- The civil war also compelled around 40,000 people to seek shelter in Mizoram, where their ethnic affiliation made them feel more at home compared to Manipur.
- Unlike the pushback approach in Manipur, the Mizoram government has embraced a more accommodating stance, assisting the displaced individuals.
- The Mizoram government has been actively seeking financial support from the Centre to care for these displaced populations, expressing a preference for their return once the situation in Myanmar normalizes.
5. Reasons for Mizoram and Nagaland opposed to ending the FMR
Mizoram's Opposition
- Mizoram Chief Minister Lalduhoma vehemently opposes the Centre's decision to fence the India-Myanmar border and terminate the Free Movement Regime (FMR).
- He asserts that the border, imposed by the British, was designed to divide people of the Zo ethnic stock.
- Lalduhoma highlights the strong ethnic ties between Mizos and the Chin people across the border, emphasizing the right of these communities to live together.
- For Lalduhoma and the Mizoram government, the proposed actions threaten the cultural unity shared by Mizos and Chins, challenging the historical fabric that binds these communities.
Nagaland's Response
- The Nagaland government has not provided an official response, and the influential Naga Students' Federation has condemned the Centre's decision.
- They view the move to fence the border and end the FMR as regressive, anticipating that it could escalate conflicts in the region.
- The Naga Students' Federation emphasizes the historical truth that the territories between the Chindwin River in Myanmar and the Saramati Mountain in Nagaland belong to the Nagas.
- This statement underscores the federation's concern that the proposed measures may further complicate territorial issues and exacerbate tensions in the region.
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For Prelims: Free Movement Regime, India-Myanmar, Naga Students' Federation, Treaty of Yandaboo, COVID-19, Kuki-Chin-Mizo communities, Mizoram, Naga Land, Act East policy, Rohingya refugee crisis
For Mains:
1. Discuss the implications of the Indian government's decision to fence the India-Myanmar border and reconsider the Free Movement Regime (FMR) in light of security concerns. How does this decision balance the need for security with the cultural and historical ties between communities? (250 Words)
2. Discuss the challenges faced by the Indian government in balancing national security concerns, particularly related to the presence of extremist groups, with the humanitarian aspects of the Free Movement Regime (FMR). (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. With reference to India's projects on connectivity, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2023)
1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None
2. Consider the following pairs: (UPSC 2018)
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
3. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (UPSC 2022) (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people. Answers: 1-D, 2-B, 3-A Mains1. What are the two major legal initiatives by the State since Independence addressing discrimination against Scheduled Tribes (STs)? (UPSC 2017) 2. Why are the tribals in India referred to as ‘the Scheduled Tribes’? Indicate the major provisions enshrined in the Constitution of India for their upliftment. (UPSC 2016)
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UNITED NATIONAL LIBERATION FRONT (UNLF)
- The United National Liberation Front (UNLF) is a separatist militant organization operating in the Indian state of Manipur. Founded in 1964, the UNLF seeks to establish an independent sovereign state of Manipur. The group has been involved in armed insurgency against the Indian government since its inception.
- The UNLF was founded by Arembam Samarendra Singh on November 24, 1964, with the stated goal of achieving independence for Manipur from India. The group's ideology is based on a blend of socialism and Manipuri nationalism. The UNLF has carried out several attacks against Indian security forces and civilians over the years.
- The UNLF is one of the oldest and most entrenched insurgent groups in Northeast India. The group's strength is estimated to be around 2,000 armed cadres. The UNLF has a strong support base among the Meitei people, who are the majority ethnic group in Manipur.
- The UNLF has been designated as a terrorist organization by the Indian government. The group is also banned by the United States, the European Union, and the United Kingdom.
The term "insurgency" is used to describe a specific type of armed rebellion against a constituted government or authority. It is characterized by the use of small-scale, irregular warfare tactics, such as guerrilla attacks, ambushes, and sabotage, rather than conventional warfare tactics like large-scale battles. Insurgents typically seek to overthrow the existing government or establish an independent state.
The reasons why the term "insurgency" is used to describe this type of conflict:
- Insurgencies typically rely on irregular warfare tactics, which are characterized by their flexibility and adaptability. This allows insurgents to operate in a way that is difficult for the government to counter.
- Insurgents typically lack the conventional military strength of the government they are fighting against. This means that they must rely on tactics that exploit their strengths and the government's weaknesses.
- Insurgencies are typically motivated by political goals, such as overthrowing the government or establishing an independent state. This distinguishes them from other types of armed conflict, such as civil wars, which may be motivated by a variety of factors, including ethnic or religious differences.
4. The history of conflict in Manipur
The history of conflict in Manipur dates back to the 18th century when the Meitei kingdom was at war with neighbouring kingdoms. The conflict intensified in the 19th century when Manipur was invaded by the British. After Manipur was annexed by India in 1949, several separatist groups emerged, leading to the ongoing insurgency.
- During the 18th century, The Meitei kingdom was at war with neighbouring kingdoms, such as the Ahom kingdom and the Burmese kingdom.
- Manipur was invaded by the British in 1819, 1824, and 1891. The British eventually annexed Manipur in 1891.
- Manipur was annexed by India in 1949. This led to the formation of several separatist groups, such as the United National Liberation Front (UNLF) and the Manipur People's Liberation Front (MPLF).
5. The major ethnic conflicts in Manipur
The state of Manipur in India is home to a diverse population with numerous ethnic groups, each with its own distinct culture, language, and traditions. This diversity has also led to complex ethnic tensions and conflicts in the state.
The major ethnic conflicts in Manipur
- Meitei vs. Naga: The Meitei people are the majority ethnic group in Manipur, residing primarily in the Imphal Valley. The Naga people, on the other hand, are concentrated in the hill areas of the state. The conflict between these two groups stems from historical grievances, competition for resources, and differing political aspirations.
- Meitei vs. Kuki: The Kuki people are another significant ethnic group in Manipur, inhabiting the hills and valleys of the state. The conflict between the Meitei and Kuki communities has been fueled by historical clashes, competition for land and resources, and political marginalization of the Kuki people.
- Naga vs. Kuki: Within the Naga community itself, there have been instances of conflict between different Naga tribes, particularly between the Tangkhul and Zeliangrong Naga groups. These conflicts often arise over land disputes, political leadership, and cultural differences.
- Naga vs. Meitei vs. Kuki: There have also been instances of tripartite conflict involving the Naga, Meitei, and Kuki communities. These conflicts are often characterized by complex dynamics, with each group vying for dominance and control over resources and territory.
The 2020 Manipur peace agreement is the first significant step towards resolving the long-running insurgency in the state. The agreement is based on the premise of preserving Manipur's territorial integrity within India while addressing the grievances of the various ethnic groups in the state.
There are several precedents for the 2020 Manipur peace agreement. These include:
- The 1997 Shillong Accord, which was signed between the Government of India and the National Socialist Council of Nagaland (NSCN-IM). The accord led to a ceasefire in Nagaland and the beginning of peace talks between the two parties.
- The 2003 Assam Accord, which was signed between the Government of India and several separatist groups in Assam. The accord led to the surrender of weapons by some of the groups and the beginning of peace talks between the two parties.
- The 2015 framework agreement between the Government of India and the NSCN-IM. The framework agreement is a broad outline for a peace deal in Nagaland.
The 2020 Manipur peace agreement is a significant step forward in the peace process in Manipur. However, several challenges will need to be addressed to achieve lasting peace in the state. These challenges include:
- Addressing the grievances of the various ethnic groups in Manipur.
- Building trust between the Government of India and the UNLF.
- Ensuring that the peace agreement is implemented fairly and equitably.
7. The steps taken by the Government of India
The Government of India has taken several steps to address the insurgency in Manipur, including:
- The government has offered amnesty to insurgents who surrender their weapons and renounce violence.
- The government has held peace talks with several separatist groups in Manipur.
- The government has invested in several economic development projects in Manipur.
- The government has promoted cultural exchange between different ethnic groups in Manipur.
- The government has signed ceasefire agreements with several separatist groups in Manipur. These agreements have helped to reduce violence in the state.
- In recent years, there has been an increase in the number of insurgents who have surrendered their weapons and joined the peace process.
- The government has withdrawn security forces from some areas of Manipur to build trust with the local population.
- The government has established autonomous councils for some of the minority groups in Manipur. These councils give these groups a greater degree of autonomy over their own affairs.
- The government has taken steps to address the grievances of the various ethnic groups in Manipur. This includes measures to improve education, healthcare, and infrastructure in the state.
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For Prelims: United National Liberation Front, valley-based insurgent group, Manipur, Meitei kingdom, Ahom kingdom, Burmese kingdom, Manipur People's Liberation Front, Meitei, Imphal Valley, Naga, Kuki, For Mains:
1. Define the term "insurgency" and discuss the characteristics that distinguish it from conventional warfare. How do insurgent groups like the United National Liberation Front (UNLF) operate, and what factors contribute to their use of irregular warfare tactics? (250 Words)
2. Evaluate the steps taken by the Government of India to address the insurgency in Manipur. Discuss the effectiveness of measures such as amnesty offers, peace talks, economic development projects, and cultural exchange initiatives in building lasting peace. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. Recently, the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act was completely removed from which one of the following States? (UPSC CAPF 2018)
A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Nagaland
C. Meghalaya
D. Assam
2. Consider the following pairs: (UPSC 2018)
Tradition State
1. Chapchar Kut festival Mizoram
2. Khongjom Parba ballad Manipur
3. Thang-Ta dance Sikkim
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 3 only D. 2 and 3
3. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (UPSC 2022) (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people. 4. Ahom kingdom was developed by whom? (OTET 2017)
A. Sukapha B. Suhungmug C. Sangram Shah D. None of these
5. The treaty of Yandaboo was signed in (NDA 2019)
A. 1826 B. 1825 C. 1824 D. 1823
6. Consider the following pairs: (UPSC 2023)
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None 7. With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
1. It is a song and dance performance.
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 only
8. Imphal valley of Manipur is an important centre of ________ craft. (SSC MTS 2021)
A. Kauna B. Godna C. Butta D. Mirijims
9. 'Imphal Basin' surrounded by Manipur hills is a fine example of (UPPSC Civil Service 2019)
A. Lacustrine plain B. Loess plain C. Glacial plain D. Alluvial plain
10. Consider the following pairs:
1. Dampa Tiger Reserve Mizoram
2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary Sikkim
3. Saramati Peak Nagaland
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (UPSC 2014)
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
11. Which two of the following are correctly matched? (UPPSC Combined State Exam 2022)
Tribe State
1. Kharia Odisha
2. Kuki Uttar Pradesh
3. Yanadi Rajasthan
4. Paliyan Tamil Nadu
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
A. 3 and 4 B. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 3 D. 1 and 2
12. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? (UPPSC BEO 2020)
(Revolts) (Years)
A. Neel Rebellion 1859-60
B. Jaintia Rebellion 1860-63
C. Kuki Rebellion 1860-90
D. Kuka Revolt 1870-72
1. ​Neel Rebellion 2. Kuki Revellion 3. Kuka Revolt 4. Jaintiya Rebellion
Answers: 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-A, 5-A, 6-D, 7-B, 8-A, 9-A, 10-C, 11-B, 12-2
For Mains:
1. Suppose the Government of India is thinking of constructing a dam in a mountain valley bound by forests and inhabited by ethnic communities. What rational policy should it resort to in dealing with unforeseen contingencies? [UPSC 2018]
2. What are the two major legal initiatives by the State since Independence addressing discrimination against Scheduled Tribes (STs)? (UPSC 2017)
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CRISPR
The CRISPR system in bacteria serves as a warehouse for past infections by storing a part of the viral genetic material and incorporating it into its own, so the next time it is attacked, the bacteria is capable of recognising the virus and destroying it
2. About CRISPR
- The journey to uncover the CRISPR system spanned nearly thirty years of dedicated academic pursuit. Initially identified in 1993 by Spanish researchers in archaea, these DNA elements, known as Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats (CRISPR), were later observed in various bacterial genomes.
- Comprising genetic material fragments from viruses attacking bacteria, along with CRISPR-associated proteins known as Cas, these elements intrigued researchers aiming to comprehend their impact on antiviral immunity. By 2005, it became evident that the collaboration between CRISPR and Cas proteins formed a defensive system in bacteria, enabling them to resist viral infections.
- The pivotal breakthroughs occurred subsequently: in 2010, scientists demonstrated that CRISPR, when paired with specific Cas9 proteins, possessed the capability to precisely cut double-stranded DNA at defined points.
- They also unveiled RNA molecules guiding Cas9 to specific positions within a genome. Further progress emerged in 2012 when researchers devised synthetic RNA that could bind to Cas9, directing it to edit DNA at specified locations.
- Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer Doudna led this groundbreaking research, earning the 2020 Nobel Prize in Chemistry for their contributions. Shortly after, Virginijus Siksnys and colleagues published similar findings, proposing that Cas9 could be guided to specific genome spots by CRISPR RNA.
- Collectively, these studies showcased the CRISPR-Cas9 system's potential as a customizable 'molecular scissor,' precisely cutting DNA at designated spots. Altering the crRNA enabled scientists to target specific genomic locations accurately. The subsequent year, teams led by Feng Zhang and George Church demonstrated the use of CRISPR-Cas9 for genome editing in eukaryotic organisms.
- This innovation sparked a multitude of applications, from targeted genetic therapies to advancements in agriculture. The 2020 Nobel Prize not only recognized these researchers but also marked the onset of an era where manipulating human genetic code went beyond reading, potentially revolutionising medicine and genetic engineering
CRISPR technology has introduced transformative possibilities in medicine due to its precision in altering genetic material. Here are some ways it's proving beneficial:
Gene Therapy: CRISPR enables precise modifications in genes associated with hereditary diseases. It offers a potential avenue for treating genetic disorders by editing or replacing problematic genes with healthy ones.
Cancer Treatment: CRISPR is being explored to target and modify cancer-related genes. It may assist in creating more effective and personalized treatments, such as enhancing the immune system's ability to recognize and destroy cancer cells.
Infectious Diseases: Researchers are investigating CRISPR's potential to combat viruses like HIV or herpes by editing the viral DNA within infected cells, potentially leading to a cure or long-term viral suppression.
Drug Development: CRISPR aids in understanding the genetic basis of diseases, enabling more accurate modeling of diseases in the lab. This understanding is crucial for developing and testing new drugs and treatments.
Organ Transplants: By editing genes related to organ rejection, CRISPR might help generate organs more compatible with a recipient's body, potentially reducing rejection rates.
Rare Diseases: CRISPR offers hope for treating rare genetic disorders that have no existing cures or treatments. It can target the specific genetic defects causing these conditions.
Diagnostic Tools: CRISPR-based systems, such as CRISPR-Cas detection, are being developed as highly sensitive diagnostic tools to identify diseases more efficiently and accurately.
The precision, versatility, and potential to target specific genes make CRISPR technology a groundbreaking tool in medicine, paving the way for more effective treatments and therapies across various diseases and conditions
3. Way forward
None of these technologies are without caveats. Researchers have already reported several safety and accuracy issues. An important one is off-target events: where a CRISPR-Cas9 system becomes inaccurate and edits some other part of the genome, with unintended consequences.So while there is enormous potential for these technologies, the risk needs to be balanced with both short- and long-term benefits. Many of these therapies are also too early in their development cycle. Continued scrutiny and surveillance may yet reveal ‘side effects’ that we aren’t aware of today
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For Prelims: CRISPR cas9 technology, Nano Technology For Mains: General Studies III: Science & Technology, The era of CRISPR therapeutics |
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Previous Year Questions 1.What is the Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news? (UPSC CSE 2019) A.A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing B. A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients C. A gene that makes plants pest-resistant D. A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops Answer (A) |
Source: The Hindu
AADHAAR
- The Aadhaar card is a 12-digit unique number issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI).
- It contains biometric information, such as fingerprints and iris scans, along with demographic information, including individuals' addresses and date of birth.
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The Aadhaar card serves as proof of identity and is valid anywhere in India for identification purposes. Having an Aadhaar card is compulsory while applying for a new PAN card or filing Income tax returns.
- However, it can be used as a single identification document. Banks, financial institutions and telecom companies can also use it as a Know-Your-Customer (KYC) verification
mode and maintain profiles.
- Any Indian resident irrespective of his/her gender and age can enroll for an Aadhaar card.
- As per the Aadhaar Act 2016, Indian citizens need to reside in the country for 182 days or more in the year preceding the date of enrolment.
- Non-resident Indians (NRIs) and Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) are not eligible for an Aadhaar card. If NRIs and foreigners satisfy the minimum duration of stay as per the aforementioned Act, they can apply for an Aadhaar card.
- Minors, too, can apply for an Aadhaar card. Children under the age of 5 will get the Blue Colour Aadhaar, which needs to be updated after they become 5 years old.
- Masked Aadhaar is similar to a regular Aadhaar with the difference that the Aadhaar number is partially hidden.
- Only the last four digits of the Aadhaar number are visible and the rest are crossed.
- It means replacing the first eight digits with some characters like 'xxxx-xxxx' while only the last four digits of the original number are visible.
- Other details on the Aadhaar card remain the same such as the name, date of birth, gender, address, and QR code.
- One can download an Aadhaar card easily online.
The Supreme Court ruled that Aadhaar cannot be mandatory for welfare schemes, and the government has announced its implementation for several programs, causing confusion and raising concerns.
Schemes Where Aadhaar is Mandatory
- Beedi/Iron Ore/Limestone workers' house subsidy
- Supplementary nutrition program
- Crop insurance and subsidized foodgrains/cash subsidy for farmers
- Integrated Dept. of Horticulture, National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme, and Janani Suraksha Yojana benefits
- Training under Integrated Child Development Services
- Grih Kalyan Kendra scheme benefits
- National Mission for Empowerment of Women, Scheme for Adolescent Women, Central scholarships, and National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship
- e-Panchayat training benefits and central college scholarships
- Soil Health Management and Card Schemes
- Supplementary meals at creches
- Maternity Benefit Programme and Integrated Child Protection Scheme
- Vocational training, loans, and other schemes for women
- Water and social services benefits under Research and Development in Water Sector and National Social Assistance Program
- Mid Day meal benefits (including cooks-cum-helpers)
- Deendayal Antyodya Yojana and National Rural Livelihoods Mission
- Benefits for disabled children under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
- Booking tickets on the Indian Railways online platform (IRCTC)
- Filing Income Tax returns or applying for PAN (linking PAN with Aadhaar mandatory)
4. Concerns and Implications
- This contradicts the Supreme Court's ruling, raising concerns about legal challenges and potential violation of individual rights.
- Exclusion of beneficiaries who lack Aadhaar or face difficulties registering could defeat the schemes' intended purpose.
- Privacy and data security issues remain, as Aadhaar integration expands.
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For Prelims: Aadhaar, Aadhaar-enabled Payment Services, RBI, welfare schemes
For Mains:
1. Discuss the impact of Aadhaar on financial inclusion and digital transactions in India. What are the challenges and opportunities for further improving financial accessibility using Aadhaar-based systems? (250 words)
2. Discuss the potential of Aadhaar in enhancing internal security and countering terrorism. How can this be achieved while safeguarding individual liberties and preventing misuse of the system? (250 words)
3. Imagine you are tasked with leading a public outreach campaign on Aadhaar in a rural community. How would you address concerns, clarify misconceptions, and ensure informed participation? (250 words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting financial inclusion in the country.
2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
2. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2020)
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 4 only B. 2 and 4 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 only
3. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2018)
1. Aadhaar card can be used as proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, the Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answers: 1-C, 2-B, 3-D
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ATAL PENSION YOJANA (APY)
The number of subscribers under the National Pension Scheme (NPS) and Atal Pension Yojana (APY) increased 23 per cent to over 6.24 crore the Finance Ministry said recently. Of this, there was over 28 per cent growth in APY subscribers and more than 1 crore new customers were added.
2. About Atal Pension Yojana
Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a pension scheme introduced by the Government of India in 2015. It aims to provide social security to citizens, particularly those in the underprivileged and unemployed sectors. The scheme guarantees a fixed monthly pension after the age of 60.
Major Features of Atal Pension Yojana
- The scheme offers a monthly pension ranging from Rs. 1,000 to Rs. 5,000, depending on the contribution made.
- The government contributes 50% of the subscriber's contribution or Rs. 1,000 per year, whichever is lower, for up to 5 years. This contribution is for subscribers not covered by other pension schemes and not paying income tax.
- APY aims to provide security against various challenges like illness, accidents, and diseases, primarily targeting the unorganized sector. Spouses receive the pension after the subscriber's demise, and nominees receive a lump sum payment if both pass away.
Eligibility for APY
- The scheme is open to all Indian citizens aged between 18 and 40.
- Contribution levels vary depending on the age of enrollment.
- Aadhaar authentication is mandatory for enrollment and contribution deductions.
Benefits of APY
- Subscribers receive a fixed pension upon reaching 60 years.
- Spouses and nominees receive benefits in case of the subscriber's demise.
- Contributions to APY are tax-deductible, similar to contributions to the National Pension System (NPS).
Enrollment and Subscriber Payment
- APY offers an auto-debit facility for easy contributions.
- Penalty charges apply for delayed payments, ranging from Re. 1 to Rs. 10, depending on the contribution amount.
- Accounts face freezing, deactivation, and closure if payments are not made for specified periods.
Funding of APY
- The Central Government co-contributes 50% of the subscriber's contribution, up to Rs. 1,000 per year, for 5 years.
- To be eligible, individuals must join before March 31, 2016, not be beneficiaries of other social security schemes, and not be income taxpayers.
- The government provides subsidies for promotional activities to encourage APY enrollment.
3. Difference between National Pension Scheme and Atal Pension Yojana
| Features | National Pension Scheme (NPS) | Atal Pension Yojana (APY) |
| Age | Minimum: 18 years; Maximum: 65 years | Minimum: 18 years; Maximum: 40 years |
| Eligibility Criteria | All Indian citizens, residents or non-residents | Indian citizens with a bank/post office account |
| Type of Account | Single account | Tier I (mandatory) and Tier II (optional) |
| Nominee | Nomination required; spouse not allowed | Nomination required; spouse can be nominee |
| Account Number | Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN) | No specific account number provided |
| Pension Slab | Pension amount not predefined | Monthly pension slab: Rs. 1,000 - Rs. 5,000 |
4. The Way Forward
Atal Pension Yojana serves as a vital social security measure, ensuring financial stability for citizens in their old age, particularly those in the unorganized sector. Its structured approach to pension provision and government support makes it a significant initiative towards securing the future of millions of Indians.
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For Prelims: Atal Pension Yojana, National Pension Scheme For Mains: 1. Analyze the features and objectives of the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) introduced by the Government of India, emphasizing its role in providing financial security to underprivileged and unemployed citizens. (250 Words) 2. How has the Contributory Pension Scheme (CPS) affected the investment landscape in India, particularly for pension funds? (250 Words) |
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Previous Year Questions 1. Regarding 'Atal Pension Yojana', which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2016) 1. It is a minimum guaranteed pension scheme mainly targeted at unorganized sector workers.
2. Only one member of a family can join the scheme.
3. The same amount of pension is guaranteed for the spouse for life after the subscriber's death.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
2. Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (UPSC 2017) A. Resident Indian citizens only
B. Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
C. All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
D. All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004
Answers: 1-C, 2-C |
Source: The Indian Express
