ONE NATION-ONE ELECTION
1. Context
The high-level committee headed by former President Ram Nath Kovind has recommended simultaneous elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies as the first step, and holding municipal and panchayat polls within 100 days of the general election in the next phase
2. About the ONOE Plan
- The ONOE plan revolves around a core concept synchronizing the timing of Lok Sabha (India's lower house of Parliament) and State Assembly elections across all states.
- The primary objective is to reduce the frequency of elections throughout the country.
3. Historical Perspective on Simultaneous Elections
- Taking a historical glance, the first-ever general elections to Lok Sabha and all State Assemblies occurred simultaneously in 1951-1952, immediately following the enforcement of the Constitution on January 26, 1950.
- This practice persisted through three subsequent Lok Sabha elections until 1967 when it was disrupted.
- The initial disruption took place in 1959 when Article 356 of the Constitution was invoked by the Centre to dismiss the Kerala government.
- Subsequently, due to political defections and counter-defections, several Legislative Assemblies dissolved post-1960, ultimately leading to separate elections for Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
- Presently, assembly polls in the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha are held in conjunction with Lok Sabha elections.
4. Insights from Reports on ONOE
- In August 2018, the Law Commission of India (LCI), chaired by Justice B. S. Chauhan, released a draft report on simultaneous elections.
- This comprehensive report analyzed the constitutional and legal aspects of the ONOE issue.
- Notably, the LCI submitted that simultaneous elections are not feasible within the current framework of the Constitution.
- The LCI emphasized that conducting simultaneous polls would require amendments to the Constitution, the Representation of the People's Act 1951, and the Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
- Furthermore, the commission recommended that this proposal receive ratification from at least 50% of the states.
- However, in terms of the benefits of simultaneous elections, the commission argued that ONOE would result in substantial cost savings, reduced strain on the administrative setup and security forces, timely implementation of government policies, and a shift of managerial focus towards development activities instead of electioneering.
- Notably, this is not the first time such a proposal has been made, as a similar recommendation was made by the LCI in 1999, headed by Justice B. P. Jeevan Reddy.
5. Concerns Surrounding ONOE
- The feasibility of ONOE is a matter of paramount concern. Articles 83(2) and 172 of the Constitution specify that the tenure of Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, respectively, shall last for five years unless dissolved earlier.
- However, Article 356 provides for circumstances where assemblies can be dissolved earlier.
- Consequently, the ONOE plan raises crucial questions, such as what would happen if the Central or State government collapses mid-tenure.
- Would elections be held again in every state, or would President's rule be imposed
- Amending the Constitution to implement such a significant change would necessitate extensive consideration of various scenarios and provisions and could set a concerning precedent for further constitutional amendments.
- Another critical concern relates to the idea of ONOE not aligning with the concept of 'federalism.'
- Federalism is established on the notion that the entire nation is a "Union of States," which appears to contradict the concept of 'one nation' proposed by ONOE.
6. Benefits of Recurrent Elections
- The present system of recurrent elections is viewed by some as beneficial in a democracy.
- It allows voters to have their voices heard more frequently and ensures that issues at the national and state levels remain distinct.
- This separation of issues promotes greater accountability among elected officials.
- The Central government has highlighted the substantial costs associated with frequent elections as a key motivator for ONOE.
- The Election Commission's expenditure of ₹8,000 crore over five years, equivalent to ₹1,500 crore annually or ₹27 per voter per year, can truly be considered a 'massive' expense for maintaining India's status as the world's largest electoral democracy.
8. The Way Forward
- The 'One Nation, One Election' plan presents both advantages and challenges that warrant careful consideration and debate.
- It is essential to weigh the benefits of reduced election frequency against the potential disruption to the democratic process and the fundamental principles of federalism and accountability.
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For Prelims: One Nation-One Election, Article 356, Law Commission of India, Representation of the People's Act 1951, Article 83(2), Article 172, federalism,
For Mains:
1. What is One Nation-One Election? Explain how having simultaneous elections across Lok Sabha and State assemblies counter federalism. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then (UPSC 2018)
A. the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
B. the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
C. Article 19 is suspended in that State.
D. the President can make laws relating to that State.
Answer: B
2. What is the provision in Article 356 of Indian Constitution? (Soldier Technical Paper 2021)
A. For jobs in reservation of backward classes
B. To impose President's rule in the states
C. For the protection of religious monument
D. To give special status to Jammu and kashmir
Answer: B
3. According to the Representation of the People Act, 1951, in the event of a person being elected to both houses of Parliament, he has to notify within ______ days in which house he intends to function. (Delhi Police Constable 2020)
A. 22 B. 10 C. 20 D. 15
Answer: B
4. Under what Article of the Constitution of India can the President take over the administration of a state in case its constitutional machinery breaks down? (MP Police Constable 2016)
A. Article 83 B. Article 352 C. Article 356 D. Article 343
Answer: C
5. Which one of the following in Indian Polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character? (UPSC 2021)
A. The independence of judiciary is safeguarded
B. The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units
C. The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties
D. The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law
Answer: A
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Source: The Hindu
ELECTORAL BOND SCHEME
1. Context
A five-judge Bench of the Supreme Court headed by Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud is scheduled on Friday to hear an application filed by the Election Commission seeking the return of electoral bonds’ documents handed over to the top court in a sealed cover and sealed boxes on two occasions
2. About Electoral Bonds
The electoral bonds scheme is a mechanism for political funding introduced by the Indian government in 2017. It allows individuals, organizations, and corporations to make anonymous donations to political parties. Over 12,900 electoral bonds worth Rs 6,534.78 crore were sold in 15 phases between March 2018 and January 2021.
2.1. Key Features of Electoral Bonds
- Electoral bonds allow donors to make contributions to political parties while maintaining anonymity. The bonds do not carry any information about the donor, ensuring that the identity of the contributor remains undisclosed.
- Electoral bonds are available in multiple denominations, including Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore. Donors can purchase bonds in these denominations to contribute to political parties.
- The State Bank of India (SBI) is the sole authorized bank for the sale of electoral bonds. Donors can buy these bonds from designated SBI branches.
- Donors must fulfil Know Your Customer (KYC) norms while purchasing electoral bonds, which includes providing their personal information to the bank. However, this information is not disclosed to the political party receiving the donation.
- Political parties have 15 days to encash the electoral bonds in their verified bank accounts. This ensures that the bonds are promptly converted into funds.
- There is no limit on the number of electoral bonds an individual or company can purchase, allowing for substantial contributions.
- If a political party does not encash the electoral bonds within the stipulated 15-day period, the SBI deposits these bonds into the Prime Minister's Relief Fund.
- A contentious feature of the scheme is that political parties receiving donations through electoral bonds are exempt from disclosing the source of these donations in their mandatory annual contribution reports to the Election Commission of India (EC).
2.2. Rationale Behind the Electoral Bonds Scheme
The rationale for introducing the electoral bonds scheme was as follows:
- Proponents of the scheme argued that it would bring a level of transparency to political funding by making contributions through a banking channel, as all transactions would go through the banking system, leaving an audit trail.
- The scheme was intended to protect the privacy of donors, allowing individuals and entities to contribute to political parties without fear of retribution or public exposure.
- By providing a legal and transparent means for making political contributions, the scheme aimed to reduce the use of unaccounted-for cash in political funding, which was perceived as a major source of corruption in the political process.
- The scheme encouraged donors to make contributions through the formal banking system, thereby promoting digital transactions and aligning with the government's push for a cashless economy.
2.3. Challenges and Controversies
- The primary point of contention with electoral bonds is the anonymity they offer to donors.
- An amendment to the Finance Act 2017 exempts parties from disclosing donations received through these bonds.
- This means that voters are unaware of the source and extent of funding for political parties, undermining transparency.
- Transparency activists argue that the amendment infringes upon the citizen's 'Right to Know' and further reduces the accountability of the political class.
- While the citizens remain uninformed, the government can access donor details from the State Bank of India, rendering only the taxpayers unaware of the source of donations.
| Electoral bonds have gained popularity due to the anonymity they offer to donors. More than half of the total income of national and regional parties in the financial year 2018-19 came from electoral bond donations. The Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) emerged as the largest beneficiary, receiving 60.17% of the total electoral bond donations. |
3. Election Commission's Stand
The Election Commission has expressed objections to amendments in the Representation of the People Act that exempt political parties from disclosing donations via electoral bonds. It has raised concerns about the potential violation of provisions prohibiting political parties from receiving donations from government companies and foreign sources.
4. The Way Forward
The electoral bonds scheme was introduced to enhance transparency, it has generated significant debates and concerns. A comprehensive way forward should focus on striking a balance between anonymity for donors and the citizens' right to know the financial sources of political parties. Transparent and accountable political funding is crucial for upholding the democratic values and integrity of the political process in India.
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For Prelims: Electoral Bonds, SBI, Election Commission of India, Right to Know, Finance Act 2017, Prime Minister's Relief Fund
For Mains:
1. Examine the challenges and controversies surrounding the Electoral Bonds Scheme, particularly regarding donor anonymity and transparency in political funding. How have these issues raised concerns about the integrity of the political process in India? (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
Prelims
1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017) 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 3 only Answer: D 2. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? (UPSC CSE 2019) Answer: B 3. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021) 1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the- existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 3
4. Consider the following statements about Electoral Bond Scheme 2018: (RPSC RAS Prelims 2018)
(A) The aim of this scheme is to bring about transparency in the funding process of political parties.
(B) Only the political parties recognized by the Election Commission which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of People or the Legislative Assembly of the State shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.
(C) Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue.
(D) The Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible political party in its account shall be credited on the same day.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. Only (A) and (B)
2. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
3. Only (B), (C) and (D)
4. Only (A), (C) and (D)
Answer: 2
5. With reference to the PM CARES Fund, consider the following statements: (AFCAT 27 2022)
I. The amount collected by it directly goes to the Consolidated Fund of India.
II. It can avail donations from the foreign contribution and donations to fund can also avail 100% tax exemption.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II
Answer: B
6. The Prime Minister's National Relief Fund is operated by which one of the following bodies? (CDS 2019)
A. The Prime Minister's Office (PMO)
B. The National Disaster Management Authority
C. The Ministry of Finance
D. The National Development Council (NDC)
Answer: A
Mains 1. In the light of recent controversy regarding the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVM), what are the challenges before the Election Commission of India to ensure the trustworthiness of elections in India? (UPSC 2018) 2. Discuss the role of the Election Commission of India in the light of the evolution of the Model Code of Conduct. ( UPSC 2022) |
Source: The Indian Express
POCSO ACT
1. Context
Former Karnataka chief minister and senior BJP leader B S Yediyurappa was booked under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (Pocso) Act on Thursday for allegedly harassing a minor at his residence in Bengaluru last month.
2. Development of Legislation Against Child Sexual Abuse in India
Constitutional Provisions and International Commitments
- The Constitution of India includes provisions to protect children's rights.
- India has ratified international instruments like the Convention on the Rights of the Child and the Protocol on the Sale of Children.
Lack of Dedicated Provision
- India lacked specific legislation addressing child sexual abuse.
- Cases were tried under various provisions of the Indian Penal Code, which were deemed insufficient.
Goa Incident and State-Level Response
- A child sexual abuse racket was exposed in Goa during the 1990s.
- The state government responded by enacting a law in 2003 to promote child rights.
Children's Code Bill, 2000
- The Special Expert Committee under Justice VR Krishna Iyer drafted the Children's Code Bill, presenting a comprehensive framework for child rights in India.
Draft Bill Addressing Offences Against Children
- In 2005, the Department of Women and Child Development prepared a draft bill to address different offenses targeted against children.
Study of Child Abuse Report (2007)
- Published by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
- Covered 13 states with a sample size of 12,447 children, 2,324 young adults, and 2,449 stakeholders.
- Found that 50.76% of children surveyed reported experiencing one or more forms of sexual abuse.
- Boys reported a higher overall percentage of sexual abuse than girls, contrary to prevailing perceptions.
Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Bill, 2010
- In September 2010, the Ministry of Women and Child Development prepared a draft bill.
- After several revisions, it came into force as the POCSO Act on Children's Day (November 14, 2012).
3. Analysis of POCSO Act Trials and Case Characteristics
- Acquittals and Convictions: Analysis shows that 43.44% of trials under the POCSO Act end in acquittals, while only 14.03% end in convictions. For every one conviction, there are three acquittals, indicating a significant disparity.
- State-wise Disparity in Acquittals and Convictions: Acquittals are significantly higher than convictions in all states studied. Examples: In Andhra Pradesh, acquittals are seven times more than convictions, and in West Bengal, acquittals are five times more than convictions. Kerala has a relatively lower gap, with acquittals constituting 20.5% and convictions constituting 16.49% of total disposals.
- Relationship Between Victim and Accused: Out of 138 examined judgments, only 6% of cases involved accused who were strangers to the victim. In 44% of cases, the relationship between the victim and accused was unidentified. Known acquaintances constituted 22.9% of the accused, family members accounted for 3.7%, and cases with prior romantic relationships made up 18%.
- Age Distribution of Victims and Accused: Among the 138 cases studied, 5.47% of victims were under 10 years, 17.8% were between 10-15 years, and 28% were between 15-18 years. The age of the victim was unidentified in 48% of cases. Age details of accused individuals were not identified in 63.6% of cases. Identified age ranges of accused: 11.6% between 19-25 years, 10.9% between 25-35 years, 6.1% between 35-45 years, and 6.8% above 45 years.
- Offenses and Severity: Penetrative sexual assault (31.18%) and aggravated penetrative sexual assault (25.59%) collectively account for over half of all POCSO cases. These offenses carry the most stringent punishments under the POCSO Act.
4. Analysis of POCSO Case Disposal and Pendency
- Delayed Disposal: On average, it takes 509.78 days for a POCSO case to be disposed of, exceeding the one-year stipulated timeframe under the Act.
- Increase in Pending Cases: The pendency of POCSO cases had been gradually increasing over the years. Notably, there was a sharp rise in pending cases between 2019 and 2020, attributed to the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic.
- Reasons for Delay: Slow pace of police investigation and delays in depositing samples with Forensic Science Laboratories were identified as primary reasons for case delays.
- Transfers of Cases: 22.76% of cases were disposed of through transfers from one court to another. One-fifth of the cases in the dataset ended in transfers, indicating administrative mismanagement or wrongful appreciation of facts by the police.
- Increasing Transfer Trend: The percentage of transfers out of total disposals was around 8% in 2013 but rose to a little over 19% in 2019 and a concerning 42% in 2020. This trend is seen as problematic due to the time wasted as cases are transferred between courts.
5. POCSO Trials and Case Statistics in India
- Delhi's POCSO Trials and Case Length: Delhi has the highest number of POCSO trials in the country, with 13.54 cases per 100,000 population in 2018. However, Delhi also had the highest average case length in 2020, at 1,284.33 days.
- Average Time for Convictions: Chandigarh and West Bengal are the only states where the average time taken for convictions is within one year. States like Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Kerala, Sikkim, Chandigarh, and the NCT of Delhi have a higher reporting of POCSO cases.
- Districts with the Highest Number of POCSO Trials: The five districts with the highest number of POCSO trials (pending and disposed of) are Namchi (Sikkim), New Delhi, Central Delhi, Medak (Telangana), and West Garo Hills (Meghalaya).
- Pendency and Disposal Rates: Uttar Pradesh has the highest pendency, with 77.77% of the total POCSO cases filed between November 2012 and February 2021 pending. Tamil Nadu has the highest disposal percentage at 80.2%.
- Districts with Highest Pendency Percentages: The five districts with the highest pendency percentages include Lucknow, Hardoi, Budaun, and Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh and Howrah in West Bengal.
6. Gaps in Implementation
- Absence of Support Persons: According to the study, "support persons" are not appointed in most POCSO cases. The Supreme Court highlighted that in 96% of cases, victims were not provided with a support person.
- Role of support Persons: A support person can be an individual or organization working in child rights or protection, an official from a children's home or shelter home. or a staff member of the District Child Protection Unit (DCPU). Their role is to guide and support the victim throughout the legal process.
- Insufficient Designated POCSO Courts: The analysis reveals that not all districts have designated POCSO courts. As of 2022, 408 POCSO courts have been established in 28 states under the Government's Fast Track Special Court Scheme.
- Lack of Special Public Prosecutors: There is a shortage of special public prosecutors specifically appointed to handle POCSO cases. Even when appointed, they are often engaged in non-POCSO cases, leading to a lack of dedicated focus on POCSO matters.
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For Prelims: Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO), Convention on the Rights of the Child, and the Protocol on the Sale of Children, Children's Code Bill, 2000, Child Abuse Report (2007).
For Mains: 1. Critically analyze the findings of the analysis on convictions, acquittals, victim-accused relationships, and offense patterns in POCSO cases in India. (250 words).
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Previous year Question
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1. In India, the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, ____ is a comprehensive law to provide for the protection of children from the offenses of sexual assault, sexual harassment, and pornography, while safeguarding the interests of the child. (SSC CGL 2021)
A.2012
B. 2006
C. 2010
D. 2008
Answer: A
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Source: The Indian Express
CAA AND JUDICIAL PROCEEDINGS
1. Context
Four years after Parliament passed the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), 2019, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) notified the rules to implement the law on March 11. It fast-tracks citizenship for undocumented immigrants from six non-Muslim communities Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Parsi, Christian and Jain from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh. The CAA is also under challenge before the Supreme Court, with several petitioners moving fresh pleas seeking a stay on the implementation of the rules.
2. Implications of the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA)
The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), passed in December 2019, has several implications that have sparked debates and concerns within India and internationally.
- Selective Citizenship Based on Religion: One of the primary concerns surrounding the CAA is that it provides a pathway to citizenship for undocumented immigrants from specific religions (Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian) who entered India from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan before December 31, 2014. Critics argue that by excluding Muslims, the CAA discriminates based on religion, which goes against the secular principles of India's constitution.
- Potential Exclusion of Muslims: When combined with the proposed National Register of Indian Citizens (NRIC), the CAA has raised fears of the exclusion of Muslim residents from citizenship rights. While non-Muslims could potentially benefit from the CAA if they are excluded from the NRIC, Muslims may face challenges in proving their citizenship status.
- Impact on Assam Accord: The CAA's provisions also intersect with the Assam Accord of 1985, which aimed to identify and deport illegal immigrants, regardless of their religion, who entered Assam after March 24, 1971. The CAA's timeline (before December 31, 2014) conflicts with the cutoff date set by the Assam Accord, leading to concerns about its impact on Assam's demographic and political landscape.
- Legal Challenges: The constitutionality of the CAA has been challenged in courts, with petitions arguing that it violates Article 14 of the Indian Constitution, which guarantees equality before the law and prohibits discrimination based on religion, among other factors. These legal challenges highlight the deep societal and legal divisions regarding the CAA's implications.
- Citizenship Granting Process: The CAA has streamlined the process of granting citizenship to specific communities by relaxing documentary requirements, such as the need for a valid passport or visa. This has led to concerns about the potential for fraudulent claims and the overall impact on India's immigration policies and demographic composition.
- International Reaction: The CAA has also drawn international attention and criticism, with concerns raised by human rights organizations and foreign governments about its discriminatory nature and its impact on vulnerable groups, particularly Muslims.
3. Supreme Court's Response to the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA)
The Supreme Court of India has responded to challenges against the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) through various hearings and orders.
- Initial Refusal to Stay the Law: In December 2019, a Bench led by then Chief Justice of India (CJI) S.A. Bobde refused to stay the operation of the CAA. Instead, the court suggested that the government should clarify and publicize the actual intent and provisions of the Act. A similar plea for a stay was rejected on January 22, 2020, with the court emphasizing the need to hear the government's arguments first.
- Scheduled Hearings: On October 6, 2022, a Bench led by former CJI U.U. Lalit announced that final hearings in the CAA case would commence on December 6, 2022. However, there has been no update on the progress of the case since then. The petitions are currently listed before a Bench headed by Justice Pankaj Mithal, as per the Supreme Court's website.
- Government's Defense: The Centre has defended the CAA as a "benign piece of legislation" aimed at providing amnesty to specific communities from certain countries facing religious persecution. In its affidavit before the Supreme Court, the government argued that the law does not infringe upon the rights of Indian citizens and is tailored to address a specific problem of religious persecution in neighbouring countries.
4. Petitioners Seeking a Stay on the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) Rules
Various petitioners, including the Indian Union Muslim League (IUML), have approached the Supreme Court seeking a stay on the rules notified on March 11 regarding the implementation of the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA).
- Absence of Tiered Scrutiny: The petitioners argue that the newly notified rules have eliminated the tiered scrutiny process previously in place for applications for citizenship. This process involved scrutiny by District Collectors and recommendations from State governments regarding the granting of citizenship based on the circumstances of each case. The removal of this scrutiny process raises concerns about the fairness and thoroughness of evaluating citizenship applications.
- Timing of Implementation: The petitioners highlight the timing of the implementation of the rules. They argue that the government should have waited for a final decision from the Supreme Court regarding the constitutionality and legality of the CAA before implementing associated rules and procedures. This timing issue raises questions about the prudence of implementing rules related to a contentious law while legal challenges are ongoing.
- Historical Context: The petitioners reference past instances where the government avoided a stay on the CAA by stating that associated rules had not been framed. This historical context suggests a strategic manoeuvre by the government to push through the implementation of the CAA and its rules despite ongoing legal challenges and uncertainties.
5. Significance of the Challenge to Section 6A and its Impact on CAA
The challenge to Section 6A of the 1955 Citizenship Act holds significant implications for the ongoing legal proceedings against the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), especially concerning its impact on Assam and the Assam Accord.
- Assam Accord Context: Section 6A of the 1955 Act was introduced as part of the Assam Accord, a Memorandum of Settlement signed on August 15, 1985. The Accord aimed to address the complex issue of illegal immigration into Assam, particularly in the context of the Bangladesh Liberation War of 1971.
- Cut-Off Date Determination: Section 6A establishes March 24, 1971, as the cut-off date for determining who is considered a foreigner in Assam. Individuals who entered Assam on or after January 1, 1966, but before March 25, 1971, are categorized as "foreigners" with certain rights and restrictions, including not being able to vote for a specified period.
- Impact on CAA: The challenge to Section 6A is crucial because it raises questions about the validity of the cut-off date and its alignment with the Assam Accord. If the Supreme Court upholds March 24, 1971, as the valid cut-off date for entry into Assam, it could have implications for the CAA. This is because the CAA introduces a different timeline (up to December 31, 2014) for granting citizenship to certain categories of migrants, potentially conflicting with the Assam Accord's provisions.
- Verdict Pending: The Supreme Court, led by a five-judge Constitution Bench headed by CJI D.Y. Chandrachud, has reserved its verdict on the validity of Section 6A. The Court's decision on this matter will likely have a significant impact on the broader debate surrounding immigration, citizenship, and the legal framework governing these issues, especially in the context of Assam and the CAA.
6. The Way Forward
By following the steps and actively participating in the ongoing discourse and legal processes, individuals and groups can contribute to shaping a more just and equitable approach to citizenship and immigration issues in India.
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For Prelims: CAA, Assam Accord
For Mains:
1. Evaluate the significance of Section 6A of the 1955 Citizenship Act in the context of the Assam Accord and its potential impact on the implementation of the CAA, particularly regarding the determination of "foreigners" in Assam. (250 Words)
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Source: The Hindu
NANNA JAGANNATH SHANKARSETH
1. Context
The Maharashtra cabinet on Wednesday (March 13) decided to ask the Ministry of Railways to rename Mumbai Central station after Nana Jagannath Shankarseth. Mumbai Central, located in the heart of the city, is used by several important local and long-distance trains, including Rajdhani Expresses, daily
2.Who was Nana Jagannath Shankarseth?
- Nana Jagannath Shankarseth (February 10, 1803 - July 31, 1865), renowned for his role as a social reformer, educator, and philanthropist, is often credited as the key figure in shaping Mumbai (then Bombay), making significant contributions in both ideas and financial support across various sectors, thus laying a sturdy groundwork for the city's development.
- Hailing from a prosperous Brahmin family in Murbad, Thane district, Shankarseth assumed the responsibility of managing the family business at a young age following his father's demise in 1822. He drew profound inspiration from the esteemed merchant and philanthropist, Sir Jamsetjee Jeejeebhoy.
- Shankarseth's endeavors as a social reformer and community leader garnered him respect from both the Indian populace and the British authorities, culminating in his historic nomination as the first Indian member of the Legislative Council of Bombay
3.Shankarseth’s most significant contributions?
- Education: Shankarseth exhibited a profound dedication to advancing education in Bombay, generously contributing family-owned land for educational purposes. Echoing the sentiments of numerous social reformers of his era, he advocated for the pivotal role of education in the progress of Indians, extending his efforts towards the education of girls and women.
- Shankarseth established the Native School of Bombay, later renamed the Bombay Native Institution and subsequently the Board of Education.
- This institution eventually transformed into the esteemed Elphinstone College. An intriguing anecdote highlights Shankarseth's contribution to the inception of medical education in Bombay.
- Although the proposal for a medical college akin to those in Calcutta (Kolkata) and Madras (Chennai) was initiated by the late Governor of Bombay, Sir Robert Grant, before his demise, it was Shankarseth who suggested naming the medical college in Grant's honor. Thus, Grant Medical College in Mumbai stands as one of the oldest medical institutions in South Asia.
- Museum, Temples: Shankarseth emerged as a prominent benefactor in the promotion of Dr. Bhau Daji Lad Museum in Byculla, crafted by a renowned architect from London. The Bhawani Shankar Temple near Nana Chowk stands as Shankarseth's homage to his late mother, Bhawanibai Murkute. Additionally, he spearheaded the construction of a Ram temple
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Shankarseth’s contribution to the railways
The first train in India ran between Boribunder and Thane on April 16, 1853. The 34-km project undertaken by the Great Indian Peninsular Railway Company. The committee that gave the project impetus included Sir Jamsetjee Jeejeebhoy and Nana Shankarseth
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4. Jagannath Shankar Sheth - Social Reforms
- Jagannath Shankar Sheth was a pivotal figure in spearheading social reforms during his time. His contributions encompassed various aspects aimed at uplifting society. From advocating for education to championing the rights of marginalized communities, Shankar Sheth's efforts left a lasting impact on the social fabric of his era.
- One of his significant endeavors was in the field of education. Shankar Sheth recognized the transformative power of education and played a vital role in its growth and dissemination, particularly in Bombay. He generously donated family-owned land for the establishment of educational institutions, underscoring his commitment to providing access to learning for all segments of society. Moreover, he believed fervently in the education of girls and women, recognizing it as a cornerstone for societal progress.
- In addition to his contributions to education, Shankar Sheth was instrumental in advocating for the rights and welfare of marginalized communities. He worked tirelessly to promote social equality and justice, earning the goodwill of both Indians and the British authorities. His efforts in this regard helped bridge societal divides and fostered a more inclusive and equitable society.
- Overall, Jagannath Shankar Sheth's legacy as a social reformer remains indelible. Through his tireless advocacy and philanthropy, he not only laid the groundwork for a more enlightened and egalitarian society but also inspired future generations to continue the pursuit of social justice and reform
5.Way Forward
Besides taking the decision on renaming Mumbai Central, the Cabinet also cleared proposals to rename Cotton Green station as Kalachowki, Charni Road as Girgaum, Dockyard Road as Mazgaon, King’s Circle as Tirthankar Parshvanath, Currey Road as Lalbaug, Sandhurst Road as Dongri, and Marine Lines as Mumbadevi
Source: Indianexpress
INFLATION
1. Context
Recently, Data released by the National Statistical Office showed that retail inflation, as measured by the consumer price index, has remained at almost the same level since the beginning of this year. Inflation stood at 5.09 per cent in February, marginally lower than 5.1 per cent in January.
2. What is Inflation?
- It is the rise in prices of goods and services within a particular economy wherein consumers' purchasing power decreases, and the value of the cash holdings erodes.
- In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) measures inflation.
- Some causes that lead to inflation are demand increases, reduction in supply, demand-supply gap, excess circulation of money, increase in input costs, devaluation of the currency, and rise in wages, among others.
3. How is Food Inflation measured in India?
Food inflation in India is measured using various indices and indicators. The primary indices used to measure food inflation in India include the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the Wholesale Price Index (WPI). Both indices provide insights into the overall price movements of goods and services, including food items, but they differ in terms of their coverage and methodology.
Consumer Price Index (CPI)
- The CPI is a key indicator used by the Government of India and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to monitor inflation, including food inflation.
- The CPI measures the average change over time in the prices paid by urban and rural consumers for a basket of goods and services, including food items, housing, clothing, transportation, and more.
- Within the CPI, food and beverages form a significant component, and food inflation is specifically derived from the changes in food prices within the CPI basket.
- The CPI is released monthly by the Central Statistics Office (CSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
- The WPI is another important index that tracks price changes at the wholesale level for a selected group of commodities, including food products, manufactured goods, fuel, and more.
- The WPI measures price changes from the perspective of producers and wholesalers, providing insights into inflationary pressures in the production and distribution stages.
- Food articles, such as cereals, pulses, vegetables, fruits, and edible oils, are included in the WPI basket for monitoring food inflation.
- The WPI is released weekly by the Office of Economic Adviser under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
In addition to these indices, other indicators such as the Food Sub-Index within the CPI and specific price indices for essential food items (like vegetables, pulses, and cereals) are also used to gauge food inflation more accurately. The RBI closely monitors food inflation trends as part of its monetary policy framework to make informed decisions regarding interest rates and economic stability. Overall, the combination of CPI, WPI, and specific food-related indices provides a comprehensive assessment of food inflation in India.
4. Headline and Core Inflation
Inflation is a key economic indicator that measures the rate at which prices of goods and services rise over time. In India, two important measures of inflation are headline inflation and core inflation.
- Headline Inflation: Headline inflation refers to the overall rate of inflation in an economy, taking into account the price changes across all goods and services included in the consumer basket. It reflects the broad-based movement in prices, including food, fuel, housing, transportation, and other essential and non-essential items. Headline inflation is typically measured using indices such as the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the Wholesale Price Index (WPI). Fluctuations in headline inflation can be influenced by various factors, including changes in global commodity prices, government policies, supply chain disruptions, and demand-side pressures.
- Core Inflation: Core inflation, on the other hand, excludes volatile items such as food and energy from the basket of goods used to calculate inflation. By excluding these volatile components, core inflation provides a more stable measure of underlying inflationary trends in the economy. Core inflation is often considered a better gauge of long-term inflationary pressures and helps policymakers in making informed decisions regarding monetary policy. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), for example, closely monitors core inflation to assess the underlying inflationary trends and formulate appropriate monetary policy responses.
Understanding the distinction between headline and core inflation is essential for policymakers, businesses, and consumers alike. While headline inflation provides a comprehensive view of overall price movements, core inflation offers insights into the underlying inflationary pressures, helping to distinguish between temporary fluctuations and sustained inflation trends. By closely monitoring both measures of inflation, policymakers can effectively manage inflationary risks and maintain price stability, contributing to sustainable economic growth and stability.
5. Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a crucial institutional framework established by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to formulate and implement monetary policy decisions in India.
Role
- Formulating Monetary Policy: The primary role of the MPC is to formulate and implement monetary policy in India. This includes setting the key policy interest rates, such as the repo rate, reverse repo rate, and marginal standing facility (MSF) rate, to achieve the objectives of price stability and economic growth.
- Targeting Inflation: The MPC's main objective is to maintain price stability, which is primarily achieved by targeting a specific inflation rate. In India, the RBI has adopted a flexible inflation targeting framework, where the MPC aims to keep the Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation within a specified target range over the medium term. Currently, the inflation target is set at 4% with a tolerance band of +/- 2%.
- Evaluating Economic Conditions: The MPC assesses various economic indicators, such as GDP growth, inflation expectations, fiscal policy measures, global economic developments, and financial market conditions, to make informed decisions about monetary policy.
- Communication: The MPC communicates its monetary policy decisions, rationale, and outlook for the economy through periodic press releases, statements, and the publication of meeting minutes. This transparency enhances predictability and credibility in monetary policy.
Composition
- Members: The MPC consists of six members, including three members nominated by the Government of India and three members from the Reserve Bank of India. The Governor of the RBI serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of the MPC.
- Appointment: The members of the MPC are appointed by the Central Government based on their expertise and experience in economics, banking, finance, or related fields. The RBI Governor and Deputy Governor (in charge of monetary policy) are automatic members of the MPC.
- Voting Rights: Each member of the MPC, including the RBI Governor, has one vote in the decision-making process. Decisions are made by a majority vote, with the Governor having the casting vote in case of a tie.
- Terms: Members of the MPC serve fixed terms, typically for four years, with eligibility for reappointment. This ensures continuity and stability in monetary policy formulation.
6. The Way Forward
By implementing the measures and fostering collaborative efforts among policymakers, regulators, and stakeholders, India can effectively manage inflationary pressures, maintain price stability, and promote sustainable economic growth and development.
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For Prelims: Inflation, MPC, CPI, WPI, food Inflation, RBI, Headline inflation, Core inflation For Mains:
1. Explain the concept of inflation and its impact on an economy. Discuss the various causes of inflation and the measures that can be taken to control it, with specific reference to India. (250 Words)
2. What are the challenges and opportunities associated with managing inflation in India? Evaluate the effectiveness of recent policy measures in addressing inflationary pressures and maintaining price stability. Suggest strategies for sustainable economic growth while managing inflation risks. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2021)
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his natural power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
2. Concerning the Indian economy, consider the following: (UPSC 2015)
Which of the above is/are component(s) of Monetary Policy? (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 3 and 4
3. An increase in Bank Rate generally indicates: (UPSC 2013) (a) Market rate of interest is likely to fall.
(b) Central bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks.
(c) Central bank is following an easy money policy.
(d) Central bank is following a tight money policy.
4. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? (UPSC 2017) 1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 3 only D. 2 and 3 only 5. Read the following passage and answer the question that follows. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Policymakers and media have placed the blame for skyrocketing food prices on a variety of factors, including high fuel prices, bad weather in key food producing countries, and the diversion of land to non-food production. Increased emphasis, however, has been placed on a surge in demand for food from the most populous emerging economics. It seems highly probable that mass consumption in these countries could be well poised to create a food crisis.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: (UPSC 2021)
1. Oil producing countries are one of the reasons for high food prices.
2. If there is a food crisis in the world in the near future, it will be in the emerging economies. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
6. India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons? (UPSC 2011)
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30.
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
7. With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct? (UPSC 2015)
A. Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only
B. The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
C. Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
D. Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
8. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2016)
1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017
2. The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.
3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $ 1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answers: 1-C, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A, 5-D, 6-B, 6-C, 7-B
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Source: The Indian Express
