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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 17 FEBRUARY 2026

GREAT NICOBAR ISLAND PROJECT

 
 
1. Context
A Bench of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) on Monday cleared the way for the ₹92,000-crore Great Nicobar Island mega-infrastructure project, noting that “considering the strategic importance” of it and “other relevant considerations”, “we do not find any good ground to interfere”
 
2.What is the Great Nicobar Island Project?
 
  • The Great Nicobar Island Project is a significant infrastructure development initiative undertaken by the Indian government on Great Nicobar Island, part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Indian Ocean. The project aims to transform the island into a strategic and economic hub.
  • A deep-draft international container transshipment terminal is planned to be developed at Galathea Bay. This port is expected to serve as a key shipping hub in the region, facilitating trade and reducing dependency on transshipment ports in other countries
  • An international airport is proposed to improve connectivity to the island, both for tourism and strategic purposes. This airport will be capable of handling wide-bodied aircraft and will enhance the island's accessibility
  • To support the infrastructure and population growth, a gas- and solar-based power plant will be developed. This plant aims to provide a reliable and sustainable energy source for the island's needs
  • A modern township with residential, commercial, and recreational facilities is planned to accommodate the increased population and workforce that the project will attract. This township is expected to have state-of-the-art amenities and infrastructure
 
Strategic and Economic Importance
  • Great Nicobar Island is situated near the Malacca Strait, one of the world's busiest shipping lanes. Developing this island will enhance India's strategic presence in the Indian Ocean Region, particularly in terms of maritime security and trade control
  • The project aims to boost the local economy by creating job opportunities and attracting investments. Improved infrastructure and connectivity are expected to stimulate tourism and other economic activities on the island
  • Enhancing connectivity through the transhipment port and international airport will integrate Great Nicobar Island more closely with the global and regional trade networks, potentially making it a key logistical and commercial hub
 
Environmental and Social Considerations
  • The project has raised concerns about its potential impact on the island's rich biodiversity and ecosystems. Great Nicobar Island is home to unique flora and fauna, including endangered species. Ensuring sustainable development practices and environmental protection measures will be crucial
  • There are concerns about the impact on local communities, particularly indigenous tribes such as the Nicobarese and Shompen. Ensuring that their rights and livelihoods are protected is a key consideration for the project
  • The project's emphasis on using renewable energy sources like solar power and promoting eco-friendly practices is an effort to mitigate environmental concerns. However, balancing development with conservation will be an ongoing challenge
 
 
Great Nicobar
 
Great Nicobar is the largest of the Nicobar Islands, part of the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands in India. It is located in the Indian Ocean, near the western entrance of the Malacca Strait, which is a key maritime route for international trade.
 
Here are some key aspects of Great Nicobar:
  • Great Nicobar is situated at the southern end of the Nicobar Islands, approximately 1,280 kilometers (800 miles) from the Indian mainland
  • The island features diverse landscapes, including dense tropical rainforests, hilly terrain, and coastal areas. Mount Thullier is the highest point on the island, rising to an elevation of about 642 meters (2,106 feet)
  • Great Nicobar is known for its rich biodiversity and is part of the Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve. The island hosts unique flora and fauna, including several endemic and endangered species. The Nicobar megapode, Nicobar tree shrew, and saltwater crocodile are some of the notable species found here
  • The island is sparsely populated, with a mix of indigenous tribes and settlers from other parts of India. The Nicobarese and Shompen are the primary indigenous communities on the island
  • The indigenous tribes have distinct cultural practices, languages, and traditions. Efforts are being made to preserve their cultural heritage and ensure their rights and well-being amidst development initiatives
  • Great Nicobar’s strategic location near the Malacca Strait, one of the world's busiest maritime routes, enhances its significance for India's maritime security and trade interests
  • Given its strategic position, the island hosts Indian military installations, which play a crucial role in monitoring and securing the Indian Ocean Region
 
 
3. Strategic Importance
 
  • The Bay of Bengal and Indian Ocean region are critically important for India's strategic and security interests, especially as the Chinese People’s Liberation Army Navy aims to increase its presence in these waters.
  • India is concerned about the buildup of Chinese naval forces at key Indo-Pacific chokepoints, particularly Malacca, Sunda, and Lombok. China's efforts to extend its influence in the area include constructing a military facility on the Coco Islands in Myanmar, located just 55 km north of the Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
  • Earlier this year, The Indian Express reported significant upgrades to the military infrastructure on the Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
  • This includes modernizing airfields and jetties, creating new logistics and storage facilities, establishing a base for military personnel, and enhancing surveillance capabilities.
  • The goal of these upgrades is to support the deployment of more military forces, larger warships, aircraft, missile batteries, and troops.
  • Maintaining close surveillance over the area surrounding the archipelago and establishing a strong military presence on Great Nicobar is crucial for India's national security
4. Environmental Concerns
  • The proposed infrastructure upgrade has faced opposition due to its potential ecological threat to the islands. Wildlife conservation researchers, anthropologists, scholars, civil society members, and the Congress party have raised concerns about the devastating impact on the Shompen, a particularly vulnerable tribal group (PVTG) of hunter-gatherers, who have an estimated population of a few hundred individuals residing in a tribal reserve on the island.
  • Critics claim the project infringes on the rights of the tribal population and will harm the island’s ecology, including the felling of nearly a million trees. There are fears that the port project will damage coral reefs, affecting the local marine ecosystem, and pose a threat to terrestrial species like the Nicobar Megapode bird and leatherback turtles, which nest in the Galathea Bay area.
  • A statement by senior Congress leader and former Environment Minister Jairam Ramesh highlighted that the proposed port is in a seismically active zone, which experienced permanent subsidence of about 15 feet during the 2004 tsunami.
  • The statement also accused the local administration of insufficiently consulting the Tribal Council of Great and Little Nicobar Islands as required by law.
  • In November 2022, the tribal council withdrew a no-objection certificate it had issued for the diversion of about 160 sq km of forest land, citing inadequate information provided to them.
  • In April 2023, the Kolkata Bench of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) chose not to interfere with the environmental and forest clearances granted to the project. However, the Tribunal ordered the formation of a high-power committee to review the clearances. There is still no clarity on whether the committee, mainly composed of government representatives, has submitted its report
 
 
For Prelims: National Green Tribunal (NGT), Great Nicobar Island, Coastal Regulation Zones, Turtles, Dolphins, Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), Mangroves, Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve
For Mains: Significance and Issues Related to Great Nicobar Island Project
 
Previous Year Questions

1. Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’? (2014)

(a) Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Nicobar and Sumatra
(c) Maldives and Lakshadweep
(d) Sumatra and Java

Answer (a)

2. Which of the following have coral reefs? (2014)

  1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  2. Gulf of Kachchh
  3. Gulf of Mannar
  4. Sunderbans

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer (a)

3. In which one of the following places is the Shompen tribe found? (2009)

(a) Nilgiri Hills
(b) Nicobar Islands
(c) Spiti Valley
(d) Lakshadweep Islands

Answer (b)

 
Source: indianexpress
 
 

DIGITAL PERSONAL DATA PROTECTION RULES

 
 
 
1. Context
 
The Supreme Court on Monday agreed to refer to a Constitution Bench a series of petitions arguing that India’s new digital personal data law delivers a “body blow” to citizens’ right to a transparent and accountable government under the Right to Information (RTI) Act.
 
Article image
2. What do the DPDP Act and Rules do?
 
  • The Government of India issued the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Rules, 2025 on 14 November 2025, completing the implementation of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
  • With both the Act and Rules now in place, India has a comprehensive, citizen-oriented framework that balances personal data rights with legitimate data processing requirements.
  • Before finalising the Rules, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology sought inputs from the public. Consultations were organised across several major cities—Delhi, Mumbai, Guwahati, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bengaluru and Chennai—drawing participation from startups, MSMEs, industry associations, civil society organisations, and government bodies.
  • Citizens also contributed actively. Altogether, 6,915 suggestions and comments were submitted, significantly influencing the final version of the Rules.
  • The notification of these Rules establishes a practical, innovation-supportive data protection regime for the country. It promotes clarity, encourages adherence to the law, and enhances public confidence in India’s expanding digital landscape.
 
 
3. Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
 
 
  • The Digital Personal Data Protection Act was passed by Parliament on 11 August 2023, establishing a comprehensive legal structure for safeguarding digital personal information in India.
  • It outlines the responsibilities of organisations when they gather or process such data. The Act is built on the SARAL philosophy—Simple, Accessible, Rational and Actionable—using straightforward language and clear examples so that individuals and businesses can easily understand the requirements.
  • The Act is anchored in seven foundational principles: consent and transparency, limitation of purpose, minimal collection of data, accuracy, restricted data retention, strong security measures and accountability. These principles shape each step of data handling and ensure that personal information is processed only for legitimate and defined purposes.
  • A key highlight of the law is the establishment of the Data Protection Board of India, an autonomous authority responsible for monitoring compliance, investigating violations and ensuring that necessary corrective actions are taken.
  • The Board is central to protecting user rights and fostering confidence in the data protection framework
 

Key Terms under the DPDP Act, 2023

  • Data Fiduciary: An organisation that determines the purpose and means of processing personal data, either independently or jointly with others.

  • Data Principal: The person to whom the personal data belongs. For children, this includes a parent or authorised guardian. For individuals with disabilities who cannot act on their own, this extends to their lawful guardian.

  • Data Processor: Any entity that processes personal information on behalf of a Data Fiduciary.

  • Consent Manager: A platform that provides a unified, transparent interface through which Data Principals can grant, monitor, modify or withdraw consent.

  • Appellate Tribunal: The Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT), which reviews appeals against decisions made by the Data Protection Board

 
 
 
4. Overview of the Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025
 

The Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025 operationalise the DPDP Act, 2023, creating a practical and transparent system for safeguarding personal data in India’s rapidly growing digital landscape. These Rules place strong emphasis on citizen rights and responsible data handling by organisations. Their objective is to prevent misuse of personal information, minimise digital risks, and foster an environment that supports safe innovation—thereby strengthening trust in India’s digital economy.

To achieve these goals, the Rules lay down several key provisions:

  • A phased compliance period of 18 months has been introduced so organisations have adequate time to upgrade systems and adopt sound data-protection practices.
  • All Data Fiduciaries must issue a separate, easy-to-read consent notice clearly stating the specific purpose for which personal data is collected and processed.
  • Consent Managers—entities that help people manage their permissions—must operate as companies incorporated in India.
  • The Rules also define a clear and prompt procedure for reporting data breaches. In the event of a breach, the Data Fiduciary must immediately notify every affected person in simple language, outlining what occurred, potential consequences and the corrective measures taken. The communication must also include relevant contact details for assistance.
  • Each Data Fiduciary is required to provide accessible contact information for queries related to personal data—whether that is a designated officer or a Data Protection Officer. Significant Data Fiduciaries have additional responsibilities: they must conduct external audits, undertake impact assessments and implement stricter controls when using emerging or sensitive technologies.
  • They may also be required to comply with government directions regarding restricted data categories, including localisation requirements when necessary.
  • The Rules strengthen the rights granted under the Act. Individuals can request access to their personal information, corrections or updates, and deletion in permitted situations.
  • They may also authorize another person to exercise these rights on their behalf. Data Fiduciaries must respond to such requests within 90 days.
  • Additionally, the Rules provide for a fully digital Data Protection Board of India with four members. Citizens will be able to submit complaints online and track them through a dedicated website and mobile app, making grievance resolution faster and more efficient.
  • Appeals against the Board’s orders will be handled by the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT)
 
5. How the DPDP Rules Empower Individuals?
 
 

The DPDP framework puts citizens at the heart of India’s data protection regime. Its core purpose is to ensure that individuals have clear authority over their personal information and can trust that it is handled responsibly. The rules are drafted in simple, user-friendly language so people can easily understand their rights, while also ensuring that organisations remain accountable for how they manage personal data.

Key Rights and Safeguards Provided to Citizens:

  • Right to Give or Withhold Consent
    Individuals have the freedom to agree or refuse the use of their personal data. Consent must be informed, specific, and easy to comprehend, and it can be withdrawn at any point.
  • Right to Know How Data is Used
    People are entitled to know what information has been collected about them, the purpose of its collection, and the ways it is being processed. Organisations must share this information in a clear and straightforward format.
  • Right to Access Personal Data
    Any individual may request a copy of the personal data that a Data Fiduciary holds about them.
  • Right to Correct Personal Data
    Citizens can ask for corrections if their personal information is wrong, inaccurate, or incomplete.
  • Right to Update Personal Data
    Individuals may request updates when their details change—such as a new phone number or address.
  • Right to Delete Personal Data
    People have the option to seek erasure of their personal data under specific circumstances. The Data Fiduciary must review and act on such requests within the stipulated timeframe.
  • Right to Appoint a Representative
    Every person may nominate someone else to exercise their data rights on their behalf—useful during illness or other situations where they cannot act themselves.
  • Mandatory Response Within 90 Days
    Data Fiduciaries must respond to requests for access, correction, updating, or deletion within a maximum of ninety days, promoting timely redressal and accountability.
  • Protection in Case of Data Breaches
    If a data breach occurs, affected individuals must be informed promptly. The notification must explain the incident and outline the steps they can take to reduce any potential harm.
  • Clear Contact Point for Help
    Organisations must provide easily accessible contact details—either of a designated official or a Data Protection Officer—for queries or complaints related to personal data.
  • Extra Safeguards for Children
    Processing children’s personal data requires verifiable consent from a parent or guardian, except when the data is used for essential services like medical care, education or immediate safety.
 
6. How the DPDP Framework Works in Harmony with the RTI Act?
 
  • As the DPDP Act and its Rules strengthen citizens’ privacy protections, they also clarify how these enhanced rights coexist with the Right to Information (RTI) Act, which ensures public access to information.
  • The amendments made through the DPDP Act modify Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act in a manner that upholds both privacy and transparency without undermining either.
  • This change is consistent with the Supreme Court’s recognition of privacy as a fundamental right in the Puttaswamy judgment.
  • It aligns the RTI law with judicial reasoning that has, for years, applied reasonable limits to protect personal information.
  • By formally incorporating this approach into the statute, the amendment removes ambiguity and avoids any clash between the RTI Act’s transparency mandate and the privacy protections embedded in the DPDP framework.
  • Importantly, the updated provision does not prohibit the release of personal data. Instead, it requires authorities to make a careful, case-specific assessment before sharing such information, keeping the individual’s privacy interests in mind.
  • Meanwhile, Section 8(2) of the RTI Act remains unchanged. It empowers public authorities to disclose information whenever the public interest is compelling enough to outweigh potential harm to protected interests.
  • This ensures that the core purpose of the RTI Act—promoting openness, accountability and informed citizen participation—continues to shape how information requests are handled
 

 

For Prelims: Personality rights, Delhi High Court, Madras High Court, Right to property, trademark, right to privacy, Article 21, Copyright Act, 1957
For Mains:
1. Explain how can the legal framework for protecting personality rights in India be strengthened to better address the challenges of the digital age. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (UPSC 2021) 
A. Legal right available to citizens only
B. Legal right available to any person
C. Fundamental Right available, to citizens only
D. Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
Answer: B
 
2. In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999. The difference/differences between a "Trade Mark" and a Geographical Indication is/are (UPSC 2010)
1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company's right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community's right.
2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed.
3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods/products and handicrafts only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only          B. 1 and 2 only        C. 2 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: B
 
3. Which of the following statements regarding Article 21 of the Constitution of India is/ is correct?  (CDS GK 2017)
1. Article 21 is violated when under-trial prisoners are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite period.
2. Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not even the state has the authority to violate that right.
3. Under Article 21, the right of a woman to make reproductive choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2 and 3     B. 1 and 2 only     C. 1 and 3 only        D. 2 only
 
Answer: B
 
4. Article 21 of Indian Constitution secures: (OPSC OAS 2018)
A. Right to life only
B. Right to personal liberty only
C. Right to liberty and privacy
D. Right to life, personal liberty and right to privacy
 
Answer: D

5. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India? (UPSC 2021)

(a) Article 15
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 29

Answer: C

6. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement? (2018)

(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution.

(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV.

(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III.

(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution.

Answer: C

 
Source: The Hindu
 
 

DENOTIFIED, NOMADIC, SEMI-NOMADIC TRIBES (DNTs)

 
 
 
1. Context
 
 
On January 30, the Union government assured community leaders from Denotified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNTs) that the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India had agreed to enumerate these communities in the upcoming second phase of the Census due in 2027. 
 
 
2. Who are the Denotified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNTs)?
 
 
  • Communities now described as denotified, nomadic, and semi-nomadic tribes were once branded as “criminal” by colonial authorities. British administrators believed that certain groups were inherently inclined toward criminal activity.
  • This belief was formalized through the Criminal Tribes Act (CTA) of 1871, enacted in the same year as the commencement of systematic population censuses in India.
  • The CTA of 1871 aimed at the registration, monitoring, and regulation of communities labelled as criminal tribes and eunuchs. It defined such groups as tribes, gangs, or classes of people supposedly predisposed to committing non-bailable offences.
  • While presenting the Act, the then Member for Law and Order, T.V. Stephens, argued that India’s caste-based social structure justified this approach. He claimed that “professional criminals” were entire tribes whose ancestors had been offenders for generations, whose social customs compelled them to commit crimes, and whose descendants would inevitably violate the law.
  • The Government of India repealed the CTA in 1952, after the law had undergone multiple amendments. With its repeal, the communities earlier classified as criminal were officially “denotified,” and subsequently came to be known as Denotified Tribes (DNTs).
  • However, the same year also witnessed the enactment of habitual offender laws across various States. Although these laws removed the idea of inherited criminality, they introduced the category of “habitual offenders.”
  • In practice, this resulted in the continued surveillance and marginalisation of the same communities—no longer labelled as criminals by birth, but still subjected to systemic targeting under a different legal framework
 
3. History of their Enumeration
 
 
  • Although both the Criminal Tribes Act (CTA) and the first synchronous Census operations in India commenced in 1871, Census documents began explicitly referring to “criminal tribes” only from 1911 onward.
  • The provincial Census reports of 1911 and 1931 shed light on how these communities were officially recorded and categorized under that label. The 1931 Census marked the final instance when such groups were distinctly enumerated.
  • After the repeal of the CTA and the subsequent denotification of these communities, later Censuses discontinued their separate identification. This decision was consistent with the post-Independence policy that caste enumeration—except for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes—was unnecessary.
  • Efforts to address the condition of these communities, however, had already begun prior to their formal denotification. In 1949, the government established the Ayyangar Commission to examine related issues.
  • By 1952, with the recognition of “backward classes” as a category distinct from SCs and STs, many denotified groups were included in such lists under the term “Vimukt Jatis.”
  • Over the decades following Independence, most of these communities were gradually incorporated into the categories of SCs, STs, or Other Backward Classes.
  • In 1998, noted writer Mahasweta Devi and scholar G. N. Devy initiated the Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes Rights Action Group (DNT-RAG).
  • Their advocacy contributed to the creation of a technical advisory group and eventually led to the formation of the first National Commission for Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes under the chairmanship of B. S. Renke.
  • This Commission submitted its recommendations for the welfare of DNTs in 2008. Subsequently, another national commission was constituted under Bhiku Ramji Idate, which presented its report in 2017.
  • Each of these commissions underscored the fundamental challenge of properly identifying and classifying DNT communities, emphasizing that comprehensive and accurate categorization would require a dedicated Census enumeration.
  • According to the Idate Commission’s most recent assessment, nearly 1,200 communities were identified as belonging to the DNT category, most of which had already been placed within the existing SC, ST, or OBC lists.
  • In addition, the Commission identified approximately 268 denotified communities that remained unclassified. A study commissioned by NITI Aayog and conducted by the Anthropological Survey of India recommended appropriate classification for these 268 groups. However, the findings of this study have not been implemented and currently remain pending consideration
 
4. What is their Status now?
 
 
  • In several States, Denotified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNTs) have been included within backward class categories, as well as in the SC and ST lists. In some instances, they have benefited from reservation policies, particularly where sub-classification has ensured targeted distribution of benefits.
  • Additionally, certain State governments have introduced welfare measures designed specifically for these communities.
  • Despite these initiatives, DNT representatives contend that the social stigma attached to them has persisted even after their denotification, largely due to the continued enforcement of laws such as the Habitual Offenders Act.
  • They argue that such legal frameworks have perpetuated discrimination, leaving most DNT communities socially, economically, educationally, and politically marginalized.
  • Only a limited number of relatively settled groups have managed to achieve some degree of advancement by leveraging available opportunities.
  • Although the Idate Commission had proposed the establishment of a permanent national body dedicated to DNTs, the first government led by Narendra Modi concluded that a Welfare Board would be adequate, given that most DNT communities had already been accommodated within the SC, ST, or OBC categories.
  • Subsequently, the Ministry of Social Justice introduced the SEED (Scheme for Economic Empowerment of DNTs) programme to support livelihood generation, education, housing, and healthcare initiatives for these groups.
  • However, only a small portion of the allocated ₹200 crore budget has reportedly been utilized over the past five years. A major implementation challenge has been the requirement that beneficiaries obtain a DNT certificate for eligibility.
  • This certification is meant to exist alongside SC, ST, or OBC status where applicable. Community leaders across various States have consistently raised concerns that DNT certificates are not being issued in most regions, despite repeated communications from the Central government.
  • Official data indicates that only a limited number of districts across a handful of States currently provide such certification.
  • This administrative bottleneck has intensified demands among DNT groups for a distinct constitutional category, equivalent to SC, ST, and OBC classifications. Advocates argue that such recognition would standardize the issuance of DNT certificates nationwide.
  • There have also been calls for internal sub-categorisation within the DNT grouping to address disparities in levels of backwardness among different communities.
  • Furthermore, leaders and organizations such as the All India Denotified Nomadic Tribes Development Council have framed their campaign for separate classification as a quest for formal acknowledgment of the historical discrimination and stigma imposed upon them.
  • They maintain that colonial authorities branded them as “criminal” primarily because of their resistance to foreign rule.
  • Some community representatives also emphasize that their ancestors had served as defenders against external invasions, including during periods preceding colonial rule, and had histories of opposing certain Islamic regimes
 
5. Way Forward
 
 

Beyond verbal commitments to community representatives that they would be included in official counts, there has been no clarity regarding the methodology or mechanism for carrying out such enumeration.

Organizations representing Denotified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNTs) have explicitly called for the inclusion of a dedicated column or question in Census questionnaires to enable their proper identification. This position has also been supported by scholars such as G. N. Devy, who have consistently advocated for a separate Census exercise specifically focused on DNT communities.

Nevertheless, official statements from the Union Government suggest that there is currently no plan to introduce a separate classification category for DNTs in the Census

 

For Prelims: Scheduled Tribes, Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups, Kudmis, Mundas, Oraons, Santhals, Article 366 (25), Article 342, Backward Classes Commission 1955, the Advisory Committee (Kalelkar), on Revision of SC/ST lists (Lokur Committee), 1965 and the Joint Committee of Parliament on the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Bill 1967 (Chanda Committee), 1969, Goa, Daman & Diu Reorganization Act 1987
 
For Mains: 
1. Who are Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups? Discuss the criterion for the specification of a community as Scheduled tribes. (250 Words)

 

Previous Year Questions

1. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:  (UPSC 2019)
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3             B.  2, 3 and 4               C. 1, 2 and 4               D. 1, 3 and 4

Answer: C

2. With reference to the history of India, "Ulgulan" or the Great Tumult is the description of which of the following events? (UPSC 2020)

A. The Revolt of 1857
B. The Mappila Rebellion of 1921
C. The Indigo Revolt of 1859 - 60
D. Birsa Munda's Revolt of 1899 - 1900

Answer: D

3. When did the Tana’ Bhagat Movement start?  (Jharkhand Civil Service 2015) 
A. April 1912             B. April 1913     C.  April 1914          D.  April 1915
 
Answer: C
 
4. Consider the following statements about the Santhal Hool of 1855 - 56: (UPSC CAPF)
1. The Santhals were in a desperate situation as tribal lands were leased out
2. The Santhal rebels were treated very leniently by British officials
3. Santhal inhabited areas were eventually constituted separate administrative units called Santhal parganas
4. The Santhal rebellion was the only major rebellion in mid-19th century India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only         B. 2 and 3    C. 1, 3 and 4     D. 1 and 3 only
 
Answer: D
 
 
5. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government? (UPSC 2018)
1. The territories called 'Santhal Paraganas' were created.
2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only          B.  2 only             C. Both 1 and 2         D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer: C
 
6. The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was formed by insertion of Article ______ in the Constitution of India. (SSC CGL 2020) 
A. 328B         B.  338A            C. 338B            D. 328A
 
Answer: B
 
 
7. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation? (UPSC  2018)
 
A. Committee on Government Assurances
B. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
C. Rules Committee
D. Business Advisory Committee
 
Answer: B
 
8. Justice Madan B Lokur committee was set up to take steps to (Haryana Civil Services 2021)
A. Look into violation of environment rules.
B. Prevent stubble burning
C. Draft new water policy
D. Regulate digital lending
 
Answer: B
 
9. Match the pairs -  (Committees on Media) (MPSC 2019)
(A) (Name)                                    (B) (Year)
(a) Chanda Committee                   (i) 1982
(b) Kuldip Nayar Committee        (ii) August, 1977
(c) Verghese Committee               (iii) March, 1977
(d) P.C. Joshi Committee              (iv) 1964
 
1. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c – (iii), (d) – (iv)
2. (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c – (ii), (d) – (iv)
3. (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c – (ii), (d) – (i)
4. (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c – (iii), (d) – (i)
 
Answer: 3
 
10. Consider the formation of the following States and arrange these in chronological order :  (UPPSC Combined State Exam 2021)
1. Goa
2. Telangana
3. Jharkhand
4. Haryana
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4       B. 4, 1, 3, 2       C. 3, 2, 4, 1          D. 4, 3, 1, 2
 
Answer: 2

Source: The Hindu

 

 

MATERNITY BENEFIT TO ADOPTIVE MOTHERS

 
 
1. Context
 
For decades, India has celebrated the academic brilliance of its women. They consistently top school boards, civil services, medical entrances, and university examinations. And yet, when we look at corporate boardrooms or senior decision-making spaces, their presence thins out sharply. Motherhood, for many women, is the point at which this quiet exit begins
 
2. About this 'Provision'
  • The original 1961 legislation did not have specific provisions for mothers who adopt, and these were inserted with the 2017 amendment to the Maternity Benefit Act
  • According to Section 5(4) of the amended Act, “A woman who legally adopts a child below the age of three months or a commissioning mother shall be entitled to maternity benefit for a period of twelve weeks from the date the child is handed over to the adopting mother or the commissioning mother, as the case may be.”
  • The term “commissioning mother” refers to a surrogate mother and has been defined as “a biological mother who uses her egg to create an embryo implanted in any other woman.”
  • A woman adopting a child older than three months gets no benefits
  • The PIL challenges this provision on grounds of being “discriminatory” and “arbitrary” towards adoptive mothers
  • “Section 5(4) apart from being discriminatory and arbitrary towards the adoptive mothers, also arbitrarily discriminates against orphaned, abandoned or surrendered children above the age of three months, which is completely incompatible to the object of the Maternity Benefit Act as well as the Juvenile Justice Act,” the plea contends
  • Dubbing the purported benefit of 12 weeks’ maternity leave as “mere lip service”, the petition also states that when compared to the 26 weeks’ benefit for biological mothers, the provision fails to stand the basic scrutiny of Part III of the Constitution, which is linked to the concept of non-arbitrariness
3. Maternity benefit Act 1961
  • The Maternity Benefit Act was originally passed by Parliament on December 12, 1961, to regulate the employment of women in “certain establishments” for the period before and after childbirth and “to provide for maternity benefit and certain other benefits.”
  • Originally it applied to every establishment “being a factory, mine or plantation” and later in 1973, it was extended to “any such establishment belonging to Government” and “every establishment where persons are employed for the exhibition of equestrian, acrobatic and other performances.”
  • It repealed the Mines Maternity Benefit Act, 1941 and Maternity Benefit Act, 1929
  • Section 4 of the 1961 Act prohibited the employment of or work by women during a certain period and under sub-section (1) stated, “No employer shall knowingly employ a woman in any establishment during the six weeks immediately following the day of her delivery or her miscarriage.”
  • The right to paid maternity leaves was also given under Section 5 of the 1961 Act, although the period of such leave could not exceed twelve weeks, “that is to say, six weeks up to and including the day of her delivery and six weeks immediately following that day.”
  • Additionally, no woman could be allowed to avail maternity benefits if she had not worked in the establishment for at least “one hundred and sixty days in the twelve months immediately preceding the date of her expected delivery.”
  • These benefits would be allowed without dismissing the female worker from service or reduction of wages
  • Violating provisions of the Act could result in three months’ punishment, with or without a fine
  • On March 9, 2017, the Maternity Benefits (Amendment) Act 2017, was passed by Parliament, which brought about key changes to the original Act
4. Amendments in 2017
  • The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 amended Section 5 of the erstwhile Act to allow 26 weeks of paid leave after childbirth, although only to biological mothers
  • The amendment also inserted Section 5(4) which said that adoptive or surrogate mothers legally adopting a child below three months will be entitled to a maternity benefit period of 12 weeks from the date the child is handed over to the mother
  • Further, it inserted provisions to allow women to work from home under Section 5(5) which said, “…Where the nature of work assigned to a woman is of such nature that she may work from home, the employer may allow her to do so after availing of the maternity benefit for such period and on such conditions as the employer and the woman may mutually agree.”
  • Under the amended Act, Section 11 was also inserted to say that, “Every establishment having fifty or more employees shall have the facility of creche within such distance as may be prescribed, either separately or along with common facilities.” 
  •  It is also mandated that the employer allows four visits a day to the creche by the woman as well as rest intervals for her
  • However, a much-received criticism of this Act is that it does not apply to the unorganised sector
5. Applicability to Sectors
  • Women in the unorganised sector cannot avail the benefits of the Maternity Benefit(Amendment) Act 2017
  • In 2020, a report by TeamLease – a human resource company, revealed that even three years after the amendment Act was passed, it was yet to “deliver a positive impact on job opportunities for women.”
  • Besides this, the report said that women’s participation dropped in more than five out of 10 sectors since the implementation of the Act
  • The report suggests that 7 out of the 10 sectors reviewed were expected to show positive momentum in women workforce participation in the medium term (1-4 years) owing to the Act
  • However, 5 of the 10 sectors are lagging, and instead indicating a drop in the share of women in their workforce, as per the report
  • After maternity, women face several challenges. Most of the women (30 per cent) cited wage cuts followed by resistance or lack of support from family (25 per cent) and access to childcare (20 per cent), as per the report.
 
 
Source: indianexpress
 
 

LABOUR FORCE PARTICIPATION RATE (LFPR)

1. Context

Overall LFPR for persons aged 15 years and above reported as 55.9% in January, 2026 compared to 56.1% in December, 2025

2. What is Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR)?

  • The labor force participation rate (LFPR) is a measure that refers to the percentage of the working-age population (typically defined as individuals aged 15 years and above) who are either employed or actively seeking employment.
  • It is a commonly used indicator to understand the level of engagement of a country's population in the labor market.
  • To calculate the LFPR, the number of individuals in the labor force (which includes both employed and unemployed individuals actively seeking work) is divided by the total working-age population and multiplied by 100 to express it as a percentage.
  • The labor force includes people who are currently employed, as well as those who are unemployed but actively looking for work.
  • It does not include individuals who are not in the labor force, such as students, retirees, homemakers, or individuals who are not actively seeking employment.
  • The LFPR provides insights into the proportion of the population that is economically active, which is important for assessing the level of labor market engagement, estimating potential labor supply, and evaluating changes in workforce dynamics over time.

3. LFPR and Unemployment Rate in India

  • Unemployment Rate: The percentage of people who are unemployed and actively seeking work.
  • LFPR (Labour Force Participation Rate): The percentage of the working-age population that is either employed or actively seeking employment.
  • Importance of Unemployment Rate: Commonly used to assess the stress in the job market.
  • India's Unique Situation:
  • Low LFPR: India's LFPR has been consistently lower than the global average.
  • Falling LFPR: India's LFPR has been declining over time.

4. Significance of LFPR

  • Developing Economy Concern: A low and falling LFPR is unfavorable for a developing economy like India.
  • Lack of Job Opportunities: Workers may opt out of the labor force due to prolonged unemployment and discouragement.
  • The unemployment rate alone is insufficient to gauge India's labor market situation.
  •  LFPR provides a more comprehensive understanding of labor market engagement and workforce dynamics.

5. Falling LFPR

  • India's LFPR has been continuously decreasing since 2016-17.
  • Reached its lowest level in 2022-23.
  • Despite fast economic growth (e.g., GDP growth of 7.2% in 2022-23), LFPR has been declining.

6. Low Female LFPR

  • Female LFPR in India has dropped to just 8.8% in FY23.
  • More than 90% of working-age women in India do not actively look for jobs.
  • Significantly lower LFPR among women indicates gender-related challenges in accessing and participating in the labor market.

7. Key Observations

  • The falling LFPR contradicts the country's economic growth rate.
  • Female LFPR is particularly concerning, with a vast majority of women not seeking employment.
  • Low LFPR and low female LFPR signify potential issues with job availability, gender inequality, and labor market participation in India.

8. Comparison of Labor Force Participation Rates in India and Other Countries

  • CMIE vs. ILO: CMIE's measure of assessing the Labor Force Participation Rate (LFPR) is more stringent than that of the International Labour Organization (ILO).
  • India's LFPR: CMIE estimated India's LFPR at 40% for 2022, while the ILO pegged it at 49%. Both measures indicate a low LFPR compared to other countries.
  • Higher LFPR in other countries: According to the ILO model, several Latin American and Asian economies have significantly higher LFPRs than India.
  • Indonesia had an LFPR of around 67% in 2022, while South Korea and Brazil had rates as high as 63-64%. Argentina, Bangladesh, and the Philippines recorded LFPRs in the range of 58-60%. Sri Lanka had over 51% of its population in the labor force.
  • In contrast, India had less than half of its working-age population either employed or actively seeking employment, according to the data.
For Prelims: Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE), Labour force participation rate (LFPR), Gross Domestic Product (GDP), International Labour Organisation (ILO), and Unemployment rate.
For Mains: 1. What is Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) and discuss the factors that have contributed to the Low LFPR in India? (250 Words)

Previous year Question

1. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). (UPPSC 2019)
Assertion (A): The labour force participation rate is falling sharply in recent years for females in India.
Reason (R): The decline in labour force participation rate is due to improved family income and an increase in education.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer: C
 
2. Which of the following statements about the employment situation in India according to the periodic Labour Force Survey 2017-18 is/are correct? (UPSC CAPF 2020)
1. Construction sector gave employment to nearly one-tenth of the urban male workforce in India
2. Nearly one-fourth of urban female workers in India were working in the manufacturing sector
3. One-fourth of rural female workers in India were engaged in the agriculture sector
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
 Source: The Indian Express
 
 

COMMISSION FOR AIR QUALITY MANAGEMENT (CAQM)

 
 
1. Context
 

With a view to mitigate air pollution in the region, the Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR and Adjoining Areas (CAQM) has issued a Statutory Direction mandating coordinated and time-bound implementation of State Action Plans for prevention and elimination of wheat stubble burning during the 2026 harvesting season

2. Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)
 
  • The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in the National Capital Region (NCR) and nearby areas was initially established through an ordinance in 2020, which was subsequently replaced by an Act of Parliament in 2021.
  • Its primary mandate is to enhance coordination, conduct research, identify issues, and address challenges related to air quality and associated concerns.
  • At its inception, the CAQM comprised 15 members, including current and former officials from the Ministry of Environment and other Union government departments, along with representatives from various State governments, NGOs, and other organizations. Currently, the commission, led by Rajesh Verma, has expanded to 27 members.
  • The CAQM succeeded the Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA), which was created by the Supreme Court in 1998. Unlike the CAQM, the EPCA lacked statutory authority, which experts criticized as limiting its ability to enforce compliance among defiant agencies.
  • Nevertheless, several initiatives now overseen by the CAQM, such as the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP)—a framework of temporary emergency measures to combat air pollution—were originally implemented under the EPCA's guidance
 
 
Powers of CAQM
 
The Commission for Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021, empowers the CAQM to undertake any necessary measures, issue directives, and address grievances aimed at safeguarding and enhancing air quality in the NCR and surrounding regions. According to Section 14 of the Act, the commission is authorized to take strict action against officials who fail to comply with its directives
 
 
3. Supreme Court on CAQM
 
  • The Supreme Court recently criticized the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) for delays in enforcing stricter anti-pollution measures as Delhi's air quality worsened.
  • Despite the Air Quality Index (AQI) reaching hazardous levels, the CAQM postponed the implementation of Stage 4 measures under the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP), prompting the Court to question the lack of urgency in addressing the crisis.
  • The justices emphasized that such measures should be triggered as soon as AQI levels indicate severe pollution to prevent further deterioration.
  • The Court also highlighted systemic failures, including inadequate action against stubble burning in Punjab and Haryana, and criticized the CAQM for focusing on meetings without concrete enforcement of rules.
  • It warned against scaling down measures prematurely and stressed the need for stricter penalties and immediate action to curb pollution sources effectively
 
4. Challenges
 
  • Although the CAQM formulates strategies and coordinates with various agencies, the actual implementation of these measures rests with the respective agencies.
  • A CAQM official noted that the commission has significantly improved coordination and planning efforts.
  • For instance, while paddy stubble burning—a major contributor to severe air pollution—occurs primarily in October and November, discussions with State officials begin as early as February and continue throughout the season.
  • In 2022, the CAQM collaborated with Punjab and Haryana to develop action plans for managing stubble burning, which are reviewed and updated annually.
5. Way Forward
 
Discussing the challenges faced, the official acknowledged that while the commission has focused heavily on tackling stubble burning in the past, there is now a shift towards addressing multiple pollution sources. Moving forward, greater emphasis will be placed on controlling dust and vehicular emissions alongside agricultural pollution
 
For Prelims: Graded Response Action Plan, National Capital Region (NCR),Environmental pollution(prevention control)Authority (EPCA).
For Mains:
1. What is GRAP? What is the Delhi-NCR action plan as air pollution increases? (250 words). 
 
 
 
Source: The Hindu

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