UNIQUE IDENTIFICATION AUTHORITY OF INDIA (UIDAI)
- The technology uses a combination of both finger minutiae and finger image to check the liveness of the fingerprint captured
- The measure was implemented after instances of people creating fake fingerprints using silicone to syphon off money from unsuspecting individuals’ bank accounts were reported
- Aadhaar fingerprint technology works by using a scanner to capture the unique patterns of ridges and valleys on a person's finger.
- The scanner converts the fingerprint image into a digital algorithm, which is then stored in a database.
- When a person's fingerprint is scanned again, the algorithm is used to compare it to the stored fingerprint. If the two algorithms match, the person is authenticated.
- The Aadhaar fingerprint technology is very accurate, with a false acceptance rate of less than 0.0001%.
- This means that there is a very small chance that someone else's fingerprint will be mistakenly matched to yours
- According to the Home Ministry, in the financial year 2020-21, 2.62 lakhs financial crimes, such as money laundering, bribery, corruption and different kinds of frauds, were reported
- The number jumped to 6.94 lakhs in 2022, a report, released by the Standing Committee on Finance
- Citing data it received from the supervised entities of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the committee noted that payment-related frauds are on the rise in India
- In FY21, the volume of such frauds was a little over 700,000, which by FY23, increased to close to 20 million.
- The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) is a statutory authority established in January 2009 by the Government of India under the provisions of the Aadhaar Act, 2016. UIDAI is responsible for issuing unique identification numbers, known as Aadhaar numbers, to residents of India
- The primary objective of UIDAI is to provide a unique and verifiable identity to every Indian resident, regardless of age, gender, or socioeconomic status
- The UIDAI is responsible for issuing Aadhaar, a 12-digit unique identification number to all residents of India.
Aadhaar is a proof of identity and address, and can be used for a variety of purposes, such as:
- Accessing government services
- Opening bank accounts
- Making payments
- Traveling
- Enrolling in school
|
For Prelims: UIDAI, Aadhar, Cybercrime
For Mains: 1.Discuss the potential cybersecurity risks and challenges associated with the Aadhaar biometric authentication system in India. What measures should be taken to mitigate these risks effectively?
2.Analyze the role of Aadhaar in combating cybercrimes in India. How can Aadhaar's unique identification system be leveraged to enhance cybersecurity and protect individuals from online threats?
|
|
Previous year Questions
1. Consider the following Statements (UPSC CSE 2018)
1. Aadhar card can be used as proof of citizenship or domicile
2.Once issued, the Aadhar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the issuing Authority
Which of the statements given above is/ or Correct?
A. 1 Only
B. 2 Only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer- D
2.Consider the following statements
1. Aadhar card data cannot be stored more than three months
2.State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing Aadhar data
3.Aadhar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products
4. Aadhar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated fund of India
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct
A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 Only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer - B
|
ELECTORAL BONDS
- The government justified the scheme by emphasizing its ability to facilitate the transfer of funds to political parties through lawful banking channels, allowing individuals to support their chosen parties while discouraging unregulated cash contributions.
- The confidentiality granted to donors was presented as advantageous, fostering contributions of clean money to political parties.
- The utilization of established banking channels was asserted to diminish the influence of black money in election funding, and donor anonymity was highlighted to alleviate concerns about potential retaliation or pressure from parties to which donors had not contributed.
- In a notable argument, the government contended that citizens did not possess a general right to be informed about the financial backing of political parties.
- It asserted that the right to information was not of a broad nature but rather an evolution by courts specifically aimed at enabling voters to make informed choices in favor of the ethically sound candidate
- In prior rulings, the highest court has affirmed that voters possess the right to information crucial for the effective exercise of their voting freedom.
- Consequently, the court maintained that details regarding funding to a political party are vital for a voter to express their right to vote effectively.
- The Electoral Bond Scheme, insofar as it compromises this right by anonymizing contributions through bonds, infringes upon Article 19(1)(a), which safeguards the freedom of expression.
- Regarding the objective of curbing black money, the court applied a proportionality test to assess whether the limitation on voters' right to information through donor anonymity was achieved through the least restrictive means.
- It suggested that alternatives, such as electronic transfer for small contributions and donations to an Electoral Trust for larger amounts, were available.
- Since the government failed to demonstrate that the scheme represents the least restrictive means to balance contributors' "informational privacy" and the right to information on political contributions, the amendments to the IT Act and RPA were deemed unconstitutional.
- Concerning changes to the Companies Act, the court determined that the removal of the disclosure requirement on contribution details violated the voter's right to information. Additionally, the scheme permitted both profit-making and loss-making companies to make political contributions, whereas previously, companies could only donate a percentage of their net profit.
- Given the higher risk of quid pro quo in the case of loss-making companies, the amendment was deemed arbitrarily manifest
|
For Prelims: Electoral Bonds, SBI, Election Commission of India, Right to Know, Finance Act 2017, Prime Minister's Relief Fund
For Mains:
1. Examine the challenges and controversies surrounding the Electoral Bonds Scheme, particularly regarding donor anonymity and transparency in political funding. How have these issues raised concerns about the integrity of the political process in India? (250 Words)
|
|
Previous Year Questions
Prelims
1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017) 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 3 only Answer: D 2. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? (UPSC CSE 2019) Answer: B 3. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021) 1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the- existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 3
4. Consider the following statements about Electoral Bond Scheme 2018: (RPSC RAS Prelims 2018)
(A) The aim of this scheme is to bring about transparency in the funding process of political parties.
(B) Only the political parties recognized by the Election Commission which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of People or the Legislative Assembly of the State shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.
(C) Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue.
(D) The Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible political party in its account shall be credited on the same day.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. Only (A) and (B)
2. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
3. Only (B), (C) and (D)
4. Only (A), (C) and (D)
Answer: 2
5. With reference to the PM CARES Fund, consider the following statements: (AFCAT 27 2022)
I. The amount collected by it directly goes to the Consolidated Fund of India.
II. It can avail donations from the foreign contribution and donations to fund can also avail 100% tax exemption.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II
Answer: B
6. The Prime Minister's National Relief Fund is operated by which one of the following bodies? (CDS 2019)
A. The Prime Minister's Office (PMO)
B. The National Disaster Management Authority
C. The Ministry of Finance
D. The National Development Council (NDC)
Answer: A
Mains 1. In the light of recent controversy regarding the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVM), what are the challenges before the Election Commission of India to ensure the trustworthiness of elections in India? (UPSC 2018) 2. Discuss the role of the Election Commission of India in the light of the evolution of the Model Code of Conduct. ( UPSC 2022) |
GROSS DOMESTIC PRODUCT (GDP)
There are three primary ways to calculate GDP:
-
Production Approach (GDP by Production): This approach calculates GDP by adding up the value-added at each stage of production. It involves summing up the value of all final goods and services produced in an economy.
-
Income Approach (GDP by Income): This approach calculates GDP by summing up all the incomes earned in an economy, including wages, rents, interests, and profits. The idea is that all the income generated in an economy must ultimately be spent on purchasing goods and services.
-
Expenditure Approach (GDP by Expenditure): This approach calculates GDP by summing up all the expenditures made on final goods and services. It includes consumption by households, investments by businesses, government spending, and net exports (exports minus imports).
3. Measuring GDP
GDP can be measured in three different ways:
-
Nominal GDP: This is the raw GDP figure without adjusting for inflation. It reflects the total value of goods and services produced at current prices.
-
Real GDP: Real GDP adjusts the nominal GDP for inflation, allowing for a more accurate comparison of economic performance over time. It represents the value of goods and services produced using constant prices from a specific base year.
-
GDP per capita: This is the GDP divided by the population of a country. It provides a per-person measure of economic output and can be useful for comparing the relative economic well-being of different countries.
The GDP is a useful measure of economic health, but it has some limitations. For example, it does not take into account the distribution of income in an economy. It also does not take into account the quality of goods and services produced.
Despite its limitations, the GDP is a widely used measure of economic health. It is used by economists, policymakers, and businesses to track the performance of an economy and to make decisions about economic policy
4. Gross Value Added (GVA)
Gross Value Added (GVA) is a closely related concept to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and is used to measure the economic value generated by various economic activities within a country. GVA represents the value of goods and services produced in an economy minus the value of inputs (such as raw materials and intermediate goods) used in production. It's a way to measure the contribution of each individual sector or industry to the overall economy.
GVA can be calculated using the production approach, similar to one of the methods used to calculate GDP. The formula for calculating GVA is as follows:
GVA = Output Value - Intermediate Consumption
Where:
- Output Value: The total value of goods and services produced by an industry or sector.
- Intermediate Consumption: The value of inputs used in the production process, including raw materials, energy, and other intermediate goods.
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Gross National Product (GNP) are both important economic indicators used to measure the size and health of an economy, but they focus on slightly different aspects of economic activity and include different factors. Here are the key differences between GDP and GNP:
-
Definition and Scope:
- GDP: GDP measures the total value of all goods and services produced within a country's borders, regardless of whether the production is done by domestic or foreign entities. It only considers economic activities that take place within the country.
- GNP: GNP measures the total value of all goods and services produced by a country's residents, whether they are located within the country's borders or abroad. It takes into account the production of residents, both domestically and internationally.
-
Foreign Income and Payments:
- GDP: GDP does not consider the income earned by residents of a country from their economic activities abroad, nor does it account for payments made to foreigners working within the country.
- GNP: GNP includes the income earned by a country's residents from their investments and activities abroad, minus the income earned by foreign residents from their investments within the country.
-
Net Factor Income from Abroad:
- GDP: GDP does not account for net factor income from abroad, which is the difference between income earned by domestic residents abroad and income earned by foreign residents domestically.
- GNP: GNP includes net factor income from abroad as part of its calculation.
-
Foreign Direct Investment:
- GDP: GDP does not directly consider foreign direct investment (FDI) flowing into or out of a country.
- GNP: GNP considers the impact of FDI on the income of a country's residents, both from investments made within the country and from investments made by residents abroad.
-
Measurement Approach:
- GDP: GDP can be calculated using three different approaches: production, income, and expenditure approaches.
- GNP: GNP is primarily calculated using the income approach, as it focuses on the income earned by residents from their economic activities.
|
For Prelims: GDP, GVA, FDI, GNP
For Mains: 1.Discuss the recent trends and challenges in India's GDP growth
2.Examine the role of the service sector in India's GDP growth
3.Compare and contrast the growth trajectories of India's GDP and GNP
|
|
Previous Year Questions
1.With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE, 2015)
1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (b)
2.A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following? (UPSC CSE, 2015) 1. Slowing economic growth rate 2. Less equitable distribution of national income Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer (a)
Previous year UPSC Mains Question Covering similar theme: Define potential GDP and explain its determinants. What are the factors that have been inhibiting India from realizing its potential GDP? (UPSC CSE GS3, 2020) Explain the difference between computing methodology of India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) before the year 2015 and after the year 2015. (UPSC CSE GS3, 2021) |
ISRO's LVM 3
1. Context
2. About LVM 3
- LVM3 is a dedicated commercial satellite mission of New Space India Limited (NSIL), a central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) under the Department of Space, Government of India.
- The 43.5 meter LVM3 weighing around 644 tonnes carried 36 satellites weighing 5,796 kg or about 5.7 tonnes.
- With this launch, LVM3 has made its entry into the global commercial launch service market.
- The LVM3 was conceived primarily for launching geostationary satellites with a payload capacity of 4T, which can be used for launching 6T payloads for LEO.
- The mission is very critical to meet the customer's expectations to launch 36 satellites in 9 phases with precision. The mission was designed in such a way that the C25 stage was to handle this operation using in-house built inertial navigation systems.
- It was the sixth launch of India’s heaviest rocket LVM-3 – which includes the launch of Chandrayaan-2 in 2019 – and the second one where it demonstrated the capability of launching multiple satellites in low earth orbit (LEO).
Image Source: The Indian Express3. About One Web
- OneWeb is a joint venture between India's Bharati Enterprises and the U.K. government.
- The eighteenth launch of OneWeb satellites brought the constellation’s total number of satellites to 618.
- The company intends to use 588 active satellites in its first-generation constellation to provide global connectivity at high speed and low latency.
4. How did ISRO’s OneWeb launch happen?
- OneWeb was initially supposed to launch its satellites through the Russian Space agency.
- It cancelled the plan after the agency halted the launch amid the Russia-Ukraine war seeking an assurance from the UK government-backed company that the satellites wouldn't be used against them and that the British government would sell its stake.
- India stepped up when we needed them the most. We had a big setback with the Russia Ukraine war-six launches that were contracted and fully paid for was taken out.
- Now, not only OneWeb is struggling to get the money back, but it has also lost 36 satellites, three very valuable, and importantly lost nearly a year.
- Europe's Arianespace was not viable as it had retired its workhorse Ariane5 rocket and there were significant delays with Ariane6.
- SpaceX, despite developing a similar satellite-based network named Starlink, launched some of the OneWeb satellites. And India, through two LVM3 launches, has put in orbit 72 OneWeb satellites.
5. India's plan to increase the Commercial launches
- The launches not only established LVM3 as a commercial vehicle propelling ISRO's entry into the commercial heavier launch market, But it also earned the agency upwards of Rs. 1,000 core.
- The service provided to OneWeb, for which the space agency had to move around a few of its missions, ended up earning it one of the highest revenues.
- And over the years there has been an increase in funds that the space agency has generated.
- The government plans to increase India's 2% share in the commercial market to 10% by 2030 through commercial launches by ISRO and launches offered by private companies like Skyroot and Agnikul, which are in the process of developing their own launch vehicles.
- Keeping the commercial sector in mins. ISRO has also developed small satellite launch vehicles (SSLV), which are meant to provide on-demand launch services commercially.
- It has a low turn around time of days and costs much more than the current workhorse Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
- Two development flights of the SSLV have been completed, One successful, and one partially successful and it has been inducted into the ISRO fleet.
- Till date, ISRO has launched 384 foreign satellites from the least 36 countries, with at least 10 dedicated commercial missions and several other Indian missions where they were carried as co-passenger satellites.
- The highest number of these commercial launches have been by companies from the United States.
6. Report of the parliamentary standing committee on the budget of the space agency
- A report from the parliamentary standing committee on the budget of the space agency said that there has been an increase in the revenue generated by ISRO’s commercial arm New Space India Limited, created in 2019.
- As per the report, revenue generated by NSIL has increased from Rs 1,731 crores in 2021-22 to a projected Rs 3,509 crores in 2023-24.
- This was an increase of 100% and the report added that The Committee appreciates the achievements of NSIL in such a short period of time and recommends the Department provide all support to NSIL to enable it to act as an agency of international character and quality.
- But it is not just the commercial arm, the revenue generated by the Department has also increased.
- The committee noted that the revenue generated by the Department of Space increased from Rs 929 crore in 2020-21 to Rs 2,780 in 2022-23.
- This is an increase of nearly 200% and with the budget allocation for 2023-24 being the least in the last three years.
For Prelims
| For Prelims: LVM 3, PSLV, GSLV, New Space India Limited (NSIL), ISRO, Low earth orbit (LEO), Ariane6, OneWeb, and Small Satellite Launch Vehicles (SSLV). |
Previous Year Question
|
1. With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2018)
1. PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four- staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 only
Answer: A
|
CONSUMER RIGHTS
-
National Consumer Rights Day in India marks the coming into force of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, which received the President’s assent on 24 December 1986. In recognition of this milestone, 24 December is observed every year as National Consumer Day.
-
This historic law was enacted to protect the rights of consumers, establish an effective system for resolving complaints related to goods and services, and guarantee fair practices and access to justice in the marketplace.
-
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 superseded the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. It identifies offences such as the supply of incorrect or deceptive information about the quality or quantity of goods or services and the publication of misleading advertisements. The Act also lays down measures to be taken when goods or services are found to be unsafe, hazardous, or harmful.
-
Section 2(28) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 explains a “misleading advertisement” as one relating to any product or service that:
-
(i) presents an untrue or incorrect description of the product or service; or
-
(ii) offers a false assurance or is likely to deceive consumers regarding the nature, composition, quantity, or quality of the product or service; or
-
(iii) communicates an implied claim which, if expressly stated by the manufacturer, seller, or service provider, would amount to an unfair trade practice; or
-
(iv) intentionally withholds material information.
-
-
Section 21 of the Act outlines the enforcement powers of the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) against deceptive advertising. If, after inquiry, the CCPA concludes that an advertisement is false or misleading and prejudicial to consumer interests or violates consumer rights, it may direct the trader, manufacturer, advertiser, publisher, or endorser to withdraw or suitably alter the advertisement within a specified timeframe.
-
The CCPA is empowered to levy a fine of up to ₹10 lakh and impose imprisonment up to two years on manufacturers or endorsers responsible for misleading advertisements. For repeated violations, the penalty may increase to ₹50 lakh, along with imprisonment up to five years. Additionally, the authority can prohibit endorsers from promoting any goods or services for up to one year, which may extend to three years for subsequent breaches of the Act.
-
In November last year, the Union government issued fresh norms to curb deceptive advertising by coaching institutes, barring exaggerated or false assurances such as “100% selection” or “guaranteed employment”. These rules were framed by the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) following a surge in complaints received through the National Consumer Helpline.
-
As per the new framework, coaching institutions are barred from making misleading statements about the nature and length of courses, qualifications of faculty, fee details and refund terms, success rates and rankings in examinations, as well as promises of assured jobs or salary hikes.
-
The guidelines clarify that the term “coaching” covers educational assistance, academic guidance, structured study programmes and tuition, while excluding counselling services, sports training, and creative or artistic pursuits.
-
Coaching centres are not permitted to use the names, images, or endorsements of successful candidates unless explicit written permission is obtained after their selection. They are also required to clearly display disclaimers and fully disclose key course-related information in their advertisements.
-
The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) functions as India’s highest consumer regulatory body. It was constituted under Section 10(1) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 and started functioning on 24 July 2020.
-
The Authority is responsible for overseeing violations of consumer rights, addressing unfair trade practices, and taking action against false or deceptive advertisements that harm the collective interests of consumers and the wider public.
-
Powers and Functions of the CCPA include:
(i) Safeguarding, advancing, and enforcing consumer rights as a collective and preventing their infringement under the Act;
(ii) Curbing unfair trade practices and ensuring that individuals or entities do not indulge in such practices;
(iii) Preventing the circulation of misleading or false advertisements for goods or services that violate the Act or related rules and regulations;
(iv) Ensuring accountability of all parties involved in publishing deceptive advertisements;
(v) Initiating complaints before Consumer Commissions and examining issues connected to the protection of consumer rights;
(vi) Advising on the adoption of international agreements and standards relating to consumer protection;
(vii) Encouraging consumer awareness and supporting research in the area of consumer rights;
(viii) Providing guidance to Central and State governments and their departments on policies and measures aimed at consumer welfare.
|
For Prelims: Current events of national and international importance
For Mains: General Studies II: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation
|
|
Previous Year Questions
1. Which of the following statements about the 'Consumer Protection Act 2019' is not true? (UGC NET 2020)
A.It has widened the definition of consumer
B.It provides for E-filing of complaints
C.It establishes Central Consumer Protection Authority
D.It ignores mediation as an alternate disputes resolution mechanism
Answer (D)
|
SUSTAINABLE HARNESSING AND ADVANCEMENT OF NUCLEAR ENERGY FOR TRANSFORMING INDIA (SHANTI) ACT
- The SHANTI framework seeks to open India’s nuclear energy sector to private participation and may also facilitate the inflow of foreign investment.
- At present, the construction and operation of nuclear power plants are restricted exclusively to public sector entities.
- India aims to scale up its nuclear capacity from the existing 8.8 GW—roughly 1.5% of total installed power capacity—to 100 GW by 2047, thereby raising nuclear energy’s share in electricity generation from around 3%.
- Public sector nuclear utilities estimate that they will contribute nearly 54 GW of this expansion, with the remaining capacity expected to come from private players
- Because of nuclear energy’s association with atomic weapons, the movement and use of nuclear fuel such as uranium are subjected to rigorous oversight to prevent its diversion for the production of weapons-grade plutonium.
- Past disasters—including the 1979 Three Mile Island accident, the 1986 Chernobyl catastrophe, and the Fukushima core meltdown triggered by the 2011 tsunami—have reinforced a global culture of caution, leading to stringent controls over every stage of nuclear plant functioning.
- Internationally, there is now broad agreement that in the event of a nuclear accident, the operator of the facility bears the primary responsibility for compensating affected individuals in proportion to the harm caused.
- Such compensation must be provided promptly, without waiting for investigations into causation or fault.
- Subsequently, however, the operator may seek reimbursement if it can demonstrate that the accident resulted not from managerial failure but from defective equipment supplied by another party
- Under the earlier Civil Nuclear Liability framework, operators were permitted to pursue recourse against equipment providers in three situations: first, where an explicit contractual provision existed; second, where the incident was attributable to defects in the supplier’s equipment; and third, where the damage was caused by a deliberate act intended to inflict nuclear harm.
- The SHANTI legislation removes the second ground for recourse. Even after the 2008 Indo-US civil nuclear agreement, which reopened India’s access to uranium supplies and advanced nuclear technology following restrictions imposed after the 1974 and 1998 nuclear tests, reactor manufacturers from the United States and France remained reluctant to enter the Indian market due to the potential exposure to massive liability claims.
- By eliminating this clause—and even removing explicit references to “suppliers”—the proposed framework effectively addresses these concerns
- Homi Bhabha, regarded as the architect of India’s nuclear energy programme, envisaged nuclear power as a cornerstone of the country’s energy security while also overcoming India’s limited uranium reserves through the eventual use of thorium.
- His three-stage plan begins with the construction of pressurised heavy water reactors that utilise natural uranium (U-238) to generate electricity and produce plutonium as a by-product.
- The second stage involves fast breeder reactors, which are designed to generate additional plutonium and uranium-233 while producing power. In the third and final stage, uranium-233 is combined with India’s abundant thorium resources to generate electricity, creating a largely self-reliant thorium-based nuclear system.
- India has yet to transition fully into the second stage, having only a prototype fast breeder reactor so far. This project, delayed by nearly two decades, was earlier scheduled to become operational in 2025 but has now been postponed further, with commissioning expected in September 2026.
- To meet its near-term nuclear energy targets, India is increasingly exploring Small Modular Reactors (SMRs).
- These are scaled-down versions of conventional reactors currently deployed in countries such as the United States and France, and they require enriched uranium-235—a resource that India does not possess in sufficient quantities. Like India’s first-stage reactors, SMRs generate various radioactive by-products, including plutonium and strontium.
- SMRs are expected to be manufactured in modular components across multiple locations and assembled at a central site, much like the global production processes used for aircraft or smartphones.
- However, due to their smaller size, they produce less electricity per unit compared to large reactors. They also do not offer a fundamentally superior solution to nuclear waste management, although some designs incorporate enhanced safety features that allow automatic shutdown during emergencies.
- While SMRs may contribute to electricity generation, they do little to advance India’s long-term objective of transitioning to thorium-based nuclear power
Under the previous legal framework, victims of a nuclear incident could seek compensation from the plant operator up to a ceiling of ₹1,500 crore. Any damage beyond this limit was to be covered by the Union government through an insurance mechanism, capped at ₹4,000 crore. The SHANTI legislation introduces a tiered liability structure instead. Operators of facilities with a capacity exceeding 3,600 MW would face a maximum liability of ₹3,000 crore. For plants in the 1,500–3,600 MW range, the liability limit is set at ₹1,500 crore; for capacities between 750 MW and 1,500 MW, it is ₹750 crore; for 150–750 MW plants, the cap is ₹300 crore; and facilities below 150 MW carry a liability limit of ₹100 crore. At present, all nuclear power plants in India have capacities of 3,000 MW or less.
Science Minister Jitendra Singh, who introduced the Bill in Parliament, explained that this differentiated structure was designed to avoid deterring private sector investment. However, during parliamentary discussions, concerns were raised that the actual costs of compensation in major nuclear accidents have historically run into several billions of dollars, far exceeding the proposed liability ceilings
|
Previous Year Questions 1. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this on text, what advantage, does thorium hold over uranium? (UPSC 2012)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Which among the following has the world’s largest reserves of Uranium? (UPSC 2009) (a) Australia Answers: 1-D, 2-A |
Source: The Hindu
BIOSECURITY
- Biosecurity encompasses the policies, measures, and systems put in place to prevent the deliberate misuse of biological agents, toxins, or related technologies.
- It includes actions ranging from securing laboratories that work with high-risk pathogens to identifying, managing, and controlling deliberately caused disease outbreaks.
- The scope of biosecurity goes beyond safeguarding human health and also covers the protection of agriculture and animal populations.
- Biosecurity is closely related to, but distinct from, biosafety, which focuses on minimizing the risk of accidental release or exposure to harmful biological agents. Strong biosafety practices form a critical foundation for effective biosecurity.
- In response to historical efforts to develop biological weapons, the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) was adopted in 1975.
- It marked the first global treaty to ban not only the use but also the production of biological weapons, while obligating member states to eliminate any existing reserves.
- India’s physical geography and ecological diversity expose it to biological risks originating beyond its borders. Given the country’s heavy reliance on agriculture and its large population base, the potential impact of such threats is particularly severe.
- Although India has not experienced any confirmed biosecurity attack, there have been reported cases involving the suspected preparation of ricin, a toxin extracted from castor beans, for possible terrorist use.
- This episode highlights the growing interest of non-state actors in exploiting biological agents and underscores the need for strong biosecurity mechanisms.
- Moreover, rapid advancements in biotechnology have expanded human capacity to manipulate biological systems, thereby increasing the risk of misuse by malicious actors, including in the development of biological weapons
- In India, institutional responsibilities for biosecurity are distributed across multiple agencies. The Department of Biotechnology is responsible for overseeing research governance and laboratory safety norms.
- The National Centre for Disease Control plays a key role in disease surveillance and outbreak management. Biosecurity related to livestock and cross-border animal diseases is handled by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying, while the Plant Quarantine Organisation of India regulates agricultural trade to prevent the entry and spread of harmful pests and diseases.
- India’s legal and regulatory framework on biosafety and biosecurity includes the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which regulates hazardous microorganisms and genetically modified organisms, and the Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Act, 2005, which outlaws biological weapons.
- Supporting this framework are the Biosafety Rules of 1989 and the 2017 guidelines on recombinant DNA research and biocontainment. In addition, the National Disaster Management Authority has issued comprehensive guidelines for handling biological emergencies.
- At the international level, India participates in key biosecurity-related arrangements, including the Biological Weapons Convention and the Australia Group.
- Despite the involvement of multiple institutions in managing biological risks, regulating laboratories, monitoring public health, and protecting agriculture, India is still in the process of developing a cohesive national biosecurity architecture.
- As reflected in its 66th position on the Global Health Security Index, while India has improved its capacity to detect biological threats, its preparedness to respond effectively to such risks has shown a decline.
The concept of biosecurity has evolved in response to advances in science, experiences of warfare, and emerging global health threats.
- Early Period (Pre-20th Century)
Concerns over biological harm were largely implicit, with limited regulation. Although the use of disease as a weapon was known historically, there were no formal international rules governing biological threats. - Inter-War Developments
The 1925 Geneva Protocol marked the first international effort to prohibit the use of biological and chemical weapons in warfare. However, it did not ban their development, production, or stockpiling, leaving significant regulatory gaps. - Cold War Era and the BWC (1970s)
Growing awareness of the catastrophic potential of biological weapons led to the adoption of the Biological Weapons Convention (1972, in force from 1975). It became the first multilateral treaty to comprehensively ban the development, production, acquisition, and stockpiling of biological weapons and mandate the destruction of existing arsenals. - Post-Cold War Focus on Compliance and Non-State Actors
With the rise of non-state actors and biotechnology diffusion, biosecurity norms expanded beyond state behaviour. Emphasis shifted to export controls, laboratory security, and prevention of misuse of dual-use research. Initiatives such as the Australia Group strengthened coordination on controlling sensitive biological materials. - Public Health and Biosecurity Integration (2000s)
Global disease outbreaks and bioterrorism concerns, especially after the 2001 anthrax attacks, linked biosecurity with public health preparedness. The International Health Regulations (2005) reinforced obligations for surveillance, early detection, and response to biological threats, whether natural or deliberate. - Contemporary Phase: Technology and Global Governance
Rapid advances in genetic engineering, synthetic biology, and artificial intelligence have reshaped biosecurity thinking. Current norms emphasize responsible research, ethical governance, global information sharing, and resilience against both natural pandemics and intentional biological misuse.
Institutional Framework
-
Department of Biotechnology (DBT):
Regulates biotechnology research and oversees biosafety standards, laboratory governance, and compliance with guidelines related to genetically engineered organisms and recombinant DNA research. -
National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC):
Responsible for disease surveillance, early warning systems, and coordination of responses to infectious disease outbreaks. -
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW):
Plays a central role in public health preparedness, epidemic management, and implementation of international health obligations. -
Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying:
Monitors animal health, livestock biosecurity, and transboundary animal diseases that can threaten food security and public health. -
Plant Quarantine Organisation of India (PQOI):
Regulates the import and export of plants and agricultural products to prevent the introduction and spread of pests and plant diseases. -
National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA):
Issues guidelines and coordinates preparedness and response strategies for biological disasters, including pandemics and bioterror events.
An insufficient biosecurity system poses extremely serious risks, with the potential to endanger the lives of billions of people in India. This makes it imperative to establish a comprehensive national biosecurity framework that enables effective coordination among multiple government agencies. Such a framework would also help in systematically identifying gaps in infrastructure and institutional capacity that require urgent attention.
|
For Prelims: Biological Weapons Convention (BWC), Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, SCOMET List
For Mains: Strengths and weaknesses of the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC), India’s national biosecurity architecture, regulation of biotechnology.
|
|
Previous Year Questions
1.Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/set-up Subject
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only Answer (c) Mains 1.The scourge of terrorism is a grave challenge to national security. What solutions do you suggest to curb this growing menace? What are the major sources of terrorist funding? (2017) |
WORLD INEQUALITY REPORT (WIR)
- Severe Concentration of Wealth: Nearly 75% of the world’s wealth is held by the richest 10%, while the poorest 50% possess just about 2%. An ultra-elite group comprising roughly 60,000 individuals (the top 0.001%) owns wealth that is three times greater than that of half the global population combined. Their share of global wealth rose from around 4% in 1995 to more than 6% by 2025.
- Inequality in Human Capital Investment: Public and private spending on education shows stark disparities. Average expenditure per child in Sub-Saharan Africa is approximately €220 (PPP), compared with €7,430 in Europe and €9,020 in North America and Oceania—over forty times higher.
- Climate-Related Inequality: The richest 10% are responsible for about 77% of emissions linked to private capital ownership, whereas the bottom half contributes only 3%. Paradoxically, populations in low-income countries—who emit the least—face the greatest climate risks, while high emitters are better equipped with financial and technological means to adapt.
- Gender-Based Disparities: On average, women work around 53 hours per week compared to 43 hours for men when unpaid domestic and care work is included. In terms of earnings, women receive about 61% of men’s hourly wages when only paid work is considered; once unpaid labor is accounted for, their effective income drops to just 32%.
- Regional Income Gaps: Average daily income stands at roughly €125 in North America and Oceania, but only about €10 in Sub-Saharan Africa—reflecting a thirteen-fold difference. The income ratio between the top 10% and the bottom 50% further highlights deep inequalities within countries.
- Global Financial System Imbalances: Each year, poorer countries experience a net outflow of financial resources amounting to around 1% of global GDP—three times the volume of total development assistance—largely due to capital flows toward US and European government bonds
- Income Disparities: A significant share of national income—about 58%—is accrued by the top 10% of earners, whereas the bottom half of the population accounts for only around 15%.
- Concentration of Wealth: Nearly two-thirds of the country’s total wealth is owned by the richest 10%. Within this group, the top 1% alone controls roughly 40% of overall wealth.
- Low Female Workforce Participation: Women’s participation in the labor market stands at just 15.7%, placing it among the lowest rates globally.
- Overall Economic Well-being: The average per capita income is close to €6,200 annually (PPP-adjusted), while mean household wealth is estimated at about €28,000 (PPP)
The World Inequality Report (WIR) is a flagship global publication that provides a comprehensive assessment of income and wealth inequality across countries and regions over time.
Key points about the World Inequality Report (WIR):
-
Produced by: The World Inequality Lab, led by renowned economists such as Thomas Piketty, Lucas Chancel, Emmanuel Saez, and Gabriel Zucman.
-
Frequency: Published periodically (major editions in 2018, 2022, 2024, etc.).
-
Data Source: Based on the World Inequality Database (WID), which compiles tax records, national accounts, household surveys, and wealth data.
-
Coverage: Tracks inequality trends within countries and between countries, covering income, wealth, gender gaps, carbon inequality, and regional disparities.
.png)
-
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA): Provides wage employment and income security to rural households.
-
Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP): Encourages self-employment and entrepreneurship, particularly among youth and marginalized groups.
-
Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM): Focuses on enhancing livelihoods and skill development for the urban poor.
-
Samagra Shiksha 2.0: Aims to strengthen access, equity, and quality across all levels of school education.
-
Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY): Promotes financial inclusion by ensuring universal access to banking services.
-
Lakhpati Didi Initiative: Seeks to empower women economically by supporting sustainable income generation at the household level
|
For Prelims: MGNREGA, Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), World Inequality Report (WIR)
For Mains: General Studies-II: Welfare schemes for vulnerable sections of the population by the Centre and States and the performance of these schemes
|
|
Previous Year Questions
1.Inclusive growth as enunciated in the Eleventh Five Year Plan does not include one of the following: (UPSC CSE 2010) (a) Reduction of poverty (b) Extension of employment opportunities (c) Strengthening of capital market (d) Reduction of gender inequality Answer (c) Mains 1. COVID-19 pandemic accelerated class inequalities and poverty in India. Comment. (2020) |
BIOREMEDIATION
- Bioremediation, in simple terms, refers to using biological agents to revive or clean polluted environments.
- It relies on microorganisms — including bacteria, fungi, algae, and even certain plants — to capture, break down, or neutralise hazardous substances like petroleum spills, pesticides, plastics, and heavy metals. These organisms treat the contaminants as nutrients, decomposing them into safer end-products such as carbon dioxide, water, and organic acids.
- In some situations, they can also alter toxic metals into more stable, less harmful forms that do not seep into soil or groundwater.
- Bioremediation is generally classified into two categories. In situ bioremediation involves treating pollutants at the site itself, for instance by introducing oil-degrading bacteria directly onto an ocean spill.
- Ex situ bioremediation, on the other hand, requires excavating the contaminated soil or water, processing it at a specialised facility, and then returning it once it is detoxified.
- Contemporary bioremediation blends conventional microbiology with advanced biotechnology.
- Emerging tools allow scientists to study biological systems more precisely, identify molecules with beneficial traits, and reproduce them under controlled conditions — such as in wastewater treatment systems or on farmlands.
- For instance, genetically engineered microbes are being developed to break down stubborn pollutants like plastics and persistent oil residues that natural organisms cannot efficiently degrade
- India’s fast-paced industrial growth has taken a significant toll on the environment. Even though pollution levels are showing gradual improvement, major rivers like the Ganga and Yamuna continue to be burdened with untreated household waste and industrial discharge.
- Additional threats — including oil spills, pesticide accumulation, and heavy metals — continue to endanger natural ecosystems as well as human health.
- Conventional methods of environmental clean-up are costly, require high energy inputs, and sometimes generate new forms of pollution.
- In contrast, bioremediation provides a more affordable, scalable, and eco-friendly solution — particularly valuable in a country where large areas of soil and water are contaminated but financial and technological resources remain limited.
- India’s rich biological diversity further strengthens this approach. Native microbial species, already adapted to local climate and conditions such as extreme heat or salinity, often perform better than foreign microbial strains
- Bioremediation is slowly becoming more prominent in India, although much of the work is still at the trial or experimental stage. The Department of Biotechnology (DBT), through its Clean Technology Programme, has been funding various initiatives and promoting collaboration between academic institutions, government research bodies, and industry players.
- The CSIR–National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI) is actively involved in developing and implementing bioremediation-related projects.
- At the Indian Institutes of Technology, scientists have tested innovations such as a cotton-based nanocomposite that can absorb oil spills, and others have discovered microbial strains capable of breaking down hazardous contaminants in soil.
- The private sector is also beginning to participate. Startups like Biotech Consortium India Limited (BCIL) and Econirmal Biotech are providing microbial products aimed at treating polluted soil and wastewater.
- Despite this growth, large-scale deployment still encounters obstacles. Key issues include inadequate understanding of local contamination conditions, the diverse and complex nature of pollutants, and the absence of uniform national standards for bioremediation practices
- Countries around the world are already incorporating bioremediation into their environmental management systems. Japan uses combinations of microbes and plants as part of its urban waste treatment approach.
- In the European Union, multinational projects are funded to deploy microorganisms for cleaning oil spills and rehabilitating former mining regions. China, under its national soil pollution control programme, has prioritised bioremediation and is using genetically enhanced microbial strains to revive degraded industrial zones.
- For India, the potential is significant. Bioremediation can rejuvenate polluted rivers, recover degraded land, and decontaminate industrial areas, while simultaneously generating employment in fields such as biotechnology, environmental services, and waste-treatment industries.
- It can also complement existing government initiatives like Swachh Bharat Mission, Namami Gange, and various clean-technology programmes
- Releasing genetically modified organisms into natural ecosystems requires strict oversight to avoid unforeseen ecological consequences.
- If testing is insufficient or containment measures fail, such interventions may create new challenges even as they attempt to address existing ones.
- Meaningful public participation will also be essential to ensure wider acceptance of emerging biotechnologies.
- To expand bioremediation safely, India will need updated biosafety regulations, proper certification mechanisms, and a skilled workforce.
Environmentally Friendly
-
Uses natural organisms such as bacteria, fungi, and plants.
-
Breaks down pollutants into harmless by-products like water, CO₂, or organic acids.
-
Minimises secondary pollution compared to chemical or mechanical treatments.
Cost-Effective
-
Generally cheaper than traditional remediation methods that require heavy machinery, chemicals, or high energy consumption.
-
Suitable for developing countries with limited cleanup budgets.
Sustainable and Self-Propagating
-
Microorganisms can multiply and continue degradation without continuous human intervention.
-
Supports long-term ecological restoration.
Versatile
-
Effective against a wide range of contaminants: petroleum oils, pesticides, plastics, sewage sludge, heavy metals (in altered forms), and industrial effluents.
-
Can be applied to soil, groundwater, wastewater, marine environments, and sediments.
In Situ Application Reduces Disturbance
-
Many bioremediation processes can occur directly at the contaminated site.
-
Eliminates the need to transport hazardous material, reducing risk and cost.
Enhances Soil and Water Quality
-
Restores soil fertility by promoting microbial diversity and organic content.
-
Improves water quality in rivers, lakes, wetlands, and groundwater systems.
Scalable and Adaptable
-
Can be applied on small patches of polluted land as well as large, industrially degraded regions.
-
Indigenous microbial strains adapt well to local environmental conditions.
Supports Circular Economy & Green Jobs
-
Creates employment opportunities in biotechnology, environmental consulting, waste management, and research.
-
Integrates with green technology initiatives like Swachh Bharat Mission, Namami Gange, and waste-to-wealth programmes.
|
For Prelims: bioremediation, microorganisms , In situ bioremediation
For Mains: GS III - Environment and ecology
|
|
Previous Year Questions
1. Bioremediation is most effective in which of the following? (UPSC CSE 2020)
A) Solid waste management Answer (C) Mains 1.Examine the role of bioremediation in environmental sustainability (UPSC CSE GS III 2019) |

