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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 23 DECEMBER 2025

FREE TRADE AGREEMENT 

 

1. Context

India and New Zealand on Monday concluded discussions on a free trade agreement (FTA) that will give India tariff-free access to the island nation’s markets, bring in $20 billion in investments over 15 years, and help double bilateral trade to $5 billion in the next five years.
 

2. About the Free Trade Agreement

  • A Free Trade Agreement (FTA) is an agreement between two or more countries to reduce or eliminate barriers to trade, such as tariffs, quotas, and subsidies.
  • FTAs can also include provisions on other issues, such as investment, intellectual property, and labour standards.
  • The goal of an FTA is to promote trade and economic growth between the signatory countries.
  • By reducing or eliminating trade barriers, FTAs can make it easier for businesses to export their goods and services to other countries, which can lead to increased production, employment, and innovation.

3. Types of Free Trade Agreement

  • Bilateral Free Trade Agreement (BFTA) involves two countries, aiming to promote trade and eliminate tariffs on goods and services between them.  It establishes a direct trade relationship, allowing for a more focused and tailored agreement between the two nations.
  • Multilateral Free Trade Agreement (MFTA) Involving three or more countries, an MFTA seeks to create a comprehensive trade bloc, promoting economic integration on a larger scale. It requires coordination among multiple parties, addressing diverse economic interests and fostering a broader regional economic landscape.
  • Regional Free Trade Agreement (RFTA) involves countries within a specific geographic region, aiming to enhance economic cooperation and integration within that particular area. It focuses on addressing regional economic challenges and fostering collaboration among neighbouring nations.
  • Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) involves a reciprocal reduction of tariffs and trade barriers between participating countries, granting preferential treatment to each other's goods and services. It allows countries to enjoy trading advantages with specific partners while maintaining autonomy in their trade policies with non-participating nations.
  • Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is a broad and advanced form of FTA that goes beyond traditional trade barriers, encompassing various economic aspects such as investment, intellectual property, and services. It aims for a more comprehensive economic partnership, encouraging deeper integration and collaboration between participating countries.
  • Customs Union While not strictly an FTA, a Customs Union involves the elimination of tariffs among member countries and the establishment of a common external tariff against non-member nations. It goes beyond standard FTAs by harmonizing external trade policies, creating a unified approach to trade with the rest of the world.
  • Free Trade Area (FTA) with Trade in Goods (TIG) and Trade in Services (TIS): Some FTAs specifically emphasize either trade in goods or trade in services, tailoring the agreement to the specific economic strengths and priorities of the participating countries. This approach allows nations to focus on areas where they have a comparative advantage, fostering specialization and efficiency.

4. India's Free Trade Agreements

India is a member of several free trade agreements (FTAs) and is currently negotiating others.  India's FTAs have helped to reduce trade barriers and promote trade and economic growth. They have also helped to attract foreign investment and create jobs. 

  • The South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was signed in 1995 by the seven countries of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). SAFTA aims to reduce or eliminate tariffs on trade between the member countries.
  • The India-Bangladesh FTA was signed in 2010 and came into force in 2011. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Sri Lanka FTA was signed in 1999 and came into force in 2000. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-ASEAN Free Trade Agreement was signed in 2002 and came into force in 2010. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Korea Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) was signed in 2010 and came into force in 2011. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement(CEPA) was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2023. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-UAE Comprehensive Partnership Agreement (CEPA) was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2022. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2022. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Malaysia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) was signed in 2010 and aims to enhance economic ties by addressing trade in goods and services, as well as investment and other areas of economic cooperation.
  • The India-Thailand Free Trade Agreement was signed in 2003 and focuses on reducing tariffs and promoting trade in goods and services between India and Thailand.
  • The India-Singapore Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) has been operational since 2005, this agreement covers trade in goods and services, as well as investment and intellectual property.
  • The India-Nepal Trade Treaty While not a comprehensive FTA, India and Nepal have a trade treaty that facilitates the exchange of goods between the two countries.
  • The India-Chile Preferential Trade Agreement was signed in 2006 and aims to enhance economic cooperation and reduce tariffs on certain products traded between India and Chile.

5India - UK Free Trade Agreement

5.1. Background

  • Both countries have agreed to avoid sensitive issues in the negotiations.
  • The interim (early harvest agreement) aims to achieve up to 65 per cent coverage for goods and up to 40 per cent coverage for services.
  • By the time the final agreement is inked, the coverage for goods is expected to go up to "90 plus a percentage" of goods.
  • India is also negotiating a similar early harvest agreement with Australia, which is supposed to set the stage for a long-pending Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement that both countries have been pursuing for nearly a decade.
  • While the commencement of negotiations does mark a step forward in the otherwise rigid stance adopted and when it comes to trade liberalisation, experts point to impediments and the potential for legal challenges going ahead.

5.2. GATT (General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs)

  • The exception to the rule is full-scale FTAs, subject to some conditions.
  • One rider, incorporated in Article XXIV.8 (b) of GATT, stipulates that a deal should aim to eliminate customs duties and other trade barriers on "Substantially all the trade" between the WTO member countries that are signatories to an FTA.
  • For this Agreement, a free-trade area shall be understood to mean a group of two or more customs territories in which the duties and other restrictive regulations of commerce are eliminated on substantially all the trade between the constituent territories in products originating in such territories.
  • It is often beneficial to negotiate the entire deal together, as an early harvest deal may reduce the incentive for one side to work towards a full FTA.
  • These agreements are not just about goods and services but also issues like investment.
  • If you are trying to weigh the costs and benefits, it is always better to have the larger picture in front of you.
  • In the case of the early harvest agreement inked with Thailand, automobile industry associations had complained that relaxations extended to Bangkok in the early harvest had reduced the incentive for Thailand to work towards a full FTA.
  • Early harvest agreements may serve the function of keeping trading partners interested as they promise some benefits without long delays, as India becomes known for long-drawn negotiations for FTAs.
  • Government emphasis on interim agreements may be tactical so that a deal may be achieved with minimum commitments and would allow for contentious issues to be resolved later.
 
For Prelims: Free Trade Agreement, India-U.K, Bilateral Free Trade Agreement, G-20 Summit, Agenda 2030, Covid-19 Pandemic, SAARC, General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs, Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement, Multilateral Free Trade Agreement, Regional Free Trade Agreement, Preferential Trade Agreement, Customs Union, 
For Mains: 
1. Evaluate the potential impact of the India-UK FTA on the Indian economy, considering both positive and negative aspects (250 Words)
2. Critically evaluate the significance of Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) in promoting trade and economic growth, considering their potential benefits and drawbacks. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. Consider the following countries:
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Which of the above are among the free-trade partners' of ASEAN? (UPSC 2018)
A. 1, 2, 4 and 5          B.  3, 4, 5 and 6      C.  1, 3, 4 and 5       D.  2, 3, 4 and 6
 
Answer: C
 

2. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if (UPSC 2018)

(a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
(b) Agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
(c) Poverty and unemployment increase.
(d) Imports grow faster than exports.

Answer: C

3. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following: (2010)

  1. Development of infrastructure facilities.
  2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources.
  3. Promotion of exports of services only.

Which of the above are the objectives of this Act?

(a) 1 and 2 only     (b) 3 only         (c) 2 and 3 only           (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

4. A “closed economy” is an economy in which (UPSC 2011)

(a) the money supply is fully controlled
(b) deficit financing takes place
(c) only exports take place
(d) neither exports nor imports take place

Answer: D

5. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only            (c) Both 1 and 2          (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
 
 Source: The Hindu
 
 

GAGANYAAN

1. Context 

Getting another step closer to the first human spaceflight mission, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) conducted another set of tests to check one of the parachute systems that will bring the astronauts safely back to earth. At present, the space agency is conducting a series of on-ground and in-air tests to ensure the safety and dependability of its 10-parachute system.

2. Gaganyaan Mission

  • Gaganyaan, meaning "Sky Craft" in Sanskrit, is India's ambitious human spaceflight program aimed at sending Indian astronauts to space.
  • It is a testament to India's growing prowess in the field of space exploration and a source of immense national pride.
  • The program, spearheaded by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), envisions launching a crewed orbital spacecraft into low Earth orbit (LEO) for a period of up to seven days.
  • The spacecraft will carry three astronauts, marking a historic first for India.

3. About The TV-D1 Mission

  • The TV-D1 mission consists of two abort missions designed to test the safety mechanisms that will allow the Gaganyaan crew to escape the spacecraft during emergencies.
  • In this mission, a rocket will ascend to an altitude of nearly 17 km before an abort signal triggers the separation of the crew module.
  • The crew module will then descend using a parachute for a splashdown in the Bay of Bengal.
  • The TV-D1 mission will have a total duration of 532 seconds, from liftoff at 8 a.m. to the crew module's splashdown about 10 km from the Sriharikota coast.
  • The rocket used for this mission is ISRO's low-cost Test Vehicle, designed specifically for system testing.
  • During the flight, the rocket will reach a peak relative velocity of 363 meters per second, approximately 1307 km per hour. It's important to note that the crew module will be empty for this test.

4. Key Objectives of the TV-D1 Mission

The TV-D1 mission serves two primary objectives.

  1. It aims to demonstrate the capabilities of the new Test Vehicle, hence its name Test Vehicle-Demonstration 1 (TV-D1).
  2. It will showcase a basic version of the crew module, testing the systems responsible for separating the crew module from the rocket during an abort mission and ensuring the safe escape of astronauts.

The TV-D1 mission simulates an abort condition during the ascent trajectory, corresponding to a Mach number of 1.2, as anticipated in the Gaganyaan mission.

5. The Low-Cost Test Vehicle

  • Unlike the upcoming full-fledged test flight of the crew module into space and back, which will use the human-rated LVM3 rocket in 2024, the TV-D1 mission employs a low-cost basic rocket.
  • This Test Vehicle utilizes existing liquid propulsion technology but introduces innovations such as the throttleable and restartable L110 Vikas engine, capable of controlling propellant use.
  • ISRO developed this cost-effective solution as each GSLV Mk III launch, which was previously used for such missions, costs between Rs 300-400 crore.

6. Safety and Crew Escape System

  • Safety remains a top priority for ISRO in the Gaganyaan project, especially in light of international incidents involving space missions.
  • The TV-D1 mission aims to test the systems ensuring the crew module's safety, such as environmental control, life support systems, and an integrated vehicle health management system.
  • This system can detect anomalies that may jeopardize astronauts' safety and initiate mission abort procedures.

7. Preparations and Timeline for Gaganyaan

  • ISRO has set a target timeframe for the Gaganyaan mission in 2024, with flexibility based on the development stages and ensuring the mission's safety.
  • The schedule includes an unmanned mission at the beginning of the next year, abort missions this year, and discussions of the manned mission for late 2024 or early 2025.
  • ISRO has completed the human rating of the LVM 3 rocket and performed static tests for human-rated solid rocket boosters.

8. Conclusion

The TV-D1 mission represents a significant milestone in the Gaganyaan program, as it integrates a near-complete system for a flight test. The success of this mission paved the way for further qualification tests and unmanned missions, ultimately leading to the first Gaganyaan mission with Indian astronauts. ISRO's dedication to safety and rigorous testing is paramount as India advances its space exploration endeavours.

 
For Prelims: Gaganyaan programme, TV-D1 mission, Low Earth Orbit, Isro, LVM3, GSLV Mk III, 
For Mains: 
1. Discuss the key objectives of the TV-D1 mission within the Gaganyaan program. How does this mission contribute to astronaut safety and the overall success of Gaganyaan? (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2018)
1. PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 only
Answer: A
 
2. India's first human space mission "Gaganyaan" will be launched in which year? (ESIC UDC 2022)
A. 2022          B. 2023          C. 2024          D. 2025      E.  2026
 
Answer: B
 
3. Find the incorrect statements, about the Gaganyaan Mission of India. (MPSC 2020)
1. Four pilots from Indian Air Force were shortlisted to be astronauts of Gaganyaan.
2. They will be trained at Yuri Gagarin Cosmonaut Centre in Russia.
3. This mission was announced by Prime Minister in 2014.
4. It is scheduled for 2022 with a team of 5 crew members and a month-long stay in space.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4     B.  2, 3, 4           C. 3, 4          D. 2, 3
 
Answer: C
 
4. ISRO is related to: (SSC JE EE 2020)
A. space research      B. agricultural research          C. seed research          D. marine research Answer: A
 

5.  Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? (UPSC 2014)

Spacecraft                                    Purpose

  1. Cassini-Huygens:                  Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth
  2. Messenger:                             Mapping and investigating the Mercury
  3. Voyager 1 and 2:                    Exploring the outer solar system

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 and 3 only          (c) 1 and 3 only          (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

6. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2016)

The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO

1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission
2. made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA
3. made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only        (b) 2 and 3 only          (c) 1 and 3 only            (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Source: The Indian Express

 

 ELECTORAL BONDS

 
 
1. Context
 
 In the first financial year after the Supreme Court scrapped the government’s anonymous political funding scheme through electoral bonds, nine electoral trusts donated a total of Rs 3,811 crore to political parties in 2024-2025. Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), the party ruling at the Centre, received Rs 3,112 crore, or more than four-fifth (82 per cent) of the total funds donated by trusts
 
2. What was the Electoral Bond Scheme?
 
An electoral bond is in the nature of a promissory note which shall be a bearer banking instrument that does not carry the name of the buyer or payee. Any citizen or company could buy these bonds in denominations of ₹1,000, ₹10,000, ₹1 lakh, ₹10 lakh, and ₹1 crore and donate it to a political party. It can be encashed only through a bank account with an authorised bank. The State Bank of India was the bank authorised to issue and encash these bonds
 
3. What changes were made to the scheme?
 
Contemporary society relies significantly on satellites, presenting them as both valuable assets and potential weaknesses. However, the effectiveness of a nuclear weapon in space is constrained by the inability to selectively target specific satellites, limiting its practical utility. Consequently, certain security experts propose that if Russia possesses nuclear capabilities in space, such weaponry would likely be reserved for use as a last resort. Alternatively, some suggest that the 'nuclear' aspect might be confined to the power source itself. The prevailing view is that Russia is more likely developing a system fueled by a nuclear source with electronic warfare capabilities upon reaching orbit, rather than a weapon equipped with a nuclear explosive warhead
4. Government's Version
 
  • The government justified the scheme by emphasizing its ability to facilitate the transfer of funds to political parties through lawful banking channels, allowing individuals to support their chosen parties while discouraging unregulated cash contributions.
  • The confidentiality granted to donors was presented as advantageous, fostering contributions of clean money to political parties.
  • The utilization of established banking channels was asserted to diminish the influence of black money in election funding, and donor anonymity was highlighted to alleviate concerns about potential retaliation or pressure from parties to which donors had not contributed.
  • In a notable argument, the government contended that citizens did not possess a general right to be informed about the financial backing of political parties.
  • It asserted that the right to information was not of a broad nature but rather an evolution by courts specifically aimed at enabling voters to make informed choices in favor of the ethically sound candidate
5.Supreme Court Ruling
 
  • In prior rulings, the highest court has affirmed that voters possess the right to information crucial for the effective exercise of their voting freedom.
  • Consequently, the court maintained that details regarding funding to a political party are vital for a voter to express their right to vote effectively.
  • The Electoral Bond Scheme, insofar as it compromises this right by anonymizing contributions through bonds, infringes upon Article 19(1)(a), which safeguards the freedom of expression.
  • Regarding the objective of curbing black money, the court applied a proportionality test to assess whether the limitation on voters' right to information through donor anonymity was achieved through the least restrictive means.
  • It suggested that alternatives, such as electronic transfer for small contributions and donations to an Electoral Trust for larger amounts, were available.
  • Since the government failed to demonstrate that the scheme represents the least restrictive means to balance contributors' "informational privacy" and the right to information on political contributions, the amendments to the IT Act and RPA were deemed unconstitutional.
  • Concerning changes to the Companies Act, the court determined that the removal of the disclosure requirement on contribution details violated the voter's right to information. Additionally, the scheme permitted both profit-making and loss-making companies to make political contributions, whereas previously, companies could only donate a percentage of their net profit.
  • Given the higher risk of quid pro quo in the case of loss-making companies, the amendment was deemed arbitrarily manifest
6.Way forward
 
The electoral bonds scheme was introduced to enhance transparency, it has generated significant debates and concerns. A comprehensive way forward should focus on striking a balance between anonymity for donors and the citizens' right to know the financial sources of political parties. Transparent and accountable political funding is crucial for upholding the democratic values and integrity of the political process in India.
 
 
For Prelims: Electoral Bonds, SBI, Election Commission of India, Right to Know, Finance Act 2017, Prime Minister's Relief Fund
For Mains:
1. Examine the challenges and controversies surrounding the Electoral Bonds Scheme, particularly regarding donor anonymity and transparency in political funding. How have these issues raised concerns about the integrity of the political process in India? (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
Prelims

1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only          B. 2 only              C. 2 and 3 only                D. 3 only

Answer: D

2. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? (UPSC CSE 2019)
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
(c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare a Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the Union Legislature.

Answer: B

3. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021)

1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the- existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only         B. 2 only           C. 1 and 3             D. 2 and 3
 
4. Consider the following statements about Electoral Bond Scheme 2018: (RPSC RAS Prelims 2018)
(A) The aim of this scheme is to bring about transparency in the funding process of political parties.
(B) Only the political parties recognized by the Election Commission which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of People or the Legislative Assembly of the State shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.
(C) Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue.
(D) The Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible political party in its account shall be credited on the same day.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1.  Only (A) and (B)     
2.  (A), (B), (C) and (D)
3. Only (B), (C) and (D)
4. Only (A), (C) and (D)
Answer: 2
 
5. With reference to the PM CARES Fund, consider the following statements: (AFCAT 27 2022)
I. The amount collected by it directly goes to the Consolidated Fund of India.
II. It can avail donations from the foreign contribution and donations to fund can also avail 100% tax exemption.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. I only            B. II only           C. Both I and II        D. Neither I nor II
 
Answer: B
 
6. The Prime Minister's National Relief Fund is operated by which one of the following bodies?  (CDS 2019)
A. The Prime Minister's Office (PMO)
B. The National Disaster Management Authority
C. The Ministry of Finance
D. The National Development Council (NDC)
Answer: A

Mains

1. In the light of recent controversy regarding the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVM), what are the challenges before the Election Commission of India to ensure the trustworthiness of elections in India? (UPSC 2018)

2. Discuss the role of the Election Commission of India in the light of the evolution of the Model Code of Conduct. ( UPSC 2022)

 
Source: The Hindu
 
 

SUSTAINABLE HARNESSING AND ADVANCEMENT OF NUCLEAR ENERGY FOR TRANSFORMING INDIA (SHANTI) ACT

 
 
1. Context
 
Parliament passed a new atomic energy law towards the end of 2025. The legislation, titled the Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India, opens the atomic energy sector, previously the exclusive domain of government entities, to private players. Opposition MPs urged that a parliamentary standing committee scrutinise the Bill. But the government pushed for its passage in the last two days of the Winter Session, with the debate lasting 11 hours and 64 MPs participating
 
 
2. Why is SHANTI significant?
 
 
  • The SHANTI framework seeks to open India’s nuclear energy sector to private participation and may also facilitate the inflow of foreign investment.
  • At present, the construction and operation of nuclear power plants are restricted exclusively to public sector entities.
  • India aims to scale up its nuclear capacity from the existing 8.8 GW—roughly 1.5% of total installed power capacity—to 100 GW by 2047, thereby raising nuclear energy’s share in electricity generation from around 3%.
  • Public sector nuclear utilities estimate that they will contribute nearly 54 GW of this expansion, with the remaining capacity expected to come from private players
 
3. What are the major differences in SHANTI?
 
 
  • Because of nuclear energy’s association with atomic weapons, the movement and use of nuclear fuel such as uranium are subjected to rigorous oversight to prevent its diversion for the production of weapons-grade plutonium.
  • Past disasters—including the 1979 Three Mile Island accident, the 1986 Chernobyl catastrophe, and the Fukushima core meltdown triggered by the 2011 tsunami—have reinforced a global culture of caution, leading to stringent controls over every stage of nuclear plant functioning.
  • Internationally, there is now broad agreement that in the event of a nuclear accident, the operator of the facility bears the primary responsibility for compensating affected individuals in proportion to the harm caused.
  • Such compensation must be provided promptly, without waiting for investigations into causation or fault.
  • Subsequently, however, the operator may seek reimbursement if it can demonstrate that the accident resulted not from managerial failure but from defective equipment supplied by another party
  • Under the earlier Civil Nuclear Liability framework, operators were permitted to pursue recourse against equipment providers in three situations: first, where an explicit contractual provision existed; second, where the incident was attributable to defects in the supplier’s equipment; and third, where the damage was caused by a deliberate act intended to inflict nuclear harm.
  • The SHANTI legislation removes the second ground for recourse. Even after the 2008 Indo-US civil nuclear agreement, which reopened India’s access to uranium supplies and advanced nuclear technology following restrictions imposed after the 1974 and 1998 nuclear tests, reactor manufacturers from the United States and France remained reluctant to enter the Indian market due to the potential exposure to massive liability claims.
  • By eliminating this clause—and even removing explicit references to “suppliers”—the proposed framework effectively addresses these concerns
 
4. Will SHANTI spur India’s nuclear vision?
 
  • Homi Bhabha, regarded as the architect of India’s nuclear energy programme, envisaged nuclear power as a cornerstone of the country’s energy security while also overcoming India’s limited uranium reserves through the eventual use of thorium.
  • His three-stage plan begins with the construction of pressurised heavy water reactors that utilise natural uranium (U-238) to generate electricity and produce plutonium as a by-product.
  • The second stage involves fast breeder reactors, which are designed to generate additional plutonium and uranium-233 while producing power. In the third and final stage, uranium-233 is combined with India’s abundant thorium resources to generate electricity, creating a largely self-reliant thorium-based nuclear system.
  • India has yet to transition fully into the second stage, having only a prototype fast breeder reactor so far. This project, delayed by nearly two decades, was earlier scheduled to become operational in 2025 but has now been postponed further, with commissioning expected in September 2026.
  • To meet its near-term nuclear energy targets, India is increasingly exploring Small Modular Reactors (SMRs).
  • These are scaled-down versions of conventional reactors currently deployed in countries such as the United States and France, and they require enriched uranium-235—a resource that India does not possess in sufficient quantities. Like India’s first-stage reactors, SMRs generate various radioactive by-products, including plutonium and strontium.
  • SMRs are expected to be manufactured in modular components across multiple locations and assembled at a central site, much like the global production processes used for aircraft or smartphones.
  • However, due to their smaller size, they produce less electricity per unit compared to large reactors. They also do not offer a fundamentally superior solution to nuclear waste management, although some designs incorporate enhanced safety features that allow automatic shutdown during emergencies.
  • While SMRs may contribute to electricity generation, they do little to advance India’s long-term objective of transitioning to thorium-based nuclear power
 
5. Way Forward
 

Under the previous legal framework, victims of a nuclear incident could seek compensation from the plant operator up to a ceiling of ₹1,500 crore. Any damage beyond this limit was to be covered by the Union government through an insurance mechanism, capped at ₹4,000 crore. The SHANTI legislation introduces a tiered liability structure instead. Operators of facilities with a capacity exceeding 3,600 MW would face a maximum liability of ₹3,000 crore. For plants in the 1,500–3,600 MW range, the liability limit is set at ₹1,500 crore; for capacities between 750 MW and 1,500 MW, it is ₹750 crore; for 150–750 MW plants, the cap is ₹300 crore; and facilities below 150 MW carry a liability limit of ₹100 crore. At present, all nuclear power plants in India have capacities of 3,000 MW or less.

Science Minister Jitendra Singh, who introduced the Bill in Parliament, explained that this differentiated structure was designed to avoid deterring private sector investment. However, during parliamentary discussions, concerns were raised that the actual costs of compensation in major nuclear accidents have historically run into several billions of dollars, far exceeding the proposed liability ceilings

 

 

For Prelims: Nuclear Waste Management, Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor, uranium, plutonium
For mains: 
1. Discuss the challenges associated with nuclear waste management in the context of India's nuclear energy program. How can these challenges be addressed effectively? (250 Words)
2. Ethical considerations play a crucial role in nuclear waste management. Discuss the ethical concerns surrounding the potential for environmental injustice and the responsibility of nations in dealing with nuclear waste.(250 Words)

 

Previous Year Questions

1. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this on text, what advantage, does thorium hold over uranium? (UPSC 2012)

  1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
  2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
  3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 and 3 only            (c) 1 and 3 only              (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Which among the following has the world’s largest reserves of Uranium? (UPSC 2009)

(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) Russian Federation
(d) USA

Answers: 1-D, 2-A

Source: The Hindu

ARAVALLI RANGE

 
 
1. Context
 
Facing protests and criticism over a new uniform definition of the Aravalli hills, which was accepted by the Supreme Court based on recommendations of a Centre-led panel, Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav said Sunday that it would not lead to any relaxation for mining in the range.
 
2. Significance of the Aravalli range
 
 
  • Beyond being almost two billion years old and the oldest mountain system in India, these hills function as a vital ecological shield against the advance of desert conditions into the Indo-Gangetic plains.
  • They act as a natural barrier slowing the eastward expansion of the Thar Desert into Haryana, Rajasthan, and western Uttar Pradesh. The range plays a crucial role in climate regulation, biodiversity conservation, and groundwater replenishment.
  • Extending roughly 650 km from Delhi to Gujarat, it supports key water-recharge networks and gives rise to major rivers such as the Chambal, Sabarmati, and Luni.
  • The region is abundant in building stones like sandstone, limestone, marble, and granite, as well as minerals including lead, zinc, copper, gold, and tungsten.
  • Although these resources have been extracted for centuries, the last forty years have seen rampant stone and sand quarrying, leading to declining air quality and a sharp reduction in groundwater recharge.
  • Part of this mining activity has occurred unlawfully. The Court also observed that India has international obligations under the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification to safeguard fragile ecosystems like the Aravalli range
 
3. Geological & Physical Features of Aravalli
 
  • The Aravalli Range is one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, with its geological origins dating back nearly two billion years to the Precambrian era.
  • Unlike young fold mountains such as the Himalayas, the Aravallis have undergone extensive weathering and erosion over millions of years, which has reduced them to a series of low-lying hills, ridges, and rocky outcrops rather than sharp peaks.
  • This long geological history makes the range a valuable record of early crustal evolution and ancient tectonic processes on the Indian subcontinent.
  • Geologically, the Aravallis are composed primarily of metamorphic and igneous rocks, including quartzite, schist, gneiss, marble, and granite. These rock formations are part of the Aravalli–Delhi orogenic belt, which was formed due to ancient tectonic collisions and crustal movements.
  • The presence of economically significant minerals such as copper, lead, zinc, gold, and tungsten reflects the complex geological processes that shaped the region. Over time, repeated uplift and denudation exposed these mineral-rich formations at the surface, making the range an important mining zone historically.
  • Physically, the Aravalli Range stretches for about 650 kilometres in a south-west to north-east direction, beginning near Palanpur in Gujarat and extending through Rajasthan to Haryana and Delhi.
  • The range is discontinuous in nature, with broken hill chains and isolated ridges rather than a continuous mountain wall. Its highest peak is Guru Shikhar in the Mount Abu region of Rajasthan, rising to about 1,722 metres above sea level.
  • Moving northwards, the height of the range gradually declines, merging into low hills and rocky terrain around Delhi.
  • The Aravallis play a significant role in shaping the physical geography of north-western India. Acting as a natural climatic divide, they influence rainfall patterns by intercepting south-west monsoon winds to a limited extent and preventing the unchecked eastward expansion of the Thar Desert.
  • The range also forms an important watershed, giving rise to several seasonal and perennial rivers such as the Chambal, Sabarmati, Luni, and Banas.
  • The fractured and porous nature of its rock formations allows rainwater to percolate underground, contributing substantially to groundwater recharge in an otherwise semi-arid region
 
4. What is the “100-metre definition” of Aravalli Hills?
 
  • The “100-metre definition” of the Aravalli Hills refers to an administrative and legal criterion used—especially in environmental regulation and court proceedings—to identify and protect the Aravalli region.
  • Under this definition, any area that rises more than 100 metres above the surrounding plain is treated as part of the Aravalli hill system, irrespective of whether it is a prominent mountain, ridge, or a low, eroded hill. In other words, even subtle elevations and fragmented hillocks that meet this height threshold are classified as Aravalli features.
  • This definition became important because the Aravallis are very old and heavily eroded, meaning many sections no longer appear as classic mountains. If protection were limited only to visibly high or continuous hills, large portions of the range—especially in Haryana, Rajasthan, and the Delhi-NCR region—would fall outside legal safeguards.
  • The Supreme Court and various environmental authorities have relied on the 100-metre criterion to prevent mining, construction, and land-use change in ecologically sensitive areas of the Aravalli range.
  • By using a measurable elevation benchmark rather than appearance alone, the definition helps expand environmental protection to degraded and fragmented parts of the hills
 
5. Supreme Court Intervention and Uniform Definition
 
 
  • The Supreme Court’s intervention in the Aravalli region arose from growing concerns over rampant mining, construction, and land-use changes that were degrading this fragile and ancient mountain system.
  • One of the core problems identified by the Court was the absence of a uniform and scientifically grounded definition of the Aravalli Hills.
  • Different States and authorities were using varying criteria—based on revenue records, forest classification, or visual identification—allowing large tracts of the Aravallis to be excluded from protection and opened up for exploitation.
  • To address this ambiguity, the Supreme Court emphasised the need for a uniform definition applicable across States, particularly Rajasthan, Haryana, and Delhi, where the Aravallis are most fragmented and vulnerable.
  • The Court endorsed an objective, elevation-based approach, popularly referred to as the “100-metre definition”, under which land rising more than 100 metres above the surrounding plains would be treated as part of the Aravalli hill system.
  • This was intended to ensure that even low, eroded, or discontinuous hill formations, which are characteristic of the Aravallis due to their great geological age, are brought within the protective framework.
  • Through its interventions, the Supreme Court also linked the protection of the Aravallis to India’s international environmental obligations, particularly under the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).
  • The Court observed that the degradation of the Aravalli range could accelerate desertification in north-western India and undermine groundwater recharge, air quality, and regional climate stability.
  • Consequently, it directed governments to adopt a consistent and precautionary approach in identifying, mapping, and regulating activities in the Aravalli region
 
6. Action against mining
 
  • Since the early 1990s, the Union Environment Ministry has framed regulations permitting mining only in projects that receive official approval, but these safeguards have been widely disregarded.
  • In response to persistent violations, the Supreme Court intervened in 2009 and enforced a complete ban on mining activities in Haryana’s Faridabad, Gurugram, and Mewat districts.
  • More recently, in May 2024, the Court halted the issuance and renewal of mining leases across the Aravalli range and instructed its Central Empowered Committee (CEC) to carry out an in-depth review. This exercise culminated in a set of recommendations submitted in March 2024.
  • The CEC advocated a holistic strategy that called for scientifically mapping the entire Aravalli system across States, conducting a broad-scale environmental impact assessment of mining operations, and enforcing an absolute ban on mining in ecologically fragile zones.
  • These included wildlife-protected areas, water bodies, tiger corridors, critical groundwater recharge regions, and locations within the National Capital Region.
  • The Committee also stressed the need for tighter controls over stone-crushing units and advised that no fresh mining permissions or lease extensions be granted until comprehensive mapping and impact studies were completed.
  • The Supreme Court incorporated these recommendations in its order issued in November 2025.
  • In addition, in June 2025, the Union government launched the Aravalli ‘Green Wall’ initiative, aimed at increasing vegetation cover in a five-kilometre buffer zone around the range across 29 districts in Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana, and Delhi.
  • According to the government, this programme is expected to make a significant contribution towards the restoration of 26 million hectares of degraded land by the year 2030.
7. Way Forward
 
 

The Court observed that earlier instances demonstrate how absolute prohibitions frequently give rise to illegal mining networks, aggressive sand mafias, and uncontrolled resource extraction. Consequently, instead of enforcing a complete shutdown, the Court adopted a balanced strategy—allowing lawful mining operations to proceed under strict oversight, placing a temporary halt on new mining activities until a science-based framework is developed, and keeping ecologically critical zones permanently closed to mining

 

 

For Prelims: Aravalli ranges, UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
 
For Mains: GS I - Indian Geography
 
 
Source: The Hindu
 
 

GROSS DOMESTIC PRODUCT (GDP)

 
 
1. Context
 
 In September 2022, Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman called on India Inc at an industry summit to put money into expanding their capacities, asking “what’s stopping you” from investing. That quarter, India’s real GDP growth rate more than halved to 6.3% — now revised to 6% — after the post-Covid favourable base effect continued to fade away.
 
2. Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
 
Gross domestic product (GDP) is the total monetary or market value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific time period. It is often used as a measure of a country's economic health
GDP provides insight into the overall economic health of a nation and is often used for comparing the economic output of different countries.

There are three primary ways to calculate GDP:

  1. Production Approach (GDP by Production): This approach calculates GDP by adding up the value-added at each stage of production. It involves summing up the value of all final goods and services produced in an economy.

  2. Income Approach (GDP by Income): This approach calculates GDP by summing up all the incomes earned in an economy, including wages, rents, interests, and profits. The idea is that all the income generated in an economy must ultimately be spent on purchasing goods and services.

  3. Expenditure Approach (GDP by Expenditure): This approach calculates GDP by summing up all the expenditures made on final goods and services. It includes consumption by households, investments by businesses, government spending, and net exports (exports minus imports).

3. Measuring GDP

GDP can be measured in three different ways:

  1. Nominal GDP: This is the raw GDP figure without adjusting for inflation. It reflects the total value of goods and services produced at current prices.

  2. Real GDP: Real GDP adjusts the nominal GDP for inflation, allowing for a more accurate comparison of economic performance over time. It represents the value of goods and services produced using constant prices from a specific base year.

  3. GDP per capita: This is the GDP divided by the population of a country. It provides a per-person measure of economic output and can be useful for comparing the relative economic well-being of different countries.

The GDP growth rate is the percentage change in the GDP from one year to the next. A positive GDP growth rate indicates that the economy is growing, while a negative GDP growth rate indicates that the economy is shrinking

The GDP is a useful measure of economic health, but it has some limitations. For example, it does not take into account the distribution of income in an economy. It also does not take into account the quality of goods and services produced.

Despite its limitations, the GDP is a widely used measure of economic health. It is used by economists, policymakers, and businesses to track the performance of an economy and to make decisions about economic policy

4. Gross Value Added (GVA)

 

Gross Value Added (GVA) is a closely related concept to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and is used to measure the economic value generated by various economic activities within a country. GVA represents the value of goods and services produced in an economy minus the value of inputs (such as raw materials and intermediate goods) used in production. It's a way to measure the contribution of each individual sector or industry to the overall economy.

GVA can be calculated using the production approach, similar to one of the methods used to calculate GDP. The formula for calculating GVA is as follows:

GVA = Output Value - Intermediate Consumption

Where:

  • Output Value: The total value of goods and services produced by an industry or sector.
  • Intermediate Consumption: The value of inputs used in the production process, including raw materials, energy, and other intermediate goods.
5. GDP vs GNP

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Gross National Product (GNP) are both important economic indicators used to measure the size and health of an economy, but they focus on slightly different aspects of economic activity and include different factors. Here are the key differences between GDP and GNP:

  1. Definition and Scope:

    • GDP: GDP measures the total value of all goods and services produced within a country's borders, regardless of whether the production is done by domestic or foreign entities. It only considers economic activities that take place within the country.
    • GNP: GNP measures the total value of all goods and services produced by a country's residents, whether they are located within the country's borders or abroad. It takes into account the production of residents, both domestically and internationally.
  2. Foreign Income and Payments:

    • GDP: GDP does not consider the income earned by residents of a country from their economic activities abroad, nor does it account for payments made to foreigners working within the country.
    • GNP: GNP includes the income earned by a country's residents from their investments and activities abroad, minus the income earned by foreign residents from their investments within the country.
  3. Net Factor Income from Abroad:

    • GDP: GDP does not account for net factor income from abroad, which is the difference between income earned by domestic residents abroad and income earned by foreign residents domestically.
    • GNP: GNP includes net factor income from abroad as part of its calculation.
  4. Foreign Direct Investment:

    • GDP: GDP does not directly consider foreign direct investment (FDI) flowing into or out of a country.
    • GNP: GNP considers the impact of FDI on the income of a country's residents, both from investments made within the country and from investments made by residents abroad.
  5. Measurement Approach:

    • GDP: GDP can be calculated using three different approaches: production, income, and expenditure approaches.
    • GNP: GNP is primarily calculated using the income approach, as it focuses on the income earned by residents from their economic activities.
 
 
 
 
For Prelims: GDP, GVA, FDI, GNP
For Mains: 1.Discuss the recent trends and challenges in India's GDP growth
2.Examine the role of the service sector in India's GDP growth
3.Compare and contrast the growth trajectories of India's GDP and GNP
 
 
Previous Year Questions
1.With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE, 2015)
1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b)
2.A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following? (UPSC CSE, 2015)
1. Slowing economic growth rate
2. Less equitable distribution of national income
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (a)
Previous year UPSC Mains Question Covering similar theme:
Define potential GDP and explain its determinants. What are the factors that have been inhibiting India from realizing its potential GDP? (UPSC CSE GS3, 2020)
Explain the difference between computing methodology of India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) before the year 2015 and after the year 2015. (UPSC CSE GS3, 2021)
 
Source: indianexpress
 

INDIA'S MIDDLE EAST POLICY

1. Context

When India signed a landmark economic partnership agreement with Oman on December 18, it signalled how decisively India’s Middle East policy has been transformed under Prime Minister Narendra Modi. Offering zero-duty access on over 98 per cent of its tariff lines for Indian exports, Oman has entered its first bilateral trade agreement since 2006

2. India's Middle East policy

India's Middle East policy is a significant aspect of its foreign policy, which aims to maintain and strengthen its diplomatic, economic, and strategic relationships with countries in the Middle East region. The Middle East policy of India is influenced by various factors, including energy security, trade, geopolitical considerations, and historical ties.

India's policy towards the Middle East 

  • One of the primary drivers of India's engagement with the Middle East is energy security. India is heavily dependent on oil and gas imports from Middle Eastern countries. Securing a stable and uninterrupted energy supply is a critical component of India's foreign policy.
  • India has historical and cultural ties with many countries in the Middle East, particularly with countries in the Gulf region. These relationships are often based on shared historical and cultural connections, including trade and migration.
  • The Middle East offers significant economic opportunities for India. It is a major trading partner for India, with exports of goods and services, including manpower (skilled and unskilled labour), playing a crucial role in India's economic growth.
  • India has a shared interest with many Middle Eastern countries in countering terrorism and promoting regional security. Cooperation in intelligence sharing, counterterrorism efforts, and defence partnerships are essential components of India's Middle East policy.
  • India's Middle East policy involves a delicate balancing act. It seeks to maintain good relations with countries in the region, even when they have conflicting interests, such as India's relationship with Israel and its historical support for the Palestinian cause.
  • India has a significant Indian diaspora in the Middle East, particularly in the Gulf countries. The welfare and protection of the Indian community living and working in the region are a priority for India's Middle East policy.
  • India is actively involved in regional and multilateral forums in the Middle East, such as the Arab League, the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), and the Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC). India's presence in these forums helps it strengthen its regional influence.
  • India has developed strategic partnerships with several Middle Eastern countries, including Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates (UAE), and Israel. These partnerships cover various aspects, including defence, security, and economic cooperation.
  • India often seeks to play a constructive role in addressing regional conflicts in the Middle East, such as the Israeli-Palestinian conflict and the situation in Yemen and Syria.
  • India's Middle East policy includes efforts to diversify its energy sources, reduce dependence on a few countries, and enhance energy security through strategic investments and partnerships.
 

3. Repercussions of the Israel-Palestine Conflict on India

  • An escalation in the conflict may disrupt India's trade relations with Israel, especially in defence technology. Israel is a significant supplier of defence equipment to India, and any disturbance in this trade could affect India's defence capabilities.
  • India traditionally maintains a balanced foreign policy approach towards Israel and Arab countries. An intensification of the conflict, potentially involving other Arab nations, could pose diplomatic challenges for India in maintaining its equilibrium.
  • India's economic and strategic interests in the Middle East have grown, particularly regarding initiatives like the India-Middle East-Europe economic corridor. Escalation and involvement of regional actors like Hezbollah and Iran could destabilize the region, impacting India's interests.
  • The Middle East is a crucial source of energy imports for India. Disruptions in the region's stability could potentially affect India's energy supply, leading to economic challenges.
  •  India has a significant expatriate population in Middle Eastern countries. Ensuring their safety and welfare is a top priority for India, and an escalation of the conflict may put their well-being at risk.

4. India's Stand

  • India has a long-standing history of supporting the Palestinian cause, opposing the UN's partition plan in 1947, and withholding full diplomatic relations with Israel for many years.
  • India recognized the statehood of Palestine in 1988 and was one of the first countries to do so.
  • India has adopted a balanced approach by recognizing both Israel and Palestine. In 2018, it de-hyphenated its relationship with both nations, treating them independently.
  • India has supported UNHRC resolutions to investigate human rights violations in Gaza. However, India also abstained from voting against Israel in UNHRC in 2015.
  • India advocates for peaceful dialogue and diplomacy as the primary means to resolve the conflict. It supports the Quartet and other international actors in facilitating peace talks between Israel and Palestine.

5. The way forward

India's Middle East policy is characterized by its pragmatism, adaptability, and the pursuit of its national interests. It aims to strike a balance between maintaining good relations with all countries in the region while securing its energy needs and expanding economic and strategic partnerships. This policy is continually evolving to respond to the changing dynamics in the Middle East and India's global aspirations.

 

For Prelims: Israel, India's Middle East policy, Gulf Cooperation Council, Organization of Islamic Cooperation, Arab League, 
For Mains: 
1. Analyze India's approach to countering terrorism and promoting regional security in the Middle East. How does India collaborate with Middle Eastern nations in these areas, and what are the implications for its foreign policy? (250 Words)

 

Previous Year Questions

1. Which of the following is NOT a member of Gulf Cooperation Council? (UPSC 2016)
A. Iran          B. Saudi Arabia             C. Oman            D. Kuwait
Answer: A
 
2. Which one of the following statements about the Organization of Islamic Cooperation is not correct? (CDS GK 2019) 
A. Its permanent Secretariat is located at Jeddah.
B. It endeavour's to safeguard and protect interests of the Muslim world in the spirit of promoting international peace and harmony among various people of the world.
C. It is the largest inter-governmental organization of the world
D. It has consultative and cooperative relations with the UN.
 
Answer: C

3. Consider the following pairs: (UPSC 2018)

  Towns sometimes mentioned in news Country
1. Aleppo Syria
2. Kirkuk Yemen
3. Mosul Palestine
4. Mazar-i-sharif Afghanistan

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2          (b) 1 and 4           (c) 2 and 3            (d) 3 and 4

Answer: B

4. Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea? (UPSC 2015)

(a) Syria
(b) Jordan
(c) Lebanon
(d) Israel

Answer: B

5. The area known as ‘Golan Heights’ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to (UPSC 2015)

(a) Central Asia
(b) Middle East
(c) South-East Asia
(d) Central Africa

Answer: B

6. Yom Kippur War was fought between which sides/ countries? (UPSC 2008)

(a) Turkey and Greece
(b) Serbs and Croats
(c) Israel, and Arab countries led by Egypt and Syria
(d) Iran and Iraq

Answer: C

Mains:

1.“India’s relations with Israel have, of late, acquired a depth and diversity, which cannot be rolled back.” Discuss (UPSC 2018)

Source: indianexpress


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