The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) of 2019 is a controversial piece of legislation enacted by the Government of India on December 12, 2019. The act amends the Citizenship Act of 1955 to provide a pathway to Indian citizenship for certain religious minorities from neighbouring countries.

Key features of the Citizenship Amendment Act include

• Eligibility Criteria: The CAA grants eligibility for Indian citizenship to Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian migrants who arrived in India from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan on or before December 31, 2014, and have faced religious persecution on their home countries.
• Exclusion of Muslims: Notably, the CAA excludes Muslims from its purview, leading to criticisms of religious discrimination and accusations of violating the secular principles enshrined in the Indian Constitution.
• Criticism and Protests: The Citizenship Amendment Act sparked widespread protests across India, with critics arguing that the act undermines the secular fabric of the nation and discriminates against Muslims. Protesters also raised concerns about the potential marginalisation of Muslim communities and the exclusionary nature of the legislation.
• Support from Government: The government defended the Citizenship Amendment Act, asserting that it aims to provide refuge and protection to persecuted religious minorities from neighbouring countries. The government argued that the act does not infringe upon the rights of Indian Muslims and is in line with the country's secular ethos.
• Legal Challenges: Several petitions challenging the constitutional validity of the Citizenship Amendment Act were filed in the Supreme Court of India. The court has heard arguments from both sides and is expected to deliver its judgment on the matter.

The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) of 2019 has sparked various concerns and criticisms, both domestically within India and internationally. 

• One of the primary concerns regarding the CAA is its exclusion of Muslims from the list of religious minorities eligible for citizenship under the act. Critics argue that this selective approach based on religion goes against the secular principles enshrined in India's constitution and promotes religious discrimination.
• The CAA's focus on granting citizenship based on religious identity raises concerns about the secular nature of India's democracy. Critics argue that the act undermines the inclusive and pluralistic ethos of the country by favouring specific religious communities.
• Opponents of the CAA fear that the act, coupled with other proposed policies like the National Register of Citizens (NRC) and National Population Register (NPR), could have implications for the demographic composition of India. They raise concerns about the marginalisation and exclusion of certain communities, particularly Muslims, and the potential for statelessness among vulnerable populations.
• The constitutionality of the Citizenship Amendment Act has been challenged in the Supreme Court of India. Critics argue that the act violates the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution, including the right to equality and non-discrimination.
• The implementation of the CAA has led to social and political polarization within India. The act has become a contentious issue, leading to protests, debates, and divisions along religious and ideological lines.
• The CAA has also attracted international attention and scrutiny, with concerns raised by human rights organizations and foreign governments regarding religious freedom, minority rights, and the potential impact on vulnerable communities.

5. The Indian ideas and rules of citizenship in the Constitution before the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), 2019

Before the enactment of the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) in 2019, the principles and rules of citizenship in India were primarily governed by the Constitution of India, which came into effect on January 26, 1950. The Constitution lays down the framework for citizenship and enshrines certain fundamental rights and principles related to citizenship. 

• Citizenship by Birth: According to Article 5 of the Indian Constitution, any person born in India on or after January 26, 1950, but before July 1, 1987, was automatically considered a citizen of India by birth, regardless of the nationality of their parents.
• Citizenship by Descent: Individuals born outside India on or after January 26, 1950, but before July 1, 1987, were eligible for Indian citizenship if either of their parents was a citizen of India at the time of their birth.
• Citizenship by Registration: The Constitution provides provisions for certain categories of persons to acquire Indian citizenship through registration. This includes persons of Indian origin who have resided in India for a specified period and meet other criteria prescribed by law.
• Citizenship by Naturalization: Foreigners who have resided in India for a specified period and fulfilled other conditions prescribed by law were eligible to apply for Indian citizenship through naturalization.
• Citizenship by Incorporation of Territory: Any territory that became part of India through accession or merger automatically conferred Indian citizenship on its inhabitants as per the provisions of the Constitution.
• Fundamental Rights: The Constitution guarantees certain fundamental rights to all citizens of India, regardless of their religion, ethnicity, or place of birth. These rights include the right to equality, freedom of speech and expression, freedom of religion, and the right to life and personal liberty.

• Citizenship Act, 1955: This act, enacted based on the Constitution's provisions, outlined ways to acquire Indian citizenship. Here are the main routes:

  • Birth: Being born in India (with some limitations) granted citizenship.
  • Descent: Children born to Indian parents abroad could become citizens.
  • Registration: People of Indian origin residing in India for seven years could register.
  • Naturalization: Foreigners meeting specific residency requirements could apply for naturalization.

The Indian Constitution before the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) of 2019 outlined principles of citizenship that were based on inclusivity, equality, and non-discrimination, with provisions for acquiring citizenship through birth, descent, registration, naturalization, and territorial incorporation. The CAA introduced amendments to these principles, particularly regarding eligibility for citizenship based on religious identity.

6. Section 6A of the Citizenship Act

Section 6A is a special provision inserted into the Indian Citizenship Act, 1955, in 1985, as part of the Assam Accord. It deals with the citizenship of people who migrated to Assam from Bangladesh:

• It applies to people who entered Assam on or after January 1, 1966, but before March 25, 1971.
• It grants citizenship to these people if they can prove that they were "ordinarily resident" in Assam on March 24, 1971.
• People who claim citizenship under Section 6A must apply to a Foreigners Tribunal. The Tribunal will then decide whether or not to grant them citizenship based on the evidence they provide.

7. What does NRC mean?

• NRC stands for the National Register of Citizens. It is a register maintained by the Government of India containing names and certain relevant information for the identification of Indian citizens in the state of Assam.
• The purpose of the NRC is to create a list of genuine Indian citizens residing in Assam and identify individuals who are not legal residents of the state.
• The NRC process in Assam has its origins in the Assam Accord of 1985, which aimed to address the issue of illegal immigration from Bangladesh and determine the citizenship status of individuals living in Assam.
• The NRC process requires individuals to provide documentary evidence to prove their citizenship based on criteria set by the government.
• The NRC process involves extensive documentation and verification to establish citizenship status, and it has been a contentious issue due to its impact on individuals' rights and concerns about exclusion and discrimination.
• The implementation of the NRC in Assam has led to debates, legal challenges, and social tensions regarding citizenship and immigration issues in India.

8. What is NPR?

• NPR stands for the National Population Register. It is a register of usual residents of India, which includes both citizens and non-citizens who have resided in a local area for at least six months or intend to stay for the next six months or more.
• The NPR is prepared at the local, sub-district, district, state, and national levels under the provisions of the Citizenship Act, 1955, and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.
• The main purpose of the NPR is to create a comprehensive identity database of residents in India. It collects demographic and biometric information to establish the identity of individuals and households.
• The data collected in the NPR includes details such as name, age, gender, marital status, occupation, educational qualification, address, and other relevant information.
• The NPR process involves house-to-house enumeration and collection of data by government officials or designated enumerators. The data collected is used for various purposes, including government planning, policy formulation, and social welfare schemes.
• It's important to note that the NPR is distinct from the National Register of Citizens (NRC). While the NPR focuses on creating a comprehensive database of residents, the NRC specifically deals with determining the citizenship status of individuals, particularly in the state of Assam, based on documentary evidence.
• The NPR has been a topic of discussion and debate in India, with concerns raised about privacy, data security, and potential misuse of information.

9. The difference between the NRC, NPR and CAA 

10. Is NPR connected to NRC?

11. Who are ‘Citizens’?

In general terms, citizens are individuals who hold citizenship in a particular country. Citizenship is a legal status that grants individuals certain rights, privileges, and responsibilities within the nation-state to which they belong. The concept of citizenship varies across different countries, but some common characteristics of citizenship include.

1. Legal Recognition: Citizens are legally recognized members of a country or state. They are entitled to the protection of the state and have access to its legal system.
2. Rights and Privileges: Citizens typically enjoy certain rights and privileges that non-citizens may not have, such as the right to vote, the right to work and reside in the country, access to social services, and the right to participate in the political process.
3. Responsibilities: Along with rights and privileges, citizenship also entails certain responsibilities, such as obeying the laws of the country, paying taxes, serving on juries if called upon, and sometimes participating in military service.
4. National Identity: Citizenship often involves a sense of national identity and belonging to a particular community or nation. This can include shared cultural, historical, and linguistic ties that bind citizens together.
5. Acquisition and Loss: Citizenship can be acquired through birth (jus soli or jus sanguinis), naturalization, or descent from a citizen parent. It can also be lost or renounced voluntarily or involuntarily, depending on the laws of the country.

CYCLONES

 

 

1. Context

Tropical cyclones are powerful and destructive weather systems that form over warm tropical ocean basins. where sea surface temperatures are above 26.5 degree C. These storms are characterised by strong winds, heavy precipitation and storm surges and can cause significant damage to coastal communities and infrastructure.

 

2. What is a Cyclone

• A cyclone is a low-pressure system that forms over warm waters. Essentially, it is a system of high-speed winds rotating around a low-pressure area, with the winds blowing counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
• According to the World Meteorological Organization, “Tropical cyclones are one of the biggest threats to life and property even in the formative stages of their development.
• Cyclonic winds move across nearly all regions of the Earth except the equatorial belt and are generally associated with rain or snow
• They include several different hazards that can individually cause significant impacts on life and property, such as storm surge, flooding, extreme winds, tornadoes and lighting.
• Combined, these hazards interact with one another and substantially increase the potential for loss of life and material damage.”
• Cyclones occur chiefly in the middle and high latitude belts of both hemispheres. In the Southern Hemisphere, where most of the terrestrial surface is covered by the oceans, cyclones are distributed in a relatively uniform manner through various longitudes
• Characteristically, they form in latitudes 30° to 40° S and move in a generally southeasterly direction, reaching maturity in latitudes around 60°. 
• Cyclones that form closer to the Equator (i.e., at latitudes 10° to 25° north and south over the oceans) differ somewhat in character from the extratropical variety. Such wind systems, known as tropical cyclones, are much smaller in diameter. 
• Whereas extratropical cyclones range from nearly 1,000 to 4,000 km (620 to 2,500 miles) across, tropical cyclones typically measure only about 100 to over 1,000 km in diameter.

 

 

PC: Brittanica

 

3. Types of cyclones

3.1.Tropical Cyclones

Cyclones developed in the tropics region (the majority confined to 10⁰– 30⁰ N and S of the equator) are called tropical cyclones.

• tropical cyclones have a thermal origin, and they develop over tropical seas during certain seasons. Pre-existing low pressure, large sea surface with a temperature higher than 27° C, and the presence of the Coriolis force are a must for tropical cyclone formation.
  
  
• At these locations, the local convectional currents acquire a whirling motion because of the Coriolis force generated by the earth’s rotation. After developing, these cyclones advance till they find a weak spot in the trade wind belt.
  
  
• Tropical cyclones always originate in large water bodies.

3.2.Temperate Cyclone

Temperate cyclones (Mid-Latitude cyclones), also known as Extratropical cyclones, are active over the mid-latitudinal regions between 35° latitude and 65° latitude in both hemispheres.

• They have a dynamic origin and cyclone formation is due to frontogenesis (interaction of cold and warm fronts). When the warm-humid air masses from the tropics meet the dry-cold air masses from the poles and thus a polar front is formed as a surface of discontinuity. The cold air pushes the warm air upwards from underneath. Thus, a void is created because of the lessening of pressure. The surrounding air rushed in to occupy this void and coupled with the earth’s rotation, a temperate cyclone is formed. 
• Temperate cyclones can originate on both landmass or water.

4. How are cyclones named?

Cyclones that form in every ocean basin across the world are named by the regional specialised meteorological centres (RSMCs) and Tropical Cyclone Warning Centres (TCWCs). There are six RSMCs in the world, including the India Meteorological Department (IMD), and five TCWCs.

As an RSMC, the IMD names the cyclones developing over the north Indian Ocean, including the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea, after following a standard procedure. The IMD is also mandated to issue advisories to 12 other countries in the region on the development of cyclones and storms.

 

 

For Prelims:  Indian and World Geography-Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World For Mains: General Studies I: Important Geophysical phenomena such as earthquakes, Tsunami, Volcanic activity, cyclone etc., geographical features and their location-changes in critical geographical features and in flora and fauna and the effects of such changes

 

Previous Year Questions   1.Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2020) 1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. 2. Only some cyclones develop an eye. 3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 Only B. 2 and 3 Only C. 2 Only D. 1 and 3 Only Answer (C) 2.In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclones do not originate. What is the reason? (UPSC Prelims GS1, 2015) (a) Sea surface temperatures are low (b) Inter-tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs (c) Coriolis force is too weak (d) Absence of land in those regions Answer (a)   1.Tropical cyclones are largely confined to South China Sea, Bay of Bengal and Gulf of Mexico. Why? (GS-1, 2014) 2.The recent cyclone on the east coast of India was called “Phailin”. How are the tropical cyclones named across the world? (GS-1, 2013)

Source: indianexpress

 

VAIKOM SATYAGRAHA

 

1. Context

March 30 was a significant day in connection with Vaikom, a serene town in Kottayam, Kerala. The date also marks the commencement of the centenary year of the Vaikom temple street entry movement that was launched in 1924, and a milestone in temple entry movements in India.

 Source: Hindu

2. About Vaikom

• Vaikom is situated on the western side of Kottayam district in the Indian state of Kerela.
• It share its border with Vembanad Lake.
• Its importance in Indian history is due to the vaikom Satyagraha against untouchability, in which Mahatma Gandhi and Periyar Ramasamy participated.

3. Historical Background

• According to the prevalent caste system in Kereal and the rest of India, low-caste Hindus were not allowed to enter into the temples.
• In Kerela, they were not allowed even to walk on the roads that led to the temples also.(Kerela state was formed in 1956; earlier it was broadly divided into Malabar (North Kerala), Cochin and Travancore kingdoms).
• In the Kakinada meet of the Congress Party in 1923, T K Madhavan presented a report citing the discrimination that the depressed caste people were facing in Kerela. In Kerela, a committee was formed comprising people of different castes to fight untouchability.
• The committee chaired by K Kelappan, comprised of T K Madhavan, Velayudha Menon, K Neelakantan Namboorthiri and TR Krishnaswami Iyer.
• In February 1924, they decided a launch a 'Keralaparyatanam' in order to get temple entry and also the right to use public roads for every Hindu irrespective of caste or creed.

4. Cause of Vaikom Satyagraha

• The Vaikom movement started on March 30, 1924. At Vaikom Mahadeva Temple, lower caste people (Avarnas) were denied entry by the board.
• The Satyagrahis made the batched of three people together and entered the temple. They were resisted and arrested by the local police.
• Gandhi, Sree Narayana Guru, and Chattampi Swamikal supported the movement. The Movement gained prominence with in entire India and support came from far and wide.
• The Akalis of Punjab supported by fixing kitchens to supply food to the Satyagrahis. Even Muslim and Christian leaders were in suppor of the movement. However, Gandhi was not entirely happy with this as he wanted the movement to be an intra-Hindu Affair.
• On Gandhi's advice, temporarily the movement was taken back in April 1924. After the failure of discussions among Hindus, the leaders again started the movement. Leaders K P Keseva Menon and T M Madhavan were arrested.
• E V Ramaswami Naicker travelled from Tamil Nadu to support the movement. He was arrested too.
• On 1st October 1924, a team of upper caste called Savarnas moved forward during a procession and submitted a petition on the Regent Maharani Sethu Lakshmi Bai of Travancore with about 25000 signatures for allowing entry to the temple for everybody. Gandhiji also met with the Regent Maharani.
• The Procession was led by Mannath Padmanabhan from Beginning with approximately 500 people at Vaikom, the amount increased to 5000 approximately when the procession reached Thiruvananthapuram in the month of November 1924.

5. Importance of the Vaikom Satyagraha

• On 23rd November 1925, except for the eastern gate, all the gates of the temple were opened to Hindus.
• In 1928, backward castes got the right to move on public roads in the vicinity of all temples in Travancore.
• This was the primary time that an organised movement was being conducted on such a huge scale for the essential rights of the untouchables and other backward castes in Kerela.
• It became a first struggle for human rights in India.
• It became a laboratory for testing important methods such as Satyagrahas.
• Instilled rationality among the masses.

6. Role of Periyar in Vaikom Satyagraha

• The satyagraga began on March 30, 1924 with the active support of the Kerala Pradesh Congress Committee (KPCC).
• The KPCC wrote to Periyar pleading with him to lead the satyagraha.
• As he was then the president of the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee, Periyar handed over temporary charge to Rajaji before reaching Vaikom on April 13, 1924.
• He was part of every consultative meeting, peace committee, campaign party etc., including the eight-member deputaion constituted to meet the Diwan.
• Every major personality who came to Vaikom met with Periyar, this included Swami Sharaddhanda of the Arya Samaj, Rajaji met Periyar, Sree Narayana Guru and Gandhi.

For Prelims & Mains

For Prelims: Vaikom satyagraha, Temple entry Movement, Kerala Pradesh Congress Committee (KPCC),  Gandhi, Sree Narayana Guru, and Chattampi Swamikal, and Periyar. For Mains: 1. Explain the historical background  of Vaikom Satyagraha. Disucss the significance of it and role of periyar in vaikom satyagraha (250 Words)

Source: The Hindu

Previous year Question

1. In the contexts of Indian history, which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Vaikom Satyagraha ? (UPPSC 2021). 1. It was a satyagraha against untouchability and caste discrimination. 2. Mahatma Gandhi participated in this Satyagraha. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer : C

Source:Indianexpress

 

INDIA EMPLOYMENT REPORT 2024

 

 

1. Context

 

The India Employment Report 2024, prepared jointly by the Institute of Human Development (IHD) and the International Labour Organization (ILO), and released on March 26, revolves around “youth employment, education and skills.” It has analysed trends and patterns of the Indian labour market for two decades, including the COVID-19 years, and listed the “emerging characteristics of the employment challenges now confronting the economy as well as the impact of growth on employment.”

 

2. What are the key findings?

• According to the report's authors, the percentage of India's working-age population (aged 15–59) rose from 61% in 2011 to 64% in 2021 and is expected to reach 65% by 2036. Each year, approximately 7-8 million young individuals join the labor force.
• Although the proportion of young people receiving education increased from 18% in 2000 to 35% in 2022, the percentage of economically active youth decreased from 52% to 37% over the same period.
• The authors caution that unemployment in the country is mainly a concern among the youth, particularly those with a secondary education or higher, and this issue has escalated over time.
• They highlight that in 2022, nearly 82.9% of the total unemployed population consisted of young individuals. Additionally, the proportion of educated youth among all unemployed individuals rose from 54.2% in 2000 to 65.7% in 2022.
• Furthermore, among educated unemployed youth (with a secondary education or higher), a larger percentage were women (76.7%) compared to men (62.2%)

3.What is the quality of employment?

 

• According to the ILO and IHD, employment remains characterized by low productivity and earnings, with real wages either declining or stagnating.
• A significant portion of both regular (40.8%) and casual (51.9%) workers fall short of receiving the average daily minimum wage set for unskilled labor, which stands at ₹480 per day as mandated by the government.
• The findings of the report have raised concerns among central trade unions and the Samyukt Kisan Morcha. Senior trade union leader Amarjeet Kaur highlights the "wage depression" highlighted in the ILO report, particularly alarming amidst unchecked food inflation.
• She notes that formal employment accounts for a mere 9% of total employment, leaving the majority of the workforce without any social security coverage.
• Kaur underscores the detrimental impact this has on unemployment and underemployment, as those without formal jobs struggle to invest in education and skill development for future generations.
• The authors of the report suggest that individuals with higher levels of education are more likely to secure stable, formal employment with higher earnings.
• They point out that youth in the southern, western, and northeastern regions have better prospects of formal employment, while also highlighting the prevalence of socially marginalized youth in informal sectors

Why are jobs scarce in the formal sector?   Trade unions contend that thousands of posts have not beenfilled for years and the policy of letting one-third of the vacancies lapse after retirements have resulted in the decrease of formal employment. The trend of contractual appointments and clamour for consultancies are also blamed for the dip in formal jobs.

 

4.Gender Gap

 

• A notable disparity exists in the labor market concerning gender, marked by a low level of female participation. The authors of the report observed that this gender gap in labor force participation rates has remained relatively stable over the last two decades.
• In 2022, the participation rate of young men in the labor force stood at 61.2%, nearly three times higher than that of young women, which was at 21.7%. This gender discrepancy was consistent across both rural and urban areas. The report's authors also highlighted a significant portion of young individuals, especially women, who are neither in education, employment, nor training.
• Between 2012 and 2019, there was a concerning rise in unemployment attributed to the declining participation of women in the workforce. However, this trend has seen a slight reversal post-2019

5. Recommendations of Report

• The authors of the report projected that India would experience sustained economic growth of 5-6% over the next approximately 15 years. They emphasized that rapid technological advancements and economic expansion have widened the gap between the supply and demand of skills.
• Therefore, policymakers were urged to implement targeted measures to swiftly integrate young people into the workforce.
• To tackle these challenges, the authors proposed "five missions": enhancing employment intensity in production and growth, enhancing job quality, addressing labor market inequalities, improving the effectiveness of skills training systems and active labor market policies, and addressing knowledge gaps regarding labor market trends and youth employment.
• They suggested integrating employment generation with macroeconomic and other policies to promote productive non-farm employment and advocated for supporting micro, small, and medium-sized enterprises while promoting decentralization

6. Way Forward

 

The report’s authors have urged the government to take steps to increase agriculture productivity, create more non-farm jobs and promote entrepreneurship. Calling for a focus on policies that boost women’s participation in the labour force, theyalso sought a minimum quality of employment and basic rights of workers across all sectors

 

For Prelims: Labor Force Participation Rate (LFPR), Employment Rate (ER), Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE), and Labour Force. For Mains: 1. Discuss the significance of the Labor Force Participation Rate (LFPR) as a critical labor market indicator in the context of economic development and policy formulation. (250 words).

 

Previous Year Questions   1. In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (UPSC 2022) A. Central Statistics Office B. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade C. Labour Bureau D. National Technical Manpower Information System Answer: C   2. Which of the following brings out the 'Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers'? (UPSC 2015) A. The Reserve Bank of India B. The Department of Economic Affairs C. The Labour Bureau D. The Department of Personnel and Training Answer: C   3. International Labour Organization's Conventions 138 and 182 are related to (UPSC 2018) A. Child labour B. Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change C. Regulation of food prices and food D. Security Answer: A   4. Which of the following statements about the employment situation in India according to the periodic Labour Force Survey 2017-18 is/are correct? (UPSC CAPF 2020) 1. Construction sector gave employment to nearly one-tenth of the urban male workforce in India. 2. Nearly one-fourth of urban female workers in India were working in the manufacturing sector. 3. One-fourth of rural female workers in India were engaged in the agriculture sector. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 2 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: B

Source: The Hindu

KATCHATHEEVU ISLAND 

 

 

 

1. Context 

 

Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently criticised the Congress party for its decision regarding the island of Katchatheevu, calling it a careless move. This criticism stems from revelations made by BJP Tamil Nadu chief K Annamalai, who obtained documents suggesting that Congress did not prioritise the significance of the tiny, uninhabited island.

 

 

2. Location of Katchatheevu Island

Katchatheevu is a small, uninhabited island covering 285 acres situated in the Palk Strait, positioned between India and Sri Lanka. It measures approximately 1.6 kilometres in length and slightly over 300 meters wide at its widest point.

• The island is located northeast of Rameswaram, around 33 kilometres from the Indian coastline. It is situated approximately 62 kilometres southwest of Jaffna, which is at the northern tip of Sri Lanka. Moreover, Katchatheevu is about 24 kilometres away from Delft Island, an inhabited island that belongs to Sri Lanka.
• The notable feature on Katchatheevu Island is the St. Anthony’s Church, built in the early 20th century. This Catholic shrine holds cultural and religious importance, especially during its annual festival. Christian priests from both India and Sri Lanka conduct services during this festival, attracting devotees from both countries who make pilgrimages to the island. In 2023, around 2,500 Indians travelled from Rameswaram to participate in this significant event.
• Despite its religious and cultural significance, Katchatheevu is not suitable for permanent human settlement due to the absence of a reliable source of drinking water on the island. This limitation restricts any long-term habitation on the island, making it primarily a site for occasional religious gatherings and pilgrimages.

 

3. Historical Background of Katchatheevu Island

Katchatheevu Island, formed as a result of a volcanic eruption in the 14th century, holds a relatively recent place in the geological timeline.

• During the early medieval period, Katchatheevu was under the control of the Jaffna kingdom of Sri Lanka. However, by the 17th century, control shifted to the Ramnad Zamindari, which was based in Ramanathapuram, approximately 55 kilometres northwest of Rameswaram.
• With the advent of colonial rule, Katchatheevu became part of the Madras Presidency under the British administration. In 1921, both India and Sri Lanka, then British colonies, laid claim to Katchatheevu to delineate fishing boundaries in the region.
• A survey conducted during this period marked Katchatheevu as part of Sri Lanka. However, a British delegation from India contested this claim, asserting ownership of the island by the Ramnad kingdom.
• The dispute over the ownership of Katchatheevu persisted until 1974 when a final resolution was reached. This resolution marked a significant milestone in clarifying the status of the island and delineating the maritime boundaries between India and Sri Lanka.

 

4. Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime Agreement and Fishing Rights

In 1974, efforts were made by then-Prime Minister Indira Gandhi to resolve the maritime border dispute between India and Sri Lanka permanently. This initiative led to the establishment of the 'Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime Agreement,' which resulted in the cession of Katchatheevu to Sri Lanka by India.

• Under the agreement, Indira Gandhi decided to "cede" Katchatheevu to Sri Lanka, perceiving the island to hold little strategic value for India. This move was intended to strengthen diplomatic ties between the two neighbouring countries.
• Despite ceding the island, Indian fishermen were granted continued access to Katchatheevu as per the agreement, maintaining their traditional fishing practices in the region. However, the agreement did not explicitly address the issue of fishing rights, leading to subsequent challenges and differing interpretations.
• Sri Lanka interpreted Indian fishermen's access to Katchatheevu as limited to activities such as resting, drying nets, and visiting the Catholic shrine, without requiring a visa. This interpretation created ambiguity regarding the extent of fishing rights granted to Indian fishermen in the waters surrounding Katchatheevu.
• In 1976, another agreement during India's Emergency period further complicated matters by prohibiting both countries from fishing in each other's Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs). However, Katchatheevu lies at the boundary of both countries' EEZs, adding to the uncertainty surrounding fishing rights and activities in the region.
• The agreements made in the 1970s regarding Katchatheevu and fishing rights have left unresolved issues, contributing to periodic tensions and disputes between Indian fishermen and Sri Lankan authorities. The lack of clear delineation and mutual understanding regarding fishing access around Katchatheevu continues to be a contentious issue between India and Sri Lanka.

5. Impact of the Sri Lankan Civil War on Katchatheevu

The period between 1983 and 2009 was marked by the Sri Lankan Civil War, during which the border dispute involving Katchatheevu took a back seat amidst the intense conflict.

• During the civil war, Sri Lankan naval forces were primarily focused on combating the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) based in Jaffna. This preoccupation allowed Indian fishermen to venture deep into Sri Lankan waters without significant repercussions. Incursions by Indian fishermen, especially using larger trawlers, became common during this time. These activities led to tensions as they not only overfished but also caused damage to Sri Lankan fishing equipment and vessels.
• The end of the civil war in 2009 brought about significant changes. Sri Lanka bolstered its maritime defences and shifted its attention to issues such as illegal fishing activities by Indian fishermen.
• Indian fishermen, facing resource depletion in Indian waters, continued to venture into Sri Lankan waters as they had done for years. However, with increased surveillance and stricter enforcement post-civil war, they began facing arrests and other consequences by the Sri Lankan navy.
• To this day, the Sri Lankan navy regularly apprehends Indian fishermen for illegal fishing activities in Sri Lankan waters. Incidents of alleged custodial torture and deaths have also been reported, further complicating the situation. Each such incident reignites demands to revisit the issue of Katchatheevu and its impact on fishing rights and maritime boundaries between India and Sri Lanka. The historical context of the island's ownership and fishing rights continues to be a source of contention and debate between the two nations.

 

6. Tamil Nadu's Stance on Katchatheevu

The issue of Katchatheevu holds significant political and emotional weight in Tamil Nadu, with successive governments and leaders advocating for its retrieval and the restoration of fishing rights for Tamil fishermen.

• The decision to "cede" Katchatheevu to Sri Lanka in 1974 without consulting the Tamil Nadu state assembly sparked immediate protests. This decision was seen as infringing on traditional fishing rights and livelihoods of Indian Tamil fishermen, given the historical ties of the Ramnad Zamindari to the island.
• The Tamil Nadu Assembly has consistently demanded the retrieval of Katchatheevu and the restoration of fishing rights. Leaders like J Jayalalitha and MK Stalin, among others, have actively pursued this agenda through legal and diplomatic channels.
• In 2008, Jayalalitha filed a petition arguing that ceding Katchatheevu required a constitutional amendment and had adversely affected fishermen's rights. Similar efforts were made by other leaders, including appeals to the Supreme Court.
• Despite Tamil Nadu's persistent demands, the Union government's stance has remained unchanged. It asserts that since Katchatheevu has been under dispute historically, no territorial or sovereignty claims were ceded.
• While there is vocal demand for Katchatheevu's retrieval, practical challenges hinder such efforts. The Union government has pointed out that revisiting Katchatheevu's status would require drastic measures, potentially leading to diplomatic complexities or conflict.

 

7. The Way Forward

 

Resolving the Katchatheevu issue requires a delicate approach that acknowledges historical claims, addresses Tamil Nadu's concerns, and prioritises peaceful coexistence with Sri Lanka. Open communication, diplomatic efforts, and a focus on mutually beneficial solutions like designated fishing zones or joint patrols hold promise for a sustainable resolution.

 

 

For Prelims: India-Sri Lanka, Katchatheevu island, LTTE, Sri Lanka Civil War, Exclusive Economic Zones For Mains:  1. The Katchatheevu dispute highlights the complexities of maritime border demarcation. How can India ensure the security of its fishermen and promote sustainable fishing practices in the Palk Strait? (250 words) 2. You are a senior diplomat tasked with finding a solution to the Katchatheevu dispute. Outline a framework for negotiations that considers the historical, economic, and social aspects of the issue. (250 words)

 

 

Previous Year Questions    1. Katchatheevu Island was ceded by India to which Country in 1974 (SSC CPO 2017) A. Sri Lanka           B.Maldives           C.Indonesia               D.Myanmar     2. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022) 1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention. 2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. 3. The Exclusive Economic zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? A.1 and 2 only     B.2 and 3 only         C.1 and 3 only            D.1, 2 and 3   Answers: 1-A, 2-D

 

Source: The Indian Express

MONTREAL GLOBAL BIODIVERSITY FRAMEWORK (GBF)

 

 

 

 

1. Context

 

The University of Arizona organised a symposium on March 21-22 focusing on the rights of indigenous peoples. During the event, attention was drawn to the potential impact of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) on India's tribes, particularly in light of the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act of 2023. Many participants at the symposium expressed concerns about the significant challenges this could pose to India's indigenous communities, who are already struggling due to the creation of national parks.

 

 

2. About the Kunming-Montreal GBF

• The GBF was adopted during the 15th Conference of the Parties to the UN Convention on Biological Diversity in December 2022, following an extensive four-year consultation and negotiation process. This framework is aimed at supporting the achievement of sustainable development goals and building upon previous strategic plans to create a world that lives in harmony with nature by 2050.
• The GBF sets out four goals to be achieved by 2050 and 23 targets for 2030. These targets cover various aspects such as planning, monitoring, reporting, and reviewing implementation strategies, organising finances, developing capacity, enhancing technical and scientific cooperation, and establishing agreements on digital sequence information related to genetic resources.
• Upon adopting the GBF, all participating parties establish committees to set national targets for its implementation. Notably, New Delhi-based rights activist Suhas Chakma highlighted Target 3 of the Kunming-Montreal GBF during an event.
• Target 3 aims to increase the coverage of terrestrial, inland water, coastal, and marine areas, especially those of significant importance for biodiversity and ecosystem functions and services, to at least 30% of the world's terrestrial area. Currently, protected areas (PAs) cover approximately 16% of the world's terrestrial area.

3. Implications of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework

The 'Symposium on Conservation, Racism, and Indigenous Peoples Human Rights' highlighted several implications of the GBF and related conservation efforts on indigenous communities and their rights.

Corporate Interests vs. Indigenous Communities

Participants expressed concerns that the goals outlined in the GBF may inadvertently favour corporate interests, particularly those seeking access to forest resources. This could come at the expense of indigenous communities who have traditionally lived in harmony with nature. Examples were cited, such as indigenous peoples in Indonesia's Ujungkulon National Park being denied basic rights like housing, health, education, electricity, and security.

Legal Challenges and Displacement

The symposium also discussed legal challenges faced by indigenous leaders, such as Heng Saphen in Cambodia, who was convicted for cultivating her own land within the Beng Per Wildlife Sanctuary. There were mentions of land being sold to private firms within protected areas, leading to displacement and loss of traditional livelihoods for indigenous communities.

Involvement of Private Sector

Criticism was directed towards the involvement of the private sector in forest conservation efforts. The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act of 2023 in India, which includes activities like zoos, safaris, and ecotourism as part of forest activities, was highlighted as a step in this direction. Participants argued that such initiatives could further marginalize indigenous communities.

Critique of Conservation Practices

The symposium reflected on the historical context of protected areas (PAs) being initially created for recreational purposes and hunting grounds, often benefiting colonial elites. The concept of ecotourism and sustainable ecotourism projects was also criticized for reducing indigenous peoples to tourist attractions, where they are expected to perform traditional cultural practices in a way that commodifies their identity and heritage.

 

4. Impact of the GBF on India

The implementation of the GBF in India has significant implications, particularly concerning the rights and livelihoods of indigenous communities living in areas designated as national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.

Threat to Indigenous Communities

Activists point out that a large percentage (84%) of India's national parks, out of a total of 106, are situated in areas traditionally inhabited by indigenous peoples. Achieving the targets set by the GBF, especially in terms of expanding protected areas, could directly threaten the existence and way of life of these indigenous communities.

Specific Cases

Several specific examples were cited to illustrate the potential impact of conservation efforts on indigenous groups. For instance, plans to upgrade the Kumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary in Rajasthan to a tiger reserve would affect 162 tribal villages both inside and outside the sanctuary. Similarly, the expansion of the Nauradehi Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh is expected to impact 62 predominantly tribal villages.

Challenges in Assam

In Assam, the establishment of the Barak Bhuban Wildlife Sanctuary has raised concerns among indigenous groups. The gazette notification for this sanctuary claimed that it was free from encroachment and had no existing rights or concessions, but indigenous communities such as the Khasis possess historical documents indicating their long-standing presence in the area dating back to 1914.

Balancing Conservation and Indigenous Rights

The situation in India highlights the ongoing challenge of balancing conservation goals with the rights and needs of indigenous communities. Ensuring meaningful consultation, participation, and recognition of indigenous land rights are crucial aspects that need to be considered in the implementation of conservation initiatives like those outlined in the GBF. Finding a sustainable and equitable approach is essential to avoid further marginalization and displacement of indigenous peoples.

 

5. Strategies to Protect Tribal Lands

Addressing the concerns raised regarding the protection of tribal lands and the rights of indigenous communities requires a comprehensive and rights-based approach. 

Recognition of Rights

The government of India should recognize and uphold the right to free, prior, and informed consent, as guaranteed under the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act. This recognition is crucial in ensuring that tribal communities have a say in decisions affecting their lands and resources.

Empowering Tribals as Custodians

Amendments to laws should be made to designate tribals as custodians of Protected Areas (PAs). Tribals have historically maintained a special relationship with forests and wildlife, making them natural custodians of these areas. Empowering them in this role can enhance conservation efforts while respecting indigenous knowledge and practices.

Equitable Allocation of Conservation Efforts

The government should ensure that conservation efforts are not disproportionately targeted at tribal areas based solely on electoral considerations. The creation of Protected Areas (PAs) should be equitable, considering biodiversity needs across different regions, as exemplified by the presence of tiger reserves in non-tribal areas like Sahyadri, Satkosia, Kamlang, Kawal, and Dampa.

Addressing Human Rights Violations

Serious attention should be given to addressing human rights violations within Protected Areas. Indigenous communities within these areas must have access to essential services such as education, healthcare, and housing. Their contributions to biodiversity preservation should be acknowledged and respected, and they should not face punitive measures for their traditional way of life.

 

6. The Way Forward

India can strive for a more balanced approach to conservation that protects biodiversity while safeguarding the rights and livelihoods of its indigenous communities. This will require close collaboration between the government, indigenous communities, conservation organizations, and civil society.

 

For Prelims: Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF), tribes, Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act of 2023, Protected Areas, Barak Bhuban Wildlife Sanctuary, Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act For Mains:  1. Discuss the potential impact of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) on India's indigenous communities, especially in relation to the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act of 2023.  (250 Words)

 

Previous Year Questions 1. Which of the following statements about tropical rainforests are correct? (UPSC CAPF 2021) 1. The soils of tropical rainforests are quite infertile. 2. The vegetation is evergreen, enabling photosynthesis to take place year around. 3. They have been described as 'deserts covered by trees'. 4. They are the most productive land-based ecosystem. Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 2 and 4 only             B. 1, 3, and 4 only        C. 1, 2, and 3 only           D. 1, 2, 3 and 4     2. "If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys." Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement? (UPSC 2022) A. The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation, and evaporation. B. Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles, and mammals thrive. C. Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization. D. Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.     3. If the tropical rainforest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to the tropical deciduous forest. This is because (UPSC 2011) A. The soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients. B. propagules of the trees in the rainforest have poor viability. C. The rainforest species are slow-growing. D. exotic species invades the fertile soil of rain forest.     4. Consider the following States: 1. Arunachal Pradesh 2. Himachal Pradesh 3. Mizoram In which of the above States do 'Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests' occur? (UPSC 2015) A. 1 only       B. 2 and 3 only           C. 1 and 3 only          D. 1, 2 and 3     5. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently published the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, in 2020. Which of the following statements is correct about EIA? (Punjab Civil Service 2020) 1. It predicts the effect of a proposed industrial/infrastructural project on the environment. 2. It prevents the proposed activity/project from being approved without proper oversight or taking adverse consequences into account. 3. It compares various alternatives for a project and seeks to identify the one which represents the best combination of economic and environmental costs and benefits. 4. As per the new notification, Coal and non-Coal mineral prospecting and solar photovoltaic projects do not need prior environmental clearance. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. Only 1 and 2  B. Only 2, 3 and 4      C. Only 1, 2 and 3      D. Only 1, 2 and 4     6. With reference to the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements: (UPSC 2014) 1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests. 2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education, and public awareness. 3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 only          B. 2 only            C. 2 and 3 only              D. 1, 2 and 3     7. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019) 1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels. 2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  A. 1 only          B. 2 only             C. Both 1 and 2                D. Neither 1 nor 2   8. Consider the following States: (UPSC 2019) 1. Chhattisgarh 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Maharashtra 4. Odisha With reference to the State mentioned above, in terms of the percentage of forest cover to the total area of the State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order? A. 2-3-1-4        B. 2-3-4-1         C. 3-2-4-1                D. 3-2-1-4     9. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (UPSC 2021) (a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj (c) Ministry of Rural Development (d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs   10. A particular State in India has the following characteristics: (UPSC 2012) 1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan. 2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover. 3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes the Protected Area Network in this State. Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics? (a) Arunachal Pradesh          (b) Assam       (c) Himachal Pradesh        (d) Uttarakhand   11. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019) 1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas. 2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce. 3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers. Which of the statement given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only         B. 2 and 3 only         C. 3 only             D. 1, 2 and 3     12. The Indian Forest Act 1927 was enacted after repealing which of the following Indian forest acts? (SSC CGL 2021) A. Indian Forest Act, 1922 B. Indian Forest Act, 1878 C. Indian Forest Act, 1865 D. Indian Forest Act, 1882     13. In which year Forest Conservation Act was passed? (UPTET 2019) A.  1986     B. 1990           C. 1980         D. 1988   14. The government of India encourage the cultivation of 'sea buckthorn'. What is the importance of this plant? (UPSC 2012) 1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification. 2. It is a rich source of biodiesel 3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes. 4. Its timber is of great commercial value. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only         B. 2, 3 and 4 only         C. 1 and 3 only         D. 1, 2, 3 and 4   15. With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2015) 1. It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples. 2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management. 3. It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance. Select the correct answer using the code” given below. (a) 1 only   (b) 2 and 3 only          (c) 1 and 3 only             (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answers: 1-D, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C, 5-D, 6-C,7-A, 8-C, 9-D, 10-A, 11-B, 12-B, 13-C, 14-C, 15-C,    Mains 1. What are the consequences of Illegal mining? Discuss the Ministry of Environment and Forests’ concept of GO AND NO GO zones for coal mining sector. (UPSC 2013) 2. Examine the status of forest resources of India and its resultant impact on climate change. (UPSC 2020)

 

 Source: The Hindu