• The BrahMos missile is a supersonic cruise missile jointly developed by India's Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia's NPO Mashinostroyeniya. Its name is a portmanteau of the Brahmaputra and Moskva rivers.
• BrahMos is known for its speed and versatility. It is the fastest cruise missile in the world, capable of reaching speeds of up to Mach 3 (three times the speed of sound). This makes it extremely difficult for enemy defenses to intercept.
• The missile has both land-attack and anti-ship capabilities, meaning it can target both land-based targets and naval vessels. Its precision and range make it a potent weapon for both offensive and defensive purposes. It's deployed across various platforms including land, sea, and air.
• The BrahMos missile has become a significant asset in the Indian military's arsenal, providing a formidable deterrent and offensive capability. It's continuously being upgraded to enhance its capabilities and adapt it to different platforms and operational requirements

3. Evolution of Brahmos

• During the early 1980s, Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam spearheaded the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme, initiating the creation of various indigenous missiles such as Prithvi, Agni, Trishul, Akash, and Nag, each with diverse capabilities and operational ranges.
• In the early 1990s, India's strategic leadership recognized the necessity for cruise missiles—guided projectiles maintaining nearly constant speeds throughout their trajectories—to deliver sizable warheads with pinpoint accuracy over extensive distances.
• This requirement emerged prominently following the deployment of cruise missiles during the 1991 Gulf War.
• In 1998, an Inter-Governmental Agreement was formalized in Moscow between Dr. Kalam, then heading the DRDO, and N V Mikhailov, Russia's Deputy Defence Minister at the time.
• This agreement laid the foundation for BrahMos Aerospace, a collaborative venture between DRDO and the Russian space company NPO Mashinostroyenia (NPOM), with the Indian side holding 50.5% ownership and the Russians 49.5%. The venture derived its name from two rivers—Brahmaputra in India and Moskva in Russia.
• Subsequently, in 1999, the development of missiles commenced within the laboratories of DRDO and NPOM after BrahMos Aerospace secured funding from both governments. The first successful test launch occurred in 2001 from a specifically engineered land-based launcher

4.Significance of Brahmos

• The BrahMos missile is equipped with a solid propellant booster engine, comprising two stages. Initially, the first stage accelerates the missile to supersonic speeds, after which it detaches. Subsequently, the liquid ramjet, constituting the second stage, propels the missile to nearly three times the speed of sound during its cruise phase.
• Notably, the missile exhibits a minimal radar signature, enhancing its stealth capabilities, and can follow various trajectories.
• As a "fire and forget" weapon, it can maintain a cruising altitude of 15 km and descend to as low as 10 meters to effectively strike its target.
• Classified as "standoff range weapons," cruise missiles like BrahMos are launched from a distance substantial enough to evade defensive countermeasures, a feature common among the arsenals of major militaries worldwide.
• Compared to subsonic cruise missiles, BrahMos boasts three times the speed, 2.5 times the flight range, and extended operational capabilities. With export versions available, BrahMos serves as a crucial asset in defense diplomacy initiatives.
• In 2022, an air-launched variant of BrahMos underwent testing from a frontline SU-30MKI aircraft, while an advanced sea-to-sea variant was also tested from the INS Visakhapatnam during the same year.
• However, BrahMos was embroiled in controversy in 2022 when Pakistan alleged that an unarmed Indian missile had inadvertently landed within its territory on March 9, 2022. The Ministry of Defence attributed the incident to a technical malfunction resulting in accidental firing.
• Though the government initiated a high-level inquiry, the specific missile involved was not officially disclosed. Nonetheless, experts inferred from its trajectory that it bore the hallmarks of BrahMos

5. Types of  BrahMos

• The BrahMos missile system is strategically deployed across various fronts, encompassing land-based formations along border regions, BrahMos-equipped Sukhoi-30 aircraft stationed in both the Northern and Southern theaters, and ships and submarines fitted with BrahMos capabilities in naval operations. This integrated setup constitutes a formidable triad, adept at addressing evolving demands in multidimensional warfare scenarios.
• To adapt to dynamic warfare requirements, ongoing efforts are focused on upgrading the BrahMos system, with emphasis on enhancing range, maneuverability, and accuracy.
• Current development initiatives include testing versions with extended ranges of up to 350 km, surpassing the original's 290 km limit. Furthermore, plans are underway for versions with even greater ranges, potentially reaching up to 800 km, and featuring hypersonic speeds. Concurrently, endeavors are directed towards reducing the size and radar signature of existing iterations while augmenting their overall capabilities.
• Across all three branches of the Armed Forces, BrahMos variants are subject to regular testing, including those presently in development.
• Land-Based: The land-based BrahMos setup comprises mobile autonomous launchers, typically housing four to six launchers, each armed with three missiles capable of near-simultaneous firing.
• These batteries are strategically deployed along India's land borders in various theaters. Upgraded versions of the land attack variant, capable of cruising at 2.8 Mach, boast precision striking capabilities with ranges of up to 400 km.
• Advanced iterations with enhanced range and speeds of up to 5 Mach are reportedly in the developmental pipeline. Notably, the ground systems of BrahMos are lauded for their streamlined design and minimal componentry.
• Ship-Based: Since 2005, the Navy has been inducting BrahMos missiles on its frontline warships, enhancing their ability to engage sea-based targets beyond the radar horizon. The naval variant has demonstrated efficacy in both sea-to-sea and sea-to-land engagements.
• These missiles can be deployed individually or in salvos of up to eight, with staggered firing intervals. This capability enables them to effectively target groups of frigates equipped with modern missile defense systems.
• Air-Launched: The successful flight testing of BrahMos from a Sukhoi-30MKI against a sea-based target in the Bay of Bengal on November 22, 2017, marked a significant milestone. Subsequent tests have validated its effectiveness.
• The BrahMos-equipped Sukhoi-30 aircraft, boasting a range of 1,500 km without mid-air refueling, serve as a pivotal strategic deterrent along both land borders and the strategically vital Indian Ocean Region. The Indian Air Force is actively integrating BrahMos with 40 Sukhoi-30 fighter jets across various airbases.
• Submarine-Launched: This variant can be launched from depths of approximately 50 meters below the water surface. The missile, stored in a canister, is vertically launched from the pressure hull of the submarine, employing distinct configurations for underwater and surface flights. Successful testing of this version was first conducted in March 2013 from a submerged platform off the coast of Visakhapatnam

6. Brahmos Missile Series

The BrahMos missile series is a family of supersonic cruise missiles developed jointly by India and Russia. Named after the Brahmaputra River in India and the Moskva River in Russia, the BrahMos series is renowned for its speed, precision, and versatility.

Here are some key variants within the BrahMos missile series:

• BrahMos Block-I: The initial variant of the BrahMos missile, featuring a range of approximately 290 km. It is capable of striking both land-based and naval targets with high accuracy.

• BrahMos Block-II: An upgraded version with enhanced capabilities, including improved range and accuracy. It incorporates advanced technologies to further enhance its effectiveness in various operational scenarios.

• BrahMos Block-III: This variant features additional upgrades aimed at improving its range, maneuverability, and stealth capabilities. It is designed to overcome evolving threats and maintain its position as a potent deterrent.

• BrahMos-A: The air-launched variant of the BrahMos missile, integrated onto Sukhoi Su-30MKI fighter aircraft of the Indian Air Force. It significantly extends the reach of the missile, allowing for precision strikes against ground and naval targets.

• BrahMos-N: The naval variant of the BrahMos missile, deployed on Indian Navy warships. It provides a formidable anti-ship and land-attack capability, enhancing the offensive capabilities of naval fleets.

• BrahMos-ER: The extended-range variant of the BrahMos missile, currently under development, aimed at achieving ranges beyond the existing capabilities. It will further enhance the strategic reach of the BrahMos series, allowing for precision strikes at longer distances.

• BrahMos-NG: A next-generation variant of the BrahMos missile, featuring reduced size and weight while maintaining high performance. It is designed for compatibility with a wider range of platforms, including aircraft, submarines, and surface vessels

BASIC STRUCTURE OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION

 

1. Context

Ahead of its scheduled briefing before the Joint Committee of Parliament on the simultaneous elections Bills on December 4, the 23rd Law Commission is learnt to have firmed up its view that the Bills do not disturb the basic structure of the Constitution, when it comes to federalism and the right of the voter.

2. What is the Basic Structure Doctrine?

• The Doctrine of Basic Structure is a form of judicial review that is used to test the legality of any legislation by the courts.
• The doctrine was evolved by the Supreme Court in the 1973 landmark ruling in Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala. In a 7-6 verdict, a 13-judge Constitution Bench ruled that the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution is inviolable, and could not be amended by Parliament. 
• If a law is found to “damage or destroy” the “basic features of the Constitution”, the Court declares it unconstitutional.
• The test is applied to constitutional amendments to ensure the amendment does not dilute the fundamentals of the Constitutional itself. 

3. Evolution of Basic Structure Doctrine

3.1 Shankari Prasad Case, 1951

• SC opined that the power of the parliament to amend the constitution under Article 368 also includes the power to amend Fundamental Rights.
• It based its judgment on the logic that the word ‘law’ mentioned in Article 13 includes only ordinary laws and not constitutional amendment acts.

3.2 Golaknath Case, 1967

• SC overruled its judgment. It ruled in this that- Fundamental Rights are given a transcendental and immutable position and hence the Parliament cannot abridge or take away any of these rights.
• It opined the constitutional amendment act is also a law under Art 13.
• Parliament reacted to this judgment by enacting 24^th amendment act which included a provision in Art 368 which declared that Parliament has power to take away any of the fundamental rights.

3.3 Keshavananda Bharati Case, 1973

SC overruled its judgment in the Golaknath case. It upheld the validity of the 24^th amendment act and opined that parliament is empowered to take away or abridge any of the FRs. However, such changes should not alter the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution.

 

3.4 42nd CAA 1976

 

Amended Art. 368-no limitation on the constituent power of Parliament. Any amendment cannot be questioned in any court on any ground.

3.5 Minerva Mills Case, 1980

Parliament reacted to the above case by enacting 42nd amendment act which declared under article 368 that there is no limitation on the constituent power of Parliament and it barred the courts from questioning such amendments. This provision was invalidated by the SC stating that Parliament cannot take away the ‘judicial review’ power of the constitution since it is part of the ‘basic structure of the doctrine’.

3.6 Waman Rao Case, 1981 

SC clarified that doctrine would be apply to constitutional amendments enacted after April 24, 1973 (Kesavananda Bharati case) (Including 9th schedule).

 

4. Basic Features of Indian Constitution 

 

In the Kesavananda ruling, the Supreme Court cited several aspects of the Constitution that could be identified as “basic features” of the document but added that it was not an exhaustive list.

• the supremacy of the Constitution,
• the rule of law,
• Independence of the judiciary,
• doctrine of separation of powers,
• sovereign democratic republic,
• the parliamentary system of government,
• the principle of free and fair elections,
• welfare state, etc.

5. Significance of Basic Structure

• The basic structure doctrine is a testimony to the theory of Constitutionalism to prevent the damage to essence of COI by brute majority of the ruling majority.
• The basic doctrine saved the Indian democracy as it acts as a limitation of constituent power or else unlimited power of parliament might have turned India into a totalitarian.
• It helps us to retain the basic tenets of our constitution so meticulously framed by the founding fathers of our Constitution.
• It strengthens our democracy by delineating a true separation of power where Judiciary is independent of other two organs. It has also given immense untold unbridled power to Supreme Court and made it the most powerful court in the world.
• By restraining the amending powers of legislative organ of State, it provided basic Rights to Citizens which no organ of State can overrule.
• Being dynamic in nature, it is more progressive and open to changes in time unlike the rigid nature of earlier judgements.

 For Prelims & Mains

 

For Prelims: Doctrine of Basic Structure, Shankari Prasad Case, Golaknath Case,  Keshavananda Bharati Case, 42nd CAA 1976, Minerva Mills Case, Waman Rao Case, 1981, 9th Schedule, Article 368. For Mains: 1. What is the Basic Structure Doctrine? Explain the evolution and significance of Basic Structure Doctrine?

 

Previous Year Questions 1.Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE GS1, 2020) 1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy. 2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2   1.“Parliament’s power to amend the constitution is limited power and it cannot be enlarged into absolute power”. In light of this statement, explain whether parliament under article 368 of the constitution can destroy the basic structure of the constitution by expanding its amending power? (UPSC GS2, 2019)

Source: The Indian Express

 

 

RARE EARTH ELEMENTS

 

 

1.Context

 

The Union Cabinet Wednesday approved a Rs 7,280-crore rare earth manufacturing programme, as India looks to cut reliance on imports for the critical elements crucial to sectors ranging from electric vehicles and aerospace to defence and electronics.

 

2.About rare earth metals

 

Rare earth elements or rare earth metals are a set of 17 chemical elements in the periodic table  the 15 lanthanides, plus scandium and yttrium, which tend to occur in the same ore deposits as the lanthanides, and have similar chemical properties

 

The 17 rare earths are cerium (Ce), dysprosium (Dy), erbium (Er), europium (Eu), gadolinium (Gd), holmium (Ho), lanthanum (La), lutetium (Lu), neodymium (Nd), praseodymium (Pr), promethium (Pm), samarium (Sm), scandium (Sc), terbium (Tb), thulium (Tm), ytterbium (Yb), and yttrium (Y)

 

Despite their classification, most of these elements are not really “rare”. One of the rare earths, promethium, is radioactive

Source:Thermo Fisher Scientific

 

 

3.Applications of rare earths

• These elements are important in technologies of consumer electronics, computers and networks, communications, clean energy, advanced transportation, healthcare, environmental mitigation, and national defence, among others
• Scandium is used in televisions and fluorescent lamps, and yttrium is used in drugs to treat rheumatoid arthritis and cancer
•  Rare earth elements are used in space shuttle components, jet engine turbines, and drones
• Cerium, the most abundant rare earth element, is essential to NASA’s Space Shuttle Programme
• In recent years, rare earths have become even more important because there has been an increase in demand for green energy
• Elements like neodymium and dysprosium, which are used in wind turbine motors, are sought-after more than ever as wind mills across the world continue to grow
• Moreover, the push for switching from internal combustion cars to electric vehicles has also led to a rise in demand for rare earth magnets made from neodymium, boron, and iron and batteries

 

 4. China's export restrictions and impact on India

 

• China has imposed restrictions on the export of seven rare earth elements (REEs) — dysprosium, gadolinium, lutetium, samarium, scandium, terbium, and yttrium — which are part of the 17 REEs.
• The country dominates the global refining of heavy REEs, giving it substantial control over critical supply chains, ranging from consumer electronics to defense. Although these measures do not constitute a complete export ban, they may cause temporary supply disruptions, as exporters navigate the permit process.
• India may not face an immediate disruption due to these restrictions. Despite government efforts to enhance domestic manufacturing of semiconductors and defense systems, the more sophisticated phases of production largely take place abroad, particularly in China and Japan. Japan, in anticipation of such issues, has already built stockpiles to buffer against REE-related supply shocks.
• Recognizing the strategic importance of REEs, India is aware that it holds around 6% of global deposits. However, the country’s capacity for mining and refining is minimal, largely due to the environmental challenges associated with such operations.
• India does extract some light REEs through its state-run firm, Indian Rare Earths Ltd, including monazite from coastal sands in Kerala. Nonetheless, imports still play a role.
• According to a recent statement by the Ministry of Mines in the Lok Sabha, India imported approximately 2,270 tonnes of REEs in 2023–24. Consequently, the national approach involves a mix of increasing domestic output and maintaining import channels

 

5. Way Forward

 

To support the strategic use of essential resources such as rare earth elements, India has launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM). This initiative aims to strengthen the country’s supply chain for critical minerals by boosting domestic production and establishing alternative international supply partnerships. According to a presentation by the Ministry of Mines in January, global events like China’s export restrictions, the Russia–Ukraine conflict, and other geopolitical factors have exposed vulnerabilities in the global critical mineral supply, underscoring the urgency of diversifying sources.

As part of the NCMM, the Indian government plans to oversee or support around 1,200 mineral exploration projects. It also intends to offer exploration licenses to encourage private sector participation and conduct auctions for additional critical mineral blocks

 

 

For Prelims: Applications of rare earths, rare earth elements For Mains: 1.Europe’s largest known deposit of rare earth elements found in Sweden: Could the discovery change geopolitics?

 

Previous Year Questions   1.Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called ‘rare earth metals’. Why? (2012) China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (c)

 

Source:indianexpress

 

PARIS AGREEMENT

1. Context

In a demonstration of the new-found assertiveness of the developing countries after having obtained a reasonably satisfactory outcome at the COP30 climate meeting in Belem, Brazil, India told the developed nations that their agenda on climate change could not be imposed on rest of the world, and that attempts to “overturn the architecture of the Paris Agreement” would not be allowed to succeed.

2. What is Paris Agreement?

• Paris Agreement is a multinational agreement that was signed as part of the UNFCCC with the intention of reducing and mitigating greenhouse gas emissions.
• 196 nations ratified the climate change agreement at the Conference of the Parties (COP 21) in Paris in December 2015. It is an international agreement that is binding on all parties involved.
• Achieving the long-term temperature goal was the purpose of the Paris Climate Accord. To attain a world without greenhouse gas emissions by the middle of the century, nations strive to peak global greenhouse gas emissions as soon as possible.
• The Paris Climate Accord's major objective is to keep global warming well below 2° Celsius and ideally below 1.5° Celsius in comparison to pre-industrial levels.
• The Paris Agreement is a watershed moment in the multilateral climate change process because it brings all nations together for the first time in a binding agreement to undertake ambitious efforts to combat climate change and adapt to its effects.

3. COP21

• To keep the rise in the average world temperature to well under 2°C above pre-industrial levels. To continue making efforts to keep global warming to 1.5°C over pre-industrial levels, knowing that doing so would greatly lessen the dangers and effects of climate change.
• The Agreement also mentions achieving the global peaking of emissions by the middle of the century while taking into account the fact that developing nation Parties will have a longer peaking period.

4. What are NDCs

• At the Conference of the Parties (COP21) of the U.N. Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), which took place in Paris in December 2015, nations from all over the world pledged to establish a new global climate agreement by that time.
• In advance of a new international agreement, nations have committed to publicly state their Intended Nationally Determined Contributions or the climate activities they plan to take after 2020.
• The 2015 agreement's ambitious goals and whether the world is put on a course toward a low-carbon, climate-resilient future will be largely determined by the INDCs.
• The Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) of India has also been submitted to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
• Countries communicate actions they will take to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to meet the Paris Agreement's goals in their NDCs.
• Countries also communicate actions they will take to build resilience to adapt to the effects of rising temperatures in their NDCs.

Image Source: The Hindu

5. Highlights of the report on the performance of the Paris Agreement

• After the signing of the Agreement, the last eight years (2015-2022) have consecutively been the warmest years on record globally.
• The situation could have been far worse if the La Nina weather event had not occurred in the past three years, which has a cooling effect on the weather system.
• Globally updated Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) to limit global warming to 1.5 degrees Celsius have failed even to achieve a 2-degree Celsius target.
• The Paris Agreement has not been able to equitably phase out fossil fuels predominantly responsible for the climate crisis.
• Neither the NDCs nor the disaster risk reduction and climate risk management plans are in place to combat climate-induced extreme weather phenomena.

6. A series of climate records fell over in 2022, the report showed. 

• Global mean temperature rising: The global mean temperature in 2022 was 1.15°C, ranging from 1.02°C to 1.28°C above the 1850–1900 average. This was the highest on record for the past eight years. The value is about 0.2°C higher than the statistic before 2015. The pre-industrialisation era is considered a benchmark as there was no significant anthropogenic emission at the time.
• Record melting of Antarctica ice: Sea ice in Antarctica dropped to an all-time low, 1.92 million square kilometres, on February 25, 2022. This was almost a million sq km below the mean of the last three decades till 2020. 
• Greenhouse gases surged: The levels of three major greenhouse gases — carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide — continued to increase in 2022. The data shows that growth rates of all three gases have increased around 20 per cent compared to 2011-15 levels.
• Sea level rise doubled: Global mean sea level continued to rise in 2022. It has doubled to 4.62 millimetres per year during 2013–2022 from 2.27 mm recorded in the first decade of the satellite record (1993–2002). The rate of increase quickened after 2015. Ocean heat content, which measures this gain in energy, reached a new observed record.
• Record thinning of glaciers: Long-term observational data is available for glaciers, which were found to have thinned over 1.3 metres between October 2021 and October 2022. The loss is much larger than before. The cumulative thickness loss since 1970 amounts to almost 30 metres.
• More than half of the oceans saw marine heatwaves in 2022:  Despite continuing La Nina conditions, 58 per cent of the ocean surface experienced at least one marine heatwave during 2022. 
• Heatwaves killed 15,000 in Europe: Record-breaking heatwaves affected China and Europe during the summer, with excess deaths associated with the heat in Europe exceeding 15000. Casualties were reported across Spain, Germany, the United Kingdom, France and Portugal.
• 1,600 suffered deaths from weather extremes in India: India suffered from significant flooding at various stages during monsoon, particularly in the northeast in June, with over 700 deaths reported from flooding and landslides and a further 900 from lightning.

For Prelims: Paris Agreement, Conference of the Parties (COP 21), World Meteorological Organization (WMO), UNFCCC, Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). For Mains: 1. Describe the major outcomes of the 26th session of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). What are the commitments made by India in this conference? (UPSC 2021)

 

Previous year Question 1. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2016) 1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017. 2. The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels. 3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility for global warming and committed to donate $1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries cope with climate change.   Select the correct answer using the code given below A. 1 and 3 only B.  2 only C.  2 and 3 only D.  1, 2 and 3 Answer: B   2. The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of ( UPSC 2016) A. pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East B. plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change C. capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank D. plan of action outlined by the countries of the world regarding Sustainable Development Goals Answer: B

Source: Down to Earth

 

 

STUBBLE BURNING

 

1. Context

Stubble burning incidents in Delhi-NCR, Punjab and Haryana have reduced this year due to government support for farm machinery and other measures, Agriculture Secretary Devesh Chaturvedi said 

2. What is Stubble?

Stubble refers to the leftover plant material, mainly crop residues, that remains in the field after the primary crop has been harvested. This includes the stems, leaves, and other organic material that is left behind.

Stubble burning is a common agricultural practice where farmers set fire to crop residues, such as straw and stubble, that remain in the field after the main crop (usually paddy or wheat) has been harvested. This practice is typically used as a quick and cost-effective method to clear the field for the next planting season. Stubble burning is particularly prevalent in regions with mechanized farming, where machines like combine harvesters leave behind a significant amount of crop residues.

3. Stubble burning contributes to air pollution

When stubble is burned, it releases a variety of pollutants into the air, including particulate matter, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, and sulfur dioxide. These pollutants can cause several health problems, including respiratory problems, heart disease, and cancer.

Stubble burning is a major contributor to air pollution in many parts of the world. In India, for example, stubble burning is responsible for up to 30% of the air pollution in Delhi during the winter months.

• Stubble burning generates fine particulate matter (PM2.5 and PM10) that can penetrate deep into the respiratory system, leading to respiratory problems and reduced air quality.
• The combustion of stubble releases carbon monoxide, which can have adverse health effects when inhaled, particularly in enclosed spaces.
• Stubble burning produces Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs), which can react with other pollutants in the atmosphere, contributing to the formation of ground-level ozone, a major air pollutant.
• Burning stubble emits greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4), contributing to climate change.
• The combustion of crop residues can release various hazardous chemicals and pollutants, further deteriorating air quality.

4. About the Central Scheme for the Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue

The Central Scheme on Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue (AMICMR) is a scheme launched by the Government of India to promote the use of in-situ techniques for managing crop residue. In-situ techniques are those that are used to manage crop residue on the field, rather than burning it. Examples of in-situ techniques include:

• Mulching is the practice of covering the soil with a layer of organic material, such as straw or leaves. This can help to suppress weeds, retain moisture, and improve soil health.
• Zero tillage is the practice of planting crops without tilling the soil. This can help to prevent soil erosion and retain moisture in the soil.
• Direct seeding is the practice of planting seeds directly into the soil, rather than transplanting seedlings. This can help to reduce soil disturbance and prevent the spread of weeds.

The AMICMR scheme provides financial assistance to farmers to purchase machinery that can be used for in-situ management of crop residue. The scheme also provides training and extension services to farmers on how to use these techniques.

The AMICMR scheme is a promising initiative that could help to reduce air pollution caused by stubble burning. However, the scheme needs to be scaled up and made more widely available to farmers to have a significant impact.

5. Conclusion

Stubble burning is a major contributor to air pollution in many parts of the world. However, there are several alternatives to stubble burning, such as in-situ management of crop residue. In-situ management of crop residue is a more sustainable way to manage stubble, as it does not release pollutants into the air and has several benefits for soil health and crop yields.

For Prelims: Stubble burning, air pollution, particulate matter, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, sulfur dioxide, PM2.5, PM10, Volatile Organic Compounds, ozone, carbon dioxide, methane, Climate Change, The Central Scheme on Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue,  For Mains:  1. Critically evaluate the effectiveness of the Central Scheme on Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue (AMICMR) in addressing the issue of stubble burning in India. (250 Words)

 

 

Previous Year Questions 1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? ( UPSC 2016) Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide Nitrogen dioxide Sulfur dioxide Methane Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only    (b) 2, 3 and 4 only     (c) 1, 4 and 5 only         (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5  Answer: B 2. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment (UPSC 2013, 2022) (a) Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen (b) Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide (c) Ozone and Carbon Dioxide (d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide  Answer:D 3. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (UPSC 2017) (a) Measuring oxygen level in blood (b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem (d) Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions Answer: C 4. Consider the following: (UPSC 2019)  1. Carbon monooxide 2. Methane 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?  A. 1 and 2 only         B.  2, 3 and 4 only            C. 1 and 4 only         D.  1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: D 5. What is Particulate matter? (BPSC 2016) A. Solid residue      B. Air pollutant        C. Water pollutant   D. Soil pollutant E.  None of the above/More than one of the above Answer: B 6. Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas because it: (OPSC OAS 2021) A. Binds to digestive hormones B. Damages lungs C. Destroys RBCs D. Binds to haemoglobin Answer: D 7. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019) 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment. 2. Cattle release ammonia into environment. 3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 only         B. 2 and 3 only          C. 2 only            D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: D 8. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)  1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 μg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 μg/m³. 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1, 3 and 4             B. 1 and 4 only           C. 2, 3 and 4           D.1 and 2 only Answer: B 9. Which of the following is a VOC? (MP Vyapam Sub Engineer Mechanical 2022) A. Toulene        B. Water       C. Carbon dioxide         D. Carbon monoxide Answer: A 10. Which of the following Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are emitted from anthropogenic sources only? (UGC NET 2023) A. Isoprene        B. Benzene            C. Terpene          D. Methane        E. Toluene 1. A, B and C Only         2.  B and E Only      3. A and C Only         4. C, D and E Only Answer: 2 11. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substance? (UPSC 2015)  A. Bretton Woods Conference  B. Montreal Protocol  C. Kyoto Porotocol  D. Nagoya Protocol Answer: B 12. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (UPSC 2012)  A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation C. all the solar radiations D. the infrared part of the solar radiation Answer: D 13. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth? (UPSC 2014) 1. Volcanic action 2. Respiration 3. Photosynthesis 4. The decay of organic matter Select the correct answer using the code given below A. 1 and 3 only       B. 2 only      C. 1, 2 and 4 only         D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: C 14. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'? (UPSC 2019)  1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits. 2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor. 3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only     B.  2 and 3 only        C. 1 and 3 only           D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: D 15. With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called 'coalbed methane' and 'shale gas' consider the following statements: (UPSC 2014) 1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks. 2. In India, abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only        B. 2 only        C. Both 1 and 2          D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: D Mains 1. Describe the key points of the revised Global Air Quality Guidelines (AQGs) recently released by the World Health Organisation (WHO). How are these different from its last update in 2005? What changes in India’s National Clean Air Programme are required to achieve revised standards? ( UPSC 2021)

 

Source: Indianexpress