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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 07 NOVEMBER 2025

PSLV

 

1. Context

Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Chairman V. Narayanan said on Thursday that the first Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) rocket developed by a private consortium, led by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) and L&T, would be launched in February 2026.

2. History of PSLV

  • The PSLV is one of ISRO’s most reliable vehicles, having launched hundreds of satellites with only three failures or partial failures since 1993.
  • Over the years, various improvements have been made to it, making it a stand-out satellite carrier.
    Launch vehicles are meant only to deposit satellites into space, after which they become useless.
  • They either burn up in space or add to the ever-increasing concern of space debris. The PSLV, however, is now technologically advanced enough to have one component that can stay on in space to research after it has delivered its satellite.
  • The current mission includes this component, POEM-2, which stands for PSLV Orbital Experimental Module. 

3. What is PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle)?

  • PSLV is the most reliable rocket used by ISRO to date. Its first launch was in 1994, and it has been ISRO’s main rocket ever since.
  • Apart from Indian satellites, it also carries satellites from other nations into space, like in the current mission, where it carried payloads from Singapore.
  • The reason for this is that apart from being reliable, the PSLV is also more affordable than the launch vehicles of many other countries.
  • After its first successful launch in October 1994, PSLV emerged as a reliable and versatile workhorse launch vehicle in India.
  • The vehicle has launched numerous Indian and foreign customer satellites.
  • Besides, the vehicle successfully launched two spacecraft, Chandrayaan-1 in 2008 and Mars Orbiter Spacecraft in 2013, that later traveled to Moon and Mars respectively.
  • Chandrayaan-1 and MOM were feathers in the hat of PSLV. PSLV earned its title ‘the workhorse of ISRO by consistently delivering various satellites into low earth orbits. 

4. Various Components of PSLV

  • Rockets have several detachable energy-providing parts. They burn different kinds of fuels to power the rocket.
  • Once their fuel is exhausted, they detach from the rocket and fall off, often burning off in the atmosphere due to air friction, and getting destroyed.
  • Only a small part of the original rocket goes to the intended destination of the satellite.
  • Once the satellite is finally ejected, this last part of the rocket either becomes part of space debris or once again burns off after falling into the atmosphere.
  • PSLV has four parts namely PS1, a solid rocket motor augmented by 6 solid strap-on boosters; PS2, a storable liquid rocket engine, known as the Vikas engine; PS3, a solid rocket motor that provides the upper stages high thrust after the atmospheric phase of the launch; and PS4, the uppermost stage consisting of two Earth storable liquid engines.
  • As technology evolves, the effort is to make the various parts of a rocket reusable. PSLV’s PS4 has been able to achieve this. 

5. PSLV's Most recent Missions

  • The rocket launched recently carried TeLEOS-2 as the primary satellite and Lumelite-4 as a co-passenger satellite.
  • While TeLEOS-2 will “be used to support the satellite imagery requirements of various agencies within the Government of Singapore”, Lumelite-4 “aims to augment Singapore’s navigation maritime safety and benefit the global shipping community.
  • POEM-2, meanwhile, will be utilized as an orbital platform to carry out scientific experiments through non-separating payloads.
  • The payloads belong to ISRO/Department of Space, Bellatrix, Dhruva Space, and the Indian Institute of Astrophysics.

6. Why do satellites need launch Vehicles?

  • The Launch vehicle rockets have powerful propulsion systems that generate the huge amount of energy required to lift heavy objects like satellites into space, overcoming the gravitational pull of the earth.
  • Satellites, or payloads as they are often called, sit inside the rocket and are ejected once they reach their intended orbit in space.
  • Most satellites have small propulsion systems and carry small amounts of fuel, because they encounter very little drag, or force, in outer space.
  • What they do carry are the instruments needed for the scientific work for which they are being sent into space. 
For Prelims: Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), International Space Research Organisation (ISRO), PSLV Orbital Experimental Module, POEM-2, Chandrayaan-1, TeLEOS-2, Lumelite-4 and Indian Institute of Astrophysics.
For Mains: 1. ISRO’s role has been impeccable in making India a global space power, however, there are many challenges and opportunities in the new space age that ISRO needs to address. Discuss. (250 words).

Previous year Question

1. With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2018)
1. PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 only
Answer: A
 
Source: The Indian Express
 
 

CENSUS 2027

 
 
 
1. Context
 
The Registrar-General and Census Commissioner of India launched two mobile applications this week in preparation for the trial phase of the country’s first digital Census in 2027.
 
2. Registrar General of India
 
 

  • The Indian Census is the world’s largest administrative and statistical exercise. The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India (ORG&CCI), under the Ministry of Home Affairs, is tasked with conducting the decennial census.

  • As per the Census India website, prior to 1951, a temporary Census Organisation was set up for each census. In 1948, the Census Act was enacted to establish a structured process for conducting population censuses and to define the responsibilities of census officials.

  • To systematically collect data on population size, growth, and related statistics, the Government of India decided in May 1949 to create an organisation within the Ministry of Home Affairs under the Registrar General and ex-Officio Census Commissioner.

  • This body was tasked with generating population statistics, including vital statistics and census data, and was later given the responsibility to implement the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969 across the country.

  • Mritunjay Kumar Narayan is the current RGI, assuming office on November 1, 2022. His tenure was extended last year until August 4, 2026, or until further orders.

  • According to the Census India website, the RGI’s office oversees the following key functions:

    • Housing & Population Census: The Census Commissioner is the statutory authority responsible for conducting the Housing & Population Census under the Census Act, 1948 and its rules.

    • Civil Registration System (CRS): As Registrar General of India under the Registration of Births & Deaths (RBD) Act, 1969, the RGI ensures the compulsory registration of births and deaths, coordinating civil registration and vital statistics across all States and Union Territories.

    • National Population Register (NPR): Prepared under the Citizenship Rules, 2003, the NPR collects information on all individuals who are usually resident in India, as part of the broader Citizenship Act, 1955 framework.

    • Mother Tongue Survey: This survey records mother tongues consistently reported across multiple Census decades and documents linguistic features of selected languages.

    • Sample Registration System (SRS): The ORG&CCI implements the SRS, a large-scale sample survey conducted semi-annually to estimate vital statistics such as birth rate, death rate, infant mortality rate, and maternal mortality rate at the state level

 
3. History of Census in India
 

  • India’s first nationwide census, though non-synchronous, was carried out in 1872. It attempted to count people across most regions of the country, but some areas under British rule were not covered.

  • The first synchronous census of India was conducted in 1881 under the supervision of W.C. Plowden.

  • The 1881 Census represented a major step toward a modern, coordinated census system, focusing not only on complete population coverage but also on the classification of demographic, social, and economic features

 
4. Census 2027
 
 

  • The Census 2027 will mark India’s 16th decennial Census overall and the eighth since Independence. The exercise will gather population data at the village, town, and ward levels, covering parameters such as housing conditions, amenities, assets, demographic characteristics, religion, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, language, literacy and education, economic activity, migration, and fertility.

  • On June 16, the Centre officially notified its plan to conduct the Census 2027. This marks the first time a decennial Census has been delayed by six years. Some key features of the upcoming Census include:

    • Digital Census: For the first time, Census 2027 will be fully digital, with data collected via dedicated mobile applications. Citizens will also have the option to self-enumerate, and caste data will be recorded electronically.

    • Caste enumeration: On April 30, the Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs (CCPA) approved the inclusion of caste data in the Census.

    • Real-time monitoring and management: The Registrar General of India (RGI) is developing a Census Monitoring & Management System (CMMS) website to enable real-time oversight of the exercise. Over 35 lakh enumerators and supervisors will be deployed, which is more than 30% higher than the 27 lakh personnel used for the 2011 Census

 

5.  NPR

  • The NPR, unlike the Census, is a comprehensive identity database of every "usual resident" in the country and the data proposed to be collected at the family level can be shared with States and other government departments.
  • Though Census also collects similar information, the Census Act of 1948 bars sharing any individual's data with the State or Centre and only aggregate data at the administrative level can be released.
  • According to Citizenship Rules 2003 under the Citizenship Act, 1955, NPR is the first step towards a compilation of the National Register of Indian Citizens (NRIC/NRC).
  • Assam is the only State where an NRC has been compiled based on the directions of the Supreme Court, with the final draft of Assam's NRC excluding 19 lakhs of the 3.29 crores applicants.
  •  Assam Government has rejected the NRC in its current form and demanded re-verification of 30 per cent of names included in the NRC in areas bordering Bangladesh and 10 per cent in the remaining State.
  • In 2020, the NPR was opposed by several State governments such as West Bengal, Kerala, Rajasthan, Odisha, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Punjab and Chhattisgarh and Civil Society Organisations due to its link with the proposed NRC as it might leave many people stateless for want of legacy documents.
  • There are apprehensions that the Citizenship Amendment Act 9 (CAA), 2019 allows citizenship based on religion to six undocumented religious communities from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh who entered India on or before December 31, 2014, will benefit non-Muslims excluded from the proposed citizens' register, while excluded.
  • Muslims will have to prove their citizenship. The government has denied that the CAA and NRC are linked and there are currently any plans to compile a countrywide NRC.

5.1. The current status of NPR

  • The NPR was first collected in 2010 when the Congres government was in power at the Centre.
  • It was updated in 2015 and already has details of 119 crore residents.
  • In March 2020, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) amended the Census Rules framed in 1990 to capture and store the Census data in an electronic form and enabled self-enumeration by respondents.
  • The NPR is scheduled to be updated with the first phase of Census 2021.
  • For this phase (house listing and household phase), 31 questions have been notified, while for the population enumeration, the second and main phase 28 questions have been finalised but are yet to be notified.
  • The NPR is expected to collect details on 21 parameters of all family members, up from 14 questions in 2010 and 2015.
  • The Sub-heads include passport number, relationship to head of the family, whether divorced/ widowed or separated, mother tongue if non-worker, cultivator, labourer, government employee, daily wage earner among others.
  • The form also has a column on Aadhar, mobile phone, Voter ID and driver's licence.
  • Though the government has claimed that the NPR form has not been finalised yet, the sample form is part of the Census of India 2021 Handbook for Principal/District Census Officers and Charge Officers in 2021.
  • The NPR has retained contentious questions such as "mother tongue, place of birth of father and mother and last place of residence", possible indicators to determine inclusion in the Citizenship register.
  • The questions were opposed by the State governments of West Bengal, Kerala, Rajasthan and Odisha in 2020.
  • The final set of questions of both the phases and NPR was asked during a pre-test exercise in 2019 in 76 districts in 36 States and Union Territories covering a population of more than 26 lakhs.
 
 
 
For Prelims: NPR, CAA, Census, Covid-19, Expenditure Finance Committee, Registrar General of India, Registration of Births and Deaths Act, of 1969, The Treatise on Indian Censuses Since 1981, Assam, 
For Mains:
1. How can citizens file Census details online? Explain the norms being laid down and discuss the reasons for National Population Register being made compulsory for those who want to fill out the form digitally. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
Prelims:
 
1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2009)
1. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the density of the population of India has increased more than three times.
2. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the annual growth rate (exponential) of the population of India has doubled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only          (b) 2 only                 (c) Both 1 and 2                 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer: D
 
2. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only            B. 2 and 3 only                   C. 1 and 3 only              D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: B
 
3. Sinovac given for Covid-19 is a  (UPPSC Combined State Exam 2022)
A. Protein sub-unit
B. Non-replicating viral vector
C. Whole virus vaccine
D. mRNA vaccine
 
Answer: C
 
4. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which Include "The Macro Economic Framework Statement". The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by (UPSC 2020) 
A. Long-standing parliamentary convention
B. Article 112 and Article 110 (1) of the Constitution of India
C. Article 113 of the Constitution of India
D. Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
Answer: D
 
5. Who is the Census Commissioner of India in 2021? (ICAR Technician 2022)
A. Dr Vivek Joshi
B. Dr C Chandramouli
C. Shri Sailesh
D. DK Sikri
 
Answer: A
 
6. The Registration of Birth and Death Act came into force in the year _____. (UPSSSC Junior Assistant 2020) 
A. 1964      B. 1969    C.  1972        D.1981
 
Answer: B
 
7. Consider the following States: (UPSC 2022)
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Tripura
How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?
A. Only one State
B. Only two States
C. Only three States
D. All four States
 
Answer: C
 
8. Consider the following rivers (UPSC 2014) 
1. Barak
2. Lohit
3. Subansiri
Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal Pradesh? 
A. 1 only    B.2 and 3 only     C. 1 and 3 only      D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
 
Mains:
1. Two parallel run schemes of the Government, viz the Adhaar Card and NPR, one as voluntary and the other as compulsory, have led to debates at national levels and also litigations. On merits, discuss whether or not both schemes need run concurrently. Analyse the potential of the schemes to achieve developmental benefits and equitable growth. (UPSC 2014)
 
Source: The Hindu
 

COMPTROLLER AUDITOR GENERAL OF INDIA (CGI)

 
 
1.Context
 
The Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) of India has granted in-principle approval for the creation of two new specialised cadres for more centralisation.
 
2. Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
  • The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is a constitutional authority responsible for auditing and overseeing the financial operations of the Government of India and state governments. The role of the CAG is defined in the Constitution of India, primarily in Article 148
  • The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) plays a pivotal role within the democratic framework, ensuring transparency, accountability, and financial integrity in the government's operations.
  • It actively contributes to upholding the separation of powers between the legislature and executive by verifying that the government's financial activities align with legislative intentions.
  • Through its audit discoveries and recommendations, the CAG advocates for good governance practices, aiding governments in streamlining operations, minimizing inefficiencies, and adhering to financial discipline.
  • In the evolving landscape of India's democracy, the CAG's role becomes increasingly crucial, promoting good governance and safeguarding the interests of the people.
  • Notably, the 73rd and 74th Constitutional amendments represent a significant advancement in India's democratic structure, establishing tiers of self-governance below the state level.
  • The roots of organized local governance in India trace back to the historical "Janpadi and Pancha" system. Looking ahead to independent India, the recommendations of the 1958 Balwant Rai Mehta Committee laid the groundwork for a three-tier structure for rural self-governance, ultimately materializing in the 73rd and 74th amendments.
3. Appointment and Tenure of CAG
  • The President of India appoints the CAG.
  • The appointment is made based on the recommendation of the Prime Minister, who consults with other authorities
  • The President is required to consult with:
    • The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (House of the People).
    • The Vice President, who is also the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
    • The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
  • The qualifications for the appointment of the CAG are similar to those of a judge of the Supreme Court
  • The CAG holds office for a term of six years from the date they assume office or until they attain the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
  • The CAG can be removed from office only in the manner and on the grounds prescribed for the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court
  • The constitutional provisions related to the appointment of the CAG are primarily outlined in Article 148 of the Indian Constitution
4. Functions and Powers
  • The primary function of the CAG is to audit the accounts related to the revenue and expenditure of the Government of India and state governments
  • The CAG also audits the accounts of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government
  • The CAG audits the accounts of public sector undertakings and other entities where the government has a substantial financial stake
  • The CAG audits the accounts of various statutory bodies and authorities to ensure compliance with financial regulations and legal requirements
  • The audit reports prepared by the CAG are submitted to the President of India in the case of the central government and to the Governors in the case of state governments.
  • These reports are then laid before each House of Parliament or the State Legislature.
  • The CAG operates independently and is not subject to the control or influence of the executive in the performance of their duties.
  • The CAG has the authority to access all records, books, and documents related to the accounts being audited
5. CAG of India vs CAG of the United Kingdom
 
Subject CAG of India CAG of the United Kingdom
Constitutional Status Constitutional authority Not a constitutional office, part of the National Audit Office (NAO)
Appointment Appointed by the President of India Appointed by the monarch on the advice of the Prime Minister
Independence Independent Emphasizes independence but appointment process may raise questions
Functions Audits government accounts, conducts performance audits Audits central government departments, agencies, and public bodies
Reports Submitted to the President/Governors, laid before Parliament/State Legislatures Reports directly to the UK Parliament
Legal Framework Outlined in the Constitution of India Based on various statutes, operates under the Public Audit Act 2001
Role in Public Accounts Committees (PACs) Plays a crucial role in assisting PACs at central and state levels Supports the UK Parliament's Public Accounts Committee

6.How Independently does the Office of CAG Function?

  • The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is designed to function independently to ensure impartiality and integrity in auditing government expenditures. The independence of the CAG's office is crucial for maintaining transparency, accountability, and public trust in the financial management of the government
  • The CAG is a constitutional authority, and its independence is enshrined in the Constitution of India. This constitutional status provides a strong foundation for the CAG's autonomy.
  • The CAG is appointed by the President of India based on the recommendations of the Prime Minister in consultation with other authorities. The appointment process aims to ensure the CAG's impartiality and independence
  • The CAG holds office for a fixed term of six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. This security of tenure helps insulate the CAG from external pressures
  • The conditions of service of the CAG, once appointed, cannot be varied to their disadvantage. This ensures that the CAG can perform their duties without fear of adverse changes in service conditions
  • The CAG operates independently and is not subject to the control or influence of the executive in the performance of their duties. This separation is crucial for conducting objective and unbiased audits.

7.What is the Public Accounts Committee (PAC)?

  • The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a parliamentary committee that plays a crucial role in overseeing government expenditures and ensuring financial accountability.
  • Its primary function is to examine the audit reports prepared by the supreme audit institution (such as the Comptroller and Auditor General, CAG) and to scrutinize the government's financial transactions, policies, and programs.
  • Members of the PAC are typically drawn from the legislature and reflect the political composition of the parliament or legislative body
  • The PAC is headed by a Chairperson, who is usually a member of the opposition party to ensure impartiality.
  • The primary mandate of the PAC is to examine the audit reports produced by the supreme audit institution, which highlights instances of financial irregularities, inefficiencies, or non-compliance with laws and regulations.
  • The PAC scrutinizes government expenditures to ensure that public funds are used efficiently and effectively
  • The PAC often follows up on its recommendations to ensure that the government has taken appropriate actions in response to identified issues
  • The PAC enhances public accountability by holding the government accountable for its financial decisions and ensuring transparency in the use of public funds
  • The PAC plays a critical role in upholding democratic principles by ensuring that public funds are utilized in the best interest of the citizens and that the government is held accountable for its financial decisions

 

For Prelims: Indian Polity and Governance

For Mains: General Studies II: Appointment to various Constitutional posts, powers, functions and responsibilities of various Constitutional Bodies

Source: indianexpress

 

REPRESENTATION OF PEOPLE ACT 1951

 

1. Context

The Representation of the People Act (RP), 1951 mandates that only qualified candidates can contest an election. However, the process of verifying said qualifications has accumulated complexity over the years, with too much importance being laid on procedural technicalities than actual ‘defects of a substantial character’

2. Background

  • The Constitution allows Parliament to make provisions in all matters relating to elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures.
  • After independence, there was a need to hold general elections to elect a truly representative government based on universal adult suffrage.
  • Article 325 of the constitution ensures universal suffrage and provides that no person be ineligible for inclusion in or to claim to be included in a special, electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex.
  • In the exercise of this power, the Parliament has enacted laws like Representation of the People Act 1950 (RPA Act 1950), and Representation of the People Act 1951 (RPA Act 1951).

3. The Representation of the People Act, 1951

  • It is an act of Parliament of India to provide for the conduct of election of the Houses of Parliament and to the House or Houses of the Legislature of each state, the qualifications and disqualifications for membership of those Houses, the corrupt practices and other offences at or in connection with such elections and the decision of doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with such elections.
  • It was introduced in Parliament by Law Minister Dr B.R. Ambedkar. The Act was enacted by the provisional parliament under Article 327 of the Indian Constitution, before the first general election.

3.1. Key provisions of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951

  • It regulates the actual conduct of elections and by-elections in the country.
  • It provides administrative machinery for conducting elections.
  • It deals with the registration of political parties.
  • It specifies the qualifications and disqualifications for membership of the Houses.
  • It provides Provisions to curb corrupt practices and other offences.
  • It lays down the procedure for settling doubts and disputes arising out of elections.

3.2. Qualifications for Contesting Elections in India

  • A person must be an elector in the constituency
  • The Minimum age for becoming MLA/MP (Lok Sabha) is 25 years.
  • The person must be a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe in any State/UT if he/she wants to contest a seat reserved for them.
  • The Minimum age limit for contesting elections at the Panchayat and Municipality levels is 21 years.
  • A person shall not be qualified to be chosen as a representative of any state or Union territory in the Rajya Sabha unless he/she is an elector for a Parliamentary constituency.

3.3. Disqualification of MPs and MLAs

The RPA, 1951 lays down certain rules for the disqualification of MPs and MLAs.

Section 8 (1) A person convicted of an offence punishable under certain acts of the Indian Penal Code, Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955, Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act 1967, Prevention of Corruption Act 1988, Prevention of Terrorism Act 2002 etc, shall be disqualified, where the convicted person is sentenced to
(i) Only fine, for six years from the date of such conviction
(ii) Imprisonment from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for six years since his release.
 
Section 8 (2) A Person convicted for the contravention of
(a) Any law providing for the prevention of hoarding or profiteering; or
(b)Any law relating to the adulteration of food or drugs or
(c) Any provisions of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961.
 
Section 8(3) of the Act states that if an MP or MLA is convicted of any other crime and is sent to jail for 2 years or more. He/she will be disqualified for 6 years from the time of release. Even if a person is on bail after the conviction and his appeal is pending disposal, he/she is disqualified from contesting an election.
 
Section 8 (4) allowed convicted MPs, MLAs and MLCs to continue in their posts, provided they appealed against their conviction/sentence in higher courts within 3 months of the date of judgment by the trial court. The Supreme Court in July 2013 struck down section 8 (4) of the RPA, 1951 and declared it ultra vires and held that the disqualification takes place from the date of conviction.

3.4. Voting Rights

Article 326 of the Constitution guarantees the right to vote to every citizen above the age of 18 years unless disqualified by any law. Section 62 of the RPA, 1951 also ensures that every person who is in the electoral roll of that constituency is entitled to vote.

  • One can vote in one constituency only and only for one time in a particular election.
  • If a person is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or transportation, then he is not eligible for voting, however, in the case of preventive custody he can vote.
  • The Election Commission of India (ECI) had said that the person under preventive custody had the right to vote, but not under trials and convicts.
  • The Act allows those serving sentences of less than 2 years to contest election from prison.

3.5. Provisions Related to Political Parties

  • Every association or body to become a political party must be registered with the ECI whose registration decision will be final.
  • Registered Political Parties, over time, can get recognition as “State Part” or National Party”.
  • Change in name and address of a registered political party must be communicated to the ECI.
  • The ECI cannot derecognise a party
  • Voluntary Contributions by any person or company within India (other than a government company) can be accepted by the registered political party.
  • A company can donate any amount of money to any political party.
  • There is no obligation of the company to report such donations in its profit and loss account.
  • It is mandatory for the political parties to submit to the ECI a list of donations they received above Rs. 2, 000.
  • Political parties cannot receive more than Rs 2000 as cash donations.
  • Now, Political parties are eligible to accept contributions from foreign companies defined under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010.
  • Individuals contesting elections have to file an affidavit, declaring their criminal records, assets and liabilities and educational qualification.
  • After getting elected, MPs are required to file a declaration of assets and liabilities with the Speaker of Lok Sabha and the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
  • These declarations have to be made by MPs within 90 days of taking their seats in Parliament.
  • Candidates need to furnish information on whether he/she is accused of any offence punishable with imprisonment of 2 years or more in a pending case or has been convicted of an offence.
  • Any class of person can be notified by the ECI in consultation with the concerned government which can give their votes by postal ballot.
  • At every election where a poll is taken, the votes are counted by or under the supervision of the Returning Officer and contesting candidate, his election agent and his counting agents.
  • Destruction, loss, damage or tampering of ballot papers at the time of counting must be reported by the RO to the ECI.
  • All government or non-government officials are included within the scope of corrupt practices.
  •  Any gift/offer/ promise or gratification to any person as motive or reward.
  • Any direct or indirect interference attempt to interfere on the part of the candidate with the free exercise of any electoral right.
  • The publication by a candidate of any statement of fact that is false about the personal character/ conduct of any candidate
  • The hiring of any vehicle by a candidate of any elector to or from any polling station
  • Any person who promotes or attempts to promote on grounds of religion, race, caste, community or language, feelings of enmity or hatred between different classes of citizens of India can be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to 3 years.
  • Prohibition of public meetings during 48 hours ending with the hour fixed for the conclusion of the poll.

3.6. Significance of the Acts

  • The Provision of direct election for every constituency makes the process of election more democratic and participatory by encouraging and empowering people to play an active role in choosing appropriate candidates.
  • The RPA, 1950 provides for delimitation which brings equality in the process of election by ensuring roughly an equal number of electors in each constituency.
  • The acts strengthened the federal polity of the country by giving due representation to each state in the Parliament.
  • The RPA, 1951 plays a significant role in breaking the politicians, police and criminal nexus by prohibiting the entry of persons with a criminal background into the electoral process.
  • The RPA, 1951 provides for the expenditure monitoring mechanism which ensures the accountability and transparency of the candidate in the use of public funds or misuse of power for personal benefits.
  • The RPA, 1951 prohibits corrupt practices like booth capturing, bribery or promoting enmity etc., and ensures the conduct of free and fair elections which in turn encourage political liberalization and democratization.
  • The RPA, 1951 provides that only those political parties which are registered under section 29A of the RPA, 1951 are eligible to receive electoral bonds, thus providing a mechanism to track the source of political funding and ensuring transparency in electoral funding.

3.7. Amendments to the Act

None of the above was introduced in the ballot papers/Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in the General Election to the State Assemblies in 2013.

  • Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail is an independent system attached to the EVMs that allows voters to verify that their votes are cast as intended.
  • It was introduced in 2013 after the Supreme Court allowed the ECI the requirement of free and fair elections in its verdict in the People’s Union for Civil Liberties vs. Union of India case (2013).
  • The displaying of any election matter by television or similar apparatus in a constituency, 48 before the polling ends or concludes is prohibited.
  • Section 126 does not apply to Print media, news portals and social media.
  • Section 126A prohibits the conduct of exit polls and dissemination of their results during the period mentioned.
  • A candidate contesting polls in large states can spend up to Rs 70 lakh in the Lok Sabha election and Rs. 28 lakh in an Assembly election.
  • Section 8 (4) allowed convicted MPs, and MLAs to stand for elections by filing a complaint that was repealed. It is a step towards decriminalising politics.
  • Insertion of Section 62 (2), which allowed a person post detention to contest elections as he no longer ceased to be an elector as his name is included in the electoral roll.
  • The recent amendments included Section 20A of RPA, which now allows NRI to vote from their current residence via the postal ballot system.

3.8. Challenges to the Act

  • Even after the provision of the declaration of assets and liabilities in the RPA Act, candidates do not disclose all the assets and provide wrong and incomplete information regarding their assets, liabilities income and educational qualifications.
  • Despite the inclusion of several provisions aimed at making the ECI an independent body, it is still dependent on the Union for financial matters that pave the way for political parties to manage to get the officers in their favour through money and muscle power.
  • The ECI does not have an independent staff of its own so whenever elections take place, it has to depend upon the staff of Central and State Governments hence the dual responsibility of the administrative staff, to the government for ordinary administration and to the ECI for electoral administration is not conducive to the impartial and efficient functioning of the Commission.
  • The RPAs lack clear provisions and guidelines on matters related to the misuse of official machinery that gives an unfair advantage to the ruling party at the time of elections and leads to the misuse of public funds for furthering the prospects of candidates of a particular party.

4. The Way Forward

  • By an amendment made to the RPA 1951, conducting and publishing results of exit polls have been prohibited. There should be a similar prohibition or restriction on opinion polls as several manipulated opinion polls could impact the voting pattern.
  • The RPA, 1951 should be amended to include all the items related to the election disclosure in the affidavit and making false declarations in connection with the election to be an offence.
  • TO curb the practice of bureaucratization of politics and to secure complete independence of the Election Commission, its expenditure should be charged to the Consolidated Fund of India.
  • Parliament must pass a law dealing with the serious problem of delisting valid electors from electoral rolls because illiterate electorate residing in far villages cannot watch over the publication of electorate lists.
 
For Prelims: Indian Polity and Governance-Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.
For Mains: General Studies II: Parliament and State legislatures structure, functioning, conduct of business, powers & privileges and issues arising out of these.
1. Discuss the significance of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, in ensuring the decriminalization of politics. Evaluate the effectiveness of the Act in preventing individuals with a criminal background from entering the electoral process. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. According to the Representation of the People Act, 1951, in the event of a person being elected to both houses of Parliament, he has to notify within ______ days in which house he intends to function. (Delhi Police Constable 2020) 
A. 22       B. 10        C.  20            D. 15
 
Answer: B
 
2. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 extends to (MPPSC 2018)
A. whole of India       
B. whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
C. Union Territories
D. only the- State of Jammu and Kashmir
Answer: A
 
3. Under the Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955, all offences are (MPPSC 2013)
A. Cognizable   B. Bailable   C. Compoundable   D.Punishment with imprisonment and fine both
Answer: A
 
4. The right to vote is in which article of the Indian Constitution? (Bihar Forest Guard 2019)
A. Article 322        B. Article 324      C. Article 326         D. Article 330
 
Answer: C
 
5. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a (UPSC 2017)
A. Fundamental Right     B.  Natural Right   C. Constitutional Right      D. Legal Right
 
Answer: C
 

6. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)

  1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
  2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
  3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only           (b) 2 only              (c) 2 and 3 only                (d) 3 only

Answer: D

7. The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) system was used for the first time by the Election Commission of India in (UPSC CAPF 2019) 

A. North Paravur Assembly Constituency, Kerala
B. Noksen Assembly Constituency, Nagaland
C. Mapusa Assembly Constituency, Goa
D. Nambol Assembly Constituency, Manipur

Answer: B

8. In which of the following options, Electronic Voting Machines were used for the first time during general elections all over India? (Rajasthan Police Constable 2020)

A. 2014      B. 1999         C. 2004        D. 2009

Answer: C

9. Which one of the following statements about 'personal liberty' is not correct? (UPSC CAPF 2021) 
A. State does not have the authority to deprive any person within the territory of India of his/her personal liberty without any rational basis.
B. Basis of depriving a person of his/her personal liberty must be in accordance with procedures established by law.
C. Personal liberty can be secured by the judicial writ of Habeas Corpus.
D. The majority view of the Supreme Court in A. K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras case invented 'due process of law'.
 
Answer: D

10. Consider the following statements about Electoral Bond Scheme 2018: (RPSC RAS 2018)

(A) The aim of this scheme is to bring about transparency in the funding process of political parties.
(B) Only the political parties recognized by the Election Commission which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of People or the Legislative Assembly of the State shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.
(C) Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue.
(D) The Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible political party in its account shall be credited on the same day.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. Only (A) and (B)             B. (A), (B), (C) and (D)   

C. Only (B), (C) and (D)       D. Only (A), (C) and (D)

Answer: B

Mains

1. Discuss the role of the Election Commission of India in the light of the evolution of the Model Code of Conduct. (UPSC 2022)
 
Source: The Indian Express and PRS Legislative
 

PROJECT CHEETAH

 

1. Context

When Madhya Pradesh wildlife officials introduced cheetahs to Kuno National Park and Gandhi Sagar, they began with a blank slate. Apex predators like lions and tigers were absent, leopards were moved out, and herbivores were brought in to give the cheetahs room to breathe, hunt, and establish themselves without having to look over their shoulders.

2. Why was Project Cheetah launched?

  • India's cheetah relocation program is perhaps among the most ambitious of its kind in the world.
  • The attempt is to, over the next decade, bring in five to 10 animals every year until a self-sustaining population of about 35 is established.
  • Unlike, cheetahs in South Africa and Namibia, which live in fenced reserves, India's plan is to have them grown in natural, unfenced, wild conditions.
  • At Kuno, only six of the 17 adults are in the wild with the rest lodged in large, specially designed enclosures to help the animals acclimatize to Indian conditions.
  • The plan is to release all the animals into the open by the yearend. The animals are radio-collared and tracked 24/7. 

3. How do cheetahs die?

  • The South African study also documented the causes of mortality, where it could be established, for 293 cheetah deaths.
  • It found that holding camps caused 6.5% of cheetah deaths, immobilization/ transit caused 7.5% of deaths, and another 0.7% were caused by tracking devices. This added up to almost 15%  so, one in every seven cheetah deaths was attributed to handling and management.
  • Predation turned out to be the biggest killer in the study, accounting for 53.2% of cheetah mortality. Lions, leopards, hyenas, and jackals were primarily responsible. Several other wildlife including warthogs, baboons, snakes, elephants, crocodiles, vultures, zebras, and even ostriches killed cheetahs.
  • It is well documented that cheetahs suffer very high cub mortality up to 90% in protected areas mainly due to predation. Consequently, nearly 80% of all cheetahs throughout their range in Africa are found living outside of protected parks and reserves.

4. Were these unfortunate cheetah deaths unexpected?

  • The Cheetah Project did anticipate high mortality. The criteria for the project’s short-term success was only “50% survival of the introduced cheetah for the first year”. That would be 10 out of 20.
  • As a result, the Madhya Pradesh government set a six-month deadline for readying Gandhisagar in the Chambal river valley in Mandsaur and Nimach districts for the cheetahs. There is also talk about moving a few animals from Kuno to the safety of an 80-sq-km fenced area in Rajasthan’s Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve.
  • The focus, therefore, is shifting from the project’s stated purpose that of establishing the cheetah in an open landscape as a free-roaming and self-sustaining population occupying thousands of square miles to managing the African imports as a few pocket populations in fenced-in or restricted areas.

5. How successful has Project Cheetah been so far?

  • In September 2023, it will be one year since a batch of eight cheetahs from Namibia arrived in India.
  • They were followed by 12 others from South Africa in February 2023. The official Cheetah Action Plan, the guiding document behind the project, observes that even half the cheetahs surviving the first year would be “an indicator of success”.
  • Independent critics have, however, argued that there are some basic flaws in the project. For one, it is a mistake to have had all 20 cheetahs at Kuno as there is too little space and prey, given that the animal is a courser and needs larger fields of play.
  • Some animals should have gone to the Mukundara reserve in Rajasthan. Forest officials in Madhya Pradesh have also admitted that they are stretched.
  • However, the officials in the National Tiger Conservation Authority, the nodal agency of the Environment Ministry tasked with coordinating the project, say that Kuno is capable of hosting the first lot of animals and future batches will be sent to other reserves.
  • The experience of raising cheetahs in fenced reserves in Africa can’t be replicated in India, say, experts, because India’s cultural values promote coexistence with beasts, and that underpinned the success of tiger, lion, and leopard conservation programs.
For Prelims: Kuno National Park, National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), Project Cheetah, Chambal river valley, and South Africa.

Previous year Question

1. Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (UPSC 2017)
A. Corbett National Park
B. Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
C. Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
D. Sariska National Park
Answer: B
2.Consider the following: (2012)
  1. Black-necked crane
  2. Cheetah
  3. Flying squirrel
  4. Snow leopard

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer (b)

  1. Black-necked crane - Naturally found in India, especially in the northern regions such as Ladakh.
  2. Cheetah - Historically present in India but is currently extinct in the wild.
  3. Flying squirrel - Naturally found in India, particularly in forests.
  4. Snow leopard - Found in the high-altitude regions of the Himalayas in India.

Thus, the species that are currently naturally found in India are the Black-necked crane, Flying squirrel, and Snow leopard
Source: The Hindu
 
 

CLIMATE FINANCE

 
 

1. Context 

 Ahead of the COP30 climate meeting starting in Belem, Brazil, next week, a new report on climate finance has asked developed countries to work together to formulate a clear delivery plan by next year for the $300 billion per year that they have promised to mobilise every year from 2035 to help developing nations deal with climate change.
 

2. What is Climate finance?

  • Climate finance entails substantial financial investments directed toward initiatives aimed at either mitigating or adapting to the impacts of climate change.
  • In the context of adaptation, it involves proactively addressing the anticipated adverse effects of climate change and implementing measures to prevent or minimize potential damage.
  • For instance, constructing infrastructure to safeguard coastal communities against rising sea levels is a tangible example of adaptation measures.
  • Conversely, in the realm of mitigation, the focus is on curbing the emission of greenhouse gases (GHGs) into the atmosphere, thereby lessening the severity of climate change impacts.
  • Mitigation efforts encompass strategies such as increasing the utilization of renewable energy sources, expanding forest cover, and other measures designed to reduce overall GHG emissions.
 

3. Why do Developing Nations Demand Climate Finance?

Developing nations demand climate finance for several reasons:

  • Developed nations have historically emitted far more greenhouse gases than developing nations. Since the Industrial Revolution, the Global North has emitted a disproportionate share of the greenhouse gases that are now causing climate change. While developing nations are now rapidly increasing their emissions, the historical responsibility for the problem lies primarily with developed countries.
  • Developing countries are disproportionately vulnerable to the negative impacts of climate change, such as extreme weather events, rising sea levels, and changes in agricultural productivity. They often lack the resources to adapt to these changes and build resilience.
  • Developing countries have limited financial resources to invest in clean energy technologies and other climate solutions. They need financial assistance from developed countries to bridge the gap and make these investments.
  • The principle of Common But Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR) is enshrined in the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and the Paris Agreement. This principle recognizes that all countries have a responsibility to address climate change, but that developed countries have a greater responsibility due to their historical emissions and greater financial capacity.
  • Many argue that developed countries have a moral obligation to help developing countries address climate change, as they are the ones who are most vulnerable to its impacts and have the least responsibility for causing the problem.

International Agreements

The demand for climate finance is backed by international agreements, including:

  • The 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) agreement established the principle of CBDR and required developed countries to provide financial assistance to developing countries.
  • 2009 Copenhagen Accord Developed countries committed to providing $100 billion per year by 2020 to developing countries.
  • The 2015 Paris Agreement reaffirmed the commitment to provide $100 billion per year by 2020 and extended it to 2025.
 

4. How much climate finance is needed?

  • As of 2021, the UNFCCC standing committee's analysis suggests that developing countries require a minimum of $5.8 trillion by 2030 to fulfil the objectives outlined in their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).
  • These contributions serve as a framework for their initiatives to both reduce national emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change.
  • This translates to an annual need of around $600 billion, a figure significantly below the commitments made by developed nations.
  • Complicating matters further, a report from the London School of Economics notes that the lack of available data, tools, and capacity in several countries may result in underestimations of these financial needs.
  • Additionally, the UNFCCC estimate does not encompass the substantial expenses incurred by governments to address the impacts of extreme weather events like floods, droughts, and wildfires attributed to climate change.
  • These costs are now being considered separately under the funding mechanism for loss and damage, announced by countries at COP27 in 2022 and officially launched during COP28. However, the scale and replenishment cycle of this mechanism remains unclear.
  • In a report from 2022, Nicholas Stern, a prominent climate economist, estimated that an annual investment of approximately $2 trillion will be necessary by 2030 to assist developing countries in reducing their greenhouse gas emissions and coping with the consequences of climate breakdown.


5. How Much Climate Finance Reaches Developing Nations?

Different organizations provide contrasting figures on the amount of climate finance reaching developing countries.

  • The Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), largely composed of wealthy nations, reported $83.3 billion provided in 2020.
  • Oxfam challenges the data, accusing developed countries of inflating their contributions by as much as 225%. Their estimate places the real value of climate finance provided in 2020 at $21-24.5 billion.
  • Developed countries are criticized for offering much of the funding as non-concessional loans, adding to debt burdens in developing nations.
  • A study by CARE International revealed that 52% of climate finance between 2011-2020 was diverted from existing development budgets, including critical areas like health, education, and women's rights.

Concerns and implications

  • The discrepancy in reported figures raises questions about transparency and accountability in climate finance.
  • The prevalence of non-concessional loans increases debt burdens and limits the effectiveness of climate finance in developing countries.
  • Diverting funds from essential development priorities can exacerbate existing challenges in developing nations.

 

6. The Way Forward

The question of how much climate finance reaches developing countries remains contested. Deeper scrutiny and transparency are needed to ensure effective resource allocation and support meaningful climate action in vulnerable nations while safeguarding their development priorities.

 

For Prelims: COP28, Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development, Climate Finance, Climate Change, United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change,  Nationally Determined Contributions, COP27, Copenhagen Accord, Paris Agreement 
For Mains: 
1. Discuss the impact of climate change on developing economies. How can climate finance be effectively utilized to promote sustainable development in these economies? (250 Words)
 
 

Previous Year Questions
 
1. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2016)
1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017.
2. The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.
3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility for global warming and committed to donate $1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries cope with climate change.
 
Select the correct answer using the code given below
A. 1 and 3 only
B.  2 only
C.  2 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
 
2. The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of ( UPSC 2016)
A. pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East
B. plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change
C. capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
D. plan of action outlined by the countries of the world regarding Sustainable Development Goals

Answer: B

3. The UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) has announced which country to host the 28th Conference of the Parties (COP28) in 2023? (SSC CGL  2023) 

A. UAE         B. US          C. UK         D. Russia

Answer: A

 

4. Consider the following statements with reference to Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD): (RBI Grade B 2022)
1. OECD is an official Permanent observer to the United Nations and is referred to as a think-tank or as a monitoring group.
2. India is not a member of OECD.
3. OECD is funded by its member countries.
Which of the statement given above is/ are correct? 

A. 1 only       B. 1 and 2 only      C. 2 and 3 only        D. 1, 2 and 3          E. 2 only

Answer: D

5. Which of the following statements regarding 'Green Climate Fund' is/are correct? (UPSC 2015)
1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECS, Asian Development Bank and World Bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only       B. 2 only         C. Both 1 and 2         D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

6. The 27th annual UN meeting on climate, COP27 (Conference of Parties) took place from 6th to 18th November, in which of the following country?  (SSC GD Constable 2023)

A. France       B. Brazil        C. Indonesia       D. Egypt

Answer: D

7. According to the Copenhagen Accord, what percentage of India has promised to reduce carbon emissions by the year 2020 as compared to 2005? (UP Police SI 2017) 

A. 20-25 percent  B. 10-15 percent         C. 30-35 percent       D. 5-10 percent

Answers: 1-B, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D, 5-A, 6-D, 7-A

Mains

1. Describe the major outcomes of the 26th session of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). What are the commitments made by India in this conference? (upsc 2021)
 
Source: The Indian Express
 
 

FINANCIAL ACTION TASK FORCE (FATF)

 

1. Context

A recently published report by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) places India and its Enforcement Directorate (ED) under the global spotlight for their role in asset recovery while also highlighting challenges that persist in the country’s enforcement and legal framework.

2. Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

  • The FATF is an inter-governmental body that sets international standards seeking to prevent international financial crimes that aid terrorism. The FATF  was established in July 1989 by a G-7 summit in Paris to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering.
  • The FATF currently comprises 37 member jurisdictions and two regional organizations European Commission and Gulf Cooperation Council, representing most major financial centers in all parts of the globe. India has been a member of the FATF since 2010. India is also a member of its regional partners, the Asia Pacific Group (APG) and the Eurasian Group (EAG).
  • Its secretariat is located at the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) headquarters in Paris.

3. Mandate of FATF

After the 9/11 attacks, the FATF in October 2001 expanded its mandate to incorporate efforts to combat terrorist financing. In April 2012, it added efforts to counter the financing of the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction. The FATF has developed the FATF recommendations, or FATF standards, which ensure a coordinated global response to prevent organized crime, corruption, and terrorism.

4. FATF Lists

4.1 Grey List
Countries that are considered safe heaven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put on the FATF Grey list. This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the Black list.
Recently Democratic Republic of Congo, Mozambique, and Tanzania are added to the Grey List.
4.2 Black List
Countries known as Non-cooperative countries or Territories are put on the Black list. These countries support Terror funding and Money Laundering activities. The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.
Currently, Iran and the Democratic people's Republic of Korea are under High-risk jurisdiction or Black list. Myanmar was added to the list.
Moved Myanmar is from the "grey list" taken by the military junta since they overthrew the government in a coup last February.

5. Why Pakistan is removed from the Grey List?

  • Deliberations of the FATF are made in complete secrecy, and decisions are meant to be made strictly on the basis of technicalities and procedure, so the greylisting of Pakisthan has to be seen in the totality of the process and measures it has undertaken.
  • Pakistan was also on the "grey list" from 2012-2015 when FATF mandated many steps. Since 2018, it has been handed two action plans, comprising 34 points (27+7), asking Islamabad to bring in laws on money laundering, and anti-terror laws in line with international requirements.
  • Pakistan also had to maintain a database of terror groups operating on its soil and the actions taken against them.

6. Benefits for Pakistan

  • If removed from the grey list Pakistan would essentially receive a reputational boost and get a clean bill of health from the international community on terror financing. 
  • There is research that suggests grey listing negatively impacts the relationship of the concerned countries with the international funders including Banks and financial institutions that take note of FATF rankings as well as existing potential overseas investors in those countries.

7. Indias Response

  • India is a member, and hence party to all FATF decisions that are made by consensus. As a result, it also agreed to the decision to take Pakistan off the list, conceding in a statement that due to the FATF, Pakistan had been "forced to take" some action against well-known terrorists", including those involved in the Mumbai 26/11 attacks.
  • The Narendra Modi Government is preparing for India's turn at FATF scrutiny or MER process, set to begin in early 2023, which it hopes will be a smooth process. In July this year while introducing the Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Amendment. 
  • External Minister S. Jaishankar told parliament that India had to take its international commitments on WMD seriously, both at the UN Security Council, and FATF recommendations which had "mandated provisions against financing in relation to WMDs.

For Prelims & Mains

For Prelims: FATF, Grey list, Black List, UN Security Council, Weapons of mass destruction, Asia Pacific Group (APG), Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), and the Eurasian Group (EAG).
For Mains: 1. Discuss the mandate of FAFT on Terror Financing and explain the benefits of Pakistan after removing it from the grey list. 
 
Source: The Hindu
 
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