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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 20 AUGUST 2025

PRESIDENTIAL REFERENCE

 
 
 
1. Context
 
A Presidential Reference Bench of five judges, headed by Chief Justice of India B.R. Gavai, observed on Tuesday that the Supreme Court’s move to grant deemed assent to 10 crucial Tamil Nadu State Bills may have been a way to resolve an “egregious situation” created by the State’s Governor, who had sat on the Bills since 2020.
 
2. Historical context of presidential reference
 

The Supreme Court's advisory role, as outlined in Article 143, traces its origins to the Government of India Act of 1935. This act granted the Governor-General the authority to seek the opinion of the federal court on significant legal matters.

A comparable feature exists in the Canadian Constitution, where the Supreme Court of Canada is empowered to give advisory opinions on legal issues referred by either the federal or provincial governments. In contrast, the U.S. Supreme Court has consistently refused to issue advisory opinions to the executive branch, adhering strictly to the principle of separation of powers embedded in the American Constitution

Under Article 143 of the Constitution, the President has the authority to seek the Supreme Court’s opinion on any legal or factual issue deemed to be of public significance. This referral is made based on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers. According to Article 145, such matters must be examined by a bench comprising at least five judges of the Supreme Court.

Following the hearing, the Court may deliver its opinion as it deems appropriate. While the opinion is not legally binding on the President and does not set a judicial precedent, it holds considerable persuasive value. Consequently, it is generally respected and adhered to by both the executive and the judiciary

3. Past instances

 

  • Since 1950, approximately fifteen presidential references have been made to the Supreme Court, excluding the most recent one. Below are brief summaries of some notable opinions delivered by the Court in response to these references.
  • The first such reference came in the Delhi Laws Act case (1951), where the Court outlined the concept of delegated legislation, allowing the legislature to delegate certain law-making powers to the executive for efficient law implementation.
  • In the Kerala Education Bill case (1958), the Court established the principle of harmonious interpretation between Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy, while also clarifying the constitutional safeguards for minority-run educational institutions under Article 30.
  • In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Court held that any transfer or acquisition of Indian territory requires a constitutional amendment as per Article 368. The Keshav Singh case (1965) addressed the scope of legislative powers and privileges.
  • In the Presidential Election case (1974), the Court ruled that elections for the President must proceed even if there are vacancies in the electoral college due to the dissolution of state assemblies.
  • The Special Courts Bill reference (1978) was particularly important, as the Court clarified that it can choose not to respond to a reference, that the questions posed must be clear and precise, and that the judiciary must not intrude into Parliament's domain when giving its opinion.
  • The Third Judges case (1998) resulted in a comprehensive set of guidelines shaping the collegium system for appointing judges to the higher judiciary.
  • Although the Supreme Court is not bound to respond to every reference, it has declined to provide an opinion on only one occasion — in 1993, concerning the Ram Janmabhoomi dispute

 

 4. Current reference

 

  • The current presidential reference stems from a recent Supreme Court ruling that established specific timelines for the President and State Governors to act on Bills passed by State legislatures.
  • In that judgment, the Court also asserted that the decisions made by the President and Governors regarding such Bills are open to judicial scrutiny. This reference has posed 14 key questions, mainly focusing on the interpretation of Articles 200 and 201 of the Constitution.
  • The central government has raised concerns about whether courts can impose timelines when the Constitution itself does not prescribe any. It also questions whether the actions of the President and Governors, taken before a Bill becomes law, can be subjected to judicial review. Additionally, the reference seeks clarity on the scope of the Supreme Court’s powers under Article 142.
  • This legal dispute has largely been driven by political tensions between the Union government and Opposition-led State governments. In its judgment, the Supreme Court had referred to the timelines mentioned in a Ministry of Home Affairs Office Memorandum concerning the President's assent to Bills.
  • Notably, in the Cauvery dispute reference (1992), the Court had stated that, in an advisory capacity, it does not have the authority to review its previous rulings.
  • Nevertheless, a definitive opinion in the present case is expected to bring clarity to important constitutional questions, thereby aiding in the effective functioning of federalism and democratic governance
 
5. Way Forward
 
The advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 143 plays a vital role in clarifying complex constitutional questions and ensuring the smooth functioning of India's democratic framework. While not binding, the Court’s opinions carry significant persuasive authority and are generally respected by both the executive and judiciary. Historical references, from the Delhi Laws Act case to the Third Judges case, have helped shape important legal doctrines on delegated legislation, federalism, judicial appointments, and legislative privileges
 
For Prelims: Article 143, Supreme Court's advisory jurisdiction
 
For Mains: General Studies II - Indian Polity & Governance
 
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
Prelims

1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only          B. 2 only              C. 2 and 3 only                D. 3 only

Answer: D

2. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? (UPSC CSE 2019)
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
(c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare a Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the Union Legislature.

Answer: B

3. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021)

1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the- existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only         B. 2 only           C. 1 and 3             D. 2 and 3
 
4. Consider the following statements about Electoral Bond Scheme 2018: (RPSC RAS Prelims 2018)
(A) The aim of this scheme is to bring about transparency in the funding process of political parties.
(B) Only the political parties recognized by the Election Commission which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of People or the Legislative Assembly of the State shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.
(C) Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue.
(D) The Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible political party in its account shall be credited on the same day.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1.  Only (A) and (B)     
2.  (A), (B), (C) and (D)
3. Only (B), (C) and (D)
4. Only (A), (C) and (D)
Answer: 2
 
5. With reference to the PM CARES Fund, consider the following statements: (AFCAT 27 2022)
I. The amount collected by it directly goes to the Consolidated Fund of India.
II. It can avail donations from the foreign contribution and donations to fund can also avail 100% tax exemption.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. I only            B. II only           C. Both I and II        D. Neither I nor II
 
Answer: B
 
6. The Prime Minister's National Relief Fund is operated by which one of the following bodies?  (CDS 2019)
A. The Prime Minister's Office (PMO)
B. The National Disaster Management Authority
C. The Ministry of Finance
D. The National Development Council (NDC)
Answer: A

Mains

1. In the light of recent controversy regarding the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVM), what are the challenges before the Election Commission of India to ensure the trustworthiness of elections in India? (UPSC 2018)

2. Discuss the role of the Election Commission of India in the light of the evolution of the Model Code of Conduct. ( UPSC 2022)

 
Source: The Hindu
 
 

PLATFORM-BASED GIG WORKERS BILL

 

1. Context

With the rise in the number of gig workers in cities and towns, the Legislative Assembly on Tuesday passed the Karnataka Platform Based Gig Workers (Social Security and Welfare) Bill, 2025, to protect the rights of workers, set up a welfare fund for them, and place obligations on aggregators.

2. Gig Workers

  • Gig workers, also known as freelancers, independent contractors, or contingent workers, are individuals who work on a temporary or project-based basis, often for multiple employers or clients.
  • Unlike traditional employees, gig workers are not tied to a specific company or employer and have the flexibility to choose when, where, and how they work.
  • This emerging workforce is redefining the way work is done and is becoming an integral part of the modern economy.

3. Characteristics of Gig Workers

  • Gig workers can be found across various industries, from rideshare drivers and food delivery couriers to freelance writers, designers, and consultants.
  • They are characterized by their flexibility and autonomy, enabling them to take on multiple projects simultaneously or focus on specific niches where their skills excel.
  • Gig workers often use digital platforms and online marketplaces to connect with clients and find work opportunities, making use of technology to enhance their employability and reach.

4. Advantages of Gig Work:

  • Flexibility: Gig work offers unparalleled flexibility, allowing individuals to create a work schedule that fits their lifestyle and personal commitments. This flexibility is particularly appealing to parents, students, or individuals pursuing other interests alongside their work.
  • Diverse Opportunities: Gig workers can explore diverse opportunities and gain experience in various industries and projects. This variety can lead to skill development, exposure to different working environments, and the chance to build a diverse professional portfolio.
  • Autonomy and Independence: Gig workers enjoy a higher degree of autonomy and control over their work. They can choose projects they are passionate about, negotiate terms with clients, and take charge of their career paths.
  • Location Independence: The nature of gig work often allows workers to perform their tasks remotely, providing the freedom to work from any location with an internet connection.

5. Challenges and Concerns

  • Income Stability: Gig work may lack the stability of a traditional job, as gig workers may experience fluctuations in income depending on the availability of projects or clients.
  • Lack of Benefits: Gig workers are typically not entitled to employee benefits such as health insurance, retirement plans, or paid time off, which can pose financial challenges and reduce social security.
  • Legal Protections: Some gig workers face legal uncertainties regarding their employment status, leading to concerns about worker rights, job security, and access to legal protections.
  • Work-life Balance: While gig work offers flexibility, it can also blur the boundaries between work and personal life, leading to potential challenges in maintaining a healthy work-life balance.

6. What does the bill propose?

  • The Gig Worker Welfare Bill applies to aggregators and primary employers in the gig economy.
  • Aggregators are digital intermediaries connecting buyers and sellers, while primary employers engage platform-based workers.
  • The proposed Welfare Board will comprise State officials, representatives from gig workers and aggregators, and civil society members.
  • The Board's responsibilities include setting up a welfare fund, registering platform-based gig workers, aggregators, and primary employers, and ensuring social security for gig workers.
  • Each gig worker will receive a unique ID, which will be valid indefinitely, and the Board will maintain a database of companies and workers.
  • Labour unions raised concerns about vague terminologies in the Bill that may create loopholes for companies.

7. Social Security and Welfare Fund:

  • The Board will create a "Social Security and Welfare Fund" for gig workers.
  • The fund will comprise contributions from individual workers, State government aids, and a 'welfare cess' paid by aggregators.
  • The welfare cess will be up to 2% or not less than 1% of the value of each transaction.
  • Unions objected to worker contributions due to fluctuating and inadequate pay.

8. Recognition of Workers' Rights:

  • Existing labour laws often do not recognize gig workers as 'employees' since they do not have a fixed term of employment.
  • The Rajasthan Bill eliminates "restrictive criteria" about eligibility, allowing any person to be registered upon joining an app-based platform.
  • The Welfare Board will formulate schemes for social security, including accidental and health insurance.
  • Unions suggest clarifying the benefits available to gig workers in the Bill.

9. Grievance Redressal:

  • Gig workers can raise grievances related to entitlements, payments, and benefits provided under the Act.
  • Petitions can be filed physically or online through the web portal.
  • The employer can object to the order within 90 days before an 'Appellate Authority.'
  • Concerns were raised about the effectiveness of current redressal mechanisms, as evidenced by protests from Urban Company workers.

10. Aggregator's Duties under the Bill:

  • Aggregators must deposit the welfare cess on time, which is a percentage of each transaction's value.
  • Aggregators are responsible for updating the database of gig workers regularly.
  • Aggregators must document any changes in the number of gig workers within one month of such variations.
  • For first offences, primary employers will be fined up to ₹10,000, while aggregators will face fines up to ₹5 lahks.
  • Subsequent violations will incur higher penalties, with primary employers paying up to ₹2 lakh and aggregators facing fines up to ₹50 lahks.
For Prelims: Gig Workers, Gig Economy, Social Security and Welfare Fund, Aggregators, and  Rajasthan Platform Based Gig Workers (Registration and Welfare) Bill, 2023.
For Mains: 1. Examine the role of the 'Gig Economy' in the process of empowerment of women in India (UPSC 2021).
 

Previous year Question

1. With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2021)
1. All casual workers are entitled to Employees Provident Fund coverage.
2. All casual workers are entitled to regular working hours and overtime payment.
3. The government can by a Notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.
Which of the above statements is correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
 
 Source: The Hindu
 
 

SIMULTANEOUS ELECTIONS

 
 
1. Context
The proposed legislation for simultaneous elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies confers “unfettered discretion” to the Election Commission, former Chief Justice of India Sanjiv Khanna told a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) on Tuesday
 
2. About Simultaneous elections

Simultaneous elections(One Nation One Election) in India refer to the idea of holding the Lok Sabha (parliamentary) and state legislative assembly elections across the country at the same time, rather than the current system of staggered elections where polls are held at different times for different states and union territories. This concept has been a topic of discussion and debate in Indian politics for several years.

Key characteristics related to simultaneous elections in India:

  1. Current Election System: India follows a federal system of government, which means that elections are held separately for the Lok Sabha (federal parliament) and state legislative assemblies. Furthermore, the terms of different state assemblies can vary, leading to elections happening at different times across the country.

  2. Arguments in Favor:

    • Cost and Resource Efficiency: Conducting elections at different times is expensive and requires significant resources. Simultaneous elections could save time and money.
    • Stability and Governance: Proponents argue that simultaneous elections can provide more political stability and allow governments to focus on governance instead of frequent election campaigning.
  3. Challenges and Concerns:

    • Constitutional Hurdles: Implementing simultaneous elections would require constitutional amendments, as the terms of state assemblies cannot be easily synchronized with the Lok Sabha.
    • Logistical Challenges: Organizing simultaneous elections for a country as vast and diverse as India is a complex logistical challenge.
    • Impact on Regional Parties: Smaller regional parties are concerned that simultaneous elections might undermine their ability to campaign effectively.
2. Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs)
Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) are electronic devices used for voting in elections, primarily in India. EVMs have become an integral part of the electoral process in many countries, offering several advantages over traditional paper ballot systems
EVMs were introduced in India in the 1980s as a replacement for the traditional paper ballot system. The aim was to make the voting process more efficient, transparent, and less prone to electoral fraud
 
Key characteristics of EVMs:

Components of an EVM:

  • Control Unit: This is the main unit of the EVM. It is operated by a polling officer and manages the authentication of voters.
  • Balloting Unit: This unit is where voters cast their votes. It is connected to the control unit and displays the list of candidates and their respective symbols
Working of EVMs
  • When a voter casts their vote by pressing the button next to their chosen candidate's name, the EVM records the vote electronically.
  • EVMs are designed to ensure secrecy and prevent double voting.
  • After the election, the data stored in the EVMs is used to tally the votes
Challenges
  • EVMs are designed with multiple layers of security to prevent tampering or hacking.
  • They use a one-time programmable (OTP) chip to store voting data securely.
  • Before and after elections, EVMs are subject to rigorous testing and sealing to ensure their integrity
3.Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (or VVPAT)
  • Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) machines are used during election process to verify that the vote polled by a voter goes to the correct candidate.
  • VVPATs are a second line of verification and are particularly useful in the time when allegations around Electronic Voting Machines’ tampering crop up.
  • Parties have been making regular demands for VVPATs to be used during elections after alleging EVMs may not be completely secure and tamper proof.
    VVPAT system gives instant feedback to the voter showing that the vote polled has in fact been allotted against the candidate chosen.
  • After a voter presses the button on the EVM against the chosen candidate, the VVPAT prints a slip containing name of the candidate and the election symbol and drops it automatically into a sealed box. The machines give the chance for the voter to verify their vote.
  • The machine is placed in a glass case in a way that only the voter can see it. The slip is displayed to the voter for seven seconds after which the VVPAT machine cuts it and drops in into the storage box with a beep. The machines can be accessed, though, by the polling officials and not by the voter.
4. Way forward
If elections were to be held simultaneously in 2029, the EC would require a total of 53.76 lakh ballot units, 38.67 lakh control units, and 41.65 lakh VVPATs. The anticipated shortfall is 26.55 lakh ballot units, 17.78 lakh control units and 17.79 lakh VVPATs, for which the government would need to allocate close to Rs 8,000 crore. The increased demand for voting machines and VVPATs in 2029 is due to the growing number of voters and polling stations. The latter is expected to increase from 11.8 lakh in 2024 to 13.57 lakh in 2029
 
 
 
 
For Prelims:  Indian Polity and Governance
For Mains:  General Studies II: Salient features of the Representation of People’s Act
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) system was used for the first time by the Election Commission of India in (UPSC CSE 2019)
A. North Paravur Assembly Constituency
B. Kerala Noksen Assembly Constituency
C. Nagaland Mapusa Assembly Constituency, Goa
D. Nambol Assembly Constituency, Manipur
Answer (B)
 
Source: indianexpress
 
 

UNION PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

 

1. Context 

 
While India’s first Home Minister, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, referred to the civil servants as the ‘steel frame of India’, they are also known as the ‘permanent executive’. From its colonial roots to its present form, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has effectively supplied the nation with its steel frame and its permanent executive, and upheld its role as the guardian of meritocracy. 

2. History of UPSC

  • The UPSC has its genesis in the Civil Service Commission set up by the British government in 1854.
  • Before this, civil servants in India were nominated by the East India Company and then trained at Haileybury College in London.
  • However, following a report by Lord Thomas Macaulay, it was decided that instead of nominations, civil servants should be selected through a competitive exam.
  • Thus, the Civil Service Commission was set up and for some years, exams were held only in London.
  • It was a decade later, in 1864, that Satyendranath Tagore (brother of Rabindranath Tagore) became the first Indian to clear the exam.
  • The exam started being held in India only in 1922, after the First World War.
Image Source: The Indian Express

3. In Independent India

  • The origin of the Public Service Commission in India is found in the First Dispatch of the Government of India on the Indian Constitutional Reforms on the 5th of March 1919 Which referred to the need for setting up some permanent office charged with the regulation of service matters.
  • This concept of a body intended to be charged primarily with the regulation of service matters found a somewhat more practical shape in the Government of India Act, of 1919.
  • Section 96(C) of the Act provided for the establishment in India of a Public Service Commission which should discharge, regarding recruitment and control of the Public Services in India, such functions as may be assigned thereto by rules made by the Secretary of State in Council.
  • On October 1, 1926, the Public Service Commission was set up in India.
  • The functions of the Public Service Commission were not laid down in the Government of India Act, 1919, but were regulated by the Public Service Commission (Functions) Rules, 1926 framed under sub-section (2) of Section 96 (C) of the Government of India Act, 1919.
  • Further, the Government of India Act, of 1935 envisaged a Public Service Commission for the Federation and a Provincial Public Service Commission for each Province or group of Provinces.
  • Therefore, in terms of the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935 and with its coming into effect on 1st April 1937, the Public Service Commission became the Federal Public Service Commission.
  • After independent India adopted its Constitution on January 26, 1950, the Federal Public Service Commission became the Union Public Service Commission, under Clause (1) of Article 378 of the Constitution.
  • All expenses for the UPSC are paid from the Consolidated Fund of India.
 
4. Functions of UPSC
 
 Functions of UPSC include
  1. Conducting  examinations for appointment to the services of the Union
  2. Direct recruitment by selection through interviews
  3. Appointment of officers on promotion or deputation or absorption
  4. Framing and amendment of Recruitment Rules for various services and posts under the Government
  5. Disciplinary cases relating to different Civil Services
  6. Advising the Government on any matter referred to the Commission by the President of India.
For Prelims: Union Public Service Commission, Lord Thomas Macaulay, Haileybury College, Satyendranath Tagore, Indian Constitutional Reforms, Government of India Act, 1919, Public Service Commission, Public Service Commission (Functions) Rules, 1926,  Government of India Act, of 1935, Article 378 of the Constitution, Consolidated Fund of India, 
For Mains:
1. What is Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)? Discuss its evolution and Explain the functions of UPSC. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the Article ______  (MP Patwari 2017)
A. 315                   B. 234                    C. 421                             D. 56
 
Answer: A
 
2. T.B. Macaulay has penned his 'Minute on Education' in the year  (AP SET 2016)
A.1735                B. 1753                  C. 1853                             D.1835
 
Answer: D
 
3. Which of the following is NOT true about Mill's History of British India? (UGC NET 2019) 
A. It founded the traditional institutions of India static and retrogressive
B. The analysis made by Mill suited the needs of imperial government.
C. It became a textbook on India for the British officers of the Indian Civil Services at Haileybury College
D. It was not informed by the English utilitarian philosophy
 
Answer: D
 
4. Who among the following was the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Service?  (NDA 2019)
1. Satyendranath Tagore
2. Surendranath Banerjee
3. R.C. Dutt
4. Subhas Chandra Bose
 
Answer: A
 
5. Which among the following events happened earliest? (UPSC 2018)
A. Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.
B. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neel Darpan
C. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
D. Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.
 
Answer: B
 
6. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved" and "Transferred" subjects. Which of the following were treated as "Reserved" subjects? (UPSC 2022)
1. Administration of Justice
2. Local Self-Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3             B. 2, 3 and 4              C.  1, 3 and 4           D. 1, 2 and 4
 
Answer: A
 
7. Features of the Government of India Act 1935 are: (Rajasthan Police SI 2016)
(a) The provincial autonomy
(b) The establishment of Federal Court
(c) The establishment of All India Federation at the Centre
1. a and b               2.  b and c             3. a and c                     4. a, b and c
 
Answer: 4
 
8. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2015) 
1. The Department of Revenue responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only      B. 2 and 3 only    C. 2 only     D.  1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: C
 
Source: The Indian Express
 
 

GOODS AND SERVICE TAX (GST)

 
 
1. Context
 
The Group of Ministers (GoM) on Rate Rationalisation is set to meet in the coming week to discuss the proposal on next-generation GST reforms Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced on Friday. The GoM has ministers from six states: Kerala, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, West Bengal, Bihar and Karnataka.
 
2. What is the Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
  • The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a value-added tax levied on the supply of goods and services at each stage of the production and distribution chain. It is a comprehensive indirect tax that aims to replace multiple indirect taxes imposed by the central and state governments in India.
  • GST is designed to simplify the tax structure, eliminate the cascading effect of taxes, and create a unified national market. Under the GST system, both goods and services are taxed at multiple rates based on the nature of the product or service. The tax is collected at each stage of the supply chain, and businesses are allowed to claim a credit for the taxes paid on their inputs.
  • The GST system in India came into effect on July 1, 2017, replacing a complex tax structure that included central excise duty, service tax, and state-level taxes like VAT (Value Added Tax), among others. The GST Council, consisting of representatives from the central and state governments, is responsible for making decisions on various aspects of GST, including tax rates and rules.
  • GST is intended to create a more transparent and efficient tax system, reduce tax evasion, and promote economic growth by fostering a seamless flow of goods and services across the country. It has a significant impact on businesses, as they need to comply with the new tax regulations and maintain detailed records of their transactions for GST filing

3.Goods and Services Tax (GST) and 101st Amendment Act, 2016

The Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India was introduced through the 101st Amendment Act of 2016. This constitutional amendment was a crucial step in the implementation of GST, which aimed to create a unified and comprehensive indirect tax system across the country.

Here are some key points related to the 101st Amendment Act and GST:

 

  • The 101st Amendment Act was enacted to amend the Constitution of India to pave the way for the introduction of the Goods and Services Tax.
  • It added a new article, Article 246A, which confers concurrent powers to both the central and state governments to levy and collect GST
  • The amendment led to the creation of the GST Council, a constitutional body consisting of representatives from the central and state governments. The council is responsible for making recommendations on GST rates, exemptions, and other related issues
  • The amendment introduced a dual GST structure, where both the central government and the state governments have the power to levy and collect GST on the supply of goods and services
  • For inter-state transactions, the 101st Amendment Act provides that the central government would levy and collect the Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST), which would be a sum total of the central and state GST
  • The amendment also included a provision for compensating states for any revenue loss they might incur due to the implementation of GST for a period of five years
The 101st Amendment Act was a critical legislative step that provided the constitutional framework for the implementation of GST in India. It addressed the need for a unified tax system, simplifying the tax structure and promoting a common market across the country. The subsequent establishment of the GST Council has played a pivotal role in the ongoing management and evolution of the GST system in India
 
4. What are the different types of Goods and Services Tax (GST)?

In India, the Goods and Services Tax (GST) is structured into different tax rates based on the nature of the goods and services. As of my last knowledge update in January 2022, the GST rates are divided into multiple slabs. It's important to note that tax rates may be subject to changes, and new amendments could have been introduced since then. As of my last update, the GST rates are as follows:

  • Nil Rate:

    • Some goods and services are categorized under the nil rate, meaning they attract a 0% GST. This implies that no tax is levied on the supply of these goods or services.
  • 5% Rate:

    • This is a lower rate, applicable to essential goods such as certain food items, medical supplies, and other basic necessities.
  • 12% Rate:

    • Goods and services falling in this category attract a 12% GST rate. Items such as mobile phones, processed foods, and certain services fall under this slab.
  • 18% Rate:

    • A higher rate of 18% is applicable to goods and services such as electronic items, capital goods, and various services.
  • 28% Rate:

    • The highest GST rate of 28% is applied to luxury items, automobiles, and certain goods and services that are considered non-essential or fall into the luxury category.
  • Compensation Cess:

    • In addition to the above rates, some specific goods attract a compensation cess, which is levied to compensate the states for any revenue loss during the transition to GST. This is often applied to items like tobacco and luxury cars.
  • Zero Rate:

    • Certain categories of goods and services may be specified as "zero-rated," which means they are effectively taxed at 0%. This is different from the nil rate, as it allows businesses to claim input tax credit on inputs, capital goods, and input services.
  • Exempt Supplies:

    • Some goods and services may be exempt from GST altogether. This means that they are not subject to any GST, and businesses cannot claim input tax credit on related inputs
 
5.Central GST (CGST), State GST (SGST), Union territory GST (UTGST) and Integrated GST (IGST)
 
 
Subject Central GST (CGST) State GST (SGST) Union Territory GST (UTGST) Integrated GST (IGST)
Levied by Central Government Respective State Governments Union Territory Administrations Central Government (on inter-state transactions)
Applicability On intra-state supplies (within the same state) On intra-state supplies (within the same state) On intra-union territory supplies (within the same union territory) On inter-state supplies (across states or union territories)
Rate Determination Determined by the Central Government Determined by the Respective State Government Determined by the Union Territory Administration IGST rate is a sum of CGST and SGST rates
Revenue Collection Collected by the Central Government Collected by the Respective State Government Collected by the Union Territory Administration Collected by the Central Government (on inter-state transactions)
Utilization of Revenue Shared between Central and State Governments Retained by the Respective State Government Retained by the Union Territory Administration Shared between Central and State Governments
Purpose Part of the dual GST structure, meant to cover central taxes Part of the dual GST structure, meant to cover state taxes Applicable in union territories for intra-territory supplies Applied to regulate and tax inter-state supplies
Input Tax Credit (ITC) ITC available for CGST paid on inputs and services ITC available for SGST paid on inputs and services ITC available for UTGST paid on inputs and services ITC available for both CGST and SGST paid on inputs
Tax Jurisdiction Applies within a particular state Applies within a particular state Applies within a particular union territory Applies to transactions across states and union territories
GSTN Portal for Filing Returns Central GSTN portal State-specific GSTN portals UTGSTN portal Integrated GSTN portal
 
 
6.What are the benefits of Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India?
 
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India was implemented with the aim of bringing about significant reforms in the indirect tax structure. Several benefits have been associated with the introduction of GST.
 
Here are some key advantages:
 
  • GST replaced multiple indirect taxes levied by the central and state governments, simplifying the tax structure. This streamlined system reduces the complexity of compliance for businesses
  • GST eliminates the cascading effect of taxes, where taxes are levied on top of other taxes. With a seamless credit mechanism, businesses can claim input tax credit on the taxes paid on their purchases, leading to a more transparent and efficient system
  • GST has facilitated the creation of a common national market by harmonizing tax rates and regulations across states. This has reduced trade barriers and promoted the free flow of goods and services throughout the country
  • The GST system has incorporated technology-driven processes, including electronic filing and real-time reporting, making it harder for businesses to evade taxes. This has contributed to increased tax compliance
  • The input tax credit mechanism under GST benefits manufacturers, as they can claim credits for taxes paid on raw materials and input services. This has a positive impact on the cost of production and enhances the competitiveness of Indian goods in the international market
  • GST brings transparency to the taxation system. The online filing of returns and the availability of transaction-level data make it easier for tax authorities to monitor and track transactions, reducing the scope for corruption
  • GST has replaced a complex system of filing multiple tax returns with a more straightforward mechanism. Businesses now need to file fewer returns, reducing the compliance burden
  • The implementation of GST has contributed to an improvement in the ease of doing business in India. The unified tax system has made it simpler for businesses to operate across states and has reduced the paperwork and bureaucratic hurdles associated with tax compliance
  • GST has led to the harmonization of tax rates across states and union territories, minimizing the tax rate disparities that existed earlier. This creates a more predictable tax environment for businesses
7.Goods and Services Tax (GST)-Issues and Challenge
 
  • Despite the intention to simplify the tax structure, the multi-tiered rate system (0%, 5%, 12%, 18%, and 28%) and the inclusion of cess on certain goods have introduced complexity. The classification of goods and services under different tax slabs can be challenging, leading to disputes and confusion
  • The successful implementation of GST relies heavily on technology. Issues such as technical glitches on the GSTN (Goods and Services Tax Network) portal, especially during the initial phases, have caused difficulties for businesses in filing returns and complying with regulations
  • The compliance requirements for businesses under GST, including multiple returns filing, have been perceived as burdensome. Smaller businesses, in particular, may find it challenging to adapt to the new system and comply with the various provisions
  • The transition from the previous tax regime to GST posed challenges, especially for businesses in terms of understanding the new tax structure, reconfiguring accounting systems, and ensuring a smooth transition of credits from the old tax system to the GST system
  • The classification of certain goods and services into specific tax slabs has been a source of contention. Ambiguities in classification have led to disputes and litigations, with businesses seeking clarity on the applicable tax rates
  • The implementation of GST has increased compliance costs for businesses due to the need for sophisticated IT infrastructure, the hiring of tax professionals, and efforts to ensure accurate reporting and filing
  • Challenges related to availing and matching input tax credits have been reported. Timely matching of credits and resolving discrepancies can be cumbersome, leading to concerns about the seamless flow of credit across the supply chain
  • The anti-profiteering provisions were introduced to ensure that businesses pass on the benefits of reduced tax rates to consumers. However, the implementation of anti-profiteering measures has been criticized for its complexity and potential for disputes
  • The periodic changes in the GST return filing system have created challenges for businesses in adapting their processes. Delays and complexities in return filing can affect working capital management
8.Goods and Services Tax Council (GST Council)
 
The Goods and Services Tax Council (GST Council) is a constitutional body in India that makes recommendations on the Goods and Services Tax (GST). It was established under the Constitution (122nd Amendment) Act, 2016, which introduced the GST in India

The GST Council consists of the following members:

  • The Union Finance Minister, who is the Chairperson of the Council.
  • The Union Minister of State in charge of revenue or any other Minister of State nominated by the Union Government.
  • One Minister from each state, nominated by the Governor of that state.
  • The Chief Secretary of each state, ex-officio.
  • If the President, on the recommendation of the Council, so directs, one representative of each Union territory which has a legislature, to be nominated by the Lieutenant Governor of that Union territory.
  • Three to seven members (other than Ministers) to be nominated by the Union Government, of whom at least one member shall be from the field of economics and another from the field of chartered accountancy, legal affairs or public finance
9. Way forward
 
It's important to note that the composition and structure of the GST Council may evolve over time, and there might have been changes since my last update in January 2022. To obtain the latest and most accurate information about the GST Council and its members, it is recommended to refer to official government sources or recent announcements by the relevant authorities

 

For Prelims: Economic and Social Development and Indian Polity and Governance
For Mains: General Studies II: Functions and responsibilities of the Union and the States, issues and challenges pertaining to the federal structure, devolution of powers and finances up to local levels and challenges therein

General Studies III: Inclusive growth and issues arising from it

 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1.Which of the following are true of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) introduced in India in recent times? (UGC Paper II 2020)
A. It is a destination tax
B. It benefits producing states more
C. It benefits consuming states more
D. It is a progressive taxation
E. It is an umbrella tax to improve ease of doing business
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A.B, D and E only
B.A, C and D only
C.A, D and E only
D.A, C and E only
Answer (D)
 
Source: Indianexpress
 
 

NISAR

1. Context 

The gigantic antenna reflector on earth observation satellite NISAR, a joint Isro-Nasa mission, has successfully “bloomed” in space, marking a significant milestone in the satellite’s deployment phase. Confirming the successful antenna deployment, Nasa said in a statement that the step-wise unfurling of the antenna reflector with a diameter of 39 feet was completed Friday.

2. Necessity of NISAR

  • NISAR marks a significant milestone as the first large-scale Earth observation mission to use dual-frequency radar technology.
  • This capability enables it to detect ground changes with unmatched precision, regardless of whether it's day or night, and in all weather conditions—including through clouds, smoke, or dense vegetation.
  • Weighing about three tonnes and costing over $1.5 billion, NISAR ranks among the most expensive Earth-monitoring satellites ever launched.
  • The Earth’s landscape is constantly undergoing transformation due to natural phenomena, human interventions, and climate variations. Observing these changes from space provides essential insights for scientists, policymakers, and emergency response teams.
  • In response to this need, NASA and ISRO have joined forces on a mission that not only serves global monitoring goals but also ensures ISRO has reliable access to high-resolution data customized for Indian requirements.
  • The mission targets six key scientific and practical domains: geophysical processes of the solid Earth, ecosystem dynamics, glacial and ice-sheet monitoring, coastal and marine systems, disaster management, and a variety of other applications such as monitoring groundwater levels, oil deposits, and infrastructure like dams and levees.
  • Although the mission is officially planned to last three years, it has been engineered for a minimum lifespan of five years. Importantly, its open-data policy ensures that most of the data captured by NISAR will be made publicly available within hours of collection

3. How does NISAR work?

  • Once launched, NISAR will be positioned in a sun-synchronous polar orbit, circling the Earth at an altitude of 747 kilometers with an orbital inclination of 98.4º. Unlike conventional satellites that capture images, NISAR will utilize synthetic aperture radar (SAR) technology, which sends radar pulses toward the Earth's surface and then measures the return time and phase shift of the reflected signals.
  • The resolution of radar imaging improves with larger antenna sizes—known as aperture—but deploying physically large antennas in space is unfeasible. SAR overcomes this limitation by simulating a large antenna.
  • As the satellite advances in its orbit, it emits repeated radar pulses and collects their echoes, which are later processed to reconstruct an image as if a giant antenna had captured them all at once—thus earning the term "synthetic aperture."
  • NISAR will feature two radar systems: an L-band SAR operating at 1.257 GHz that penetrates vegetation and soil layers to detect subsurface changes and land deformations, and an S-band SAR at 3.2 GHz designed for observing finer surface details such as vegetation types and water bodies.
  • Globally, the satellite will mainly operate using the L-band radar, which aligns with NASA’s scientific objectives. However, over India, ISRO will routinely utilize the S-band radar for targeted observations.
  • These S-band acquisitions are tailored to India's specific needs, such as biomass estimation, soil moisture monitoring, and filtering out ionospheric interference, which are crucial for sectors like agriculture, forestry, and disaster response.
  • Both space agencies aim to coordinate radar operations efficiently so that simultaneous use of both radars is possible over the Indian subcontinent, reducing data conflicts.
  • In radar systems, polarisation refers to the orientation of the electric field in the radar wave. SAR can both send and receive horizontally or vertically polarised signals. Using various combinations of these allows NISAR to distinguish between different surface compositions such as snow, soil, crops, or forests.
  • NISAR’s radar system will cover a wide area with a swath width of 240 km, thanks to a SweepSAR design. This approach uses a beam transmission system that, upon signal return, employs multiple smaller apertures that steer electronically to create scanning beams sweeping across the satellite’s ground path.
  • This scan-on-receive method enables large-area coverage without sacrificing image clarity.
  • The mission will deliver spatial resolutions ranging from 3 to 10 meters and vertical accuracy down to a few centimeters. This high level of detail is suitable for tracking urban land subsidence or other subtle ground movements. Each point on the Earth’s surface will be revisited every 12 days.
  • NISAR is equipped with a massive 12-meter-wide mesh reflector antenna, enabling it to generate annual biomass maps at a resolution of 1 hectare and quarterly maps distinguishing between cultivated and fallow farmland.
  • It will also provide detailed floodplain maps and, in emergencies, can generate ‘damage proxy maps’ within five hours of data capture.
  • However, there are some limitations. Due to the satellite’s orbital geometry, certain data acquisition modes may not achieve full global coverage. At latitudes above 60º, NISAR will skip every other observation due to overlapping orbits.
  • Furthermore, around 10% of Earth’s surface may not be covered from both ascending and descending passes within a given 12-day cycle
Another important component of the satellite is its large 39-foot stationary antenna reflector.
Made of a gold-plated wire mesh, the reflector will be used to focus " the radar signals emitted and received by the upward-facing feed on the instrument structure".
 
 
4. How was NISAR built?
 
  • When NASA and ISRO agreed to collaborate on the NISAR project, both agencies committed to contributing equally in terms of funding, technology, and expertise.
  • ISRO was responsible for providing the I-3K satellite bus — the core spacecraft framework that handles system commands, propulsion, orientation, and includes solar panels capable of generating 4 kW of power.
  • In addition, ISRO delivered the complete S-band radar electronics system, a high-speed Ka-band communication unit, and a steerable high-gain antenna. The development of the S-band radar components was carried out at the Space Applications Centre in Ahmedabad.
  • On the other hand, NASA’s primary input was the L-band synthetic aperture radar system. This was developed at the Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL), which supplied all related radio-frequency components, a 12-meter radar antenna, a 9-meter carbon fiber boom, and the structural assembly that supports both radar units.
  • NASA also provided the L-band feed array and avionics systems, including a solid-state recorder with large data capacity, a GPS system, autonomous data management tools, and a Ka-band communication unit.
  • After integration of the radar payloads at JPL, the spacecraft was sent to ISRO’s Satellite Centre in Bengaluru for final assembly. Once fully tested, NISAR will be launched aboard ISRO’s GSLV Mk-II rocket from the spaceport in Sriharikota, with ISRO overseeing the entire launch sequence.
  • While the overall mission will be coordinated through NASA's Mission Operations Center at JPL, routine flight control and monitoring will be managed by ISRO’s Telemetry, Tracking and Command Network (ISTRAC) in Bengaluru.
  • After deployment into orbit, the bulk of the mission’s data—approximately 3 terabytes daily—will be transmitted through NASA’s Near Earth Network ground stations located in Alaska, Norway’s Svalbard, and Punta Arenas in Chile.
  • These facilities will work in conjunction with ISRO’s data reception stations in Shadnagar and Antarctica. Once the raw data are received, India’s National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) will process and distribute mission outputs tailored for Indian applications, in a workflow that parallels NASA’s global data distribution system

5. The Mission

  • Once launched into space, NISAR will observe subtle changes in Earth's surfaces, helping researchers better understand the causes and consequences of such phenomena.
  • It will spot warning signs of natural disasters, such as volcanic eruptions, earthquakes and landslides.
  • The satellite will also measure groundwater levels, track flow rates of glaciers and ice sheets and monitor the planet's forest and agricultural regions, which can improve our understanding of carbon exchange.
By using synthetic aperture radar (SAR), NISAR will produce high-resolution images.
SAR is capable of penetrating clouds and can collect data day and night regardless of the weather conditions. The instrument's imaging Swath the width of the strip of data collected along the length of the orbit track is greater than 150 miles (240 kilometres), which allows it to image the entire Earth in 12 days.
 
  • NISAR is expected to be launched in January 2024 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre into a near-polar orbit.
  • The satellite will operate for a minimum of three years.
  • NASA requires the L-band radar for its global science operations for at least three years.
  • Meanwhile, ISRO will utilise the S-band radar for a minimum of five years.

For Prelims & Mains

For Prelims:  NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar), Satish Dhawan Space Centre,  Earth-observation satellite, Jet Propulsion Laboratory, L-band and S-band synthetic aperture radar, GPS, GSLV launch system and spacecraft, 
For Mains:
1. What is NISAR and Explain its benefits (250 Words)
 
Source: The Hindu
 
 

ECO SENSITIVE ZONE(ESZ)

 

1.Context

The Environment Ministry’s Forest Advisory Committee (FAC) has, for now, declined Stage-II or final approval for Hindalco Industries Ltd’s bauxite mine in Maharashtra’s Kolhapur, as it falls under the eco-sensitive areas (ESA) of the Western Ghats, according to the minutes of the FAC meeting.

2. Eco-Sensitive Zone

  • As per the National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016), issued by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, land within 10 km of the boundaries of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries is to be notified as eco-fragile zones or Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZ).
  • While the 10-km rule is implemented as a general principle, the extent of its application can vary. 
  • Areas beyond 10 km can also be notified by the Union government as ESZs, if they hold larger ecologically important “sensitive corridors.”

1.1 Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ)

    • The Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) are areas in India notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), GoI around Protected Areas, National Park and Wildlife sanctuaries. 
  • Purpose: 
      • To create some kind of "shock absorbers" to the protected areas by regulating and managing the activities around such areas. 
      • Therefore, these areas act as a buffer for protected areas and reduce developmental pressures around a wildlife sanctuary or national park.
      • They also act as a transition zone from areas of high protection to areas involving lesser protection.
  • Range:
      • All identified areas around Protected Areas and wildlife corridors to be declared as ecologically fragile under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (National Wildlife Action Plan, 2002-2016).
      • Eco-sensitive Zone could go up to 10 Kms around Protected Areas. 
      • In cases where sensitive corridors, connectivity and ecologically important patches, crucial for landscape linkage, are even beyond 10 Kms width. 
      • Further, Eco-sensitive zones may not be uniform all around and they could be variable in width and extent.
  • Prohibited activities: 
      • Activities like industries which cause pollution Commercial mining, sawmills, the establishment of major hydroelectric projects (HEP), commercial use of wood, Tourism, discharge of effluents or any solid waste or production of hazardous substances are all prohibited.
  • Regulated activities:
      • Activities like the felling of trees, establishment of hotels and resorts, commercial use of natural water, erection of electrical cables, drastic change of agriculture system, e.g. adoption of heavy technology, pesticides etc., widening of roads.
  • Permitted activities:
    • Activities like ongoing agricultural or horticultural practices, rainwater harvesting, organic farming, use of renewable energy sources, and adoption of green technology for all activities are permitted.

3. Reasons for the creation of an ecologically sensitive zone

  • According to the guidelines issued by the Environment Ministry on February 9, 2011, ESZs are created as “shock absorbers” for the protected areas, to minimize the negative impact on the “fragile ecosystems” by certain human activities taking place nearby. Furthermore, these areas are meant to act as a transition zone from areas requiring higher protection to those requiring lesser protection.
  • The guidelines also state that the ESZs are not meant to hamper the daily activities of people living in the vicinity, but are meant to guard the protected areas and “refine the environment around them”.
  • To do so, the guidelines list the activities prohibited in an ESZ, such as commercial mining, saw mills, commercial use of wood, etc., apart from regulated activities like the felling of trees. Lastly, there are permitted activities like ongoing agricultural or horticultural practices, rainwater harvesting, and organic farming, among others.

Judgement of Supreme Court

  • On June 3, a three-judge bench of the Supreme Court heard a PIL which sought to protect forest lands in the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu, but was later expanded to cover the entire country.
  • In its judgment, the court while referring to the 2011 guidelines as “reasonable”, as reported by Live Law, directed all states to have a mandatory 1-km ESZ from the demarcated boundaries of every protected forest land, national park and wildlife sanctuary.
  • It also stated that no new permanent structure or mining will be permitted within the ESZ.
  • If the existing ESZ goes beyond a 1-km buffer zone or if any statutory instrument prescribes a higher limit, then such extended boundary shall prevail, the court, as per the Live Law report, said.

4. Protests by the people

  • Protests erupted across the high ranges of Kerala in response to the apex court’s directions. Due to the high density of human population near the notified protected areas, farmer’s groups and political parties have been demanding that all human settlements be exempt from the ESZ ruling.
  • Alex Ozhukayil, the chairman of Kerala Independent Farmers’ Association (KIFA) claimed that the court’s decision would severely impact the livelihoods of farmers.
  • He said, “The total extent of the wildlife sanctuaries in Kerala is eight lakh acres. If one km of ESZ is demarcated from their boundaries, around 4 lakh acres of human settlements, including farmlands, would come within that purview. This is a matter of sheer survival of lakhs of people.”
  • The ruling Left Democratic Front and the Congress-led United Democratic Fund have both called for strikes in Idukki and Wayanad districts over the past weeks to oppose the 1-km order.
  • Before the SC judgment, the Kerala state government had stated during an expert committee meeting of the Union Environment Ministry in March that all human settlements should be excluded from the buffer zones.
  • The Kerala state government had proposed that for some national parks, such as the Thattekad Bird Sanctuary, the extent of the ESZ area should be reduced from the proposed uniform 1 km to an ESZ ranging from zero to 1 km in the eastern and south-eastern side of the national park.
  • This was because the villagers occupying the densely populated settlements in these areas believed that the ESZ would restrict their agricultural and related activities.

4. Other similar challenges

  • Developmental activities:
      • Activities such as the construction of dams, roads, and urban and rural infrastructures in the ESZ, create interference, negatively impact the environment and imbalance the ecological system. 
  • Blatant violations:
      • To cater to the increasing demand for eco-tourism, the land around parks and sanctuaries are being cleared through deforestation, displacement of local people etc. 
      • Failing to recognize the rights of forest communities and curbing poaching of animals, environmental legislations undermine the ESZs in favour of developmental activities. 
  • Climate change:
      • Biodiversity and climate change are interconnected, for example, the rise in global temperature has generated land, water and ecological stress on the ESZs. 
  • Tourism-related Pollution:
      • As the pressure of tourism is rising, the government is developing new sites and gateways to the ESZ. The tourists leave behind garbage such as plastic bags and bottles etc. which leads to environmental degradation.
  • Local communities:
    • Slash and burn techniques used in agriculture, the pressure of increasing population and the rising demand for firewood and forest produce, etc. exerts pressure on the protected areas.

 

5. Earlier protests 

  • This is not the first time that Kerala has faced such protests. 
  • In 2013, hartals first erupted in Idukki and Wayanad after the Kasturirangan committee report recommended that 60,000 km of the Western Ghats, covering 12 of Kerala’s 14 districts, be notified as ecologically sensitive areas.
8. Distribution of major ECZ in India
 
 
9.Way Forward
A decade after Sariska became a tiger reserve in 1978, Rajasthan issued mining leases inside the reserve to many who had obtained no-objection certificates (NOCs) from the then field director of Sariska, even though he did not have any authority to issue such NOCs
 
 
For Prelims: Current events of national and international importance, General issues on Environmental Ecology.
For Mains: GS-II, GS-III: Government policies and interventions, Conservation, environmental pollution and degradation, environmental impact assessment.
 
Previous Year Questions

1.In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass? (UPSC CSE 2012)

(a) Biosphere Reserves

(b) National Parks

(c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention

(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries

Answer (b)

In National Parks, the primary focus is on the conservation of wildlife and biodiversity. Human activities such as grazing, logging, and collecting forest products are strictly prohibited. This is different from Wildlife Sanctuaries and Biosphere Reserves, where certain activities by local communities may be permitted under specific regulations. Wetlands declared under the Ramsar Convention focus on the conservation and sustainable use of wetland resources, often allowing for regulated human activity

Source: Indianexpress

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