2. About cybercrime

Cybercrime is essentially any illegal activity that involves computers, networks, or digital devices. Criminals can use these tools to steal data, commit fraud, disrupt computer systems, or cause other harm. Some common types of cybercrime include:

• Stealing someone's personal information like their name, Social Security number, or credit card details to impersonate them and commit fraud.
• Tricking people into giving up their personal information or clicking on malicious links by disguising emails or websites as legitimate ones.
• Malicious software that can be installed on a computer to steal data, damage files, or disrupt operations.
• Gaining unauthorized access to a computer system or network to steal data, install malware, or cause damage.

3. What is NCRP?

The National Cybercrime Reporting Portal is an online platform established by the government of India to facilitate the reporting of cybercrimes by citizens. The portal allows individuals to report incidents of cybercrime in a streamlined and accessible manner.

Key features and functions of the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal include

• Individuals can report various types of cybercrimes such as online harassment, financial fraud, ransomware attacks, and identity theft. The portal provides specific categories for different types of cyber incidents to ensure proper documentation and handling.
• The portal places a special emphasis on crimes related to women and children, providing a dedicated section to report cases of online harassment, child pornography, and other related offences.
• The portal allows users to report crimes anonymously if they choose, ensuring the confidentiality and privacy of the complainant.
• Once a complaint is filed, the portal provides a tracking number which can be used to follow up on the status of the complaint.
• The portal offers resources and guidelines on how to protect oneself from cybercrime, as well as information on legal recourse and support available for victims.

5. What is the Budapest Convention?

The Budapest Convention, also known as the Council of Europe Convention on Cybercrime, is the world's first international treaty specifically designed to address cybercrime. It came into effect in 2004 with three main objectives:

1. The convention aims to improve how countries investigate cybercrime by setting standards for collecting electronic evidence and fostering cooperation between law enforcement agencies.
2. It facilitates cooperation among member states in tackling cybercrime. This includes sharing information, assisting with investigations, and extraditing cybercriminals.
3. The convention encourages member countries to harmonize their national laws related to cybercrime. This creates a more unified approach to defining and prosecuting cyber offences.

India's Stand: India is not currently a party to the Budapest Convention. There are concerns that some provisions, like data sharing with foreign law enforcement agencies, might infringe on India's national sovereignty. India has also argued that it wasn't involved in drafting the initial convention.

6. What is the Global Cybersecurity Index?

The Global Cybersecurity Index (GCI) is an initiative by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) to measure and rank the cybersecurity capabilities of countries around the world. The index provides insights into the commitment of countries to cybersecurity at a global level, assessing their strengths and identifying areas for improvement. The key aspects of the Global Cybersecurity Index

Purpose

• To promote cybersecurity awareness and foster a global culture of cybersecurity.
• To encourage countries to enhance their cybersecurity infrastructure and strategies.
• To facilitate knowledge sharing and cooperation among nations.

Assessment Criteria

 The GCI evaluates countries based on five main pillars:

1. Examines the existence of cybersecurity legislation and regulatory frameworks.
2. Assesses the implementation of cybersecurity technologies and technical institutions.
3.  Looks at national cybersecurity strategies, policies, and dedicated agencies.
4. Evaluate the availability of cybersecurity education, training, and awareness programs.
5. Measures the extent of international and national cooperation in cybersecurity efforts.

Impact

 The GCI serves several important functions:

• Provides a benchmarking tool for countries to assess their cybersecurity maturity.
• Helps policymakers identify gaps and prioritize areas for improvement.
• Encourages international cooperation and collaboration to tackle global cyber threats.

7. The challenges related to cyber security in India

India faces numerous challenges related to cybersecurity, reflecting its rapidly growing digital economy and increasing reliance on technology. 

Increasing Cyber Threats:

• India has seen a significant rise in cybercrimes, including hacking, phishing, ransomware attacks, and identity theft. Sophisticated, state-sponsored attacks targeting critical infrastructure and sensitive data are becoming more common.
• Many public and private sector systems rely on outdated technology, making them vulnerable to attacks. Inadequate implementation of robust cybersecurity measures and protocols leaves systems exposed.
• There is a significant gap in the number of trained cybersecurity experts needed to protect against and respond to cyber threats. Ongoing education and training programs are insufficient to keep pace with evolving cyber threats.
• The absence of a unified regulatory framework complicates cybersecurity management. While laws like the IT Act 2000 exist, enforcement and implementation remain inconsistent and weak.
• Many individuals and small businesses lack awareness of basic cybersecurity practices. Practices like using weak passwords, not updating software, and falling for phishing scams are common.
• The absence of robust data protection legislation makes it difficult to safeguard personal and sensitive data. Ensuring privacy and protection of personal information remains a significant challenge.
• Effective cybersecurity often requires international cooperation, which is currently limited and inconsistent. Cross-border cyber threats and geopolitical tensions complicate collaboration and response efforts.
• The rapid adoption of IoT devices, often with minimal security features, increases vulnerabilities. While AI can enhance security, it also introduces new risks and attack vectors.
• Sectors like banking, healthcare, and energy are increasingly targeted, requiring enhanced protection measures. Ensuring coordinated efforts among various governmental and private entities involved in critical infrastructure protection is challenging.
• Limited financial resources allocated for cybersecurity initiatives hinder the development and implementation of comprehensive security measures.
• Staying abreast of the latest cybersecurity technologies and tools is difficult due to financial and logistical constraints.

 

Source: The Indian Express

 

ARTICLE 142

1. Context

Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar expressed serious concerns on Thursday regarding the judiciary's increasing reliance on Article 142 of the Constitution

2. About Article 142 

• Article 142 provides a unique power to the Supreme Court, to do "complete justice" between the parties, where at times, the law or statute may not provide a remedy.
• In those situations, the Court can extend itself to put an end to a dispute in a manner that would fit the facts of the case.

3. Courts exercising this power

• While the powers under Article 142 are sweeping in nature, SC has defined its scope and extent through its judgments over time.
• In the Prem Chand Garg Case, the majority opinion demarcated the contours for the exercise of the Court's powers under Article 142 (1) by saying that an order to do complete justice between the parties "must not only be consistent with the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution, but it cannot even be inconsistent with the substantive provisions of the relevant statutory laws," referring to laws made by Parliament.
• Therefore, we do not think it would be possible to hold that Article 142 (1) confers upon this Court powers which can contravene the provisions of Article 32 (right to constitutional remedies), it said.
• The Seven-judge bench in "Antulay" upheld the 1962 ruling in "Prem Chand Garg".
• Notably, in the Bhopal Gas Tragedy case (Union Carbide Corporation vs Union of India) the SC in 1991 ordered UCC to pay $470 million in compensation for the victims of the tragedy.
• In doing so, the Bench highlighted the wide scope of Article 142 (1), adding that it found it "necessary to set at rest certain misconceptions in the arguments touching the scope of the powers of this court under Article 142 (1) of the  Constitution.
• Deeming the power under Article 142 to be "at an entirely different level and of a different quality", the court clarified that "prohibitions on limitations on provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot, ipso-facto, act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142".
• Adding that it would be "wholly incorrect" to say that powers under Article 142 are subject to express statutory prohibitions, the court reasoned that doing so would convey the idea that statutory provisions override a constitutional provision.

4. Criticism on Article 142

• The sweeping nature of these powers has invited the criticism that they are arbitrary and ambiguous.
• It is further argued that the court then has wide discretion and this allows the possibility of its arbitrary exercise or misuse due to the absence of a standard definition for the term "complete justice".
• Defining "Complete justice" is a subjective exercise that differs in its interpretation from case to case. Thus, the court has to place checks on itself.
• In 1998, the apex court in "Supreme Court Bar Association vs Union of India" held that the powers under Article 142 are supplementary and could not be used to supplant or override a substantive law and "build a new edifice where none existed earlier".
• The court said that the powers conferred by Article 142 are curative and cannot be construed as powers "Which authorise the court to ignore the substantive rights of a litigant while dealing with a cause pending before it".
• Adding that Article 142 cannot be used to build a new edifice, ignoring statutory provisions dealing with a subject the court also said that the provision cannot be used "to achieve something indirectly which cannot be achieved directly".
• More recently, in its 2006 ruling in "A. Jideranath vs Jubillee Hills Co-op House Building Society, the Supreme Court discussed the scope of the power here, holding that in its exercise no injustice should be caused to a person not party to the case.
• Another criticism of the powers under Article 142 is that unlike the legislature and the executive, the judiciary cannot be held accountable for its actions.
• The power has been criticised on grounds of the separation of powers doctrine, which says that the judiciary should not venture into areas of lawmaking and that it would invite the possibility of judicial overreach.
• However, the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution was mindful of the wide-reaching nature of the powers and reserved it only for exceptional situations, which the existing law would have failed to anticipate.
• Additionally, the apex court has imposed checks on its power under Article 142.
• In 2006, the SC ruling by a five-judge Bench in "State of Karnataka vs Umadevi" also clarified that "complete justice" under Article 142 means justice according to law and not sympathy while holding that it will "not grant a relief which would amount to perpetuating illegality encroaching into the legislative domain".

 

For Prelims: Article 142, Supreme Court, complete justice, Article 32, Bhopal Gas Tragedy case, Drafting Committee, Indian Constitution, separation of powers doctrine,  For Mains: 1. What is Article 142 of the Constitution? Discuss the Criticism of Article 142 and Explain how courts countered it. (250 Words)

 

 

Previous Year Questions   1. Doctrine of separation of power means (CTET  2022) A. one organ of the government should not undertake the function of the others. B. one organ of the government should not interfere with the function of another organ. Choose the correct option.  A. Only A is true. B. Only B is true. C. Both A and B are true. D. Both A and B are false.   Answer: C   2. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2018) 1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State. 2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A.  1 only           B. 2 only            C.  Both 1 and 2         D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: A 3. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2013) 1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House. 2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A.  1 only           B. 2 only            C.  Both 1 and 2         D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: B 4. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which (UPSC 2020) A. all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government B. the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it C. the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them D. the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term Answer: B 5. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the (2015) A. Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people B. Parliament can amend the Constitution C. Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved D. Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha Answer: D 6. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?  (UPSC  2019) A. The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law. B. The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament. C. In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet. D. State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.   Answer: B   7. Which Article of the Constitution of India gives the Apex Court absolute power to pass any order or decree as they may deem fit to pursue complete justice? (SSC 2019) A. Article 121 B. Article 142 C. Article 127 D. Article 134   Answer: B   8. When did the Bhopal Gas tragedy happened? (MPPSC 2013) A. 3 Dec, 1984 B. 3 Nov, 1984 C. 3 Dec, 1985 D. 3 Nov, 1985   Answer: A   9. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)? (UPSC 2018) 1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government. 2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A.  1 only           B. 2 only            C.  Both 1 and 2         D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: B

 

Source: The Indian Express

 

URDU 

 

 

1. Context

 

Recently, the Supreme Court has upheld the use of Urdu on the signboard of a municipal council building in Maharashtra in Varshatai w/o Sanjay Bagade vs State Of Maharashtra case. The court has said that language is culture and must not become a cause for dividing people, and Urdu “is the finest specimen of Ganga-Jamuni tehzeeb, or the Hindustani tehzeeb

 

2. Urdu as a Language

 

• Urdu language experts suggest that Urdu originated on the Indian subcontinent several centuries ago. Historical records frequently mention three locations within India where the language evolved and prospered under different names over time.

• It is commonly believed that Urdu emerged in the military camps of Delhi, where it served as a linguistic bridge among soldiers from diverse regions, incorporating vocabulary from various languages to facilitate communication.

• However, literary critic Shamsur Rahman Faruqi challenges this view. He argues that Urdu developed as the native tongue of residents in a specific quarter of Mughal Delhi, known as Urdu-e-Moalla-e-Shahjahanabad—meaning the "Exalted City of Shahjahanabad."

• In his work Ghurrat-ul-Kamal, Ameer Khusro refers to Masood Lahori (Masood Saad Salman)—an 11th-century poet from Lahore—who composed verses in Hindvi, also referred to as Dehlavi.

• This, according to Professor Ali Abbas of Punjab University, indicates that Urdu had its early roots in Punjab. Before being officially recognized as "Urdu," the language was known by various names, including Hindustani, Hindavi, Dehlavi, and Rekhta.

• Historical records also show that Urdu, after originating in Punjab, underwent significant growth and refinement during the Delhi Sultanate period. It expanded not just in Delhi but also in neighboring regions such as Haryana and parts of southern India, where it took on the form of Dakhni (or Deccani) Urdu.

• Notably, Muhammad Quli Qutub Shah, the ruler of Golkonda and a scholar proficient in Urdu, Persian, and Telugu, is credited with being the first Urdu poet to compile a full poetic collection (Saheb-e-Dewan). He played a significant role in shaping Hindustani into a more developed form.

• Saif Mahmood further observes that the spoken language in the Urdu-Hindi region was traditionally Hindustani—a natural blend of Hindi and Urdu. Until the mid-20th century, this hybrid tongue was commonly written in both the Nastaliq script (Urdu) and the Devanagari script (Hindi), while everyday conversation avoided heavily Sanskritised or Persianised vocabulary

 

3. Urdu as an Official Language

 

 

• English and Hindi serve as the two official languages recognized by the Central Government of India. Urdu, although not an official language at the national level, is one of the 15 Indian languages featured on Indian currency notes. It holds official status in several states and union territories, including Jammu & Kashmir, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Delhi, and West Bengal. In Punjab, historical documents maintained by the Revenue Department are still preserved in Urdu.

• As per the Census of 2001, India was home to 122 significant languages, including the 22 languages officially recognized in the Eighth Schedule, along with 234 mother tongues. Urdu ranked sixth among the most widely spoken scheduled languages. It is used, at least by a segment of the population, in nearly every Indian state and union territory, with the likely exception of the northeastern states, as highlighted in a judicial verdict.

• The Constitution of India, specifically Articles 344(1) and 351, outlines the framework for the languages listed in the Eighth Schedule. This Schedule includes the following 22 officially recognized languages: Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali, Maithili, and Dogri.

• According to Clause 1 of Article 343, Hindi written in the Devanagari script is designated as the official language of the Union. It also states that the numerals used for official purposes shall follow the international format of Indian numerals.

• Article 343(2) provides that for the first fifteen years after the Constitution came into effect (starting January 26, 1950), English would continue to be used for all Union-level official functions, as it had been prior to that date.

• Furthermore, Article 343(3) empowers Parliament to legislate, after the expiration of this fifteen-year period, regarding the continued use of English or the use of Devanagari numerals for specific official purposes as defined by such law

 

Important Facts   The inaugural Urdu newspaper, Jam-i-Jahan-Numa, was launched on March 27, 1822, as a weekly publication by Harihar Dutta in Kolkata. The Urdu press played a pivotal role as the revolutionary voice during British colonial rule. It was instrumental in the enactment of the Vernacular Press Act of 1877 and popularized the slogan "Inqilab Zindabad"—a call for revolution that remains a symbol of resistance to this day. Maulvi Muhammad Baqir (1780-1857), a prominent Urdu journalist, was the first to sacrifice his life for the nation. He founded the Delhi Urdu Akhbar, which supported the nationalist cause following the 1857 revolt. After the uprising began on May 10, 1857, Baqir renamed the newspaper "Akhbar-us-Zafar" (Newspaper of Zafar) in honor of the rebellion's leader

 

 

For Prelims: Official Language, Delhi Sultanate   For Mains: GS I - Art & Culture, GS II - Polity

 

 

Source: Indianexpress

 

K2-18B

 

1. Context

 

On April 16, an international research team uploaded a paper in which it reported that the distant exoplanet K2-18b may be habitable. The claim was met with cautious excitement by astronomers. While finding places in the universe that could harbour life is a vital quest in the field, experts — including the team that made the finding — are cautious because many similar claims in the past have had to be retracted after closer inspection.

 

2. What is K2-18b?

 

K2-18b is an exoplanet, meaning it lies beyond our solar system. Situated about 124 light-years from Earth in the Leo constellation, it orbits the star K2-18. This planet is approximately 5.2 times broader and nine times more massive than Earth, suggesting it may have an atmosphere rich in hydrogen. It receives a similar level of stellar energy from its host star as Earth gets from the Sun. The Kepler telescope discovered K2-18b in 2015, and in 2019, the Hubble Space Telescope identified traces of water vapour in its atmosphere. More recently, in 2023, the James Webb Space Telescope detected the presence of carbon dioxide and methane. Earlier models had indicated that the presence of methane and carbon dioxide—without ammonia—in a hydrogen-rich atmosphere could point to the existence of a liquid water ocean on the planet’s surface, though this is not the only possible explanation

 

3. What kind of planet is K2-18b?

 

• The latest research suggests that K2-18b could potentially be a Hycean planet—characterized by a global ocean beneath a hydrogen-rich atmosphere.
• Although not definitively classified as such, this type of world is among those the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) is particularly well-equipped to investigate.
• Some simulations indicate that K2-18b might possess a stratosphere along with traces of carbon oxides and cyanide in its middle atmosphere.
• Scientists also speculate that the planet’s surface conditions could be nearing a runaway greenhouse state, where excessive greenhouse gases trap all heat, similar to what makes Venus so inhospitable.
• In their recent study, researchers reported detecting two possible compounds in K2-18b’s atmosphere—either dimethyl sulphide (DMS) or dimethyl disulphide (DMDS). DMS is of particular interest because it is considered a potential biomarker, indicating the possible presence of life.
• On Earth, DMS is predominantly produced in marine environments. It originates when phytoplankton synthesize a compound called dimethylsulphoniopropionate, which releases DMS upon their death through enzymatic reactions.
• Additionally, DMS can be released when bacteria decompose plant material, and a 2015 study found that about 76% of soil bacteria have a gene enabling them to generate DMS

 

4. Habitability of this planet

 

 

• Scientists emphasize that the only definitive way to discover extraterrestrial life is through its direct detection. This rationale underpins NASA’s Clipper mission, launched in 2024, which aims to explore Europa, one of Jupiter’s moons.
• While searching for life-supporting conditions and identifying certain molecules from afar can provide clues about habitability, such findings remain speculative—especially since they focus only on life forms similar to those on Earth.
• Uncertainties in these studies also stem from the limitations of observational tools and the assumptions built into simulation models. It’s possible that previously unknown chemical reactions could produce molecules currently considered biosignatures.
• Additionally, the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) may miss certain compounds simply because their concentrations fall below its sensitivity threshold.
• Back in 2023, researchers had reported a potential trace of dimethyl sulphide (DMS) in K2-18b’s atmosphere. More recent findings suggest that this compound might actually exist in quantities a thousand times greater than on Earth.
• Given DMS’s short lifespan, it would likely require a continuous source on the planet’s surface. However, the latest study didn’t confirm DMS alone—it reported a significant presence of either DMS or its chemical relative, dimethyl disulfide (DMDS).
• To better understand the planet’s chemistry, scientists have also been running simulations of K2-18b’s environment. A 2023 study concluded that most Hycean planet candidates are unlikely to sustain oceans of liquid water. Then in 2024, a U.S. research team argued that the atmospheric data collected by JWST could be explained if K2-18b were a gas-rich mini-Neptune, with no need to invoke a biosphere or unknown methane sources.
• In January, a separate international analysis of JWST data confirmed the presence of methane but found no reliable evidence for either carbon dioxide or DMS, further casting doubt on K2-18b's classification as a Hycan world

 

5. Way Forward

 

K2-18b remains a fascinating candidate in the search for potentially habitable exoplanets, current evidence does not definitively support the presence of life or even confirm its classification as a Hycean world. Discoveries of molecules like methane and dimethyl sulphide (DMS) in its atmosphere are intriguing but far from conclusive, as such compounds can also result from abiotic processes. The limitations of existing observational tools, uncertainties in atmospheric modeling, and the complex nature of planetary chemistry mean that findings must be interpreted with caution. Ongoing and future missions, such as NASA's Clipper and continued JWST observations, will be crucial in refining our understanding of such distant worlds. Ultimately, the direct detection of life—if it exists—remains the gold standard in astrobiology, and K2-18b continues to be a stepping stone in that long scientific journey

 

 

For Prelims: Exoplanets, NASA, Earth, hotstar, red drawft stars, LHS 475 b, Goldilocks zone, James Webb Space Telescope,  For Mains: 1. What are exoplanets and discuss the need to studying exoplanets (250 Words)

 

Source: The Hindu

 

H5N1

1. Context 

A two-year-old girl from Narasaraopeta in Palnadu district, Andhra Pradesh, who was infected with H5N1 died on March 16, 2025; she was admitted to AIIMS-Mangalagiri on March 4.

2. Avian Influenza

• Avian Influenza, also known as Avian or Bird Flu, is a form of influenza caused by a virus found in birds.
• Avian Flu is similar to variants found in animals and humans – caused strains of influenza that have adapted to specific hosts.

3. Avian Influenza Type A viruses

• Type A viruses are classified based on two proteins on their surfaces – Hemagglutinin (HA) and Neuraminidase (NA). There are about 18 HA subtypes and 11 NA subtypes.
• Several combinations of these two proteins are possible e.g., H5N1, H7N2, H9N6, H17N10, H18N11, etc.
• All known subtypes of influenza A viruses can infect birds, except subtypes H17N10 and H18N11, which have only been found in bats.

Image Source: The Hindu

4. Effect on Birds

• Although avian influenza has different subtypes, H5N1 is a highly pathogenic subtype that causes mortality in birds.
• Since 2022, the virus has infected over 100 million birds across the globe, resulting in the deaths of over 50 million and the culling of millions of poultry.
• Unlike previous outbreaks of highly pathogenic subtypes of avian influenza, H5N1 is heavily impacting wild bird species, including many which were on the verge of extinction. 
• While it is difficult to ascertain how many wild birds have been affected by the virus, a significant impact has been seen in eagles, pelicans, geese, waterfowl, gulls, falcons, and shorebirds, in addition to the highest possible impact on poultry seen till date, at least in the U.S.
• The impact of H5N1 on wild bird populations has varied depending on several factors, such as the level of exposure, geographical locations, and migratory patterns of the affected species. 
  
• High mortality in wild birds due to the virus could lead to significant ecological consequences, including the vulnerability of predators and alterations in species composition in affected ecosystems, and therefore a possible impact on biodiversity not just limited to avian species. 
• It has raised concerns regarding the spread of the virus among critically endangered avian populations.  

5. Spreading to animals

• The highly contagious H5N1 virus can also occasionally spill over from birds to animals through direct or indirect contact with infected birds or their droppings. 
  
• Worryingly, there have been several reports on the spillover of H5N1 to mammals during the current outbreak from different countries, infecting species such as sea lions, minks, foxes, wild bears, and skunks, apart from domestic animals such as dogs and cats.
• In 2023 alone, H5N1 caused the deaths of over 3,000 sea lions in Peru. In a recent yet ­to­ be peer ­reviewed study, scientists found that the virus could efficiently spread between ferrets in the laboratory.
  
• The only known cases of the virus spreading between mammals were reported in minks that were raised in close confinement on a farm in Spain.
• The transmission of H5N1 from birds to mammals is rare, but when it does occur, it can be a cause for concern, as the virus could accumulate mutations and acquire the ability to potentially initiate human outbreaks.
• H5N1 has a high mortality rate of over 60% in humans and is primarily transmitted to humans through close contact with infected birds or animals, either through handling infected poultry or exposure to contaminated environments.

6. Enhanced Measures

• As the current H5N1 outbreak continues unabated with devastating impact on the avian population globally, and with significant ecological and economic consequences, the time has never been better to initiate efforts for preparedness towards building better, more efficient vaccines for avians and humans.
• Genomic surveillance should be done to map the continued evolution of the virus.
• Moreover, enhanced biosecurity measures are required to protect both animal and public health.

For Prelims: Avian influenza H5N1, Bird Flu, Hemagglutinin (HA) and Neuraminidase (NA), influenza A viruses, Genomic surveillance, Pathogens, and Viruses.

Previous year Questions

1. H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases? (UPSC 2015) A. AIDS B.  Bird flu C.  Dengue D.  Swine flu Answer: D 2. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2010) 1. Every individual in the population is an equally susceptible host for Swine Flu. 2. Antibiotics have no role in the primary treatment of Swine Flu. 3. To prevent the future spread of Swine Flu in the epidemic area, the swine (pigs) must all be culled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: A 3. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2013) 1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy. 2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium. 3. Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: A

Source: The Hindu