• The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India (ECI) for political parties and candidates during elections.
• The MCC is designed to ensure free and fair elections by preventing the misuse of government machinery, maintaining a level playing field for all candidates, and avoiding any activities that could unduly influence voters.
• The Election Commission describes the Model Code of Conduct as a set of norms and rules that political parties and candidates must adhere to during the election process.
• The MCC comes into effect as soon as the election dates are announced and remains in force until the results are declared.
• It includes guidelines on various aspects of electioneering, such as campaigning, speeches, processions, polling day activities, and the content of election manifestos.
• The goal is to promote a fair and ethical electoral process, minimizing the chances of corrupt practices and ensuring that the democratic principles are upheld during elections

3.What is the Model Code of Conduct?

• The Model Code of Conduct, issued by the Election Commission, serves as a set of guidelines to oversee the conduct of political parties and candidates before elections.
• These guidelines encompass various aspects such as speeches, polling day procedures, polling booths, ministerial portfolios, election manifesto content, processions, and overall behavior. The aim is to ensure the integrity of elections.
• According to information from the Press Information Bureau, a version of the MCC was initially introduced during the 1960 state assembly elections in Kerala.
• It gained widespread adherence in the 1962 elections and has been consistently followed in subsequent general elections. In October 1979, the Election Commission expanded the MCC to include a section regulating the conduct of the 'party in power' to prevent any undue advantage during elections.
• The MCC is activated from the announcement of the election schedule until the declaration of results. Consequently, it comes into effect from the present evening and remains applicable until the conclusion of the entire election process.
• The MCC comprises eight provisions addressing general conduct, meetings, processions, polling day, polling booths, observers, the party in power, and election manifestos

4.When does the Model Code of Conduct come into effect?

• Once the code comes into effect, the governing party, whether at the national or state level, must ensure that its official position is not exploited for campaign purposes.
• Consequently, no policies, projects, or schemes should be announced that could sway voting behavior. The party is also prohibited from utilizing public funds for advertising or using official media platforms to publicize achievements with the intention of enhancing electoral prospects.
• The guidelines further dictate that ministers should refrain from combining official visits with election-related activities or utilizing official resources for such purposes.
• The ruling party is barred from employing government transportation or machinery for campaign activities. Additionally, it is mandated to provide opposition parties with equal access to public spaces like grounds for conducting election meetings, as well as amenities such as helipads, under the same terms and conditions applied to the ruling party.
• Any advertisements at the expense of the public treasury in newspapers and other media outlets are considered an offense. The ruling government is also restricted from making ad-hoc appointments in governmental bodies and public enterprises that may unduly influence voters.
• The Model Code of Conduct strictly prohibits the use of caste and communal sentiments to attract voters, allowing criticism of political parties or candidates solely based on their track record. Places of worship, including mosques, churches, and temples, are not to be employed for election propaganda.
• Practices such as bribery, intimidation, and voter impersonation are explicitly forbidden. Public meetings within the 48-hour period leading up to the poll closing time are also proscribed, known as the "election silence," aiming to provide voters with a campaign-free environment for reflection before casting their votes

5.Is the Model Code of Conduct legally binding?

• The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is not a legally binding document in the sense that it is not enforceable by law. It is a set of guidelines and ethical standards issued by election management bodies, such as the Election Commission of India, to ensure fair play and ethical behavior during elections.
• The MCC is followed by political parties and candidates on a voluntary basis, and adherence is more a matter of political ethics and a commitment to maintaining the integrity of the electoral process.
• While the MCC itself does not have statutory backing, certain aspects of it may be supported by legal provisions. For example, if a political party or candidate violates specific principles outlined in the MCC, they may be subject to legal action under relevant electoral laws. However, the MCC, as a whole, is more of a moral and ethical code that relies on the cooperation and voluntary compliance of political participants.
• The Election Commission, as the custodian of the MCC, can take various actions against those who violate its principles.
• These actions may include issuing warnings, reprimands, and, in severe cases, canceling candidature or disqualification. The idea behind the MCC is to foster a fair and transparent electoral process and to prevent the misuse of power during election campaigns

6. Way forward

The ECI can issue a notice to a politician or a party for alleged breach of the MCC either on its own or on the basis of a complaint by another party or individual. Once a notice is issued, the person or party must reply in writing — either accepting fault and tendering an unconditional apology or rebutting the allegation. In the latter case, if the person or party is found guilty subsequently, he/it can attract a written censure from the ECI — something that many see as a mere slap on the wrist

Source: Indianexpress

COMMISSION FOR AIR QUALITY MANAGEMENT (CAQM)

Air pollution in Delhi has been in the ‘severe’ and ‘severe plus’ category for the most part of the last 10 days. This week, the Supreme Court pulled up the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM), the government’s monitoring agency, on its inadequate pollution control response.

2. Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)

 

• The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in the National Capital Region (NCR) and nearby areas was initially established through an ordinance in 2020, which was subsequently replaced by an Act of Parliament in 2021.
• Its primary mandate is to enhance coordination, conduct research, identify issues, and address challenges related to air quality and associated concerns.
• At its inception, the CAQM comprised 15 members, including current and former officials from the Ministry of Environment and other Union government departments, along with representatives from various State governments, NGOs, and other organizations. Currently, the commission, led by Rajesh Verma, has expanded to 27 members.
• The CAQM succeeded the Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA), which was created by the Supreme Court in 1998. Unlike the CAQM, the EPCA lacked statutory authority, which experts criticized as limiting its ability to enforce compliance among defiant agencies.
• Nevertheless, several initiatives now overseen by the CAQM, such as the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP)—a framework of temporary emergency measures to combat air pollution—were originally implemented under the EPCA's guidance

 

 

Powers of CAQM   The Commission for Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021, empowers the CAQM to undertake any necessary measures, issue directives, and address grievances aimed at safeguarding and enhancing air quality in the NCR and surrounding regions. According to Section 14 of the Act, the commission is authorized to take strict action against officials who fail to comply with its directives

 

 

3. Supreme Court on CAQM

 

• The Supreme Court recently criticized the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) for delays in enforcing stricter anti-pollution measures as Delhi's air quality worsened.
• Despite the Air Quality Index (AQI) reaching hazardous levels, the CAQM postponed the implementation of Stage 4 measures under the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP), prompting the Court to question the lack of urgency in addressing the crisis.
• The justices emphasized that such measures should be triggered as soon as AQI levels indicate severe pollution to prevent further deterioration.
• The Court also highlighted systemic failures, including inadequate action against stubble burning in Punjab and Haryana, and criticized the CAQM for focusing on meetings without concrete enforcement of rules.
• It warned against scaling down measures prematurely and stressed the need for stricter penalties and immediate action to curb pollution sources effectively

 

4. Challenges

 

• Although the CAQM formulates strategies and coordinates with various agencies, the actual implementation of these measures rests with the respective agencies.
• A CAQM official noted that the commission has significantly improved coordination and planning efforts.
• For instance, while paddy stubble burning—a major contributor to severe air pollution—occurs primarily in October and November, discussions with State officials begin as early as February and continue throughout the season.
• In 2022, the CAQM collaborated with Punjab and Haryana to develop action plans for managing stubble burning, which are reviewed and updated annually.

5. Way Forward

 

Discussing the challenges faced, the official acknowledged that while the commission has focused heavily on tackling stubble burning in the past, there is now a shift towards addressing multiple pollution sources. Moving forward, greater emphasis will be placed on controlling dust and vehicular emissions alongside agricultural pollution

 

For Prelims: Graded Response Action Plan, National Capital Region (NCR),Environmental pollution(prevention control)Authority (EPCA). For Mains: 1. What is GRAP? What is the Delhi-NCR action plan as air pollution increases? (250 words).

 

Source: The Hindu

 

STUBBLE BURNING

1. Context

The air quality in the national capital has been struggling to recover from the lows to which it dropped right after Deepavali despite the implementation of GRAP stage IV measures, the active intervention of the Supreme Court, and stop-gap measures by the Delhi government. Many fingers are currently pointed at the farm fires in the surrounding States, where farmers are burning paddy stubble in time for the wheat-sowing season. While these fires are not solely responsible for Delhi’s plight, a controversy over measuring their prevalence illustrates the amount of attention they are receiving.

2. What is Stubble?

Stubble refers to the leftover plant material, mainly crop residues, that remains in the field after the primary crop has been harvested. This includes the stems, leaves, and other organic material that is left behind.

Stubble burning is a common agricultural practice where farmers set fire to crop residues, such as straw and stubble, that remain in the field after the main crop (usually paddy or wheat) has been harvested. This practice is typically used as a quick and cost-effective method to clear the field for the next planting season. Stubble burning is particularly prevalent in regions with mechanized farming, where machines like combine harvesters leave behind a significant amount of crop residues.

3. Stubble burning contributes to air pollution

When stubble is burned, it releases a variety of pollutants into the air, including particulate matter, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, and sulfur dioxide. These pollutants can cause several health problems, including respiratory problems, heart disease, and cancer.

Stubble burning is a major contributor to air pollution in many parts of the world. In India, for example, stubble burning is responsible for up to 30% of the air pollution in Delhi during the winter months.

• Stubble burning generates fine particulate matter (PM2.5 and PM10) that can penetrate deep into the respiratory system, leading to respiratory problems and reduced air quality.
• The combustion of stubble releases carbon monoxide, which can have adverse health effects when inhaled, particularly in enclosed spaces.
• Stubble burning produces Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs), which can react with other pollutants in the atmosphere, contributing to the formation of ground-level ozone, a major air pollutant.
• Burning stubble emits greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4), contributing to climate change.
• The combustion of crop residues can release various hazardous chemicals and pollutants, further deteriorating air quality.

4. About the Central Scheme for the Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue

The Central Scheme on Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue (AMICMR) is a scheme launched by the Government of India to promote the use of in-situ techniques for managing crop residue. In-situ techniques are those that are used to manage crop residue on the field, rather than burning it. Examples of in-situ techniques include:

• Mulching is the practice of covering the soil with a layer of organic material, such as straw or leaves. This can help to suppress weeds, retain moisture, and improve soil health.
• Zero tillage is the practice of planting crops without tilling the soil. This can help to prevent soil erosion and retain moisture in the soil.
• Direct seeding is the practice of planting seeds directly into the soil, rather than transplanting seedlings. This can help to reduce soil disturbance and prevent the spread of weeds.

The AMICMR scheme provides financial assistance to farmers to purchase machinery that can be used for in-situ management of crop residue. The scheme also provides training and extension services to farmers on how to use these techniques.

The AMICMR scheme is a promising initiative that could help to reduce air pollution caused by stubble burning. However, the scheme needs to be scaled up and made more widely available to farmers to have a significant impact.

5. Conclusion

Stubble burning is a major contributor to air pollution in many parts of the world. However, there are several alternatives to stubble burning, such as in-situ management of crop residue. In-situ management of crop residue is a more sustainable way to manage stubble, as it does not release pollutants into the air and has several benefits for soil health and crop yields.

For Prelims: Stubble burning, air pollution, particulate matter, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, sulfur dioxide, PM2.5, PM10, Volatile Organic Compounds, ozone, carbon dioxide, methane, Climate Change, The Central Scheme on Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue,  For Mains:  1. Critically evaluate the effectiveness of the Central Scheme on Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue (AMICMR) in addressing the issue of stubble burning in India. (250 Words)

 

 

Previous Year Questions 1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? ( UPSC 2016) Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide Nitrogen dioxide Sulfur dioxide Methane Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only    (b) 2, 3 and 4 only     (c) 1, 4 and 5 only         (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5  Answer: B 2. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment (UPSC 2013, 2022) (a) Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen (b) Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide (c) Ozone and Carbon Dioxide (d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide  Answer:D 3. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (UPSC 2017) (a) Measuring oxygen level in blood (b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem (d) Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions Answer: C 4. Consider the following: (UPSC 2019)  1. Carbon monooxide 2. Methane 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?  A. 1 and 2 only         B.  2, 3 and 4 only            C. 1 and 4 only         D.  1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: D 5. What is Particulate matter? (BPSC 2016) A. Solid residue      B. Air pollutant        C. Water pollutant   D. Soil pollutant E.  None of the above/More than one of the above Answer: B 6. Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas because it: (OPSC OAS 2021) A. Binds to digestive hormones B. Damages lungs C. Destroys RBCs D. Binds to haemoglobin Answer: D 7. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019) 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment. 2. Cattle release ammonia into environment. 3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 only         B. 2 and 3 only          C. 2 only            D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: D 8. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)  1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 μg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 μg/m³. 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1, 3 and 4             B. 1 and 4 only           C. 2, 3 and 4           D.1 and 2 only Answer: B 9. Which of the following is a VOC? (MP Vyapam Sub Engineer Mechanical 2022) A. Toulene        B. Water       C. Carbon dioxide         D. Carbon monoxide Answer: A 10. Which of the following Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are emitted from anthropogenic sources only? (UGC NET 2023) A. Isoprene        B. Benzene            C. Terpene          D. Methane        E. Toluene 1. A, B and C Only         2.  B and E Only      3. A and C Only         4. C, D and E Only Answer: 2 11. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substance? (UPSC 2015)  A. Bretton Woods Conference  B. Montreal Protocol  C. Kyoto Porotocol  D. Nagoya Protocol Answer: B 12. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (UPSC 2012)  A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation C. all the solar radiations D. the infrared part of the solar radiation Answer: D 13. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth? (UPSC 2014) 1. Volcanic action 2. Respiration 3. Photosynthesis 4. The decay of organic matter Select the correct answer using the code given below A. 1 and 3 only       B. 2 only      C. 1, 2 and 4 only         D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: C 14. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'? (UPSC 2019)  1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits. 2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor. 3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only     B.  2 and 3 only        C. 1 and 3 only           D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: D 15. With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called 'coalbed methane' and 'shale gas' consider the following statements: (UPSC 2014) 1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks. 2. In India, abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only        B. 2 only        C. Both 1 and 2          D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: D Mains 1. Describe the key points of the revised Global Air Quality Guidelines (AQGs) recently released by the World Health Organisation (WHO). How are these different from its last update in 2005? What changes in India’s National Clean Air Programme are required to achieve revised standards? ( UPSC 2021)

 

Source: Indianexpress

 

LACHIT BORPUKHAN

 

 

1. Context

 

Every year, 24th November is celebrated as the ‘Lachit Diwas’ to mark the birth anniversary of the Assamese folk hero Lachit Borphukan. He was a legendary army commander of the Ahom kingdom, known for his leadership in the 1671 ‘Battle of Saraighat.’ He is considered one of the greatest of Assamese heroes, symbolising the valour, courage, and intelligence that defines the Assamese self-identity.

 

2. Lachit Borphukan

 

• Lachit Borphukan (1622–1672) was a legendary military commander of the Ahom Kingdom, celebrated for his leadership and strategic acumen in defending Assam from Mughal invasions.
• His most notable achievement was leading the Ahom forces to victory in the Battle of Saraighat (1671), where he thwarted the Mughal army, commanded by Raja Ramsingh I, from reclaiming Assam.
• This battle is remembered as a landmark in Indian military history for its display of guerrilla tactics and naval warfare on the Brahmaputra River.
• Born on November 24, 1622, Lachit was the son of Momai Tamuli Barbarua, a prominent administrator and warrior of the Ahom Kingdom.
• He was appointed by King Charadhwaj Singha as one of the five Borphukans, a prestigious position that combined administrative, judicial, and military responsibilities.
• Lachit's dedication to his duties and his patriotism are exemplified in the story of how he executed his uncle for neglecting his responsibilities during the construction of a crucial defensive rampart.
• His unwavering commitment earned him immense respect and has made him a symbol of Assamese pride and valor.
• Every year on November 24, Lachit Divas is observed in Assam to honor his legacy

 

3. Battles of Alaboi and Saraighat

 

• From 1615 to 1682, the Mughal Empire, led by Jahangir and later Aurangzeb, launched several campaigns to conquer the Ahom kingdom. In January 1662, Mir Jumla, the Governor of Bengal, led Mughal forces in a campaign that resulted in the occupation of parts of Ahom territory.

• Between 1667 and 1682, the Ahoms, under successive rulers beginning with Chakradhwaj Singha (reigning from 1663 to 1670), mounted a determined counter-offensive to recover their lost lands.

• In 1669, Aurangzeb tasked Raja Ram Singh I with regaining the territories reclaimed by the Ahoms. This led to the Battle of Alaboi on August 5, 1669, fought in the Alaboi Hills near Dadara in North Guwahati.

• Unlike the Mughals, who favored open-field battles, Lachit Borphukan used his deep understanding of the terrain to employ guerrilla tactics. These strategies enabled his smaller, more agile forces to outmaneuver the Mughal army.

• Similar to Shivaji’s tactics against the Mughals in Marathwada, Lachit struck the enemy through surprise raids, targeting their camps and static positions. These assaults caused significant casualties among unsuspecting Mughal troops and disrupted their operations.

• After initial setbacks, Ram Singh deployed his elite Rajput and Mughal veterans, which shifted the momentum of the Battle of Alaboi. Approximately 10,000 Ahom soldiers lost their lives, as per Assam’s archaeological records.

• Unlike in Alaboi, where Lachit was forced into a land battle, he strategically lured the Mughals into a naval engagement during the Battle of Saraighat. As a skilled naval commander, he orchestrated a series of surprise pincer movements to outflank and overpower the Mughal fleet.

• Historian H.K. Barpujari noted that the Ahom forces combined frontal assaults with surprise rear attacks. They deceived the Mughal fleet by feigning an attack from the front, prompting the Mughals to leave their rear vulnerable, allowing the main Ahom fleet to secure a decisive victory.

• Lachit succumbed to a chronic illness a year after the Battle of Saraighat. Despite his poor health during the battle, he led his troops to triumph, further solidifying his legendary status.

• The Battle of Saraighat cemented Lachit Borphukan’s reputation as a brilliant strategist, earning comparisons with India’s greatest military leaders. To honor his legacy, the Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal, established in 1999, is awarded to the best cadet at the National Defence Academy

 

4. Ahom Kingdom

 

• The Ahom dynasty governed much of Assam and the Northeast from 1228 to 1826 AD, making it one of India's longest-lasting ruling dynasties. At the height of their power, the Ahom kingdom extended from present-day Bangladesh to regions deep within Burma. Renowned for their administrative skills and bravery in battle, the Ahoms continue to hold significant cultural relevance in Assam.

• Established by Sukapha, a 13th-century ruler, the Ahom kingdom thrived as a prosperous, multi-ethnic realm spanning the Brahmaputra Valley's upper and lower reaches. The fertile lands of the kingdom were ideal for rice cultivation, which supported its economic stability.

• Initially, the Ahoms had their own language and distinct religious practices. Over time, they assimilated into the local culture, adopting the Assamese language and Hindu religious traditions, according to scholars.

• Charaideo, the first permanent capital of the Ahom empire, was founded by Chao Lung Siu-Ka-Pha, the dynasty's most illustrious monarch. It holds a prominent place in history. The term "Charaideo" derives from three Tai Ahom words: Che (city or town), Rai (shine or dazzle), and Doi (hill or mountain), collectively meaning "a shining town on a hilltop.

 

5. Treaty of Yandabo

 

The Treaty of Yandabo, signed on February 24, 1826, marked the conclusion of the First Anglo-Burmese War (1824–1826), the first of three wars between the British East India Company and the Kingdom of Ava (Burma). The treaty was negotiated after British forces advanced on the Burmese capital, compelling the Burmese to agree to terms under significant pressure

 

• Territorial Concessions:
  Burma ceded significant territories to the British:

  • Assam and Manipur, which were to be treated as independent territories under British protection.
  • The coastal provinces of Arakan and Tenasserim were directly annexed by the British.

• Monetary Compensation:
  Burma agreed to pay an indemnity of one crore rupees (10 million rupees) in four installments to cover British war expenses.

• Trade and Diplomacy:

  • A formal peace treaty established relations between Burma and the British, opening the door for future trade negotiations.
  • The British gained the right to station a Resident (diplomatic representative) in Ava, while Burma was to send a counterpart to Calcutta

 

 

 

For Prelims: Anglo-Burmese War, Treaty of Yandabo   For Mains: Anglo-Burmese Wars as part of Colonial Expansion, Role of treaties like Yandabo in consolidating British control over new territories

Source: Indianexpress

 

HIGH ALTITUDE SICKNESS

 

 

1. Context

 

In September, a trekker from Idukki, Kerala, died in Uttarakhand while attempting to scale Garur Peak due to respiratory failure. Every year, numerous tourists like this succumb to the effects of high-altitude sickness in the pristine but challenging inner Himalayas. These regions present hidden dangers due to their extreme altitudes, where thinner air and reduced oxygen can lead to potentially fatal conditions.

 

2. What is High Altitude Sickness?

 

• High-altitude sickness, also known as Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS), occurs when the body struggles to adapt to elevations typically above 8,000 feet (2,400 meters). At higher altitudes, reduced air pressure and lower oxygen levels result in hypoxia, a condition where body tissues receive insufficient oxygen.
• Early signs of AMS include headache, nausea, fatigue, and difficulty breathing. If not addressed promptly, it can progress to severe conditions like high-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE), where fluid builds up in the lungs, or high-altitude cerebral edema (HACE), where fluid accumulates in the brain. Both conditions are life-threatening and require urgent medical attention, often necessitating a rapid descent to lower altitudes to prevent fatal outcomes.
• At high elevations, the body attempts to adapt by increasing the breathing rate, which can lead to hyperventilation, and producing more red blood cells to transport oxygen. However, this thickens the blood, placing additional strain on the heart. In HAPE, fluid in the lungs worsens breathing difficulties, while HACE can cause confusion, hallucinations, and even lead to coma

Registration System   To better manage high-altitude tourism, it is essential to implement a mandatory registration system for tourists entering remote mountain areas. Registrations, stored in a State government database, would allow authorities to monitor tourist movement and respond swiftly in case of emergencies. Such records would also support research on high-altitude illnesses by tracking demographic patterns and risk factors, helping scientists better understand how altitude impacts various populations

 

3. Reasons for High Altitude Sickness

 

• The main cause of high-altitude sickness is ascending too quickly without giving the body enough time to adjust. A gradual ascent, allowing the body to adapt to lower oxygen levels, is the most effective way to prevent altitude-related illnesses.
• The Wilderness Medical Society advises that travelers going above 3,000 meters should take a rest day every 3-4 days and limit the increase in sleeping elevation to no more than 500 meters per day.
• For those at moderate to high risk of AMS, doctors may prescribe medications like Acetazolamide to aid acclimatization by improving oxygenation, or Dexamethasone, a steroid used to reduce inflammation in severe cases.
• People with a history of HAPE may be advised to take Nifedipine as a preventive measure, starting a day before ascending. However, no medication can guarantee complete protection, so it is essential for anyone with pre-existing health conditions to consult a doctor experienced in managing altitude-related health risks before traveling to high altitudes

 

4. Treatment for Accute Mountain Sickness (AMS)

 

The treatment for high-altitude sickness (AMS) primarily involves managing symptoms and preventing the condition from progressing to more severe forms like High-Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE) or High-Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE).

 

Here are the main treatment options:

 

• The most effective treatment for AMS is to descend to a lower altitude, ideally at least 1,000 to 2,000 feet (300 to 600 meters). This helps alleviate symptoms and allows the body to recover
• When high-altitude sickness does develop, the most effective treatment is immediate descent to lower altitudes. Symptoms usually improve significantly with a descent of 300-1,000 metres.
• Supplemental oxygen or a portable hyperbaric chamber, if available, can also help alleviate symptoms of AMS and HACE in emergencies. Pharmacological treatments, such as acetazolamide and dexamethasone, may provide short-term relief, but descent remains the cornerstone of treatment.

5. Way Forward

 

The following steps are recommended — establish state-of-the-art medical facilities in high-altitude regions of the Himalayas; create research centres dedicated to studying high-altitude illnesses; equip Himalayan States with air-ambulance services for rapid medical evacuation in emergencies; and provide health and safety information on government websites and at check-in points.

 

 

 

For Prelims: Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS), Acclimatization    For Mains: Science & Technology (GS-III) - Physiological impact of high altitude, oxygen therapy

Source: The Hindu

 

CYCLONES

 

 

1. Context

CycloneFengal: Depression intensifies into ‘deep depression’, cyclone formation expected by November 27

 

2. What is a Cyclone

• A cyclone is a low-pressure system that forms over warm waters. Essentially, it is a system of high-speed winds rotating around a low-pressure area, with the winds blowing counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
• According to the World Meteorological Organization, “Tropical cyclones are one of the biggest threats to life and property even in the formative stages of their development.
• Cyclonic winds move across nearly all regions of the Earth except the equatorial belt and are generally associated with rain or snow
• They include several different hazards that can individually cause significant impacts on life and property, such as storm surge, flooding, extreme winds, tornadoes and lighting.
• Combined, these hazards interact with one another and substantially increase the potential for loss of life and material damage.”
• Cyclones occur chiefly in the middle and high latitude belts of both hemispheres. In the Southern Hemisphere, where most of the terrestrial surface is covered by the oceans, cyclones are distributed in a relatively uniform manner through various longitudes
• Characteristically, they form in latitudes 30° to 40° S and move in a generally southeasterly direction, reaching maturity in latitudes around 60°. 
• Cyclones that form closer to the Equator (i.e., at latitudes 10° to 25° north and south over the oceans) differ somewhat in character from the extratropical variety. Such wind systems, known as tropical cyclones, are much smaller in diameter. 
• Whereas extratropical cyclones range from nearly 1,000 to 4,000 km (620 to 2,500 miles) across, tropical cyclones typically measure only about 100 to over 1,000 km in diameter.

 

 

PC: Brittanica

 

3. Types of cyclones

3.1.Tropical Cyclones

Cyclones developed in the tropics region (the majority confined to 10⁰– 30⁰ N and S of the equator) are called tropical cyclones.

• tropical cyclones have a thermal origin, and they develop over tropical seas during certain seasons. Pre-existing low pressure, large sea surface with a temperature higher than 27° C, and the presence of the Coriolis force are a must for tropical cyclone formation.
  
  
• At these locations, the local convectional currents acquire a whirling motion because of the Coriolis force generated by the earth’s rotation. After developing, these cyclones advance till they find a weak spot in the trade wind belt.
  
  
• Tropical cyclones always originate in large water bodies.

3.2.Temperate Cyclone

Temperate cyclones (Mid-Latitude cyclones), also known as Extratropical cyclones, are active over the mid-latitudinal regions between 35° latitude and 65° latitude in both hemispheres.

• They have a dynamic origin and cyclone formation is due to frontogenesis (interaction of cold and warm fronts). When the warm-humid air masses from the tropics meet the dry-cold air masses from the poles and thus a polar front is formed as a surface of discontinuity. The cold air pushes the warm air upwards from underneath. Thus, a void is created because of the lessening of pressure. The surrounding air rushed in to occupy this void and coupled with the earth’s rotation, a temperate cyclone is formed. 
• Temperate cyclones can originate on both landmass or water.

4. How are cyclones named?

Cyclones that form in every ocean basin across the world are named by the regional specialised meteorological centres (RSMCs) and Tropical Cyclone Warning Centres (TCWCs). There are six RSMCs in the world, including the India Meteorological Department (IMD), and five TCWCs.

As an RSMC, the IMD names the cyclones developing over the north Indian Ocean, including the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea, after following a standard procedure. The IMD is also mandated to issue advisories to 12 other countries in the region on the development of cyclones and storms.

 

 

For Prelims:  Indian and World Geography-Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World For Mains: General Studies I: Important Geophysical phenomena such as earthquakes, Tsunami, Volcanic activity, cyclone etc., geographical features and their location-changes in critical geographical features and in flora and fauna and the effects of such changes

 

Previous Year Questions   1.Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2020) 1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. 2. Only some cyclones develop an eye. 3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 Only B. 2 and 3 Only C. 2 Only D. 1 and 3 Only Answer (C) 2.In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclones do not originate. What is the reason? (UPSC Prelims GS1, 2015) (a) Sea surface temperatures are low (b) Inter-tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs (c) Coriolis force is too weak (d) Absence of land in those regions Answer (a)   1.Tropical cyclones are largely confined to South China Sea, Bay of Bengal and Gulf of Mexico. Why? (GS-1, 2014) 2.The recent cyclone on the east coast of India was called “Phailin”. How are the tropical cyclones named across the world? (GS-1, 2013)

Source: indianexpress