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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 25 FEBRUARY 2025

INTERNET FREEDOM IN INDIA

 
 
 
1. Context 
 
India did not impose the highest number of Internet shutdowns last year, with Myanmar seeing one additional disruption in 2024, according to a report by the advocacy body Access Now. However, the number of shutdowns imposed by the government in charge — the Union and State governments here — is still higher in India
 
 
2. About Internet shutdown
  • An internet shutdown refers to the intentional disruption or suspension of internet services by government authorities or other entities, typically within a specific geographical area or across an entire country.
  • During an internet shutdown, individuals are unable to access the internet via various means such as mobile data, Wi-Fi, or wired connections.
  • This can severely restrict communication, access to information, and online services, impacting individuals, businesses, and communities.
  • Internet shutdowns may be imposed for various reasons, including national security concerns, social unrest, political stability, or to control the flow of information during sensitive events or protests.

Internet Shutdowns in India

  • Between January 1, 2014, and December 31, 2023, the Indian government enforced a total of 780 internet shutdowns, as per data compiled by the Software Freedom Law Centre (SFLC).
  • These shutdowns escalated notably during key events such as protests against the Citizenship Amendment Act in 2019, the abrogation of Article 370 in 2019, and the introduction of Farm Bills in 2020.
  • In 2020, disruptions to the internet in India contributed to over 70% of the global economic losses. Furthermore, data reveals that India experienced internet shutdowns totalling over 7,000 hours in 2023 alone.
  • According to the Indian Telegraph Act, states and union territories in India are authorized to impose internet shutdowns only in situations of a "public emergency" or in the interest of "public safety."
  • However, the Act lacks a clear definition of what constitutes an emergency or safety concern.
  • In the landmark case of Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India, the Supreme Court reaffirmed that internet shutdowns infringe upon fundamental rights such as the freedom of expression, especially when they extend indefinitely, deeming such shutdowns unconstitutional.
  • Additionally, courts have mandated governments to make shutdown orders public, although compliance with this provision has been noted as lacking by experts.

3. Impact of British-Era Law on Internet Shutdowns in India

  • Over the past 12 years, Jammu and Kashmir witnessed the highest number of shutdowns, totalling 433, while the longest blackout in 2023 was endured in Manipur from May to December, coinciding with ethnic conflicts.
  • As of February 15 this year, Haryana experienced internet shutdowns amid ongoing farmers' protests. Additionally, the Union government utilized powers under a colonial-era law to suspend mobile internet services as farmers from Punjab protested in Delhi.
  • Critics have highlighted India's failure to meet the 'three-part test' when imposing blackouts in J&K and Manipur.
  • According to international law, before blocking access to content or implementing coercive measures that infringe upon people's rights, countries should ensure that the action is authorized by law, serves a legitimate purpose, and adheres to standards of necessity and proportionality. Most internet outages in the past decade were confined to specific districts, cities, and villages.
  • Globally, the reasons for internet shutdowns vary, with protests being the most common cause, followed by information control and political instability.
  • Between 2015 and 2022, over 55,000 websites were blocked, primarily under section 69A of the IT Act, by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology and the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. URLs were often blocked due to their association with organizations banned under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act.
  • Recently, the Ministry instructed news outlet The Caravan to remove a story alleging abuse, torture, and murder of civilians by the Indian Army in Jammu's Poonch district.
  • On social media, nearly 30,000 social media URLs, including accounts and posts, were blocked between 2018 and 2022, with a majority of requests directed to X.
  • Cybercrime threats have been cited as a prominent reason for website blocking, with cases increasing from 5,693 in 2013 to over 65,000 last year a surge of almost 434% between 2016 and 2022, according to the National Crime Records Bureau.
 

4. India's Position in Global Internet Freedom Trends

  • The latest Freedom House report highlights a concerning trend: global internet freedom has decreased for the 13th consecutive year, with human rights online deteriorating in 29 countries.
  • India's ranking has remained relatively stable over the past three years, indicating a consistent performance in this domain.
  • However, there has been a notable decline compared to earlier years. In 2016 and 2017, India scored 59 points, but this fell to 50 points by 2023, reflecting a dip in its internet freedom rating.
 
5. The Way Forward
 
By addressing the aspects and taking proactive measures, India can work towards enhancing internet freedom, ensuring responsible governance of the digital space, and fostering a conducive environment for innovation, free expression, and democratic values online.
 
 
For Prelims: Internet Shutdown, Indian Telegraph Act, IT Act, Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India
For Mains: 
1. Discuss the key factors contributing to India's consistent ranking as the top country for imposing internet bans globally. How do these shutdowns impact fundamental rights and legal directives? (250 words)
2. What ethical considerations should guide the use of internet shutdowns by the government? How can public servants ensure transparency and accountability in implementing such measures? (250 words)
Source: The Hindu
 

AIR QUALITY INDEX (AQI)

1. Context

The Union government is expected to announce emissions intensity targets for nine industrial sectors by February-end — a crucial step to operationalise India’s carbon trading scheme. Following this, these industries will have a year to put in place compliance measures to cut emissions, and trading in carbon credits is likely to begin by October 2026
 

2. The Air Quality Index (AQI)

The AQI is a colour-coded index launched under the Swachh Bharat campaign to simplify the understanding of pollution levels. It helps convey the condition of the air and guides appropriate measures based on the severity of pollution. The AQI consists of six categories, each with a corresponding colour code: 'Good' (0-50), 'Satisfactory' (51-100), 'Moderately Polluted' (101-200), 'Poor' (201-300), 'Very Poor' (301-400) and 'Severe' (401-500).

3. Calculation of AQI

  • To calculate the AQI, a technical study was conducted by an expert group, including medical professionals, air quality experts, and academics.
  • Various pollutants, such as PM10, PM2.5, Nitrogen Dioxide, Ozone, Carbon, and others, are measured.
  • Each pollutant is assigned a weight based on its impact on human health.
  • The composite air quality index is determined by combining these weights, simplifying multiple data points into a single number and colour to represent overall air quality.
  • Monitoring stations across the country assess these pollutant levels.

4. Impact of Pollutants on Health

  • Among the most harmful pollutants are fine particulate matter, such as PM2.5, which has a diameter smaller than 2.5 micrometres.
  • PM2.5 particles can easily enter the circulatory system, bypassing the nose and throat.
  • They are associated with respiratory problems and reduced visibility, posing health risks such as asthma, heart attacks, bronchitis, and other respiratory issues.

5. Influence on Government Policy

  • Governments, especially in areas like Delhi, use the AQI to announce measures to combat air pollution.
  • When the AQI in the National Capital Region (NCR) reaches the 'severe' category, Stage 4 of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is implemented.
  • GRAP is designed for emergency measures to prevent further deterioration of air quality.
  • Specific actions may include prohibiting the use of non-BS-VI-compliant diesel four-wheelers and restricting the entry of trucks into the city while allowing petrol cars to continue operating as usual.

6. Conclusion

The Air Quality Index is an essential tool that simplifies the understanding of air pollution, assesses its health impacts, and influences government policies and actions to combat deteriorating air quality. As Mumbai braces for worsening air quality, the AQI will continue to be a critical resource for both the government and the public.

 
For Prelims: Air Pollution, Air Quality Index, PM 2.5, PM 10, BS-VI Vehicles, Graded Response Action Plan, National Capital Region, Nitrogen Dioxide, Ozone, Carbon, 
For Mains: 
1. With the onset of worsening air quality in Mumbai, discuss the importance of the AQI as a critical resource for both the government and the public. How can the AQI assist in addressing air pollution-related challenges in the upcoming winter months? (250 Words)

 

Previous Year Questions

1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (UPSC 2016)
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nitrogen dioxide
  4. Sulfur dioxide
  5. Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only      B. 2, 3 and 4 only   C. 1, 4 and 5 only     D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: B

2. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (UPSC 2020)

  1. Automobile exhaust
  2. Tobacco smoke
  3. Wood burning
  4. Using varnished wooden furniture
  5. Using products made of polyurethane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only  B. 2 and 4 only   C. 1, 3 and 4 only     D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

AnswerA

3. What is the ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? (UPSC 2016)

(a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions

(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies.

(c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022

(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank

Answer: A

4. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among (UPSC 2013)

(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

(c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature

(d) high concentration of NO2 O3 and CO in the evening

Answer: A

 

5. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment (UPSC 2013, 2022)

(a) Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen

(b) Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide

(c) Ozone and Carbon Dioxide

(d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide

 Answer: D

 

6. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (UPSC 2017)

(a) Measuring oxygen level in blood

(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems

(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem

(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions

Answer: C

7. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently published the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, in 2020. Which of the following statements is correct about EIA? (Punjab Civil Service 2020)
1. It predicts the effect of a proposed industrial/infrastructural project on the environment.
2. It prevents the proposed activity/project from being approved without proper oversight or taking adverse consequences into account.
3. It compares various alternatives for a project and seeks to identify the one which represents the best combination of economic and environmental costs and benefits.
4. As per the new notification, Coal and non-Coal mineral prospecting and solar photovoltaic projects do not need prior environmental clearance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 1, 2 and 4
Answer: D
 
8.  Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in (NDA 2017)
A. Washington        B. Geneva         C. Moscow         D.  London
 
Answer: B
 
 
9. With reference to the 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2017)
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only            B. 3 only           C. 2 and 3 only              D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
 
10. The IPCC is the United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change. IPCC stands for: (RRB NTPC CBT 2 2022)
A. Intergovernmental Provision on Climate Change
B. International Panel on Climate Change
C. International Provision on Climate Change
D. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
 
Answer: D
 
 
11. Comprehension (SSC CHSL 2020)
 
Direction: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Forest fire always (1) ______ by one of two reasons-naturally caused or human-caused. Natural fire is generally (2) ______ by lightning, with a very small percentage (3) ______ by spontaneous combustion of dry fuel such as sawdust and leaves. (4) ______, human-caused fire can happen (5) ______ any number of reasons.
Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1.
A. takes up    B. happens    C. causes    D. creates
 
Answer: B
 
12. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the (UPSC 2020) 
A. long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emission in a given year.
B. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.
C. efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
D. contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.
 
Answer: A
 
13. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (UPSC 2012)
A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
C. all the solar radiations
D. the infrared part of the solar radiation
 
Answer: D
 
14. As per the World Health Organisation (WHO) recommendation of a balanced diet, to avoid unhealthy weight gain, total fat should NOT exceed _______ of total energy intake. (UPSSSC Mandi Inspector 2019)
A. 20%         B.  30%        C. 10%          D. 40%
 
Answer: B
 
15. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems? (UPSC 2012)
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only        B. 2 and 3 only          C. 1 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: A
 
16. Which of the following ultraviolet rays is more dangerous? (UPTET 2017)
A. UV-A        B. UV-B          C.  UV-C          D.  None of the above
 
Answer: C
 
17. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019) 
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only         B. 2 and 3 only          C. 2 only          D.  1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: D
 
18. Which of the following is a VOC? (MP Vyapam 2022) 
A. Toulene          B. Water            C. Carbon dioxide          D. Carbon monoxide
 
Answer: A
 
19. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are of great concern because (UGC NET  Environmental Science  2020)
A. Once such compounds are in the vapour state, they are difficult to control in the environment.
B. Most of them are ozone depleting substances
C. They contribute to a general increase in reactive hydrocarbons in the atmosphere.
D. They are less soluble in water.
 
Answer: C

 Source: The Indian Express

 

RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT

 

1. Context

The introduction of the Right to Information (RTI) Act was a move that generated great hope among citizens since it recognised them to be the rulers of the nation. It empowered them to seek information from the government, with dignity and respect. 

2. The Right to Information (RTI) Act:

  • The Right to Information (RTI) Act is a landmark legislation enacted in India in 2005.
  • It empowers citizens to access information held by public authorities and promotes transparency and accountability in government functioning.

Here are key points about the RTI Act:

Objective

The primary objective of the RTI Act is to provide citizens with the legal right to request and receive information from government agencies and departments.

Applicability

The Act applies to all government bodies at the central, state, and local levels, including ministries, departments, public sector undertakings, and even non-governmental organizations receiving government funding.

Information Disclosure

It mandates government bodies to proactively disclose certain categories of information to the public, reducing the need for citizens to file RTI applications for routine information.

Request Process

  • Citizens can file RTI applications in writing, seeking specific information. They need to pay a nominal fee with the application.
  • Information must be provided within 30 days (or 48 hours for information concerning life and liberty), failing which authorities must explain the delay.

Exemptions

The Act specifies certain categories of information that are exempt from disclosure, primarily to protect national security, privacy, and sovereignty.

Public Interest Override

Even if the information falls under exempt categories, it must still be disclosed if there is an overriding public interest.

Promoting Accountability

  • The RTI Act is a powerful tool for holding public officials accountable for their actions and decisions.
  • It has been instrumental in exposing corruption, inefficiency, and human rights violations.

Challenges and Amendments:

Over the years, there have been concerns about the Act's effectiveness due to delays, procedural hurdles, and some amendments that activists argue weaken its provisions.

Impact

  • The RTI Act has empowered citizens to participate in governance, making the government more transparent and accountable.
  • It has been hailed as a significant step toward strengthening democracy in India.

Role of Information Commissions

Information Commissions at the central and state levels are responsible for hearing appeals and resolving disputes related to RTI applications.

3. RTI Act Amendment:

  • The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, of 2023, amended the RTI Act.
  • It changed the prohibition on disclosing personal data from qualified to the total.
  • NCPRI opposed this change, as it hinders social audits and may protect powerful officials.
  • The Right to Information (Amendment) Act, of 2019, gave Union Government unilateral power over information commissioners' tenure and salaries.
  • This raised concerns about their independence and effectiveness.

4. Undermining the RTI Act:

Dependence on Subordinate Rules:

  • The RTI Act's effectiveness relies on subordinate rules set by Union and State Governments.
  • States have autonomy in determining payment methods for RTI applications, causing disparities.

Payment Method Variations

  • Inconsistencies exist in payment methods across states.
  • Example: Tamil Nadu doesn't accept Indian Postal Orders (IPOs), a convenient payment method.
  • Court fee stamps and demand drafts may be less accessible and burdensome alternatives.

Tardy Appointments to Information Commissions

  • Delays in appointing members to Information Commissions, like the Central Information Commission (CIC) and State Information Commissions (SICs), erode confidence.
  • Appeals can languish for months or years without resolution.
  • Jharkhand SIC, for instance, lacked commissioners since May 2020, rendering the appeals process ineffective.

5. Online RTIs:

  • Online RTI applications ease accessibility by eliminating the need for uncommon financial instruments.
  • Payment via UPI simplifies the process.
  • Many Indian states lack online RTI portals, limiting access for citizens.
  • Even when available, some state government bodies may not be registered on these portals.
  • The Union Government's RTI portal, launched in 2013, faces usability issues.
  • Account creation, which streamlined the application process, has been removed.
  • Users must now enter personal details for each application.
  • Past applicant data has experienced glitches, with applications disappearing and later being restored.

6. Challenges and Dissatisfaction:

  • Dissatisfaction with the RTI Act's effectiveness is increasing at a fundamental level.
  • More first appeals are being filed, indicating public dissatisfaction with the information provided by public officials.
  • The RTI Act faces structural problems related to institutions and websites.
  • These issues hinder citizens' ability to conveniently access information and file requests.
  • Activists highlight that the weakening of the RTI Act isn't limited to changes in the law's text.
  • It stems from various government institutions' ways of discharging duties, narrowing avenues for information access, and understaffed appellate bodies.
For Prelims: Right to Information Act, 2005, Central Information Commission (CIC), State Information Commissions (SICs), Indian Postal Orders (IPOs), Digital Personal Data Protection Act, of 2023.
For Mains: 1. Examine the impact of recent amendments to the Right to Information (RTI) Act on its core principles of transparency and accountability. How can the Act strike a balance between protecting sensitive information and ensuring citizens' access to government-held data?
 

Previous year Question

1. Which of the following is related to the Right to Information Act, of 2005? (UPPSC 2015)
A. Lily Thomas v/s Union of India
B. Nandini Sundar v/s State of Chhattisgarh
C. Namit Sharma v/s Union of India
D. None of the above
Answer: C
Source: The Hindu
 

UNIFORM CIVIL CODE (UCC)

 
 
1. Context
On January 27, 2025, Uttarakhand became the first Indian State to implement the Uniform Civil Code (UCC), placing private relationships under state surveillance. The official claim is that it would restore gender justice, create “uniformity”, and address administrative oversight
 
2. 22nd law commission on UCC
  • Underlining that the Uniform Civil Code is “neither necessary nor desirable at this stage”, the 21st Law Commission of India, in 2018, argued for reform of family laws of every religion through amendments and codification of certain aspects so as to make them gender-just
  • In its ‘Consultation Paper on Family Law Reforms’, the Law Commission took a stand in favour of “equality ‘within communities’ between men and women” (personal law reform), “rather than ‘equality between’ communities” (UCC)
  • According to the 22nd Law Commission Cultural diversity cannot be compromised to the extent that our urge for uniformity itself becomes a reason for threat to the territorial integrity of the nation
  • women must be guaranteed their freedom of faith without any compromise on their right to equality
 
3. What is the Uniform Civil Code
  • A UCC would provide for one law for the entire country, applicable to all religious communities, in their personal matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption etc
  • Currently, Indian personal law is fairly complex, with each religion adhering to its own specific laws
  • Separate laws govern Hindus including Sikhs, Jains and Buddhist, Muslims, Christians, and followers of other religions
  • Moreover, there is diversity even within communities. All Hindus of the country are not governed by one law, nor are all Muslims or all Christians
  • For instance, in the Northeast, there are more than 200 tribes with their own varied customary laws
  • The Constitution itself protects local customs in Nagaland. Similar protections are enjoyed by Meghalaya and Mizoram. Even reformed Hindu law, in spite of codification, protects customary practices
  • The exception to this rule is the state of Goa, where all religions have a common law regarding marriages, divorces, and adoption
4. Constitution on UCC
  • Article 44 of the Constitution lays down that the state shall endeavour to secure a UCC for citizens throughout the territory of India
  • Article 44 is among the Directive Principles of State Policy. Directive Principles are not enforceable by court, but are supposed to inform and guide governance
  • However, in some senses, Article 44 is unique in this manner. While Article 44 uses the words “state shall endeavour”, other Articles in the ‘Directive Principles’ chapter use words such as “in particular strive”; “shall in particular direct its policy”; “shall be obligation of the state
  • The phrase “by suitable legislation” is absent in Article 44. All this implies that the duty of the state is greater in other directive principles than in Article 44
5. Uniform Code for Personal Law
Article 25 lays down an individual’s fundamental right to religion; Article 26(b) upholds the right of each religious denomination or any section thereof to “manage its own affairs in matters of religion”
Article 29 defines the right to conserve distinctive culture
An individual’s freedom of religion under Article 25 is subject to “public order, health, morality” and other provisions relating to fundamental rights, but a group’s freedom under Article 26 has not been subjected to other fundamental rights
6. Way forward
Over the next 30 days, the Law Commission will receive views of the public and stakeholders
The notice said the stakeholders concerned are at liberty to make submissions in the form of consultation/discussion/working papers on any of the issues pertaining to the UCC to the Member Secretary, Law Commission of India
After reviewing the submissions, the Law Commission will again make observations/recommendations regarding a UCC, which may or may not differ from the previous Commission’s observations
 
 
For Prelims: Unifrom Civil Code (UCC), DPSP, Fundamental rights, Law Commission
For Mains: 1. What is the Uniform Civil Code? What are the challenges in implementing a Uniform Civil Code in a diverse country like India?
 
Previous Year Questions

Q1. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India: (2012)

  1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
  2. Organising village Panchayats
  3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
  4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer (b)

2. A legislation that confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 28
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 44

Answer (a)

Mains

1.Discuss the possible factors that inhibit India from enacting for its citizens a uniform civil code as provided for in the Directive Principles of State Policy. (2015)

Source: indianexpress
 

NATIONAL GREEN TRIBUNAL

 

1. Context

Thousands of trees were axed in Uttar Pradesh to make way for a new Kanwar Yatra route “not as per rules” and without “final approval”, according to a report submitted to the National Green Tribunal (NGT) by the Forest Survey of lndia (FSI)

2. What is National Green Tribunal (NGT)?

  • The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a specialized judicial body established in India to handle cases related to environmental protection and conservation.
  • It was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, of  2010, and its primary objective is to effectively and expeditiously address environmental disputes and promote sustainable development.
  • With the establishment of the NGT, India became the third country in the world to set up a specialized environmental tribunal, only after Australia and New Zealand, and the first developing country to do so.
     
  • NGT is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same.
  • The NGT has five places of sittings, New Delhi is the Principal place of sitting, and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai are the other four.

3. Structure of the National Green Tribunal (NGT)

  • Chairperson: The NGT is headed by a full-time Chairperson who is a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India. The Chairperson is responsible for the overall administration and functioning of the tribunal.
  • Judicial Members: The NGT consists of judicial members who are retired judges of either the Supreme Court or a High Court. These members have extensive legal knowledge and experience in handling environmental matters.
  • Expert Members: The tribunal also includes expert members who possess expertise in areas such as environmental science, ecology, hydrology, and forestry. These members provide valuable technical insights and guidance in the resolution of environmental disputes.
  • The NGT is organized into multiple benches located across different regions of India. These benches are responsible for hearing cases specific to their respective jurisdictions. Each bench is headed by a judicial member and consists of one or more expert members, as required.

4. What are the Important Landmark Judgements of NGT?

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has delivered several landmark judgments that have had a significant impact on environmental protection and conservation in India. Here are some of the important landmark judgments delivered by the NGT:

  • Vardhaman Kaushik v. Union of India (2013): This case dealt with the issue of groundwater depletion due to illegal extraction by industries in Uttar Pradesh. The NGT directed the closure of industries that were extracting groundwater without proper permissions and ordered the payment of compensation for environmental damage caused.
  • Alembic Pharmaceuticals Ltd. v. Rohit Prajapati & Ors. (2014): In this case, the NGT ordered the closure of an industrial unit in Gujarat for releasing untreated effluents into a water body, causing pollution and harm to the environment and public health.
  • M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (2014): The NGT issued a landmark judgment in this case regarding the pollution of the Yamuna River. It directed several measures to clean and rejuvenate the river, including the establishment of sewage treatment plants and the regulation of industries contributing to pollution.
  • Subhash Chandra Sharma v. Union of India (2015): This case focused on the issue of air pollution caused by solid waste burning in open areas. The NGT imposed a ban on burning waste in open spaces and directed municipal authorities to take measures to manage waste effectively.
  • Raghu Nath Sharma v. State of Himachal Pradesh (2016): The NGT ordered the closure of illegal hotels and structures in the eco-sensitive Rohtang Pass area of Himachal Pradesh to protect the fragile Himalayan ecosystem.
  • Yamuna Muktikaran Abhiyan v. Union of India (2017): This case dealt with the rejuvenation of the Yamuna River and led to the NGT issuing directions to clean and restore the river, including measures to prevent encroachments and pollution.
  • M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (2017): The NGT banned the use of disposable plastic in Delhi and the National Capital Region (NCR) and directed authorities to take steps to prevent the use and sale of such plastic.
  • Shailesh Singh v. Hotel Holiday Regency (2019): In this case, the NGT imposed heavy fines on a hotel in Shimla, Himachal Pradesh, for causing air pollution by running diesel generators without proper emission control measures.
  • Subhash Chandran vs. Tamil Nadu Pollution Control Board (2020): This judgment highlighted the importance of safeguarding coastal areas and wetlands from unauthorized construction and development activities, emphasizing the need for stringent environmental norms.
  • In Re: Report by Comptroller and Auditor General of India (2021): The NGT directed the formulation of guidelines for the regulation of groundwater extraction and management to prevent overexploitation and depletion.

5. What is a dissolved oxygen level?

  • Dissolved oxygen (DO) level refers to the concentration of oxygen gas (O2) that is dissolved in a liquid, typically water.
  • It is a crucial parameter in aquatic ecosystems as it directly affects the survival and well-being of aquatic organisms.
  • In natural water bodies like lakes, rivers, and oceans, oxygen dissolves from the atmosphere through processes such as diffusion and aeration.
  • Aquatic plants, algae, and phytoplankton also contribute to the production of oxygen through photosynthesis. However, the level of dissolved oxygen can fluctuate based on various factors, including temperature, altitude, water flow, pollution, and organic matter decomposition.
  • Dissolved oxygen is essential for aquatic organisms because they rely on it for their respiration process, similar to how animals breathe oxygen from the air.
  • Insufficient levels of dissolved oxygen can lead to hypoxia, a condition where organisms are deprived of the oxygen they need to survive. This can result in stress, reduced growth, reproductive issues, and even mortality in aquatic species.

Different species of aquatic organisms have varying tolerance levels for dissolved oxygen. For example:

  • Fish and other aquatic animals often require dissolved oxygen levels between 4 to 6 milligrams per liter (mg/L) to thrive.
  • Some species of fish, insects, and other aquatic organisms can tolerate lower levels of dissolved oxygen, even below 2 mg/L, while others require higher concentrations.

6. What are chemical oxygen demand and biological oxygen demand?

Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD):

  • COD is a measure of the amount of oxygen required to chemically oxidize and break down organic and inorganic substances present in water.
  • It provides an indication of the total amount of pollutants that can be chemically oxidized by a strong oxidizing agent. COD is expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/L) of oxygen consumed.
  • COD is useful in assessing the overall pollution load in a water sample, including both biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances.
  • It is commonly used for industrial wastewater monitoring, as it provides a rapid estimation of the organic content and potential pollution levels. However, COD does not differentiate between different types of pollutants or indicate the potential impact on aquatic life.

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD):

  • BOD measures the amount of dissolved oxygen consumed by microorganisms (bacteria) during the biological degradation of organic matter in water.
  • It is a key indicator of the level of biodegradable organic pollutants present in water. BOD is expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/L) of oxygen consumed over a specific time period, usually 5 days (BOD₅).
  • BOD is particularly important in assessing the impact of organic pollution on aquatic ecosystems.
  • High BOD levels indicate that a water body may have a significant amount of organic pollutants, which can lead to oxygen depletion as microorganisms break down the organic matter. This oxygen depletion, known as hypoxia, can harm aquatic organisms and disrupt the ecological balance of the water body.

Comparing BOD and COD:

  • BOD primarily measures the biologically degradable organic matter and provides information about the potential impact on aquatic life.
  • COD measures both biologically and chemically degradable pollutants, giving an indication of the overall pollution load and oxygen demand.
  • BOD is a more specific and ecologically relevant parameter, but it takes longer to determine (5 days), while COD can be measured more quickly.
For Prelims: National Green Tribunal (NGT), National Green Tribunal Act, of  2010, Dissolved oxygen (DO), Chemical Oxygen demand (COD), and Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD).
For Mains: 1. Discuss the significance of Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) and Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) as critical indicators for assessing water pollution and quality. (250 Words)
 

Previous year Question

1. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)? (UPSC 2018)
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by the executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
 
2. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India? (UPSC 2012)
1. Right of a healthy environment, construed as a part of the Right to life under Article 21
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Source: The Indian Express
 

NATIONAL FOOD SECURITY ACT

1. Context

Under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013, all pregnant women (except those already covered in the formal sector) are entitled to maternity benefits of ₹6,000 a child. At today’s prices, this would mean ₹12,000 at the very least. Even that, of course, is a pittance.

2. About the food inflation rate in India

  • As of September 5, 2023, the food inflation rate in India is 8.88%.
  • This is based on the All-India Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Products (CPI-AP), which measures the change in prices of a basket of food items consumed by rural and urban households.
  • The CPI-AP food inflation rate was 7.03% in June 2023 and 5.38% in July 2022.

3. The reasons for cereal inflation 

There are several reasons why cereal inflation is high in India. These include:

  • The Russia-Ukrainian war has disrupted global wheat exports. India is a major importer of wheat, and the war has led to a shortage of wheat in the global market, which has pushed up prices.
  • A poor monsoon season in India has damaged crops. The monsoon season is crucial for agriculture in India, and a poor monsoon season can lead to lower crop yields, which can also push up prices.
  • Higher transportation costs: The cost of transporting food has been rising due to higher fuel prices. This has also contributed to the rise in cereal prices.
  • Lower domestic production: The production of cereals in India has been declining in recent years. This is due to several factors, including the lack of investment in agriculture, the ageing farmer population, and climate change.
  • Government policies: The government has imposed export restrictions on wheat and rice, which has limited the supply of these cereals in the market and pushed up prices.

3. National Food Security Act, 2013

  • The National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA) is an Act of the Parliament of India that aims to provide food and nutritional security in the human life cycle approach, by ensuring access to an adequate quantity of quality food at affordable prices for people to live a life with dignity and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
  • The Act was enacted on July 5, 2013, and came into force on September 1, 2013.
  • It covers two-thirds of the population of India, which is about 813 million people.

3.1. Salient features 

  • The Public Distribution System (PDS) is now governed by provisions of the National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA).
  • Coverage under PDS is de-linked from the erstwhile 'poverty estimates'.
  • The Act provides coverage for nearly 2/3rd of the country's total population, basis Census 2011 population estimates.
  • 75% of the Rural and 50% of Urban population is entitled to receive highly subsidised foodgrains under two categories of beneficiaries Antodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households and Priority Households (PHH).
  • State/UT-wise coverage is determined by the erstwhile Planning Commission (now NITI Ayog) based on the 2011-12 Household Consumption Expenditure survey of NSSO.
  • The Act entitles 35 kg of foodgrain per AAY Household per month, whereas 5 Kg of foodgrain per PHH Person per month.
  • Identification of beneficiaries/households under NFSA is done by the respective State/UT Government, which is required to frame its own criteria.
  • Highly subsidised Central Issue Prices of Re.1, Rs.2 and Rs.3 for Coarse-grains, Wheat and Rice respectively, kept unchanged till June 2019.
  • No reduction in foodgrains allocation to any State/UT under NFSA. Allocation gaps if any, are covered with Tide-Over allocation
  • Eldest woman of the beneficiary household (18 years or above) is considered as 'Head of Family' to issue ration cards.
  • Grievance redressal mechanisms, through State Food Commissions, DGROs, and Vigilance Committees at different levels are provisioned for Women's Empowerment.
  • Provisions for disclosure of records relating to PDS operations, placing of beneficiaries' list in public domain/portals, for enhanced transparency
  • Assistance to States/UTs for meeting expenditure on intra-state transportation & handling of foodgrains and FPS Dealers' margin

3.2. The eligibility criteria 

Rural areas:

  • Households with an annual income of less than Rs. 10,000 per annum.
  • Households with at least two adult members who are unable to work due to old age, disability, or illness.
  • Households that depend on agriculture for their livelihood and have an annual income of less than Rs. 5000 per annum.
  • Households that have been identified as Below the Poverty Line (BPL) by the state government.

Urban areas:

  • Households with an annual income of less than Rs. 15,000 per annum.
  • Households with at least two adult members who are unable to work due to old age, disability, or illness.
  • Households that depend on non-agricultural activities for their livelihood and have an annual income of less than Rs. 10,000 per annum.
  • Households that have been identified as Below Poverty Line (BPL) by the state government.

4. Conclusion

  • All NFSA beneficiaries, before January 2023, were getting 10 kg of rice or wheat per month practically free of cost.
  • Since that more or less met their entire requirement the last national sample survey of 2011-12 revealed the per capita cereal consumption at 11.22 kg for rural and 9.28 kg for urban India they hardly had to buy grain from the open market.
 
For Prelims: National Food Security Act, inflation, Below Poverty Line, All-India Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Products, Russia-Ukrainian war, Public Distribution System, Antodaya Anna Yojana, Priority Households, Planning Commission, NITI Ayog, 
For Mains: 
1. Evaluate the impact of poor monsoon seasons and climate change on cereal production in India. How can these challenges be addressed to ensure food security for the population? (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security act, 2013 consider the following statements: (UPSC 2018) 
1. The families coming under the category of 'below poverty line (BPL)' only are eligible to receive subsidized food grains.
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a 'take-home ration' of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and or six months thereafter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2          B. 2 only          C. 1 and 3           D. 3 only
 
Answer: B
 
2. With reference to the National Food Security Act, which of the following statement is/are correct?  (UPPSC 2019)
I. It will cover up to 75 percent rural and 50 percent urban population.
II. Special focus on nutritional support to women and children.
III. Eldest woman of above 18 years of age will be head of household.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. I and II are correct
B. II and III are correct
C. I, II and III are correct
D. None of these
 
Answer: C
 
3. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because (UPSC 2019)
A. Poverty rates vary from State to State
B. Price levels vary from State to State
C. Gross State Product varies from State to State
D. Quality of public distribution varies from State to State
 
Answer: B
 
4. With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct? (UPSC 2015)
A. Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only
B. The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
C. Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
D. Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
 
Answer: C
 
5. With reference to India, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2010)
1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis only.
2. As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI(IW)), the WPI gives less weight to food articles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only       B. 2 only       C. Both 1 and 2          D.  Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer: C
 
6. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2020)
1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 A. 1 and  2 only       B. 2 only       C. 3 only           D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: A
 
7. Who among the following is the head of the standing committee on economic statistics set up by Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI)? (SSC CGL 2020) 
A. Krishnamurthy Subramanian
B. Manmohan Singh
C. Pronab Sen
D. Raghuram Rajan
 
Answer: C
 
8. As per Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, which state of India has the highest per capita income as of Sep 2019? (SSC CPO 2019) 
A. Goa                B.  Punjab         C. Tamil Nadu         D. Gujarat
 
Answer: A
 
9. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has revised the base year index of Eight Core Industries having a combined weight of about 40.27 percent in the Index of Industrial Production. Which one of the following is not one of the Eight Core Industries? (CDS 2022)
A. Coal
B. Refinery products
C. Rubber products
D. Cement
 
Answer: C
 
10. Read the following passage and answer the question that follows. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only. (UPSC 2021)
Policymakers and media have placed the blame for skyrocketing food prices on a variety of factors, including high fuel prices, bad weather in key food producing countries, and the diversion of land to non-food production. Increased emphasis, however, has been placed on a surge in demand for food from the most populous emerging economics. It seems highly probable that mass consumption in these countries could be well poised to create a food crisis.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 
1. Oil producing countries are one of the reasons for high food prices.
2. If there is a food crisis in the world in the near future, it will be in the emerging economies. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
A. 1 only        B. 2 only           C. Both 1 and 2         D.  Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer: D
 
11. India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons? (UPSC 2011)
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30.
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 
A. 1 and 2 only          B. 2 and 3 only        C. 1 and 3 only          D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: B
 
12. With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct? (UPSC 2015) 
A. Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only
B.The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
C. Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
D. Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
 
Answer: C
 
13. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2016)
1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017
2. The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.
3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $ 1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 3 only     B.  2 only        C. 2 and 3 only        D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: B
 
14. The Public Distribution System, which evolved as a system of management of food and distribution of food grains, was relaunched as _______ Public Distribution System in 1997. (SSC JE EE 2021) 
A. Evolved         B. Transformed      C. Tested            D. Targeted
 
Answer: D
 
15. Under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana, up to what quantity of rice and wheat can be purchased at a subsidised cost? (FCI AG III 2023) 
A. 35 kg          B. 40 kg          C. 30 kg           D. 25 kg           E. 50 kg
 
Answer: A
 
16. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the "Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act"? (UPSC 2011)
A. Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households.
B. Adult members of below-poverty line (BPL) households.
C. Adult members of households of all backward communities.
D. Adult members of any rural household.
 
Answer: D
 

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