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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 28 FEBRUARY 2024

GAGANYAAN

 

1. Context 

India announced the names of the four astronaut-designates for the Gaganyaan human spaceflight mission, planned for launch in 2025.

The names of the Indian Air Force (IAF) pilots — Group Captain Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair, Group Captain Ajit Krishnan, Group Captain Angad Pratap and Wing Commander Shubhanshu Shukla — were revealed for the first time in the presence of Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his visit to the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) here

2. Gaganyaan Mission

  • Gaganyaan, meaning "Sky Craft" in Sanskrit, is India's ambitious human spaceflight program aimed at sending Indian astronauts to space.
  • It is a testament to India's growing prowess in the field of space exploration and a source of immense national pride.
  • The program, spearheaded by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), envisions launching a crewed orbital spacecraft into low Earth orbit (LEO) for a period of up to seven days.
  • The spacecraft will carry three astronauts, marking a historic first for India.

3. About The TV-D1 Mission

  • The TV-D1 mission consists of two abort missions designed to test the safety mechanisms that will allow the Gaganyaan crew to escape the spacecraft during emergencies.
  • In this mission, a rocket will ascend to an altitude of nearly 17 km before an abort signal triggers the separation of the crew module.
  • The crew module will then descend using a parachute for a splashdown in the Bay of Bengal.
  • The TV-D1 mission will have a total duration of 532 seconds, from liftoff at 8 a.m. to the crew module's splashdown about 10 km from the Sriharikota coast.
  • The rocket used for this mission is ISRO's low-cost Test Vehicle, designed specifically for system testing.
  • During the flight, the rocket will reach a peak relative velocity of 363 meters per second, approximately 1307 km per hour. It's important to note that the crew module will be empty for this test.

4. Key Objectives of the TV-D1 Mission

The TV-D1 mission serves two primary objectives.

  1. It aims to demonstrate the capabilities of the new Test Vehicle, hence its name Test Vehicle-Demonstration 1 (TV-D1).
  2. It will showcase a basic version of the crew module, testing the systems responsible for separating the crew module from the rocket during an abort mission and ensuring the safe escape of astronauts.

The TV-D1 mission simulates an abort condition during the ascent trajectory, corresponding to a Mach number of 1.2, as anticipated in the Gaganyaan mission.

5. The Low-Cost Test Vehicle

  • Unlike the upcoming full-fledged test flight of the crew module into space and back, which will use the human-rated LVM3 rocket in 2024, the TV-D1 mission employs a low-cost basic rocket.
  • This Test Vehicle utilizes existing liquid propulsion technology but introduces innovations such as the throttleable and restartable L110 Vikas engine, capable of controlling propellant use.
  • ISRO developed this cost-effective solution as each GSLV Mk III launch, which was previously used for such missions, costs between Rs 300-400 crore.

6. Safety and Crew Escape System

  • Safety remains a top priority for ISRO in the Gaganyaan project, especially in light of international incidents involving space missions.
  • The TV-D1 mission aims to test the systems ensuring the crew module's safety, such as environmental control, life support systems, and an integrated vehicle health management system.
  • This system can detect anomalies that may jeopardize astronauts' safety and initiate mission abort procedures.

7. Preparations and Timeline for Gaganyaan

  • ISRO has set a target timeframe for the Gaganyaan mission in 2024, with flexibility based on the development stages and ensuring the mission's safety.
  • The schedule includes an unmanned mission at the beginning of the next year, abort missions this year, and discussions of the manned mission for late 2024 or early 2025.
  • ISRO has completed the human rating of the LVM 3 rocket and performed static tests for human-rated solid rocket boosters.

8. Conclusion

The TV-D1 mission represents a significant milestone in the Gaganyaan program, as it integrates a near-complete system for a flight test. The success of this mission paved the way for further qualification tests and unmanned missions, ultimately leading to the first Gaganyaan mission with Indian astronauts. ISRO's dedication to safety and rigorous testing is paramount as India advances its space exploration endeavours.

 
For Prelims: Gaganyaan programme, TV-D1 mission, Low Earth Orbit, Isro, LVM3, GSLV Mk III, 
For Mains: 
1. Discuss the key objectives of the TV-D1 mission within the Gaganyaan program. How does this mission contribute to astronaut safety and the overall success of Gaganyaan? (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2018)
1. PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 only
Answer: A
 
2. India's first human space mission "Gaganyaan" will be launched in which year? (ESIC UDC 2022)
A. 2022          B. 2023          C. 2024          D. 2025      E.  2026
 
Answer: B
 
3. Find the incorrect statements, about the Gaganyaan Mission of India. (MPSC 2020)
1. Four pilots from Indian Air Force were shortlisted to be astronauts of Gaganyaan.
2. They will be trained at Yuri Gagarin Cosmonaut Centre in Russia.
3. This mission was announced by Prime Minister in 2014.
4. It is scheduled for 2022 with a team of 5 crew members and a month-long stay in space.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4     B.  2, 3, 4           C. 3, 4          D. 2, 3
 
Answer: C
 
4. ISRO is related to: (SSC JE EE 2020)
A. space research      B. agricultural research          C. seed research          D. marine research Answer: A
 

5.  Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? (UPSC 2014)

Spacecraft                                    Purpose

  1. Cassini-Huygens:                  Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth
  2. Messenger:                             Mapping and investigating the Mercury
  3. Voyager 1 and 2:                    Exploring the outer solar system

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 and 3 only          (c) 1 and 3 only          (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

6. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2016)

The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO

1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission
2. made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA
3. made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only        (b) 2 and 3 only          (c) 1 and 3 only            (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Source: The Indian Express

 

GENOME INDIA PROJECT

1. Context 

The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) on Tuesday officially announced the completion of the ‘10,000 genome’ project — an attempt to create a reference database of whole-genome sequences out of India.

While India first sequenced a complete human genome in 2006, creating a database that is representative of India’s population diversity is seen as a key step to being able to learn about genetic variants that are unique to India’s population groups and use that to customise drugs and therapies

2. About Genome Sequencing

  • The human genome is the entire set of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) residing in the nucleus of every cell of the human body.
  • It carries the complete genetic information responsible for the development and functioning of an organism.
  • The DNA consists of a double-stranded molecule built up by four bases.
  • While the sequence of base pairs is identical in all humans, there are differences in the genome of every human being that make them unique.
  • The process of deciphering the order of base pairs, to decode the genetic fingerprint of a human is called genome sequencing.
  • In 1990, a group of scientists began to work on determining the whole sequence of the human genome under the Human Genome Project.
  • The Project released its latest version of the complete human genome in 2023, with a 0.3 per cent error margin.
  • This shows that genomic sequencing has now evolved to a stage where large sequencers can process thousands of samples simultaneously.
  • There are several approaches to genome sequencing, including whole genome sequencing.
  • The process of whole genome sequencing, made possible by the Human Genome Project, now facilitates the reading of a person's genome to identify differences from the average human genome.

3. Applications of sequencing

  • Genome sequencing has been used to evaluate rare disorders, preconditions for disorders and even cancer from the viewpoint of genetics, rather than as diseases of certain organs.
  • Nearly 10, 000 diseases including cystic fibrosis and thalassemia are known to be the result of a single gene malfunctioning.
  • In public health, however, sequencing has been used to read the codes of viruses.
  • One of its first practical usages was in 2014 when a group of scientists from M.I.T and Harvard sequenced samples of Ebola from infected African patients to show how genomic data of viruses could reveal hidden pathways of transmission.

4. Effective response against COVID-19

  • In January 2020, at the start of the pandemic, Chinese scientist YongZhen Zhang sequenced the genome of a novel pathogen causing infections in the city of Wuhan.
  • Mr Zhang then shared it with his virologist friend Edward Holmes in Australia, who published the genomic code online.
  • It was after this that virologists began evaluating the sequence to try and understand how to combat the virus, track the mutating variants and their intensity and spread and come up with a vaccine.
  • To enable an effective response against COVID-19, researchers kept track of emerging variants, conducting further studies about their transmissibility, immune escape and potential to cause severe disease.
  • Genomic sequencing became one of the first steps in this important process.
  • Here, the purpose of genome sequencing was to understand the role of certain mutations in increasing the virus's infectivity.
  • India also put in place a sequencing framework the Indian SARSCOV2 Genomics Consortia (INSACOG).
  • This consortium of labs across the country was tasked with scanning coronavirus samples from patents and flagging the presence of variants known to have spiked transmission internationally.
  • As of early December 2021, INSACOG had sequenced about 1, 00, 000 samples.

5. About Genome India Project

  • India's 1.3 billion strong population consists of over 4, 600 population groups, many of which are endogamous.
  • Thus, the Indian population harbours distinct variations, with disease-causing mutations often amplified within some of these groups.
  • But despite being a large population with diverse ethnic groups, India lacks a comprehensive catalogue of genetic variations.
  • Creating a database of Indian genomes allows researchers to learn about genetic variants unique to India's population groups and use that to customise drugs.
  • About 20 institutions across India are involved in the Project.
For Prelims: Genome India Project, Covid-19, DNA, 
For Mains: 
1. What is the significance of genome sequencing? Discuss the reasons for the importance of the Genome India Project. (250 Words)
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of 'genome sequencing', often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future? (UPSC 2017) 
1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.
3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only      B. 2 and 3 only      C. 1 and 3 only     D.  1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: D
 
2. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2020) 
1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent.
2. A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage.
3. Human-induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only      B. 2 and 3 only    C. 2 only     D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: D
 
Source: The Hindu
 

UNITED NATIONAL LIBERATION FRONT (UNLF)

1. Context
 
Three months after the Union government and the Manipur government signed a peace agreement with one of the factions of the United National Liberation Front (UNLF), the oldest valley-based armed insurgent group, officials said the terms of the pact, which include monitoring of the armed cadre, are not available to the Central security agencies
 
2. What is the UNLF?
  • The United National Liberation Front (UNLF) is a separatist militant organization operating in the Indian state of Manipur. Founded in 1964, the UNLF seeks to establish an independent sovereign state of Manipur. The group has been involved in armed insurgency against the Indian government since its inception.
  • The UNLF was founded by Arembam Samarendra Singh on November 24, 1964, with the stated goal of achieving independence for Manipur from India. The group's ideology is based on a blend of socialism and Manipuri nationalism. The UNLF has carried out several attacks against Indian security forces and civilians over the years.
  • The UNLF is one of the oldest and most entrenched insurgent groups in Northeast India. The group's strength is estimated to be around 2,000 armed cadres. The UNLF has a strong support base among the Meitei people, who are the majority ethnic group in Manipur.
  • The UNLF has been designated as a terrorist organization by the Indian government. The group is also banned by the United States, the European Union, and the United Kingdom.
 
3. Manipur insurgency

The term "insurgency" is used to describe a specific type of armed rebellion against a constituted government or authority. It is characterized by the use of small-scale, irregular warfare tactics, such as guerrilla attacks, ambushes, and sabotage, rather than conventional warfare tactics like large-scale battles. Insurgents typically seek to overthrow the existing government or establish an independent state.

The reasons why the term "insurgency" is used to describe this type of conflict:

  • Insurgencies typically rely on irregular warfare tactics, which are characterized by their flexibility and adaptability. This allows insurgents to operate in a way that is difficult for the government to counter.
  • Insurgents typically lack the conventional military strength of the government they are fighting against. This means that they must rely on tactics that exploit their strengths and the government's weaknesses.
  • Insurgencies are typically motivated by political goals, such as overthrowing the government or establishing an independent state. This distinguishes them from other types of armed conflict, such as civil wars, which may be motivated by a variety of factors, including ethnic or religious differences.

4. The history of conflict in Manipur

The history of conflict in Manipur dates back to the 18th century when the Meitei kingdom was at war with neighbouring kingdoms. The conflict intensified in the 19th century when Manipur was invaded by the British. After Manipur was annexed by India in 1949, several separatist groups emerged, leading to the ongoing insurgency.

  • During the 18th century, The Meitei kingdom was at war with neighbouring kingdoms, such as the Ahom kingdom and the Burmese kingdom.
  • Manipur was invaded by the British in 1819, 1824, and 1891. The British eventually annexed Manipur in 1891.
  • Manipur was annexed by India in 1949. This led to the formation of several separatist groups, such as the United National Liberation Front (UNLF) and the Manipur People's Liberation Front (MPLF).
 

5. The major ethnic conflicts in Manipur

The state of Manipur in India is home to a diverse population with numerous ethnic groups, each with its own distinct culture, language, and traditions. This diversity has also led to complex ethnic tensions and conflicts in the state.

The major ethnic conflicts in Manipur

  • Meitei vs. Naga: The Meitei people are the majority ethnic group in Manipur, residing primarily in the Imphal Valley. The Naga people, on the other hand, are concentrated in the hill areas of the state. The conflict between these two groups stems from historical grievances, competition for resources, and differing political aspirations.
  • Meitei vs. Kuki: The Kuki people are another significant ethnic group in Manipur, inhabiting the hills and valleys of the state. The conflict between the Meitei and Kuki communities has been fueled by historical clashes, competition for land and resources, and political marginalization of the Kuki people.
  • Naga vs. Kuki: Within the Naga community itself, there have been instances of conflict between different Naga tribes, particularly between the Tangkhul and Zeliangrong Naga groups. These conflicts often arise over land disputes, political leadership, and cultural differences.
  • Naga vs. Meitei vs. Kuki: There have also been instances of tripartite conflict involving the Naga, Meitei, and Kuki communities. These conflicts are often characterized by complex dynamics, with each group vying for dominance and control over resources and territory.
 
6. The precedent for the peace agreement

The 2020 Manipur peace agreement is the first significant step towards resolving the long-running insurgency in the state. The agreement is based on the premise of preserving Manipur's territorial integrity within India while addressing the grievances of the various ethnic groups in the state.

There are several precedents for the 2020 Manipur peace agreement. These include:

  • The 1997 Shillong Accord, which was signed between the Government of India and the National Socialist Council of Nagaland (NSCN-IM). The accord led to a ceasefire in Nagaland and the beginning of peace talks between the two parties.
  • The 2003 Assam Accord, which was signed between the Government of India and several separatist groups in Assam. The accord led to the surrender of weapons by some of the groups and the beginning of peace talks between the two parties.
  • The 2015 framework agreement between the Government of India and the NSCN-IM. The framework agreement is a broad outline for a peace deal in Nagaland.

The 2020 Manipur peace agreement is a significant step forward in the peace process in Manipur. However, several challenges will need to be addressed to achieve lasting peace in the state. These challenges include:

  • Addressing the grievances of the various ethnic groups in Manipur.
  • Building trust between the Government of India and the UNLF.
  • Ensuring that the peace agreement is implemented fairly and equitably.
 

7. The steps taken by the Government of India

The Government of India has taken several steps to address the insurgency in Manipur, including:

  • The government has offered amnesty to insurgents who surrender their weapons and renounce violence.
  • The government has held peace talks with several separatist groups in Manipur.
  •  The government has invested in several economic development projects in Manipur.
  • The government has promoted cultural exchange between different ethnic groups in Manipur.
  • The government has signed ceasefire agreements with several separatist groups in Manipur. These agreements have helped to reduce violence in the state.
  • In recent years, there has been an increase in the number of insurgents who have surrendered their weapons and joined the peace process.
  • The government has withdrawn security forces from some areas of Manipur to build trust with the local population.
  • The government has established autonomous councils for some of the minority groups in Manipur. These councils give these groups a greater degree of autonomy over their own affairs.
  • The government has taken steps to address the grievances of the various ethnic groups in Manipur. This includes measures to improve education, healthcare, and infrastructure in the state.
 

For Prelims: United National Liberation Front, valley-based insurgent group, Manipur, Meitei kingdom, Ahom kingdom, Burmese kingdom, Manipur People's Liberation Front, Meitei, Imphal Valley, Naga, Kuki, 

For Mains: 
1. Define the term "insurgency" and discuss the characteristics that distinguish it from conventional warfare. How do insurgent groups like the United National Liberation Front (UNLF) operate, and what factors contribute to their use of irregular warfare tactics? (250 Words)
2. Evaluate the steps taken by the Government of India to address the insurgency in Manipur. Discuss the effectiveness of measures such as amnesty offers, peace talks, economic development projects, and cultural exchange initiatives in building lasting peace. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. Recently, the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act was completely removed from which one of the following States? (UPSC CAPF 2018)
A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Nagaland
C. Meghalaya
D. Assam
 
2. Consider the following pairs:  (UPSC 2018)
Tradition                                      State
1. Chapchar Kut festival            Mizoram
2. Khongjom Parba ballad        Manipur
3. Thang-Ta dance                     Sikkim
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only         B. 1 and 2       C.  3 only            D. 2 and 3
 

3. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (UPSC 2022)

(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

 4. Ahom kingdom was developed by whom? (OTET 2017)
A. Sukapha       B. Suhungmug        C. Sangram Shah        D. None of these
 
 
5. The treaty of Yandaboo was signed in (NDA  2019)
A. 1826        B. 1825        C. 1824             D. 1823
 

6. Consider the following pairs: (UPSC 2023)

Area of conflict mentioned in news Country where it is located
1. Donbas Syria
2. Kachin Ethiopia
3. Tigray North Yemen

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one         (b) Only two          (c) All three            (d) None

7. With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
1. It is a song and dance performance.
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1, 2 and 3           B. 1 and 3 only           C. 2 and 3 only        D.  1 only
 
 
8. Imphal valley of Manipur is an important centre of ________ craft. (SSC MTS 2021)
A. Kauna        B. Godna          C. Butta           D. Mirijims
 
 
9. 'Imphal Basin' surrounded by Manipur hills is a fine example of  (UPPSC Civil Service 2019)
A. Lacustrine plain        B. Loess plain        C.  Glacial plain       D. Alluvial plain
 
 
10. Consider the following pairs:
1. Dampa Tiger Reserve                 Mizoram
2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary          Sikkim
3. Saramati Peak                            Nagaland
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (UPSC 2014) 
A. 1 only        B. 2 and 3 only          C. 1 and 3 only        D. 1, 2 and 3
 
 
11. Which two of the following are correctly matched?  (UPPSC Combined State Exam 2022)
Tribe                  State
1. Kharia           Odisha
2. Kuki              Uttar Pradesh
3. Yanadi           Rajasthan
4. Paliyan         Tamil Nadu
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
A. 3 and 4       B. 1 and 4       C.  2 and 3         D. 1 and 2
 
 
12. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? (UPPSC BEO 2020)
(Revolts)                             (Years)
A. Neel Rebellion               1859-60
B. Jaintia Rebellion            1860-63
C. Kuki Rebellion              1860-90
D. Kuka Revolt                  1870-72
1. ​Neel Rebellion          2. Kuki Revellion        3. Kuka Revolt          4. Jaintiya Rebellion
 
Answers: 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-A, 5-A, 6-D, 7-B, 8-A, 9-A, 10-C, 11-B, 12-2
 
For Mains:
1. Suppose the Government of India is thinking of constructing a dam in a mountain valley bound by forests and inhabited by ethnic communities. What rational policy should it resort to in dealing with unforeseen contingencies? [UPSC 2018]
2. What are the two major legal initiatives by the State since Independence addressing discrimination against Scheduled Tribes (STs)? (UPSC 2017)
Source: The Indian Express
 

UNLAWFUL ACTIVITIES (PREVENTION) ACT (UAPA)

 
 
 
1. Context
 
 
The Supreme Court asked the Director of the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) to appoint a board of doctors to examine NewsClick founder Prabir Purkayastha, a septuagenarian journalist lodged in Tihar Jail under the draconian Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA), to verify his health status
 
 
2. About Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA)
 

The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) is an Indian law that was enacted in 1967 to effectively prevent unlawful activities that pose a threat to the sovereignty and integrity of India.

Key highlights of the UAPA

  • Objective: The primary objective of the UAPA is to provide law enforcement agencies with effective tools to combat terrorism and other activities that threaten the security of the nation.
  • Definition of Unlawful Activities: The act defines unlawful activities to include actions that intend to or support the cession of a part of the territory of India or disrupt the sovereignty and integrity of the country.
  • Powers of Designation: The government has the authority to designate an organization as a terrorist organization if it believes that such an organization is involved in terrorism. This designation has significant legal consequences, including the freezing of assets.
  • Powers of Arrest and Detention: The UAPA provides law enforcement agencies with powers of arrest and detention to prevent individuals from engaging in unlawful activities. The act allows for preventive detention to curb potential threats before they materialise.
  • Banning of Terrorist Organizations: The government can proscribe organizations as terrorist organizations, making their activities illegal. This includes banning these organisations, freezing their assets, and taking other measures to curb their operations.
  • Admissibility of Confessions: The UAPA allows for confessions made to police officers to be admissible in court, subject to certain safeguards. This provision has been a point of contention, with concerns about potential misuse and coercion.
  • Designation of Individuals as Terrorists: In addition to organizations, the UAPA allows the government to designate individuals as terrorists. This designation carries legal consequences, including restrictions on travel and freezing of assets.
  • Amendments and Stringency: Over the years, the UAPA has undergone several amendments to strengthen its provisions and make it more effective in dealing with emerging threats. However, these amendments have also been criticized for potential violations of civil liberties.
  • International Cooperation: The UAPA allows for cooperation with foreign countries in matters related to the prevention of unlawful activities. This includes extradition of individuals involved in such activities.
 

3. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and Human Rights

 

The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and human rights lie in the impact the act can have on various fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India and international human rights standards.

The key points connecting the UAPA and human rights:

  • The UAPA allows for preventive detention, which means individuals can be detained without formal charges based on suspicions of involvement in unlawful activities. This raises concerns about the right to liberty, as individuals may be deprived of their freedom without the presumption of innocence until proven guilty.
  • The admissibility of confessions made to police officers under the UAPA raises issues related to the right against self-incrimination. There is a risk that such confessions might be obtained under duress or coercion, compromising the fairness of legal proceedings.
  • Designating individuals as terrorists and proscribing organizations without due process may impinge on the right to a fair trial. This includes the right to be informed of charges, the right to legal representation, and the right to present a defense.
  • The UAPA provides authorities with the power to proscribe organizations as terrorist organizations, limiting their activities. Critics argue that this may infringe upon the right to freedom of association, particularly when such designations are made without sufficient evidence or proper legal procedures.
  • The potential for misuse of the UAPA to target individuals or organizations critical of the government raises concerns about freedom of expression. If the act is used to suppress dissent or stifle legitimate political or social activities, it can undermine this fundamental right.
  • The UAPA grants authorities the power to intercept communications and conduct surveillance on individuals suspected of engaging in unlawful activities. This raises concerns about the right to privacy, as individuals may be subjected to intrusive surveillance without adequate safeguards.
  • Human rights standards require that any restrictions on rights, such as those imposed by the UAPA, must be proportionate and necessary for achieving a legitimate aim. Critics argue that the broad scope of the UAPA may lead to disproportionate measures that unduly restrict individual rights.
  • The UAPA's compatibility with international human rights standards, including the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR), is a critical point of consideration. Ensuring that the act aligns with these standards is essential to upholding human rights principles.
 

4. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and Article 22 of the Constitution

 

The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and Article 22 of the Indian Constitution lie in how the UAPA's provisions for arrest and detention intersect with the constitutional safeguards provided under Article 22. 

  • Article 22 provides certain protections to individuals who are arrested or detained. It outlines the rights of arrested individuals, emphasizing safeguards to prevent arbitrary or unlawful detention.
  • Article 22(1) states that every person who is arrested and detained shall be informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest. This provision ensures that individuals are aware of the reasons behind their arrest, preventing arbitrary or secret detentions.
  • Article 22(1) also guarantees the right of an arrested person to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of their choice. This ensures that individuals have access to legal assistance during the legal process, contributing to a fair and just legal system.
  • The UAPA includes provisions for preventive detention, allowing authorities to detain individuals to prevent them from committing certain offences. However, Article 22(4) allows preventive detention only under specific circumstances, and certain safeguards must be followed, such as providing the detenu with the grounds for detention and an opportunity to make a representation against the detention.
  • Article 22(4) further mandates that a person detained under a law providing for preventive detention must be afforded the earliest opportunity to make a representation against the detention. Additionally, the case of every person detained is required to be placed before an advisory board within three months.
  • The UAPA allows for confessions made to police officers to be admissible in court, subject to certain safeguards. However, this provision has been a point of concern concerning Article 22, as confessions obtained under duress or coercion may violate the right against self-incrimination.
  • Article 22(2) ensures the right to be brought before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours of arrest, excluding the time necessary for the journey. This provision aims to prevent prolonged detention without judicial oversight and contributes to the right to a speedy trial.
 
 
For Prelims: Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, Article 22, Terrorism
For Mains: 
1. Discuss the key provisions of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and analyze how they may impact fundamental human rights. Elaborate on the balance between national security concerns and the protection of individual rights. (250 Words)

 

Previous Year Questions

1. Under Article 22 of the Constitution of India, with the exception of certain provisions stated there in, what is the maximum period for detention of a person under preventive detention? (MPSC 2014)

A. 2 months       B. 3 months         C. 4 months           D. 6 months

 

2. Article 22 of the Constitution ensures (CTET 2016)

A. Right not to be ill-treated during arrest or while in custody

B. Right to Constitutional Remedies

C. Right against Exploitation

D. Right to Education

Answers: 1-B, 2-A

Mains

1. Indian government has recently strengthed the anti-terrorism laws by amending the Unlawful Activities(Prevention) Act, (UAPA), 1967 and the NIA Act. Analyze the changes in the context of prevailing security environment while discussing scope and reasons for opposing the UAPA by human rights organizations. (UPSC 2019)

Source: The Indian Express

MICRO SMALL MEDIUM ENTERPRISES (MSME)

 
 
 
1. Context
Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Tuesday underlined the importance of micro, small and medium enterprises’ (MSME) sector focusing on quality and durability to become a strong part of the global supply chain.
 
2. Definition of 'MSME'
Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) are businesses that are characterized by their relatively small size in terms of employees, assets, and revenue. These enterprises play a crucial role in economies around the world, contributing to employment generation, economic growth, and innovation. The definitions of MSMEs can vary from country to country, but there are general guidelines provided by international organizations like the World Bank and the United Nations.

The definition of MSME varies from country to country. In India, an MSME is defined as a business with:

  • Micro enterprise: Up to 10 employees and an investment of up to INR 1 crore (approximately USD 130,000)
  • Small enterprise: Up to 50 employees and an investment of up to INR 10 crore (approximately USD 1.3 million)
  • Medium enterprise: Up to 200 employees and an investment of up to INR 50 crore (approximately USD 6.5 million)
3. Importance of MSME's

The importance of MSMEs in an economy includes:

  • Employment Generation: MSMEs are significant contributors to employment, especially in economies with limited opportunities for large-scale industrial employment.

  • Local Economic Development: MSMEs often operate at a local level, contributing to the development of local communities and economies.

  • Innovation and Entrepreneurship: Many innovative ideas and entrepreneurial ventures start as MSMEs. They have the flexibility to adapt quickly to changing market demands and experiment with new business models.

  • Diversity and Resilience: A diverse ecosystem of MSMEs can contribute to a more resilient economy by reducing dependence on a few large corporations.

  • Contributions to GDP: The combined contributions of MSMEs to a country's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) can be significant, even if individual businesses are relatively small.

4. New Criteria for MSME's

The new criteria for the classification of micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs) in India was notified by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) on June 1, 2020. The new criteria are based on the investment in plant and machinery or equipment and the annual turnover of the enterprise.

The following are the new criteria for the classification of MSMEs:

  • Micro enterprise: An enterprise with:
    • Investment in plant and machinery or equipment not more than Rs.1 crore (approximately USD 130,000)
    • Annual turnover not more than Rs. 5 crore (approximately USD 650,000)
  • Small enterprise: An enterprise with:
    • Investment in plant and machinery or equipment not more than Rs.10 crore (approximately USD 1.3 million)
    • Annual turnover not more than Rs. 50 crore (approximately USD 6.5 million)
  • Medium enterprise: An enterprise with:
    • Investment in plant and machinery or equipment not more than Rs.50 crore (approximately USD 6.5 million)
    • Annual turnover not more than Rs. 250 crore (approximately USD 3.25 million)
5. Challenges faced by MSME's

Micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) play a vital role in the Indian economy, accounting for over 90% of all enterprises and employing over 40% of the workforce. However, MSMEs face a number of challenges, including:

  • Access to finance: MSMEs often find it difficult to obtain loans from banks and other financial institutions due to their lack of collateral and track record. This can make it difficult for them to expand their businesses or invest in new technologies.
  • Lack of skills: MSMEs often lack the skills and knowledge needed to compete in the global market. This can make it difficult for them to develop new products and services, or to adopt new technologies.
  • Competition from large businesses: MSMEs often face competition from large businesses, which have more resources and economies of scale. This can make it difficult for MSMEs to compete on price or quality.
  • Bureaucracy: MSMEs often face a number of bureaucratic hurdles, such as obtaining licenses and permits. This can be time-consuming and costly, and can discourage entrepreneurs from starting or expanding their businesses.
  • Infrastructure constraints: MSMEs often face infrastructure constraints, such as poor roads and electricity supply. This can make it difficult for them to transport their goods and services, or to operate their businesses efficiently.
  • Unstable government policies: MSMEs are often affected by unstable government policies, such as changes in tax rates or import duties. This can make it difficult for them to plan for the future and make investment decisions.
6. Government Schmes for MSME's
 

Here are some of the prominent schemes and programs for MSMEs by the Union Government of India:

  1. Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency (MUDRA) Yojana:

    • MUDRA Yojana aims to provide financial support to small and micro enterprises by offering loans through various financial institutions. It consists of three categories: Shishu, Kishor, and Tarun, based on the loan amount.

  2. Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY):

    • PMMY is a scheme to provide financial assistance for the establishment, expansion, and modernization of MSMEs. It offers loans without collateral security up to a certain limit.

  3. Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme (CLCSS):

    • CLCSS provides capital subsidy to MSMEs for technology upgradation, modernization, and replacement of their plant and machinery to improve competitiveness.

  4. Zero Defect Zero Effect (ZED) Certification Scheme:

    • ZED certification encourages MSMEs to adopt best practices and quality standards to enhance product quality while minimizing environmental impact.

  5. Make in India Initiative:

    • The Make in India campaign encourages domestic and foreign companies to manufacture products in India, fostering the growth of the manufacturing sector and MSMEs.

  6. Stand Up India Scheme:

    • This scheme aims to promote entrepreneurship among women and Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe communities by providing loans for starting new enterprises.

  7. Technology Upgradation Support for MSMEs (TEQUP):

    • TEQUP focuses on supporting MSMEs in adopting modern technology and upgrading their production processes to improve quality and competitiveness.

  8. National Manufacturing Competitiveness Programme (NMCP):

    • NMCP includes various components such as Lean Manufacturing Competitiveness Scheme, Design Clinic Scheme, and more, aimed at enhancing the competitiveness of the manufacturing sector, including MSMEs.

  9. Entrepreneurial and Managerial Development of SMEs (EMD-SME):

    • EMD-SME focuses on providing training, capacity-building, and skill development to entrepreneurs and managers of MSMEs.

  10. Skill India Initiative:

    • While not exclusively for MSMEs, the Skill India program aims to provide skill training to individuals, including those in the MSME sector, to improve employability and entrepreneurship.

  11. Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) Scheme:

    • The EPCG scheme allows MSMEs to import capital goods for the purpose of upgrading technology and enhancing export competitiveness with certain duty benefits.

  12. Udyog Aadhaar Registration:

    • The Udyog Aadhaar registration process simplifies the process of registering and obtaining various benefits for MSMEs, such as easier access to credit and government schemes.
7. Way forward
Addressing these challenges often requires a combination of government support, industry initiatives, access to finance, skill development programs, technology adoption, networking opportunities, and tailored solutions that take into account the unique needs of MSMEs.
 

Previous year Questions

1. Consider the following statements with reference to India: (UPSC 2023)
1. According to the 'Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006', the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
 
2. Which of the following can aid in furthering the Government's objective of inclusive growth? (UPSC 2011)
1. Promoting Self-Help Groups
2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
3. Implementing the Right to Education Act
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
 Source: The Hindu

REPRESENTATIVE CONCENTRATION PATHWAYS (RCP)

 
 
 
1. Context
 
There is no dearth of reports highlighting the consequences of climate change, including droughts, water scarcity, severe wildfires, rising sea levels, etc. Despite that, there are many myths and a lot of confusion around the subject. In this series of explainers, we answer some of the most fundamental questions about climate change, the science behind it, and its impact.
 
2.What are emission scenarios?
  • In essence, emission scenarios depict the trajectories of greenhouse gas and aerosol emissions resulting from human activities over time. These scenarios are utilized by scientists in climate models to predict future global temperatures and sea levels.
  • The most recent method for establishing emission scenarios is the Representative Concentration Pathways (RCPs).
  • According to a report from the UK’s Meteorological Office, RCPs define concentrations of greenhouse gases leading to a specified increase in total radiative forcing by 2100 compared to pre-industrial levels.
  • Total radiative forcing denotes the disparity between incoming and outgoing energy in the Earth's atmosphere.
  • The current imbalance, where more energy enters than leaves due to heightened levels of greenhouse gases and aerosols, contributes to global warming. Radiative forcing is measured in watts per square meter.
  • The four pathways are RCP8.5, RCP6, RCP4.5, and RCP2.6 (also known as RCP3PD, with 'PD' indicating Peak and Decline). These numerical values indicate the anticipated change in radiative forcing from 1750 to 2100.
  • For instance, RCP4.5 signifies a 4.5 watts per square meter increase in radiative forcing between 1750 and 2100.
  • The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) adopts 1750 as the baseline, preceding the Industrial Revolution when radiative forcing was relatively stable.
  • A higher forcing value implies increased concentrations of greenhouse gases and pollutants, resulting in more substantial global warming and a heightened impact of climate change
Source: Wikkicommons
 
3.What are the different RCP warming levels?

Let's begin with RCP2.6, which envisions an additional radiative forcing of only 2.6 watts per square meter by the close of the 21st Century. This represents the most optimistic outlook, characterized by a significant reduction in greenhouse gas concentrations and the implementation of rigorous mitigation measures. Also referred to as RCP3PD, this scenario sees emissions peaking around 2050 and subsequently decreasing. Consequently, the global average temperature is projected to rise by 1.6 degrees Celsius compared to pre-industrial levels.

Moving on to RCP4.5 and RCP6, these scenarios fall into intermediate ranges. In RCP4.5, the global average temperature is anticipated to increase by 2.4 degrees Celsius. For RCP6, this figure rises to 2.8 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels

 

4. Way Forward

The worst case scenario is RCP8.5, where the concentration of greenhouse gases and other pollutants will be three times more than the present. In this case, the temperature would rise to 4.3 degree Celsius by 2100

 

Source: Indianexpress

RAJYA SABHA ELECTIONS

 
 
 
1. Context
 
Mock voting, dinners and back-channel dialogue, a complaint to the Election Commission (EC), and legislators sequestered in a hotel. The stage is set for a high-octane Rajya Sabha election battle in Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, and Himachal Pradesh. 
 
 
2. The procedure of Nomination and Election in the Rajya Sabha

The Rajya Sabha, or the Council of States, is the upper house of India's Parliament. It is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not directly elected by the people; they are either nominated by the President of India or elected by the members of the State Legislative Assemblies. The procedure for nomination and election in the Rajya Sabha is as follows:

  • The President of India can nominate up to 12 members to the Rajya Sabha who have special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, or social service. These nominations are made on the advice of the Prime Minister.
  • The remaining members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the members of the State Legislative Assemblies. Each state is allocated a certain number of seats in the Rajya Sabha based on its population. The members of the Legislative Assembly vote to elect representatives to fill these seats.
  • If a vacancy arises in the Rajya Sabha due to resignation, death, or disqualification of a member, it is filled through a by-election or a nomination, depending on the circumstances.
  • Members of the Rajya Sabha serve a term of six years, and one-third of the members retire every two years. This ensures that the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and that it is not dissolved at the same time as the Lok Sabha, or the lower house of Parliament.
  • To be eligible for membership in the Rajya Sabha, a person must be a citizen of India, at least 30 years old, and possess other qualifications as prescribed by Parliament. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not subject to any territorial representation.
  • A person can be disqualified from being a member of the Rajya Sabha if they hold an office of profit under the Government of India or any state government if they are of unsound mind, if they are an undischarged insolvent, or if they are disqualified by any law made by Parliament.
  • Members of the Rajya Sabha enjoy certain privileges and immunities, such as freedom of speech and debate, immunity from civil and criminal proceedings for anything said or done in the course of their duties, and the right to participate in the proceedings of the House.
  • The Rajya Sabha plays a crucial role in the legislative process by reviewing and amending bills passed by the Lok Sabha, initiating legislation, and scrutinizing the work of the government. It also has the power to impeach the President of India and to remove judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
  • The Rajya Sabha is composed of 245 members, of which 233 are elected by the members of the State Legislative Assemblies and 12 are nominated by the President of India.
 
3. Members of Rajya Sabha-Eligibility, Qualification (Article 84), Disqualification (Article 102)

The eligibility, qualifications, and disqualifications of members of the Rajya Sabha as outlined in the Indian Constitution

Eligibility Criteria (Article 84)

  1. Citizenship: A person must be a citizen of India to be eligible for membership in the Rajya Sabha.
  2. Age: The minimum age required for a person to become a member of the Rajya Sabha is 30 years.
  3. Other Qualifications: The person must possess other qualifications as prescribed by Parliament. While the Constitution does not specify these qualifications, they may include factors such as educational background, professional experience, or contributions to public service.

Qualifications (Article 84)

The Constitution of India doesn't explicitly list qualifications for membership in the Rajya Sabha. It leaves this matter to be determined by Parliament. Consequently, the Parliament has enacted the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which lays down the qualifications for membership in both the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.

According to the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person is qualified to be chosen as a member of the Rajya Sabha if they:

  1. Are registered as an elector for any parliamentary constituency.
  2. Are at least 30 years of age.
  3. Possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed on that behalf by or under any law made by Parliament.

Disqualifications (Article 102)

Article 102 of the Indian Constitution lays down the grounds for disqualification of a member of either House of Parliament, which includes the Rajya Sabha. A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as and for being a member of the Rajya Sabha if they:

  1. Hold an office of profit under the Government of India or any State Government other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder.
  2. Are of unsound mind and have been so declared by a competent court.
  3. Are an undischarged insolvent.
  4. Have voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or have voluntarily acquired such citizenship by means unknown to the law of India.
  5. Are disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament.

These provisions ensure that members of the Rajya Sabha are qualified individuals who are dedicated to serving the interests of the nation and its people, and they prevent conflicts of interest or undue influence in the legislative process.

 

4. Article 80 of the Constitution of India

Article 80 of the Constitution of India pertains to the composition of the Council of States, commonly known as the Rajya Sabha, which is the upper house of the Indian Parliament. 

  1. Composition of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha): Article 80 specifies that the Rajya Sabha shall consist of not more than 250 members, of whom:

    • Not more than 238 members shall be representatives of the States and of the Union territories.
    • Not more than 12 members shall be nominated by the President of India.
  2. Representation of States and Union territories: The members representing the States and Union territories in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the State or Union territory, as per the system of proportional representation using the single transferable vote.
  3. Allocation of Seats: The allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to each State and Union territory is determined by the Parliament through laws made by it.
  4. Nomination by the President: The President of India has the power to nominate members to the Rajya Sabha, including persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service. These nominated members are appointed by the provisions made by Parliament.
  5. Representation of Union territories: The representation of Union territories in the Rajya Sabha is provided to ensure their participation in the legislative process, despite not having a Legislative Assembly of their own.
  6. Term of Office: The term of office for members of the Rajya Sabha is six years. However, one-third of the members retire every two years, ensuring continuity in the functioning of the House.

 

5. Special Powers of Rajya Sabha (Article 249 and Article 312)

Article 249 and Article 312 of the Indian Constitution confer special powers upon the Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Parliament of India, in certain circumstances. These articles provide for the Rajya Sabha to play a significant role in the legislative process, especially concerning the creation of new All India Services and the enactment of laws on matters in the State List.

  • Article 249: This article empowers the Rajya Sabha to legislate on matters enumerated in the State List (List II of the Seventh Schedule) of the Constitution. The Rajya Sabha can do so if it is in the national interest and if the Lok Sabha has passed a resolution to that effect by a two-thirds majority. The resolution must declare that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on the specified matter.
  • Article 312: This article provides for the creation of new All India Services (AIS) by Parliament if it is deemed necessary. The Rajya Sabha plays a crucial role in this process. If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to create a new AIS, then Parliament can create such a service. The resolution must be supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.

 

6. The Way Forward

India can ensure that Rajya Sabha elections are conducted with integrity, transparency, and inclusivity, thereby fortifying the foundation of its democratic institutions and advancing the nation's progress towards equitable and effective governance.

 

For Prelims: Rajya Sabha, Parliament, Article 249, Article 312, Special Provisions, Article 84, Article 102

For Mains: 
1. Explain the procedure of nomination and election in the Rajya Sabha. How are the members of the Rajya Sabha chosen, and what are the criteria for their eligibility? (250 Words)
2.  Critically evaluate the role of the Rajya Sabha in the Indian parliamentary system. Identify any challenges faced by the house and suggest potential reforms.  (250 Words)
 
 

Previous Year Questions

1. Consider the following statements: 
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts (UPSC 2013)
1. consists of not more than 25 members of the Lok Sabha.
2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government.
3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only     B. 2 and 3 only      C. 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
 
2. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc., conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation? (UPSC 2018)
A. Committee on Government Assurances
B. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
C. Rules Committee
D. Business Advisory Committee
 
 
3. According to the Representation of the People Act, 1951, in the event of a person being elected to both houses of Parliament, he has to notify within ______ days in which house he intends to function. (Delhi Police Constable 2020) 
A. 22       B. 10        C.  20            D. 15
 

4. Regarding Money bill, Which of the following statements is not correct? (UPSC 2018)

A. A bill shall be deemed to be a money bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
B. A Money bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India
C. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India
D. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India

Answer: 1-B, 2-B, 3-B, 4-C

Source: The Indian Express

SCIENCE AND SUSTAINABLE FUNDING

 
 
 
 
1. Context
 
 
The theme for the 2024 National Science Day in India, celebrated every February 28th, is "Science for Sustainable Development." Science and technology advancements play pivotal roles in India's journey towards achieving developed country status by 2047. India is dedicated to this progress through sustainable means, as demonstrated by its commitments under the Paris Agreement, active participation in global forums for sustainable development, and the emphasis on sustainability in this year's Science Day theme. The importance of science in driving sustainable development is undeniable, but a crucial aspect often overlooked is the necessity for consistent and sustainable funding to enable science to truly transform India.

 

2. India's Research and Development (R&D) Expenditure

  • Funding for fundamental research in India is among the world's lowest, despite the country's high science and technology ambitions.
  • India's R&D expenditure has declined from 0.8% of GDP in 2008-2009 to 0.64% currently. This decrease is concerning, especially as government agencies have called for doubling this spending.
  • The 2013 Science, Technology, and Innovation Policy aimed to increase Gross Expenditure on R&D (GERD) to 2% of GDP, a goal reiterated in the 2017-2018 Economic Survey.
  • However, the reasons for the reduction in R&D spending, despite the government's acknowledgement of the need to increase it, are not clear. This may be due to a lack of coordination between government agencies and the need for stronger political will to prioritize R&D expenses.
  • Most developed countries spend between 2% and 4% of their respective GDPs on R&D. In 2021, OECD member countries averaged 2.7% of their GDP on R&D.
  • The U.S. and the U.K. have consistently spent more than 2% of their GDPs on R&D for the past decade.
  • Many experts have called for India to spend at least 1%, but ideally, 3%, of its GDP annually on R&D until 2047 for science to have a meaningful impact on development.

 

3. Enhancing Research and Development (R&D) Spending in India

  • Science and technology require consistent, substantial investment to yield meaningful results.
  • For India to achieve its goal of becoming a developed nation, it must invest more in R&D than developed countries do to maintain their status. This underscores the importance of spending at least 3% of GDP on R&D annually until 2047.
  • India's current R&D spending is insufficient, and its reliance on public funds indicates an immature financing system and a weak domestic market.
  • In 2020-2021, the private sector contributed only 36.4% of the Gross Expenditure on R&D (GERD), while the Union government's share was 43.7%.
  • State governments (6.7%), higher education (8.8%), and the public sector industry (4.4%) were the other major contributors.
  • In economically developed countries, the private sector typically accounts for 70% of R&D investment.
  • However, the private sector's reluctance to invest in India may be attributed to several factors, including the country's poor capacity to evaluate R&D, ambiguous regulatory roadmaps that can deter investors, lack of clear exit options for investors in sectors like biotechnology, and concerns about intellectual property rights theft.
  • The Anusandhan National Research Foundation was established to address some of these financial issues, but its implementation has been delayed.
  • The government's annual budget of ₹2,000 crore for its implementation was reduced to ₹258 crores this year.
  • Strategies for raising the remaining ₹7,200 crore from the private sector have not been clarified.
  • Therefore, there is a pressing need to determine the overall quantum of R&D funding and its primary sources, given India's ambition to become a developed country by 2047.

4. Optimizing R&D Budget Utilization in India

  • While the need for India to double its R&D investment has been emphasized, the effectiveness of the allocated funds is often overlooked.
  • The Union Ministry of Science and Technology has consistently under-utilized its budget. Therefore, while calls for increased funding are valid, improved budget utilization is also essential to drive scientific outcomes.
  • In 2022-2023, the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) utilized 72% of its estimated budget allocation on centrally sponsored schemes/projects, while the Department of Science and Technology (DST) utilized only 61%.
  • The Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR), which receives the lowest allocation for centrally sponsored schemes, spent 69% of its allocation.
  • This underutilization is not an isolated incident but has been consistently observed over several years.
  • This trend is not unique to the Science Ministry; India generally under-spends R&D, and there would likely be a significant impact if the allocated funds were spent optimally.
  • The reasons for under-utilization, like under-allocation, are unclear and may indicate cumbersome bureaucratic processes for approving disbursements, a lack of capacity to evaluate projects or clear utilization certificates, a lack of prioritization for science funding by the Ministry of Finance, or inadequate planning or implementation strategies for the requested funds by the Ministry of Science and Technology.
  • The lack of capacity also leads to delays in grant and salary disbursements. Most of these issues can be addressed by enhancing capacity within different governmental agencies.
 

5. Sustainable Funding for Research and Development

  • In the latest budget, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman indicated a desire for increased private sector contributions to R&D expenditure.
  • Addressing the under-spending and under-utilization of funds earmarked for R&D is a crucial first step. This requires political prioritization of R&D spending and recognition of its importance in India's growth journey.
  • This prioritization must occur not only within concerned ministries but also at the Ministry of Finance, which disburses the funds. Incentives for private investment, such as the relaxation of foreign direct investments, tax rebates, and clear regulatory roadmaps for products, can help build investor confidence.
  • Additionally, India needs bureaucratic capacity to evaluate science projects and monitor utilization after allocations.
  • Building this capacity is essential for India to become a scientific power by 2047.
  • As we celebrate science for sustainable development this National Science Day, let's remember that sustainable funding for science is crucial.
 
6. The Way Forward
 
Celebrating science for sustainable development goes hand-in-hand with advocating for sustainable funding for science. A multi-pronged approach addressing underutilization, diversification of funding sources, and capacity building is crucial for India to unlock its full scientific potential and achieve its sustainable development goals.
 
 
 
For Prelims: National Science Day, R& W, sustainable development goals, Department of Scientific and Industrial Research, Department of Science and Technology
For Mains: 
1. Discuss the importance of sustainable funding for research and development in India, especially in the context of the country's ambition to become a developed nation by 2047. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
1. In the context of space technology, what is "Bhuvan", recently in the news?  (UPSC 2010) 
A. A mini satellite, launched by ISRO for promoting the distance educa­tion in India
B. The name given to the next Moon Impact Probe, for Chandrayan-II
C. A geoportal of ISRO with 3 D imaging capabilities of India
D. A space telescope developed by India
 

2. What will be India's second moon mission by ISRO? (Maharashtra Talathi  2019) 

A. Chandrayaan 1          B. Chandrayaan 1.A       C. Chandrayaan 2          D. Chandrayaan 3

 

3. Chandrayaan - 2 was launched from which of the following states by ISRO? (DSSSB LDC 2019) 

A. Maharashtra           B.  Rajasthan             C.  Kerala             D.  Andhra Pradesh

 

4. The phases of the moon as we see from the Earth are due to changing relative positions of the sun, the earth and the moon. Which of the following statements is true?  (CTET  2022)
 
A. on a full moon day, the earth comes between the sun and the moon
B. on a new moon day, the moon is in between the earth and the sun
C. on a full moon day, the moon is in between the earth and the sun
D. on a new moon day, the earth is between the sun and the moon.
E. on a new moon day, the sun is between the moon and the earth

 1. A, B          2.  B, C          3. C, D          4. A, E

 

5. ISRO is related to:  (SSC JE EE  2020) 

A. space research          B. agricultural research           C. seed research        D. marine research

 

6. “The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to (UPSC 2020) 

A. Voyager-2          B. New Horizons          C. LISA Pathfinder          D. Evolved LISA

 

7. With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2018)
1. PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four- staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 only
 
Answers: 1-C, 2-C, 3-D, 4-1, 5-A, 6-D, 7-A

Mains

1. India has achieved remarkable successes in unmanned space missions including the Chandrayaan and Mars Orbiter Mission, but has not ventured into manned space missions, both in terms of technology and logistics? Explain critically (UPSC 2017)

2. Discuss India’s achievements in the field of Space Science and Technology. How the application of this technology has helped India in its socio-economic development? (UPSC 2016)
 
Source: The Hindu
 
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