Current Affair

Back
DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 26 JANUARY 2026

FREE TRADE AGREEMENT 

1. Context

India and the European Union are giving a “fractured world” an alternative, said European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen, even as the EU trade commissioner announced that negotiations for a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) are “nearing conclusion” at the beginning of the EU delegation’s visit to Delhi.
 

2. About the Free Trade Agreement

  • A Free Trade Agreement (FTA) is an agreement between two or more countries to reduce or eliminate barriers to trade, such as tariffs, quotas, and subsidies.
  • FTAs can also include provisions on other issues, such as investment, intellectual property, and labour standards.
  • The goal of an FTA is to promote trade and economic growth between the signatory countries.
  • By reducing or eliminating trade barriers, FTAs can make it easier for businesses to export their goods and services to other countries, which can lead to increased production, employment, and innovation.

3. Types of Free Trade Agreement

  • Bilateral Free Trade Agreement (BFTA) involves two countries, aiming to promote trade and eliminate tariffs on goods and services between them.  It establishes a direct trade relationship, allowing for a more focused and tailored agreement between the two nations.
  • Multilateral Free Trade Agreement (MFTA) Involving three or more countries, an MFTA seeks to create a comprehensive trade bloc, promoting economic integration on a larger scale. It requires coordination among multiple parties, addressing diverse economic interests and fostering a broader regional economic landscape.
  • Regional Free Trade Agreement (RFTA) involves countries within a specific geographic region, aiming to enhance economic cooperation and integration within that particular area. It focuses on addressing regional economic challenges and fostering collaboration among neighbouring nations.
  • Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) involves a reciprocal reduction of tariffs and trade barriers between participating countries, granting preferential treatment to each other's goods and services. It allows countries to enjoy trading advantages with specific partners while maintaining autonomy in their trade policies with non-participating nations.
  • Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is a broad and advanced form of FTA that goes beyond traditional trade barriers, encompassing various economic aspects such as investment, intellectual property, and services. It aims for a more comprehensive economic partnership, encouraging deeper integration and collaboration between participating countries.
  • Customs Union While not strictly an FTA, a Customs Union involves the elimination of tariffs among member countries and the establishment of a common external tariff against non-member nations. It goes beyond standard FTAs by harmonizing external trade policies, creating a unified approach to trade with the rest of the world.
  • Free Trade Area (FTA) with Trade in Goods (TIG) and Trade in Services (TIS): Some FTAs specifically emphasize either trade in goods or trade in services, tailoring the agreement to the specific economic strengths and priorities of the participating countries. This approach allows nations to focus on areas where they have a comparative advantage, fostering specialization and efficiency.

4. India's Free Trade Agreements

India is a member of several free trade agreements (FTAs) and is currently negotiating others.  India's FTAs have helped to reduce trade barriers and promote trade and economic growth. They have also helped to attract foreign investment and create jobs. 

  • The South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was signed in 1995 by the seven countries of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). SAFTA aims to reduce or eliminate tariffs on trade between the member countries.
  • The India-Bangladesh FTA was signed in 2010 and came into force in 2011. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Sri Lanka FTA was signed in 1999 and came into force in 2000. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-ASEAN Free Trade Agreement was signed in 2002 and came into force in 2010. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Korea Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) was signed in 2010 and came into force in 2011. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement(CEPA) was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2023. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-UAE Comprehensive Partnership Agreement (CEPA) was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2022. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2022. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Malaysia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) was signed in 2010 and aims to enhance economic ties by addressing trade in goods and services, as well as investment and other areas of economic cooperation.
  • The India-Thailand Free Trade Agreement was signed in 2003 and focuses on reducing tariffs and promoting trade in goods and services between India and Thailand.
  • The India-Singapore Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) has been operational since 2005, this agreement covers trade in goods and services, as well as investment and intellectual property.
  • The India-Nepal Trade Treaty While not a comprehensive FTA, India and Nepal have a trade treaty that facilitates the exchange of goods between the two countries.
  • The India-Chile Preferential Trade Agreement was signed in 2006 and aims to enhance economic cooperation and reduce tariffs on certain products traded between India and Chile.

5India - UK Free Trade Agreement

5.1. Background

  • Both countries have agreed to avoid sensitive issues in the negotiations.
  • The interim (early harvest agreement) aims to achieve up to 65 per cent coverage for goods and up to 40 per cent coverage for services.
  • By the time the final agreement is inked, the coverage for goods is expected to go up to "90 plus a percentage" of goods.
  • India is also negotiating a similar early harvest agreement with Australia, which is supposed to set the stage for a long-pending Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement that both countries have been pursuing for nearly a decade.
  • While the commencement of negotiations does mark a step forward in the otherwise rigid stance adopted and when it comes to trade liberalisation, experts point to impediments and the potential for legal challenges going ahead.

5.2. GATT (General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs)

  • The exception to the rule is full-scale FTAs, subject to some conditions.
  • One rider, incorporated in Article XXIV.8 (b) of GATT, stipulates that a deal should aim to eliminate customs duties and other trade barriers on "Substantially all the trade" between the WTO member countries that are signatories to an FTA.
  • For this Agreement, a free-trade area shall be understood to mean a group of two or more customs territories in which the duties and other restrictive regulations of commerce are eliminated on substantially all the trade between the constituent territories in products originating in such territories.
  • It is often beneficial to negotiate the entire deal together, as an early harvest deal may reduce the incentive for one side to work towards a full FTA.
  • These agreements are not just about goods and services but also issues like investment.
  • If you are trying to weigh the costs and benefits, it is always better to have the larger picture in front of you.
  • In the case of the early harvest agreement inked with Thailand, automobile industry associations had complained that relaxations extended to Bangkok in the early harvest had reduced the incentive for Thailand to work towards a full FTA.
  • Early harvest agreements may serve the function of keeping trading partners interested as they promise some benefits without long delays, as India becomes known for long-drawn negotiations for FTAs.
  • Government emphasis on interim agreements may be tactical so that a deal may be achieved with minimum commitments and would allow for contentious issues to be resolved later.
 
For Prelims: Free Trade Agreement, India-U.K, Bilateral Free Trade Agreement, G-20 Summit, Agenda 2030, Covid-19 Pandemic, SAARC, General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs, Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement, Multilateral Free Trade Agreement, Regional Free Trade Agreement, Preferential Trade Agreement, Customs Union, 
For Mains: 
1. Evaluate the potential impact of the India-UK FTA on the Indian economy, considering both positive and negative aspects (250 Words)
2. Critically evaluate the significance of Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) in promoting trade and economic growth, considering their potential benefits and drawbacks. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. Consider the following countries:
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Which of the above are among the free-trade partners' of ASEAN? (UPSC 2018)
A. 1, 2, 4 and 5          B.  3, 4, 5 and 6      C.  1, 3, 4 and 5       D.  2, 3, 4 and 6
 
Answer: C
 

2. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if (UPSC 2018)

(a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
(b) Agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
(c) Poverty and unemployment increase.
(d) Imports grow faster than exports.

Answer: C

3. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following: (2010)

  1. Development of infrastructure facilities.
  2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources.
  3. Promotion of exports of services only.

Which of the above are the objectives of this Act?

(a) 1 and 2 only     (b) 3 only         (c) 2 and 3 only           (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

4. A “closed economy” is an economy in which (UPSC 2011)

(a) the money supply is fully controlled
(b) deficit financing takes place
(c) only exports take place
(d) neither exports nor imports take place

Answer: D

5. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only            (c) Both 1 and 2          (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
 
 Source: The Hindu
 

DIGITAL PERSONAL DATA PROTECTION RULES

 
 
 
1. Context
 
The Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) may shorten the timeline for Big Tech companies such as Meta, Google, and Amazon to comply with India’s Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 and other related rules to 12 months from the current 18 months, as the government looks at creating separate compliance regimes for large companies and startups
 
Article image
2. What do the DPDP Act and Rules do?
 
  • The Government of India issued the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Rules, 2025 on 14 November 2025, completing the implementation of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
  • With both the Act and Rules now in place, India has a comprehensive, citizen-oriented framework that balances personal data rights with legitimate data processing requirements.
  • Before finalising the Rules, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology sought inputs from the public. Consultations were organised across several major cities—Delhi, Mumbai, Guwahati, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bengaluru and Chennai—drawing participation from startups, MSMEs, industry associations, civil society organisations, and government bodies.
  • Citizens also contributed actively. Altogether, 6,915 suggestions and comments were submitted, significantly influencing the final version of the Rules.
  • The notification of these Rules establishes a practical, innovation-supportive data protection regime for the country. It promotes clarity, encourages adherence to the law, and enhances public confidence in India’s expanding digital landscape.
 
 
3. Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
 
 
  • The Digital Personal Data Protection Act was passed by Parliament on 11 August 2023, establishing a comprehensive legal structure for safeguarding digital personal information in India.
  • It outlines the responsibilities of organisations when they gather or process such data. The Act is built on the SARAL philosophy—Simple, Accessible, Rational and Actionable—using straightforward language and clear examples so that individuals and businesses can easily understand the requirements.
  • The Act is anchored in seven foundational principles: consent and transparency, limitation of purpose, minimal collection of data, accuracy, restricted data retention, strong security measures and accountability. These principles shape each step of data handling and ensure that personal information is processed only for legitimate and defined purposes.
  • A key highlight of the law is the establishment of the Data Protection Board of India, an autonomous authority responsible for monitoring compliance, investigating violations and ensuring that necessary corrective actions are taken.
  • The Board is central to protecting user rights and fostering confidence in the data protection framework
 

Key Terms under the DPDP Act, 2023

  • Data Fiduciary: An organisation that determines the purpose and means of processing personal data, either independently or jointly with others.

  • Data Principal: The person to whom the personal data belongs. For children, this includes a parent or authorised guardian. For individuals with disabilities who cannot act on their own, this extends to their lawful guardian.

  • Data Processor: Any entity that processes personal information on behalf of a Data Fiduciary.

  • Consent Manager: A platform that provides a unified, transparent interface through which Data Principals can grant, monitor, modify or withdraw consent.

  • Appellate Tribunal: The Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT), which reviews appeals against decisions made by the Data Protection Board

 
 
 
4. Overview of the Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025
 

The Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025 operationalise the DPDP Act, 2023, creating a practical and transparent system for safeguarding personal data in India’s rapidly growing digital landscape. These Rules place strong emphasis on citizen rights and responsible data handling by organisations. Their objective is to prevent misuse of personal information, minimise digital risks, and foster an environment that supports safe innovation—thereby strengthening trust in India’s digital economy.

To achieve these goals, the Rules lay down several key provisions:

  • A phased compliance period of 18 months has been introduced so organisations have adequate time to upgrade systems and adopt sound data-protection practices.
  • All Data Fiduciaries must issue a separate, easy-to-read consent notice clearly stating the specific purpose for which personal data is collected and processed.
  • Consent Managers—entities that help people manage their permissions—must operate as companies incorporated in India.
  • The Rules also define a clear and prompt procedure for reporting data breaches. In the event of a breach, the Data Fiduciary must immediately notify every affected person in simple language, outlining what occurred, potential consequences and the corrective measures taken. The communication must also include relevant contact details for assistance.
  • Each Data Fiduciary is required to provide accessible contact information for queries related to personal data—whether that is a designated officer or a Data Protection Officer. Significant Data Fiduciaries have additional responsibilities: they must conduct external audits, undertake impact assessments and implement stricter controls when using emerging or sensitive technologies.
  • They may also be required to comply with government directions regarding restricted data categories, including localisation requirements when necessary.
  • The Rules strengthen the rights granted under the Act. Individuals can request access to their personal information, corrections or updates, and deletion in permitted situations.
  • They may also authorize another person to exercise these rights on their behalf. Data Fiduciaries must respond to such requests within 90 days.
  • Additionally, the Rules provide for a fully digital Data Protection Board of India with four members. Citizens will be able to submit complaints online and track them through a dedicated website and mobile app, making grievance resolution faster and more efficient.
  • Appeals against the Board’s orders will be handled by the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT)
 
5. How the DPDP Rules Empower Individuals?
 
 

The DPDP framework puts citizens at the heart of India’s data protection regime. Its core purpose is to ensure that individuals have clear authority over their personal information and can trust that it is handled responsibly. The rules are drafted in simple, user-friendly language so people can easily understand their rights, while also ensuring that organisations remain accountable for how they manage personal data.

Key Rights and Safeguards Provided to Citizens:

  • Right to Give or Withhold Consent
    Individuals have the freedom to agree or refuse the use of their personal data. Consent must be informed, specific, and easy to comprehend, and it can be withdrawn at any point.
  • Right to Know How Data is Used
    People are entitled to know what information has been collected about them, the purpose of its collection, and the ways it is being processed. Organisations must share this information in a clear and straightforward format.
  • Right to Access Personal Data
    Any individual may request a copy of the personal data that a Data Fiduciary holds about them.
  • Right to Correct Personal Data
    Citizens can ask for corrections if their personal information is wrong, inaccurate, or incomplete.
  • Right to Update Personal Data
    Individuals may request updates when their details change—such as a new phone number or address.
  • Right to Delete Personal Data
    People have the option to seek erasure of their personal data under specific circumstances. The Data Fiduciary must review and act on such requests within the stipulated timeframe.
  • Right to Appoint a Representative
    Every person may nominate someone else to exercise their data rights on their behalf—useful during illness or other situations where they cannot act themselves.
  • Mandatory Response Within 90 Days
    Data Fiduciaries must respond to requests for access, correction, updating, or deletion within a maximum of ninety days, promoting timely redressal and accountability.
  • Protection in Case of Data Breaches
    If a data breach occurs, affected individuals must be informed promptly. The notification must explain the incident and outline the steps they can take to reduce any potential harm.
  • Clear Contact Point for Help
    Organisations must provide easily accessible contact details—either of a designated official or a Data Protection Officer—for queries or complaints related to personal data.
  • Extra Safeguards for Children
    Processing children’s personal data requires verifiable consent from a parent or guardian, except when the data is used for essential services like medical care, education or immediate safety.
 
6. How the DPDP Framework Works in Harmony with the RTI Act?
 
  • As the DPDP Act and its Rules strengthen citizens’ privacy protections, they also clarify how these enhanced rights coexist with the Right to Information (RTI) Act, which ensures public access to information.
  • The amendments made through the DPDP Act modify Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act in a manner that upholds both privacy and transparency without undermining either.
  • This change is consistent with the Supreme Court’s recognition of privacy as a fundamental right in the Puttaswamy judgment.
  • It aligns the RTI law with judicial reasoning that has, for years, applied reasonable limits to protect personal information.
  • By formally incorporating this approach into the statute, the amendment removes ambiguity and avoids any clash between the RTI Act’s transparency mandate and the privacy protections embedded in the DPDP framework.
  • Importantly, the updated provision does not prohibit the release of personal data. Instead, it requires authorities to make a careful, case-specific assessment before sharing such information, keeping the individual’s privacy interests in mind.
  • Meanwhile, Section 8(2) of the RTI Act remains unchanged. It empowers public authorities to disclose information whenever the public interest is compelling enough to outweigh potential harm to protected interests.
  • This ensures that the core purpose of the RTI Act—promoting openness, accountability and informed citizen participation—continues to shape how information requests are handled
 

 

For Prelims: Personality rights, Delhi High Court, Madras High Court, Right to property, trademark, right to privacy, Article 21, Copyright Act, 1957
For Mains:
1. Explain how can the legal framework for protecting personality rights in India be strengthened to better address the challenges of the digital age. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (UPSC 2021) 
A. Legal right available to citizens only
B. Legal right available to any person
C. Fundamental Right available, to citizens only
D. Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
Answer: B
 
2. In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999. The difference/differences between a "Trade Mark" and a Geographical Indication is/are (UPSC 2010)
1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company's right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community's right.
2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed.
3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods/products and handicrafts only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only          B. 1 and 2 only        C. 2 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: B
 
3. Which of the following statements regarding Article 21 of the Constitution of India is/ is correct?  (CDS GK 2017)
1. Article 21 is violated when under-trial prisoners are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite period.
2. Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not even the state has the authority to violate that right.
3. Under Article 21, the right of a woman to make reproductive choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2 and 3     B. 1 and 2 only     C. 1 and 3 only        D. 2 only
 
Answer: B
 
4. Article 21 of Indian Constitution secures: (OPSC OAS 2018)
A. Right to life only
B. Right to personal liberty only
C. Right to liberty and privacy
D. Right to life, personal liberty and right to privacy
 
Answer: D

5. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India? (UPSC 2021)

(a) Article 15
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 29

Answer: C

6. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement? (2018)

(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution.

(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV.

(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III.

(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution.

Answer: C

 
Source: The Hindu
 

GOVERNOR VS STATES

 
 
1. Context
 
There have been a series of issues in Opposition-ruled States with respect to the address by the Governor to the State legislature at the commencement of the first session of the year. This has raised constitutional and political questions about the Governor’s role in State legislature.
 
2. Appointment and qualification of the Governor
 
  • The Indian Constitution outlines the framework for appointing a Governor. According to Article 153, each state must have a Governor. Article 155 provides that the Governor is appointed by the President through an official warrant bearing the President's signature and seal.
  • As per Article 156, although the Governor typically serves a five-year term, they remain in office at the discretion of the President.
  • This means that the President can ask the Governor to resign before the term ends. However, since the President acts based on the counsel of the Prime Minister and the Union Cabinet, it is effectively the central government that controls both the appointment and removal of a Governor.
  • Articles 157 and 158 describe the eligibility criteria and terms for holding the office. The Governor must be an Indian citizen and at least 35 years old.
  • Additionally, the individual must not be a sitting member of either Parliament or any state legislature, and cannot hold any position that offers financial gain
 
3. Roles of Governor
 
  • The Constitution mandates that the Governor must generally act in accordance with the advice provided by the state's Council of Ministers. Article 163 clarifies this by stating that a Council of Ministers, led by the Chief Minister, shall assist and guide the Governor in carrying out his duties—except in cases where the Constitution allows the Governor to act independently at his discretion.
  • Furthermore, the Governor holds constitutional authority to summon, prorogue, or dissolve the State Legislative Assembly. However, these powers are to be exercised only after consulting the Council of Ministers.
  • In his role as the ceremonial head of the state, the Governor also holds several important responsibilities, such as appointing the Chief Minister, members of the Council of Ministers, the Advocate General, the State Election Commissioner, heads of state universities, and members and the Chairman of the State Public Service Commission, among others
Infographics
 
 
4. Recent judgments by top courts
 
 

The Constitution grants the Governor certain legislative powers, including the authority to approve or reject a Bill passed by both Houses of the State Legislature. Article 200 outlines the choices available to the Governor:

  • Approve the Bill,

  • Withhold approval,

  • Send it back to the Legislature for reconsideration (provided it is not a Money Bill), or

  • Forward the Bill to the President for a decision.

While the proviso to Article 200 mentions that the Governor should return the Bill "as soon as possible," it does not define a specific time frame, which has occasionally led to significant delays.

To address such delays, the Supreme Court recently issued clear, time-bound directions for Governors regarding action on Bills:

  • Assent must be given within one month,

  • The Governor cannot withhold assent against the advice of the Council of Ministers,

  • If returning the Bill, it must be done within three months,

  • If the Governor chooses to reserve the Bill for the President, this must also be done within three months, and

  • Should the Legislature pass the Bill again after reconsideration, the Governor is required to grant assent within one month.

 
 
5. Committees on the Governor's role
 

The powers, responsibilities, and overall role of the Governor have frequently come under review, drawing attention from both central government-appointed committees and the Supreme Court of India.

Starting with the Administrative Reforms Commission in 1969 and extending to the Punchhi Commission in 2007, numerous expert bodies set up over the years have proposed comprehensive reforms concerning various aspects of the Governor's office, including the method of appointment, scope of authority, duration of tenure, procedure for removal, and other related issues

The Sarkaria Commission, in its 1988 report on Centre-State relations, proposed reforms concerning the Governor's role, especially in the context of Articles 200 and 201 of the Constitution.

The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2001), chaired by M.N. Venkatachaliah and initiated during Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee’s tenure, noted that Governors often function as representatives of the Central Government, leading to perceptions of bias and political controversy in their decisions.

In 2007, the Punchhi Commission re-evaluated the Centre-State dynamic and recommended that a Governor should be appointed only after consulting the Chief Minister of the respective state. It also emphasized the importance of prompt action by the Governor on legislative bills.

Over time, the impartiality of the Governor’s office has been questioned, prompting judicial intervention. The Supreme Court has, through a series of landmark judgments, clarified the scope and limitations of the Governor’s powers:

  • Shamsher Singh vs State of Punjab (1974): The court ruled that the Governor must act based on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

  • Raghukul Tilak vs State of Haryana (1979): The judgment emphasized that Governors are not subordinate to the Centre, but occupy a vital constitutional role within the state.

  • S.R. Bommai vs Union of India (1994): A milestone ruling, it held that the Governor’s recommendation for imposing President’s Rule under Article 356 must be backed by a floor test, and such decisions are open to judicial review.

  • Rameshwar Prasad vs Union of India (2006): Addressing the dissolution of the Bihar Assembly, the Supreme Court stated that the Governor’s personal opinion cannot justify invoking President’s Rule in a state.

 

 

 

 

For Prelims: Governor, Center-state relations, Article 200

For Mains: 
1. In the context of recent disputes, examine the relationship between Governors appointed by the Centre and state governments led by opposition parties. How can this relationship be strengthened to ensure smooth functioning of the federal structure? (250 Words)
2. Explain the roles of the Governor and the President in the legislative process as outlined in the Constitution of India, focusing on their powers related to assenting to Bills passed by state legislatures. (250 Words)
3. Discuss Ethical Considerations and Constitutional Provisions Regarding Governor Running for Elections.  (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1.  With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements: ( UPSC 2019)
1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only        B. 2 only          C. Both 1 and 2          D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

2. Consider the following statements: ( UPSC 2018)

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only          B. 2 only             C. Both 1 and 2              D. Neither 1 nor 2

 
3.Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? (2014)
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
Appointing the Ministers
2. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
3. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 A. 1 and 2 only          B. 1 and 3 only                   C.  2, 3 and 4 only        D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
 
 
4. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past? (UPSC CSE 2019)
A.First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
B.Rajamannar Committee (1969)
C.Sarkaria Commission (1983)
D.National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
 
Answers: 1-C, 2-C, 3-B, 4-C
Source: The Indian Express
 
 

SUSTAINABLE HARNESSING AND ADVANCEMENT OF NUCLEAR ENERGY FOR TRANSFORMING INDIA (SHANTI) ACT

 
 
1. Context
 
Weeks after the government enacted the SHANTI Act to open India’s nuclear sector to private players, a new draft National Electricity Policy (NEP) signals a clear policy shift — a strong pivot to nuclear power as a potential substitute for coal-based thermal generation.
 
 
2. Why is SHANTI significant?
 
 
  • The SHANTI framework seeks to open India’s nuclear energy sector to private participation and may also facilitate the inflow of foreign investment.
  • At present, the construction and operation of nuclear power plants are restricted exclusively to public sector entities.
  • India aims to scale up its nuclear capacity from the existing 8.8 GW—roughly 1.5% of total installed power capacity—to 100 GW by 2047, thereby raising nuclear energy’s share in electricity generation from around 3%.
  • Public sector nuclear utilities estimate that they will contribute nearly 54 GW of this expansion, with the remaining capacity expected to come from private players
 
3. What are the major differences in SHANTI?
 
 
  • Because of nuclear energy’s association with atomic weapons, the movement and use of nuclear fuel such as uranium are subjected to rigorous oversight to prevent its diversion for the production of weapons-grade plutonium.
  • Past disasters—including the 1979 Three Mile Island accident, the 1986 Chernobyl catastrophe, and the Fukushima core meltdown triggered by the 2011 tsunami—have reinforced a global culture of caution, leading to stringent controls over every stage of nuclear plant functioning.
  • Internationally, there is now broad agreement that in the event of a nuclear accident, the operator of the facility bears the primary responsibility for compensating affected individuals in proportion to the harm caused.
  • Such compensation must be provided promptly, without waiting for investigations into causation or fault.
  • Subsequently, however, the operator may seek reimbursement if it can demonstrate that the accident resulted not from managerial failure but from defective equipment supplied by another party
  • Under the earlier Civil Nuclear Liability framework, operators were permitted to pursue recourse against equipment providers in three situations: first, where an explicit contractual provision existed; second, where the incident was attributable to defects in the supplier’s equipment; and third, where the damage was caused by a deliberate act intended to inflict nuclear harm.
  • The SHANTI legislation removes the second ground for recourse. Even after the 2008 Indo-US civil nuclear agreement, which reopened India’s access to uranium supplies and advanced nuclear technology following restrictions imposed after the 1974 and 1998 nuclear tests, reactor manufacturers from the United States and France remained reluctant to enter the Indian market due to the potential exposure to massive liability claims.
  • By eliminating this clause—and even removing explicit references to “suppliers”—the proposed framework effectively addresses these concerns
 
4. Will SHANTI spur India’s nuclear vision?
 
  • Homi Bhabha, regarded as the architect of India’s nuclear energy programme, envisaged nuclear power as a cornerstone of the country’s energy security while also overcoming India’s limited uranium reserves through the eventual use of thorium.
  • His three-stage plan begins with the construction of pressurised heavy water reactors that utilise natural uranium (U-238) to generate electricity and produce plutonium as a by-product.
  • The second stage involves fast breeder reactors, which are designed to generate additional plutonium and uranium-233 while producing power. In the third and final stage, uranium-233 is combined with India’s abundant thorium resources to generate electricity, creating a largely self-reliant thorium-based nuclear system.
  • India has yet to transition fully into the second stage, having only a prototype fast breeder reactor so far. This project, delayed by nearly two decades, was earlier scheduled to become operational in 2025 but has now been postponed further, with commissioning expected in September 2026.
  • To meet its near-term nuclear energy targets, India is increasingly exploring Small Modular Reactors (SMRs).
  • These are scaled-down versions of conventional reactors currently deployed in countries such as the United States and France, and they require enriched uranium-235—a resource that India does not possess in sufficient quantities. Like India’s first-stage reactors, SMRs generate various radioactive by-products, including plutonium and strontium.
  • SMRs are expected to be manufactured in modular components across multiple locations and assembled at a central site, much like the global production processes used for aircraft or smartphones.
  • However, due to their smaller size, they produce less electricity per unit compared to large reactors. They also do not offer a fundamentally superior solution to nuclear waste management, although some designs incorporate enhanced safety features that allow automatic shutdown during emergencies.
  • While SMRs may contribute to electricity generation, they do little to advance India’s long-term objective of transitioning to thorium-based nuclear power
 
5. Way Forward
 

Under the previous legal framework, victims of a nuclear incident could seek compensation from the plant operator up to a ceiling of ₹1,500 crore. Any damage beyond this limit was to be covered by the Union government through an insurance mechanism, capped at ₹4,000 crore. The SHANTI legislation introduces a tiered liability structure instead. Operators of facilities with a capacity exceeding 3,600 MW would face a maximum liability of ₹3,000 crore. For plants in the 1,500–3,600 MW range, the liability limit is set at ₹1,500 crore; for capacities between 750 MW and 1,500 MW, it is ₹750 crore; for 150–750 MW plants, the cap is ₹300 crore; and facilities below 150 MW carry a liability limit of ₹100 crore. At present, all nuclear power plants in India have capacities of 3,000 MW or less.

Science Minister Jitendra Singh, who introduced the Bill in Parliament, explained that this differentiated structure was designed to avoid deterring private sector investment. However, during parliamentary discussions, concerns were raised that the actual costs of compensation in major nuclear accidents have historically run into several billions of dollars, far exceeding the proposed liability ceilings

 

 

For Prelims: Nuclear Waste Management, Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor, uranium, plutonium
For mains: 
1. Discuss the challenges associated with nuclear waste management in the context of India's nuclear energy program. How can these challenges be addressed effectively? (250 Words)
2. Ethical considerations play a crucial role in nuclear waste management. Discuss the ethical concerns surrounding the potential for environmental injustice and the responsibility of nations in dealing with nuclear waste.(250 Words)

 

Previous Year Questions

1. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this on text, what advantage, does thorium hold over uranium? (UPSC 2012)

  1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
  2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
  3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 and 3 only            (c) 1 and 3 only              (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Which among the following has the world’s largest reserves of Uranium? (UPSC 2009)

(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) Russian Federation
(d) USA

Answers: 1-D, 2-A

Source: The Hindu

 
 

NORTH ATLANTIC TREATY ORGANISATION (NATO)

 
 
1. Context
 
After days of threats of military intervention and tariffs, US President Donald Trump walked off the ledge by announcing that a framework had been reached for a deal with the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) over Greenland’s future.
 
2. Why was NATO established?
 

NATO, established on April 4, 1949, is a Western security alliance comprising 12 original members: Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom, and the United States.

The alliance was formed by signing the Washington Treaty, deriving its authority from Article 51 of the United Nations Charter, which upholds the inherent right of independent states to individual or collective defense.

Central to NATO is the principle of "collective security," where an attack on any member nation is viewed as an attack on all, necessitating collective response. This principle emerged from the Cold War context of the late 1940s, amid the rivalry between the USSR and the US over ideological and economic dominance. Article 5 of the Washington Treaty, addressing collective security, was introduced to counter the perceived threat of Soviet expansionism beyond Eastern Europe. In response, the USSR formed the Warsaw Pact in 1955, uniting socialist countries as allies.

However, invoking Article 5 does not mandate uniform military action by all member states. The extent of intervention is determined by each country "as it deems necessary." To date, the only instance of Article 5 being activated was in response to the September 11, 2001 attacks on the US, leading to NATO's deployment in Afghanistan for nearly two decades

 

3. Who are NATO’s members today?

In addition to the initial 12 members, subsequent additions to NATO's membership include Greece and Turkey in 1952, West Germany in 1955 (later recognized as Germany), Spain in 1982, the Czech Republic, Hungary, and Poland in 1999, followed by Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Romania, Slovakia, and Slovenia in 2004, Albania and Croatia in 2009, Montenegro in 2017, North Macedonia in 2020, Finland in 2023, and Sweden in 2024.

A surge of new members joined in 1999, a few years after the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991, prompting concerns about the alliance's potential obsolescence due to the absence of its original purpose

4.What challenges does NATO face today?

 

  • During the 2019 commemoration of NATO's 70th anniversary, notable tensions arose among member nations.
  • President Donald Trump of the United States emphasized the necessity for countries to increase their military expenditures.
  • This call stemmed from a 2014 agreement among NATO members to allocate a minimum of 2 percent of their Gross Domestic Product (GDP) to defense spending, a commitment made following Russia's annexation of Crimea.
  • However, only a handful of nations met this threshold, prompting criticism from President Trump who deemed it unfair, particularly to countries such as the US that were fulfilling their spending obligations. By 2023, among the 30 member countries at the time, only 11 exceeded the stipulated limit.
  • One significant catalyst for increased defense spending was the Russian invasion of Ukraine the preceding year. Even traditionally neutral countries in foreign policy, such as Finland and Sweden, found appeal in the concept of collective security in response to Russia's assertive actions.
  • Despite NATO's "open door" policy toward membership, the admission of new applicants requires unanimous approval from all member states. Turkey hesitated to support the applications of Sweden and Finland due to past criticisms from their politicians regarding Turkey's human rights record. Turkey also accused these nations of harboring "terrorists"
5. Way Forward
 
Although the Ukraine-Russia war seems to have given NATO a new focus area to converge at, funding the war has again become a source of disagreements among members, much to Ukraine’s displeasure. Just this year, Secretary-General Stoltenberg said a plan was being formulated so that 18 NATO would meet the 2 per cent limit by the end of 2024
 
Source: Indianexpress
 
 

BIOSECURITY

 
 
1. Context
 
New age biotechnologies endow powers to understand biology better and, consequently, harness biological agents to target humans. Thus, biosecurity measures need to be upgraded.
 
2. What is biosecurity?
 
 
  • Biosecurity encompasses the policies, measures, and systems put in place to prevent the deliberate misuse of biological agents, toxins, or related technologies.
  • It includes actions ranging from securing laboratories that work with high-risk pathogens to identifying, managing, and controlling deliberately caused disease outbreaks.
  • The scope of biosecurity goes beyond safeguarding human health and also covers the protection of agriculture and animal populations.
  • Biosecurity is closely related to, but distinct from, biosafety, which focuses on minimizing the risk of accidental release or exposure to harmful biological agents. Strong biosafety practices form a critical foundation for effective biosecurity.
  • In response to historical efforts to develop biological weapons, the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) was adopted in 1975.
  • It marked the first global treaty to ban not only the use but also the production of biological weapons, while obligating member states to eliminate any existing reserves.
 
3. Why does India need biosecurity?
 
 
  • India’s physical geography and ecological diversity expose it to biological risks originating beyond its borders. Given the country’s heavy reliance on agriculture and its large population base, the potential impact of such threats is particularly severe.
  • Although India has not experienced any confirmed biosecurity attack, there have been reported cases involving the suspected preparation of ricin, a toxin extracted from castor beans, for possible terrorist use.
  • This episode highlights the growing interest of non-state actors in exploiting biological agents and underscores the need for strong biosecurity mechanisms.
  • Moreover, rapid advancements in biotechnology have expanded human capacity to manipulate biological systems, thereby increasing the risk of misuse by malicious actors, including in the development of biological weapons
  • In India, institutional responsibilities for biosecurity are distributed across multiple agencies. The Department of Biotechnology is responsible for overseeing research governance and laboratory safety norms.
  • The National Centre for Disease Control plays a key role in disease surveillance and outbreak management. Biosecurity related to livestock and cross-border animal diseases is handled by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying, while the Plant Quarantine Organisation of India regulates agricultural trade to prevent the entry and spread of harmful pests and diseases.
  • India’s legal and regulatory framework on biosafety and biosecurity includes the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which regulates hazardous microorganisms and genetically modified organisms, and the Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Act, 2005, which outlaws biological weapons.
  • Supporting this framework are the Biosafety Rules of 1989 and the 2017 guidelines on recombinant DNA research and biocontainment. In addition, the National Disaster Management Authority has issued comprehensive guidelines for handling biological emergencies.
  • At the international level, India participates in key biosecurity-related arrangements, including the Biological Weapons Convention and the Australia Group.
  • Despite the involvement of multiple institutions in managing biological risks, regulating laboratories, monitoring public health, and protecting agriculture, India is still in the process of developing a cohesive national biosecurity architecture.
  • As reflected in its 66th position on the Global Health Security Index, while India has improved its capacity to detect biological threats, its preparedness to respond effectively to such risks has shown a decline.
 
4. Evolution of biosecurity norms
 
 

The concept of biosecurity has evolved in response to advances in science, experiences of warfare, and emerging global health threats.

  • Early Period (Pre-20th Century)
    Concerns over biological harm were largely implicit, with limited regulation. Although the use of disease as a weapon was known historically, there were no formal international rules governing biological threats.
  • Inter-War Developments
    The 1925 Geneva Protocol marked the first international effort to prohibit the use of biological and chemical weapons in warfare. However, it did not ban their development, production, or stockpiling, leaving significant regulatory gaps.
  • Cold War Era and the BWC (1970s)
    Growing awareness of the catastrophic potential of biological weapons led to the adoption of the Biological Weapons Convention (1972, in force from 1975). It became the first multilateral treaty to comprehensively ban the development, production, acquisition, and stockpiling of biological weapons and mandate the destruction of existing arsenals.
  • Post-Cold War Focus on Compliance and Non-State Actors
    With the rise of non-state actors and biotechnology diffusion, biosecurity norms expanded beyond state behaviour. Emphasis shifted to export controls, laboratory security, and prevention of misuse of dual-use research. Initiatives such as the Australia Group strengthened coordination on controlling sensitive biological materials.
  • Public Health and Biosecurity Integration (2000s)
    Global disease outbreaks and bioterrorism concerns, especially after the 2001 anthrax attacks, linked biosecurity with public health preparedness. The International Health Regulations (2005) reinforced obligations for surveillance, early detection, and response to biological threats, whether natural or deliberate.
  • Contemporary Phase: Technology and Global Governance
    Rapid advances in genetic engineering, synthetic biology, and artificial intelligence have reshaped biosecurity thinking. Current norms emphasize responsible research, ethical governance, global information sharing, and resilience against both natural pandemics and intentional biological misuse.
 
 
5. India’s Existing Biosecurity Architecture
 
 India’s biosecurity framework is multi-layered and involves a combination of legal instruments, institutional mechanisms, and international commitments aimed at preventing, detecting, and responding to biological threats.

Institutional Framework

  • Department of Biotechnology (DBT):
    Regulates biotechnology research and oversees biosafety standards, laboratory governance, and compliance with guidelines related to genetically engineered organisms and recombinant DNA research.

  • National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC):
    Responsible for disease surveillance, early warning systems, and coordination of responses to infectious disease outbreaks.

  • Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW):
    Plays a central role in public health preparedness, epidemic management, and implementation of international health obligations.

  • Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying:
    Monitors animal health, livestock biosecurity, and transboundary animal diseases that can threaten food security and public health.

  • Plant Quarantine Organisation of India (PQOI):
    Regulates the import and export of plants and agricultural products to prevent the introduction and spread of pests and plant diseases.

  • National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA):
    Issues guidelines and coordinates preparedness and response strategies for biological disasters, including pandemics and bioterror events.

 
6. Way Forward
 
 

An insufficient biosecurity system poses extremely serious risks, with the potential to endanger the lives of billions of people in India. This makes it imperative to establish a comprehensive national biosecurity framework that enables effective coordination among multiple government agencies. Such a framework would also help in systematically identifying gaps in infrastructure and institutional capacity that require urgent attention.

 

 

For Prelims: Biological Weapons Convention (BWC), Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, SCOMET List
For Mains: Strengths and weaknesses of the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC),  India’s national biosecurity architecture, regulation of biotechnology. 
 
Previous Year Questions
 

1.Consider the following pairs: (2020)

International agreement/set-up     Subject 

  1. Alma-Ata Declaration :     Healthcare of the people 
  2. Hague Convention :         Biological and chemical weapons 
  3. Talanoa Dialogue :           Global climate change 
  4. Under2 Coalition :            Child rights 

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 4 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only 

Answer (c)

Mains

1.The scourge of terrorism is a grave challenge to national security. What solutions do you suggest to curb this growing menace? What are the major sources of terrorist funding? (2017)

 
 
Source: The Hindu

Share to Social