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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 24 DECEMBER 2025

FREE TRADE AGREEMENT 

 

1. Context

AIMING TO double bilateral trade over the next five years, India and New Zealand Monday announced the conclusion of negotiations on a free trade agreement. Bilateral trade between the countries in 2024-25 was $1.3 billion.
 

2. About the Free Trade Agreement

  • A Free Trade Agreement (FTA) is an agreement between two or more countries to reduce or eliminate barriers to trade, such as tariffs, quotas, and subsidies.
  • FTAs can also include provisions on other issues, such as investment, intellectual property, and labour standards.
  • The goal of an FTA is to promote trade and economic growth between the signatory countries.
  • By reducing or eliminating trade barriers, FTAs can make it easier for businesses to export their goods and services to other countries, which can lead to increased production, employment, and innovation.

3. Types of Free Trade Agreement

  • Bilateral Free Trade Agreement (BFTA) involves two countries, aiming to promote trade and eliminate tariffs on goods and services between them.  It establishes a direct trade relationship, allowing for a more focused and tailored agreement between the two nations.
  • Multilateral Free Trade Agreement (MFTA) Involving three or more countries, an MFTA seeks to create a comprehensive trade bloc, promoting economic integration on a larger scale. It requires coordination among multiple parties, addressing diverse economic interests and fostering a broader regional economic landscape.
  • Regional Free Trade Agreement (RFTA) involves countries within a specific geographic region, aiming to enhance economic cooperation and integration within that particular area. It focuses on addressing regional economic challenges and fostering collaboration among neighbouring nations.
  • Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) involves a reciprocal reduction of tariffs and trade barriers between participating countries, granting preferential treatment to each other's goods and services. It allows countries to enjoy trading advantages with specific partners while maintaining autonomy in their trade policies with non-participating nations.
  • Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is a broad and advanced form of FTA that goes beyond traditional trade barriers, encompassing various economic aspects such as investment, intellectual property, and services. It aims for a more comprehensive economic partnership, encouraging deeper integration and collaboration between participating countries.
  • Customs Union While not strictly an FTA, a Customs Union involves the elimination of tariffs among member countries and the establishment of a common external tariff against non-member nations. It goes beyond standard FTAs by harmonizing external trade policies, creating a unified approach to trade with the rest of the world.
  • Free Trade Area (FTA) with Trade in Goods (TIG) and Trade in Services (TIS): Some FTAs specifically emphasize either trade in goods or trade in services, tailoring the agreement to the specific economic strengths and priorities of the participating countries. This approach allows nations to focus on areas where they have a comparative advantage, fostering specialization and efficiency.

4. India's Free Trade Agreements

India is a member of several free trade agreements (FTAs) and is currently negotiating others.  India's FTAs have helped to reduce trade barriers and promote trade and economic growth. They have also helped to attract foreign investment and create jobs. 

  • The South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was signed in 1995 by the seven countries of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). SAFTA aims to reduce or eliminate tariffs on trade between the member countries.
  • The India-Bangladesh FTA was signed in 2010 and came into force in 2011. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Sri Lanka FTA was signed in 1999 and came into force in 2000. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-ASEAN Free Trade Agreement was signed in 2002 and came into force in 2010. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Korea Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) was signed in 2010 and came into force in 2011. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement(CEPA) was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2023. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-UAE Comprehensive Partnership Agreement (CEPA) was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2022. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2022. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Malaysia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) was signed in 2010 and aims to enhance economic ties by addressing trade in goods and services, as well as investment and other areas of economic cooperation.
  • The India-Thailand Free Trade Agreement was signed in 2003 and focuses on reducing tariffs and promoting trade in goods and services between India and Thailand.
  • The India-Singapore Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) has been operational since 2005, this agreement covers trade in goods and services, as well as investment and intellectual property.
  • The India-Nepal Trade Treaty While not a comprehensive FTA, India and Nepal have a trade treaty that facilitates the exchange of goods between the two countries.
  • The India-Chile Preferential Trade Agreement was signed in 2006 and aims to enhance economic cooperation and reduce tariffs on certain products traded between India and Chile.

5India - UK Free Trade Agreement

5.1. Background

  • Both countries have agreed to avoid sensitive issues in the negotiations.
  • The interim (early harvest agreement) aims to achieve up to 65 per cent coverage for goods and up to 40 per cent coverage for services.
  • By the time the final agreement is inked, the coverage for goods is expected to go up to "90 plus a percentage" of goods.
  • India is also negotiating a similar early harvest agreement with Australia, which is supposed to set the stage for a long-pending Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement that both countries have been pursuing for nearly a decade.
  • While the commencement of negotiations does mark a step forward in the otherwise rigid stance adopted and when it comes to trade liberalisation, experts point to impediments and the potential for legal challenges going ahead.

5.2. GATT (General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs)

  • The exception to the rule is full-scale FTAs, subject to some conditions.
  • One rider, incorporated in Article XXIV.8 (b) of GATT, stipulates that a deal should aim to eliminate customs duties and other trade barriers on "Substantially all the trade" between the WTO member countries that are signatories to an FTA.
  • For this Agreement, a free-trade area shall be understood to mean a group of two or more customs territories in which the duties and other restrictive regulations of commerce are eliminated on substantially all the trade between the constituent territories in products originating in such territories.
  • It is often beneficial to negotiate the entire deal together, as an early harvest deal may reduce the incentive for one side to work towards a full FTA.
  • These agreements are not just about goods and services but also issues like investment.
  • If you are trying to weigh the costs and benefits, it is always better to have the larger picture in front of you.
  • In the case of the early harvest agreement inked with Thailand, automobile industry associations had complained that relaxations extended to Bangkok in the early harvest had reduced the incentive for Thailand to work towards a full FTA.
  • Early harvest agreements may serve the function of keeping trading partners interested as they promise some benefits without long delays, as India becomes known for long-drawn negotiations for FTAs.
  • Government emphasis on interim agreements may be tactical so that a deal may be achieved with minimum commitments and would allow for contentious issues to be resolved later.
 
For Prelims: Free Trade Agreement, India-U.K, Bilateral Free Trade Agreement, G-20 Summit, Agenda 2030, Covid-19 Pandemic, SAARC, General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs, Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement, Multilateral Free Trade Agreement, Regional Free Trade Agreement, Preferential Trade Agreement, Customs Union, 
For Mains: 
1. Evaluate the potential impact of the India-UK FTA on the Indian economy, considering both positive and negative aspects (250 Words)
2. Critically evaluate the significance of Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) in promoting trade and economic growth, considering their potential benefits and drawbacks. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. Consider the following countries:
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Which of the above are among the free-trade partners' of ASEAN? (UPSC 2018)
A. 1, 2, 4 and 5          B.  3, 4, 5 and 6      C.  1, 3, 4 and 5       D.  2, 3, 4 and 6
 
Answer: C
 

2. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if (UPSC 2018)

(a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
(b) Agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
(c) Poverty and unemployment increase.
(d) Imports grow faster than exports.

Answer: C

3. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following: (2010)

  1. Development of infrastructure facilities.
  2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources.
  3. Promotion of exports of services only.

Which of the above are the objectives of this Act?

(a) 1 and 2 only     (b) 3 only         (c) 2 and 3 only           (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

4. A “closed economy” is an economy in which (UPSC 2011)

(a) the money supply is fully controlled
(b) deficit financing takes place
(c) only exports take place
(d) neither exports nor imports take place

Answer: D

5. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only            (c) Both 1 and 2          (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
 
 Source: The Hindu
 
 

SECTION 69A

1. Context

Since March 2024 the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) issued as many as 91 takedown notices, in a nearly 20-month span, to X Corp, red-flagging over 1,100 URLs. for violating various provisions of the law. 

2. Section 69A

  • Section 69A is a provision in the Information Technology Act, 2000 (IT Act) of India, which empowers the government to issue directions for blocking public access to certain online content.
  • This section deals with blocking information by intermediaries to maintain public order, prevent incitement to the commission of an offense, and protect the sovereignty and integrity of India, among other reasons.
  • The primary objective of Section 69A is to grant the Indian government the authority to take measures in situations where it believes it is necessary to block access to specific online content that is considered harmful or potentially detrimental to national interests.
  • The term "intermediaries" referred to in the section includes internet service providers, social media platforms, search engines, and other entities providing online services.

3. Key features of Section 69A:

  • Grounds for Blocking: The government can issue directions to block any online information if it deems it necessary or expedient in the interest of the sovereignty, security, defense of India, friendly relations with foreign states, public order, or for preventing incitement to the commission of any cognizable offense.
  • Designated Officer and Committee: Section 69A provides for the appointment of a Designated Officer by the government, who holds the authority to receive and examine requests for blocking content from various agencies. Additionally, a Review Committee, consisting of government officials, is established to oversee the decisions made by the Designated Officer.
  • Procedure for Blocking: When a request is received by the Designated Officer to block specific online content, the officer must assess the request and the grounds provided. The officer issues the blocking order to the intermediary responsible for hosting the content if found valid. The intermediary must comply with the order and disable access to the content within a specified time frame.
  • Safeguards and Appeal Mechanism: To prevent misuse of this power, Section 69A provides some safeguards. The affected parties or intermediaries have the right to seek redressal by filing an appeal before the Review Committee against the blocking order. If dissatisfied with the Review Committee's decision, further appeals can be made to the High Court.
  • Secrecy and Immunity: The section mandates that the Designated Officer and the Review Committee must keep the requests and decisions confidential. Moreover, these officers and the intermediaries complying with the blocking orders are granted immunity from legal suits and actions.

4. Criticism of the Act

  • Section 69A has been the subject of considerable debate and criticism regarding its potential impact on freedom of speech and expression.
  • Critics argue that it grants the government extensive powers to censor online content without sufficient oversight and transparency, which could be misused to suppress dissent and stifle legitimate voices.
  • Proponents, on the other hand, believe that it is necessary to counter potential threats to national security and public order.
  • It is important to note that the Indian government has been actively using Section 69A to block access to various websites and content that it deems problematic or against the interests of the country.
  • As with any legislation that involves restrictions on fundamental rights, finding the right balance between security concerns and individual freedoms remains a complex and ongoing challenge.

5. What has Supreme Court said on Section 69A

  • Case: Shreya Singhal vs Union of India, 2015 ruling.
  • Section 66A: Struck down by the Supreme Court. It punished sending offensive messages through communication services.
  • Section 69A: Held "constitutionally valid" by the Supreme Court.

Section 69A Safeguards: Narrowly drawn provision with safeguards:

  • Blocking can only happen if the Central Government deems it necessary.
  • Necessity must relate to some subjects listed in Article 19(2) of the Constitution.
  • Reasons for blocking must be recorded in writing, and they can be challenged through a writ petition under Article 226 of the Constitution.

6. Legal Scrutiny of Section 69A: Twitter vs. MeitY

  • July (last year, 2022): Twitter approached Karnataka HC against MeitY's content-blocking orders under Section 69A.
  • Allegation: Twitter claimed disproportionate use of power by officials.
  • MeitY's Action: IT Ministry wrote to Twitter, asking for compliance or risk losing safe harbour protection.
  • Karnataka HC's Ruling: In July (this year), a single-judge bench dismissed Twitter's plea.
  • Power to Block: Justice Krishna D Dixit ruled that the Centre can block not just single tweets but entire user accounts under Section 69A(1) and Website Blocking Rules.
For Prelims: Section 69 (A), Information Technology Act, 2000, cognizable offense, Section 66A, Section 69A(1), and MeitY.
For Mains: 1. Analyze the provisions and implications of Section 69A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, in the context of online content regulation and freedom of speech in India. (250 words).
 Source: The Indian Express
 
 

ARAVALLI RANGE

 
 
1. Context
 
 Addressing the issue for the second day in a row, Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav on Monday underlined that mining would be allowed in only 0.19% of the Aravalli hills, and no new mining leases would be granted until a detailed study is undertaken.
 
2. Significance of the Aravalli range
 
 
  • Beyond being almost two billion years old and the oldest mountain system in India, these hills function as a vital ecological shield against the advance of desert conditions into the Indo-Gangetic plains.
  • They act as a natural barrier slowing the eastward expansion of the Thar Desert into Haryana, Rajasthan, and western Uttar Pradesh. The range plays a crucial role in climate regulation, biodiversity conservation, and groundwater replenishment.
  • Extending roughly 650 km from Delhi to Gujarat, it supports key water-recharge networks and gives rise to major rivers such as the Chambal, Sabarmati, and Luni.
  • The region is abundant in building stones like sandstone, limestone, marble, and granite, as well as minerals including lead, zinc, copper, gold, and tungsten.
  • Although these resources have been extracted for centuries, the last forty years have seen rampant stone and sand quarrying, leading to declining air quality and a sharp reduction in groundwater recharge.
  • Part of this mining activity has occurred unlawfully. The Court also observed that India has international obligations under the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification to safeguard fragile ecosystems like the Aravalli range
 
3. Geological & Physical Features of Aravalli
 
  • The Aravalli Range is one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, with its geological origins dating back nearly two billion years to the Precambrian era.
  • Unlike young fold mountains such as the Himalayas, the Aravallis have undergone extensive weathering and erosion over millions of years, which has reduced them to a series of low-lying hills, ridges, and rocky outcrops rather than sharp peaks.
  • This long geological history makes the range a valuable record of early crustal evolution and ancient tectonic processes on the Indian subcontinent.
  • Geologically, the Aravallis are composed primarily of metamorphic and igneous rocks, including quartzite, schist, gneiss, marble, and granite. These rock formations are part of the Aravalli–Delhi orogenic belt, which was formed due to ancient tectonic collisions and crustal movements.
  • The presence of economically significant minerals such as copper, lead, zinc, gold, and tungsten reflects the complex geological processes that shaped the region. Over time, repeated uplift and denudation exposed these mineral-rich formations at the surface, making the range an important mining zone historically.
  • Physically, the Aravalli Range stretches for about 650 kilometres in a south-west to north-east direction, beginning near Palanpur in Gujarat and extending through Rajasthan to Haryana and Delhi.
  • The range is discontinuous in nature, with broken hill chains and isolated ridges rather than a continuous mountain wall. Its highest peak is Guru Shikhar in the Mount Abu region of Rajasthan, rising to about 1,722 metres above sea level.
  • Moving northwards, the height of the range gradually declines, merging into low hills and rocky terrain around Delhi.
  • The Aravallis play a significant role in shaping the physical geography of north-western India. Acting as a natural climatic divide, they influence rainfall patterns by intercepting south-west monsoon winds to a limited extent and preventing the unchecked eastward expansion of the Thar Desert.
  • The range also forms an important watershed, giving rise to several seasonal and perennial rivers such as the Chambal, Sabarmati, Luni, and Banas.
  • The fractured and porous nature of its rock formations allows rainwater to percolate underground, contributing substantially to groundwater recharge in an otherwise semi-arid region
 
4. What is the “100-metre definition” of Aravalli Hills?
 
  • The “100-metre definition” of the Aravalli Hills refers to an administrative and legal criterion used—especially in environmental regulation and court proceedings—to identify and protect the Aravalli region.
  • Under this definition, any area that rises more than 100 metres above the surrounding plain is treated as part of the Aravalli hill system, irrespective of whether it is a prominent mountain, ridge, or a low, eroded hill. In other words, even subtle elevations and fragmented hillocks that meet this height threshold are classified as Aravalli features.
  • This definition became important because the Aravallis are very old and heavily eroded, meaning many sections no longer appear as classic mountains. If protection were limited only to visibly high or continuous hills, large portions of the range—especially in Haryana, Rajasthan, and the Delhi-NCR region—would fall outside legal safeguards.
  • The Supreme Court and various environmental authorities have relied on the 100-metre criterion to prevent mining, construction, and land-use change in ecologically sensitive areas of the Aravalli range.
  • By using a measurable elevation benchmark rather than appearance alone, the definition helps expand environmental protection to degraded and fragmented parts of the hills
 
5. Supreme Court Intervention and Uniform Definition
 
 
  • The Supreme Court’s intervention in the Aravalli region arose from growing concerns over rampant mining, construction, and land-use changes that were degrading this fragile and ancient mountain system.
  • One of the core problems identified by the Court was the absence of a uniform and scientifically grounded definition of the Aravalli Hills.
  • Different States and authorities were using varying criteria—based on revenue records, forest classification, or visual identification—allowing large tracts of the Aravallis to be excluded from protection and opened up for exploitation.
  • To address this ambiguity, the Supreme Court emphasised the need for a uniform definition applicable across States, particularly Rajasthan, Haryana, and Delhi, where the Aravallis are most fragmented and vulnerable.
  • The Court endorsed an objective, elevation-based approach, popularly referred to as the “100-metre definition”, under which land rising more than 100 metres above the surrounding plains would be treated as part of the Aravalli hill system.
  • This was intended to ensure that even low, eroded, or discontinuous hill formations, which are characteristic of the Aravallis due to their great geological age, are brought within the protective framework.
  • Through its interventions, the Supreme Court also linked the protection of the Aravallis to India’s international environmental obligations, particularly under the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).
  • The Court observed that the degradation of the Aravalli range could accelerate desertification in north-western India and undermine groundwater recharge, air quality, and regional climate stability.
  • Consequently, it directed governments to adopt a consistent and precautionary approach in identifying, mapping, and regulating activities in the Aravalli region
 
6. Action against mining
 
  • Since the early 1990s, the Union Environment Ministry has framed regulations permitting mining only in projects that receive official approval, but these safeguards have been widely disregarded.
  • In response to persistent violations, the Supreme Court intervened in 2009 and enforced a complete ban on mining activities in Haryana’s Faridabad, Gurugram, and Mewat districts.
  • More recently, in May 2024, the Court halted the issuance and renewal of mining leases across the Aravalli range and instructed its Central Empowered Committee (CEC) to carry out an in-depth review. This exercise culminated in a set of recommendations submitted in March 2024.
  • The CEC advocated a holistic strategy that called for scientifically mapping the entire Aravalli system across States, conducting a broad-scale environmental impact assessment of mining operations, and enforcing an absolute ban on mining in ecologically fragile zones.
  • These included wildlife-protected areas, water bodies, tiger corridors, critical groundwater recharge regions, and locations within the National Capital Region.
  • The Committee also stressed the need for tighter controls over stone-crushing units and advised that no fresh mining permissions or lease extensions be granted until comprehensive mapping and impact studies were completed.
  • The Supreme Court incorporated these recommendations in its order issued in November 2025.
  • In addition, in June 2025, the Union government launched the Aravalli ‘Green Wall’ initiative, aimed at increasing vegetation cover in a five-kilometre buffer zone around the range across 29 districts in Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana, and Delhi.
  • According to the government, this programme is expected to make a significant contribution towards the restoration of 26 million hectares of degraded land by the year 2030.
7. Way Forward
 
 

The Court observed that earlier instances demonstrate how absolute prohibitions frequently give rise to illegal mining networks, aggressive sand mafias, and uncontrolled resource extraction. Consequently, instead of enforcing a complete shutdown, the Court adopted a balanced strategy—allowing lawful mining operations to proceed under strict oversight, placing a temporary halt on new mining activities until a science-based framework is developed, and keeping ecologically critical zones permanently closed to mining

 

 

For Prelims: Aravalli ranges, UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
 
For Mains: GS I - Indian Geography
 
 
Source: The Hindu
 
 

1. Context

Every winter, Delhi becomes a stark warning to the world. Children breathe air that would trigger emergency responses in any global city. Hospitals fill with respiratory cases. And we return to the same short-term playbook: Emergency orders, traffic restrictions, school closures and the ritual invocation of GRAP. These ad-hoc measures manage symptoms, not the disease.

 

2. Pollution

  • Pollution is defined as ‘an addition or excessive addition of certain materials to the physical environment (water, air and lands), making it less fit or unfit for life’. 
  • Air pollution is aggravated because of four developments: increasing traffic, growing cities, rapid economic development, and industrialization. 
  • ‘The presence in the atmosphere of one or more contaminants in such quality and for such duration as it is injurious, or tends to be injurious, to human health or welfare, animal or plant life.’ 
  • It is the contamination of air by the discharge of harmful substances. 
  • Air pollution can cause health problems, damage the environment, property and climate change.

ABOUT CENTRAL POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD (CPCB)


  • The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), the statutory organization, was constituted in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
  • It serves as a field formation and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment and Forests of the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 
  • Principal Functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, (i) to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and (ii) to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.
  • Air Quality Monitoring is an important part of air quality management. The National Air Monitoring Programme (NAMP) has been established with the objectives to determine the present air quality status and trends and control and regulate pollution from industries and other sources to meet the air quality standards. It also provides background air quality data needed for industrial siting and town planning.
  • Besides this, CPCB has an automatic monitoring station at ITO Intersection in New Delhi. At this station Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM), Carbon Monoxide (CO), Ozone (O3), Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2) and Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM) are being monitored regularly. This information on Air Quality at ITO is updated every week.
  • Water Quality Monitoring is an important part of water quality management. Fresh water is a finite resource essential for use in agriculture, industry, propagation of wildlife & fisheries and human existence. India is a riverine country. It has 14 major rivers, 44 medium rivers and 55 minor rivers besides numerous lakes, ponds and wells which are used as the primary source of drinking water even without treatment. Most of the rivers being fed by monsoon rains, which are limited to only three months of the year, run dry throughout the rest of the year often carrying wastewater discharges from industries or cities/towns endangering the quality of our scarce water resources. 
  • The parliament of India in its wisdom enacted the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 to maintain and restore the wholesomeness of our water bodies. 
  • One of the mandates of CPCB is to collect, collate and disseminate technical and statistical data relating to water pollution. 
  • Hence, Water Quality Monitoring (WQM) and Surveillance are of utmost importance.



3.Major air pollutants and their source 

3.1 Sulphur dioxide (SO2) 

  • It is a gas produced from burning coal, mainly in thermal power plants. 
  • Some industrial processes, such as the production of paper and the smelting of metals, produce sulphur dioxide. 
  • It is a major contributor to smog and acid rain. Sulphur dioxide can lead to disease estimated states of antibiotic consumption in global agriculture vary, due to poor surveillance and data collection in many countries, ranging from around 63,000 tonnes/year to over 240,000 tonnes/yr. 

3.2 Suspended particulate matter (SPM) 

  • It consists of solids in the air in the form of smoke, dust, and vapour that can remain suspended for extended periods and is also the main source of haze which reduces visibility. 
  • The finer of these particles, when breathed in, can lodge in our lungs and cause lung damage and respiratory problems. 

3.3 Carbon Di-Oxide 

  • It is principally greenhouse gas emitted as a result of human activities such as the burning of coal, oil, and natural gases. 

3.4 Carbon monoxide (CO) 

  • It is a colourless, odourless gas that is produced by the incomplete burning of carbon-based fuels including petrol, diesel, and wood. 
  • It is also produced from the combustion of natural and synthetic products such as cigarettes. 
  • It lowers the amount of oxygen that enters our blood. 
  • It can slow our reflexes and make us confused and sleepy. 

3.5 Lead 

  • It is present in petrol, diesel, lead batteries, paints, hair dye products, etc. Lead affects children in particular. 
  • It can cause nervous system damage and digestive problems and, in some cases, cause cancer. 

3.6 Ozone 

  • It occurs naturally in the upper layers of the atmosphere. 
  • This important gas shields the earth from the harmful ultraviolet rays of the sun. 
  • However, at the ground level, it is a pollutant with highly toxic effects. 
  • Vehicles and industries are the masourcesurce of ground-level ozone emissions. 
  • Ozone makes our eyes itch, burn, and water. It lowers our resistancecoldscold and pneumonia. 

3.7 Nitrogen oxide (Nox) 

  • It causes smog and acid rain. 
  • It is produced from burning fuels including petrol, diesel, and coal. 
  • Nitrogen oxide can make children susceptible to respiratory diseases in winters 

4.WHO Standards on air quality 

  • Recently, the World Health Organisation (WHO) in its first-ever update since 2has tightened global air pollution standards. 
  • New WHO Global Air Quality Guidelines (AQGs) provide clear evidence of the damage air pollution inflicts on human health, at even lower concentrations than previously understood. 
  • The guidelines recommend new air quality levels to protect the health of populations, by reducing levels of key air pollutants, some of which also contribute to climate change.
  • 6 classical pollutants include particulate matter (PM 2.5 and 10), ozone (O3), nitrogen dioxide (NO2) sulfur dioxide (SO2) and carbon monoxide (CO).

5.Status of pollution in India

  • India continues to remain one of the most polluted areas in the world, with pollutant levels several times higher than recommended levels. 
    • For example, a Greenpeace study found the average concentration of PM2.5 in New Delhi in 2020 to be nearly 17 times higher than the recommended levels. 
    • In Mumbai, pollution levels were eight times higher; in Kolkata, over nine times higher; and in Chennai, over five times higher. 
  • According to the expense of the Global Burden of Disease study, over 95% of India’s population already lived in areas where pollution levels were higher than WHO’s 2005 norms. 
  • India’s own national air quality standards are much more lenient, even compared to WHO’s 2005 norms. 
  • For example, the recommended PM2.5 concentration for o24 hoursriod is 60 micrograms per cubic metre, compared to 25 micrograms advised by WHO’s 2005 guidelines. 
    • But even these lower standards are hardly met

6. Stwere taken  by Government to combat air pollution 

  • SAMEER app has been launched wherein air quality information is available to the public along with provision for registering complaints against air polluting activities. 
  • Air quality information collection and dissemination are done from a centralised location. It proviral-time time air quality status to all stakeholders. 
  • A dedicated media corner, Twitter and Facebook accounts have been created for access to quality-relatedated information and to provide a platform for lodging complaints by the general population. Crowdsourcing
  • Crowd sourcing of innovative ideas/ suggestions/proposals from the public is done through throthe ugh CPCB website to strengthen efforts for improving air quality in Delhi-NCR. 
  • The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change is implementing Environment Education, Awareness and Training Schtoe to promote environmental awareness among all sections of the society and to mobilise people’s participation in the conservation of the environment. Under the National Green Corps (NGC) programme of the Ministry, about one lakh schools have been identified as Eco-clubs, wherein, nearly thirty lakh students are actively participating in varienvironmentalment protection and conservation activities, including the issues related to air pollution. 
  • The Ministry is promoting people's participation and awareness building among citizens for environmental conservation that focuses on the promotion of cycling, saving water and electricity, growing trees, proper maintenance of vehicles, following lane discipline and reducing congestion on roadscarpoolingling etc. 
  • For field feedback on air polluting activities in Delhi and major NCR towns, 46 teams of the Central Pollution Control Board have been deployed. 
  • The initiative was taken by the Government for the abatement and control of air pollution in Delhi and NCR since 2016 hbornebore good results. 

6.Way forward

  • Ambient air pollution poses grave, multi-faceted risks to India’s prospects for achieving its development goals: it leads to a rapid increase in public health expenditure, diminished labour productivity, and reduced agricultural yields. Estimates peg the economic cost of air pollution to the Indian economy at more than US$150 billion a year. 
  • The air pollution crisis will require innovative, collaborative solutions from public, private, and civil society stakeholders. Institutions, governments, philanthropies, and members of the academe have been fighting the battle for clean air for decades; it is time to tap into the power of a multi-stakeholder framework to hurdle this challenge.
 
 

For Prelims: National Clean Air Programme, Air Pollution, Particulate Matter, Clean Air Action Plans

For Mains: 
1. What are the challenges and opportunities presented by the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) for improving air quality in Indian cities? Discuss the measures required to overcome implementation hurdles and ensure the effective management of air pollution. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (UPSC 2016)
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nitrogen dioxide
  4. Sulfur dioxide
  5. Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only      B. 2, 3 and 4 only   C. 1, 4 and 5 only     D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

2. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (UPSC 2020)

  1. Automobile exhaust
  2. Tobacco smoke
  3. Wood burning
  4. Using varnished wooden furniture
  5. Using products made of polyurethane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only  B. 2 and 4 only   C. 1, 3 and 4 only     D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 

3. What is the ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? (UPSC 2016)

(a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions
(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies.
(c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022
(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank

4. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among (UPSC 2013)

(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature
(d) high concentration of NO2 O3 and CO in the evening
 

5. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment (UPSC 2013, 2022)

(a) Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen
(b) Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide
(c) Ozone and Carbon Dioxide
(d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide

6. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (UPSC 2017)

(a) Measuring oxygen level in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions
 
7. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently published the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, in 2020. Which of the following statements is correct about EIA? (Punjab Civil Service 2020)
1. It predicts the effect of a proposed industrial/infrastructural project on the environment.
2. It prevents the proposed activity/project from being approved without proper oversight or taking adverse consequences into account.
3. It compares various alternatives for a project and seeks to identify the one which represents the best combination of economic and environmental costs and benefits.
4. As per the new notification, Coal and non-Coal mineral prospecting and solar photovoltaic projects do not need prior environmental clearance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 1, 2 and 4
 
 
8.  Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in (NDA 2017)
A. Washington        B. Geneva         C. Moscow         D.  London
 
9. With reference to the 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2017)
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only            B. 3 only           C. 2 and 3 only              D. 1, 2 and 3
 
 
10. The IPCC is the United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change. IPCC stands for: (RRB NTPC CBT 2 2022)
A. Intergovernmental Provision on Climate Change
B. International Panel on Climate Change
C. International Provision on Climate Change
D. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
 
11. Comprehension (SSC CHSL 2020)
 
Direction: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Forest fire always (1) ______ by one of two reasons-naturally caused or human-caused. Natural fire is generally (2) ______ by lightning, with a very small percentage (3) ______ by spontaneous combustion of dry fuel such as sawdust and leaves. (4) ______, human-caused fire can happen (5) ______ any number of reasons.
Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1.
A. takes up    B. happens    C. causes    D. creates
 
12. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the (UPSC 2020) 
A. long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emission in a given year.
B. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.
C. efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
D. contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.
 
 
13. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (UPSC 2012)
A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
C. all the solar radiations
D. the infrared part of the solar radiation
 
14. As per the World Health Organisation (WHO) recommendation of a balanced diet, to avoid unhealthy weight gain, total fat should NOT exceed _______ of total energy intake. (UPSSSC Mandi Inspector 2019)
A. 20%         B.  30%        C. 10%          D. 40%
 
 
15. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems? (UPSC 2012)
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only        B. 2 and 3 only          C. 1 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
 
16. Which of the following ultraviolet rays is more dangerous? (UPTET 2017)
A. UV-A        B. UV-B          C.  UV-C          D.  None of the above
 
 
17. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019) 
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only         B. 2 and 3 only          C. 2 only          D.  1, 2 and 3
 
18. Which of the following is a VOC? (MP Vyapam 2022) 
A. Toulene          B. Water            C. Carbon dioxide          D. Carbon monoxide
 
 
19. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are of great concern because (UGC NET  Environmental Science  2020)
A. Once such compounds are in the vapour state, they are difficult to control in the environment.
B. Most of them are ozone-depleting substances
C. They contribute to a general increase in reactive hydrocarbons in the atmosphere.
D. They are less soluble in water.
 
Answers: 1-B, 2-A, 3-A, 4-A, 5-D, 6-C, 7-D, 8-B, 9-A, 10-D, 11-B, 12-A, 13-D, 14-B, 15-A, 16-C, 17-D, 18-A, 19-C
 
Source: The Hindu
 

COMMISSION FOR AIR QUALITY MANAGEMENT (CAQM)

 
 
1. Context
 

Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR and Adjoining Areas (CAQM) issues Show Cause Notices to six Thermal Power Plants within 300 km of Delhi, for non-compliance of Biomass Co-firing Norms

2. Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)
 
  • The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in the National Capital Region (NCR) and nearby areas was initially established through an ordinance in 2020, which was subsequently replaced by an Act of Parliament in 2021.
  • Its primary mandate is to enhance coordination, conduct research, identify issues, and address challenges related to air quality and associated concerns.
  • At its inception, the CAQM comprised 15 members, including current and former officials from the Ministry of Environment and other Union government departments, along with representatives from various State governments, NGOs, and other organizations. Currently, the commission, led by Rajesh Verma, has expanded to 27 members.
  • The CAQM succeeded the Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA), which was created by the Supreme Court in 1998. Unlike the CAQM, the EPCA lacked statutory authority, which experts criticized as limiting its ability to enforce compliance among defiant agencies.
  • Nevertheless, several initiatives now overseen by the CAQM, such as the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP)—a framework of temporary emergency measures to combat air pollution—were originally implemented under the EPCA's guidance
 
 
Powers of CAQM
 
The Commission for Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021, empowers the CAQM to undertake any necessary measures, issue directives, and address grievances aimed at safeguarding and enhancing air quality in the NCR and surrounding regions. According to Section 14 of the Act, the commission is authorized to take strict action against officials who fail to comply with its directives
 
 
3. Supreme Court on CAQM
 
  • The Supreme Court recently criticized the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) for delays in enforcing stricter anti-pollution measures as Delhi's air quality worsened.
  • Despite the Air Quality Index (AQI) reaching hazardous levels, the CAQM postponed the implementation of Stage 4 measures under the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP), prompting the Court to question the lack of urgency in addressing the crisis.
  • The justices emphasized that such measures should be triggered as soon as AQI levels indicate severe pollution to prevent further deterioration.
  • The Court also highlighted systemic failures, including inadequate action against stubble burning in Punjab and Haryana, and criticized the CAQM for focusing on meetings without concrete enforcement of rules.
  • It warned against scaling down measures prematurely and stressed the need for stricter penalties and immediate action to curb pollution sources effectively
 
4. Challenges
 
  • Although the CAQM formulates strategies and coordinates with various agencies, the actual implementation of these measures rests with the respective agencies.
  • A CAQM official noted that the commission has significantly improved coordination and planning efforts.
  • For instance, while paddy stubble burning—a major contributor to severe air pollution—occurs primarily in October and November, discussions with State officials begin as early as February and continue throughout the season.
  • In 2022, the CAQM collaborated with Punjab and Haryana to develop action plans for managing stubble burning, which are reviewed and updated annually.
5. Way Forward
 
Discussing the challenges faced, the official acknowledged that while the commission has focused heavily on tackling stubble burning in the past, there is now a shift towards addressing multiple pollution sources. Moving forward, greater emphasis will be placed on controlling dust and vehicular emissions alongside agricultural pollution
 
For Prelims: Graded Response Action Plan, National Capital Region (NCR),Environmental pollution(prevention control)Authority (EPCA).
For Mains:
1. What is GRAP? What is the Delhi-NCR action plan as air pollution increases? (250 words). 
 
 
 
Source: The Hindu
 
 

PM SVANIDHI

 

1. Context

Launched in June 2020, Prime Minister Street Vendor’s Atma Nirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) scheme was formulated to assist street vendors to overcome the adverse effects of financial constraints and revive livelihoods impacted by the pandemic

2. Why was this scheme rolled out?

  • The COVID-19 pandemic and the nationwide lockdown left daily wage workers and street vendors out of work.
  • The scheme aims at aiding the vendors in getting back on their feet financially.
  • In the long term, it aims at establishing a credit score for the vendors as well as creating a digital record of their socio-economic status, so that they can avail of the central government schemes later.
  • The scheme also attempts to formalize the informal sector of the economy and provide them with safety nets and a means of availing loans in the future.

3. Who is a street vendor?

  • Any person engaged in vending of articles, goods, wares, food items, or merchandise of daily use or offering services to the public in a street, footpath, pavement, etc., from a temporary built-up structure or by moving from place to place.
  • The goods supplied by them include vegetables, fruits, ready-to-eat street food, tea, pakodas, bread, eggs, textile, apparel, artisan products, books/stationary, etc. and the services include barber shops, cobblers, pan shops, laundry services, etc.

4. What is the rationale of the scheme?

  • The COVID-19 pandemic and consequent lockdowns have adversely impacted the livelihoods of street vendors.
  • They usually work with a small capital base, which they might have consumed during the lockdown.
  • Therefore, credit for working capital to street vendors will be helpful to resume their livelihoods.

5. What are the objectives of the scheme?

To facilitate a working capital loan of up to 10,000 at a subsidized rate of interest;
  • To incentivize regular repayment of loans; and 
  • to reward digital transactions.

6. What are the salient features of the scheme?

  • Initial working capital of up to 10,000/-
  • Interest subsidy on timely/early repayment @ 7%.
  • Monthly cash-back incentive on digital transactions
  • Higher loan eligibility on timely repayment of the first loan

7. Eligibility criteria of the beneficiaries

  • The Scheme is available to all street vendors engaged in vending in urban areas *. The eligible vendors will be identified as per the following criteria:
  • Street vendors in possession of a Certificate of Vending / Identity Card issued by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs);
  • The vendors, who have been identified in the survey but have not been issued a Certificate of Vending / Identity Card; a Provisional Certificate of Vending would be generated for such vendors through an IT-based Platform. ULBs are encouraged to issue such vendors the permanent Certificate of Vending and Identification Card immediately and positively within one month.
  • Street vendors left out of the ULB-led identification survey or who have started vending after completion of the survey and have been issued a Letter of Recommendation (LoR) to that effect by the ULB/ Town Vending Committee (TVC); and 
  • The vendors of surrounding development/peri-urban/ rural areas vending in the geographical limits of the ULBs have been issued a Letter of Recommendation (LoR) to that effect by the ULB/TVC.
Identification of Beneficiaries Left out of the Survey or Belonging to the Surrounding Rural Areas While identifying the vendors belonging to Category 4 (iii) and (iv), the ULB/ TVC may consider any of the following documents to issue letters of recommendation:
  • The list of vendors, prepared by certain States/ UTs, for providing one-time assistance during the period of lockdown; OR
  • A system-generated request was sent to ULBs/ TVCs for the issue of LoR based on the recommendation of the Lender after verifying the credentials of the applicant; OR
  • The membership details with the vendor's associations including the National Association of Street Vendors of India (NASVI)/ National Hawkers Federation (NHF)/ Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA) etc.; OR (iv) The documents in possession of the vendor buttressing his claim of vending; OR (v) Report of local inquiry conducted by ULB/ TVC involving Self-Help Groups (SHGs), Community-Based Organizations (CBOs), etc. ULB shall complete the verification and issuance of LoR within 15 days of the submission of the application. 
  • Further, ULBs may adopt any other alternate way for identifying such vendors to ensure that all the eligible vendors are positively covered.
  • vendors who have gone back to their native places due to COVID-19 Some of the identified/surveyed or other vendors who have been vending/hawking in urban areas have left for their native places before or during the lockdown period because of the COVID-19 pandemic. Such vendors are likely to come back after the situation normalizes and resume their business. 
Once a LOR is issued by the ULBs, its mandate lasts a month, after which the survey for the issuance of the certificate of vending should be undertaken by the ULBs. But since it is a state subject, the central government can only direct or sensitize the state governments on the importance of doing so, and not evict vendors who have availed of the loan but do not have a certificate.
The scheme is already a hit; so far 25 lakh street vendors have come forward seeking the loan. The next stage being contemplated is to make a first-of-its-kind database of the beneficiaries of this scheme to see who they are, and where they belong vis-à-vis the government’s social security net woven through various welfare schemes on education, housing, food, livelihood, etc.,

7. Why is such a study needed?

  • The scheme plans to extend the microcredit to over 50 lakh street vendors across India, which is the estimated number of hawkers as per various urban local bodies.
  • But, going beyond the mandate of this scheme, the government wants to use the data for comprehensive poverty alleviation.
  • However, there is hardly any comprehensive structured data on the socio-economic profile of street vendors and the street vending economy in India, even in government surveys like the National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) and the Economic Survey.
  • The NSSO, for instance, has defined street vendors through a category of “enterprises without fixed premises” among “Unincorporated Non-Agricultural Enterprises (excluding construction)”, in its 67-68th round report published in 2011- 12. 
  • The NSSO data estimated that around 200,000 women and 21,500 children were engaged in street vending. Around 1.18 million households were dependent on this sector as their primary source of income, according to a paper by the think-tank Observer Research Foundation.
  • Non-governmental organizations and research by scholars have attempted to put together this kind of data several times in the past in bits and pieces.

8. Will this scheme actually work towards poverty alleviation?

  • Becoming formal beneficiaries of various government schemes works as a big step towards entering the policy intervention network.
  • Officials say it also helps in financial mainstreaming in the long run.
  • For example, several banks, bereft of the prior experience of extending loans as little as Rs. 10,000 to someone like a street vendor, are following processes like checking the CIBIL score for the street vendor and seeking PAN card and IT-return, etc.
  • While these cases are dealt with as hurdles on the ground, it is a fact that street vendors hardly have creditworthiness in the eyes of India's formal banking system.
  • Therefore, the PMSVANidhi is incentivizing digital transactions by street vendors. They will soon be given QR codes to receive payments through the government’s BHIM UPI app.
  • They are given cash back for digital transactions too. The idea is that with a trail of digital transactions against their names, they will create a formal transaction history in banks and will slowly build their creditworthiness for the future. 
For Prelims: PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) scheme, Urban Local Bodies (ULBs), National Association of Street Vendors of India (NASVI)/ National Hawkers Federation (NHF)/ Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA), Self-Help Groups (SHGs),  Letter of Recommendation (LoR), National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) and BHIM UPI.
For Mains:1. What is the PM SVANidhi scheme and explain the rationale of the scheme. Discuss how it will help in the alleviation of poverty(250 words).
Source: The Indian Express

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