The Supreme Court's advisory role, as outlined in Article 143, traces its origins to the Government of India Act of 1935. This act granted the Governor-General the authority to seek the opinion of the federal court on significant legal matters.

A comparable feature exists in the Canadian Constitution, where the Supreme Court of Canada is empowered to give advisory opinions on legal issues referred by either the federal or provincial governments. In contrast, the U.S. Supreme Court has consistently refused to issue advisory opinions to the executive branch, adhering strictly to the principle of separation of powers embedded in the American Constitution

3. Past instances

• Since 1950, approximately fifteen presidential references have been made to the Supreme Court, excluding the most recent one. Below are brief summaries of some notable opinions delivered by the Court in response to these references.
• The first such reference came in the Delhi Laws Act case (1951), where the Court outlined the concept of delegated legislation, allowing the legislature to delegate certain law-making powers to the executive for efficient law implementation.
• In the Kerala Education Bill case (1958), the Court established the principle of harmonious interpretation between Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy, while also clarifying the constitutional safeguards for minority-run educational institutions under Article 30.
• In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Court held that any transfer or acquisition of Indian territory requires a constitutional amendment as per Article 368. The Keshav Singh case (1965) addressed the scope of legislative powers and privileges.
• In the Presidential Election case (1974), the Court ruled that elections for the President must proceed even if there are vacancies in the electoral college due to the dissolution of state assemblies.
• The Special Courts Bill reference (1978) was particularly important, as the Court clarified that it can choose not to respond to a reference, that the questions posed must be clear and precise, and that the judiciary must not intrude into Parliament's domain when giving its opinion.
• The Third Judges case (1998) resulted in a comprehensive set of guidelines shaping the collegium system for appointing judges to the higher judiciary.
• Although the Supreme Court is not bound to respond to every reference, it has declined to provide an opinion on only one occasion — in 1993, concerning the Ram Janmabhoomi dispute

 4. Current reference

• The current presidential reference stems from a recent Supreme Court ruling that established specific timelines for the President and State Governors to act on Bills passed by State legislatures.
• In that judgment, the Court also asserted that the decisions made by the President and Governors regarding such Bills are open to judicial scrutiny. This reference has posed 14 key questions, mainly focusing on the interpretation of Articles 200 and 201 of the Constitution.
• The central government has raised concerns about whether courts can impose timelines when the Constitution itself does not prescribe any. It also questions whether the actions of the President and Governors, taken before a Bill becomes law, can be subjected to judicial review. Additionally, the reference seeks clarity on the scope of the Supreme Court’s powers under Article 142.
• This legal dispute has largely been driven by political tensions between the Union government and Opposition-led State governments. In its judgment, the Supreme Court had referred to the timelines mentioned in a Ministry of Home Affairs Office Memorandum concerning the President's assent to Bills.
• Notably, in the Cauvery dispute reference (1992), the Court had stated that, in an advisory capacity, it does not have the authority to review its previous rulings.
• Nevertheless, a definitive opinion in the present case is expected to bring clarity to important constitutional questions, thereby aiding in the effective functioning of federalism and democratic governance

For Prelims: Article 143, Supreme Court's advisory jurisdiction   For Mains: General Studies II - Indian Polity & Governance

 

 

 

Previous Year Questions   Prelims 1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017) 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only          B. 2 only              C. 2 and 3 only                D. 3 only Answer: D 2. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? (UPSC CSE 2019) (a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law. (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament. (c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare a Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet. (d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the Union Legislature. Answer: B 3. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021) 1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies. 2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. 3. As per the- existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only         B. 2 only           C. 1 and 3             D. 2 and 3   4. Consider the following statements about Electoral Bond Scheme 2018: (RPSC RAS Prelims 2018) (A) The aim of this scheme is to bring about transparency in the funding process of political parties. (B) Only the political parties recognized by the Election Commission which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of People or the Legislative Assembly of the State shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds. (C) Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue. (D) The Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible political party in its account shall be credited on the same day. Which of the above statements are correct? 1.  Only (A) and (B)      2.  (A), (B), (C) and (D) 3. Only (B), (C) and (D) 4. Only (A), (C) and (D) Answer: 2   5. With reference to the PM CARES Fund, consider the following statements: (AFCAT 27 2022) I. The amount collected by it directly goes to the Consolidated Fund of India. II. It can avail donations from the foreign contribution and donations to fund can also avail 100% tax exemption. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. I only            B. II only           C. Both I and II        D. Neither I nor II   Answer: B   6. The Prime Minister's National Relief Fund is operated by which one of the following bodies?  (CDS 2019) A. The Prime Minister's Office (PMO) B. The National Disaster Management Authority C. The Ministry of Finance D. The National Development Council (NDC) Answer: A Mains 1. In the light of recent controversy regarding the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVM), what are the challenges before the Election Commission of India to ensure the trustworthiness of elections in India? (UPSC 2018) 2. Discuss the role of the Election Commission of India in the light of the evolution of the Model Code of Conduct. ( UPSC 2022)

 

Source: The Hindu

 

CRITICAL MINERALS

 

 

1. Context

 

Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Sunday met South African President Cyril Ramaphosa on the sidelines of the G-20 Summit here.

The two leaders discussed cooperation in various areas, including trade, investment, mining, critical minerals, AI, and food security.

 

2. What are Critical Minerals?

 

Critical minerals are raw materials that are essential for economic and national security, but whose supply may be at risk due to geological scarcity, geopolitical issues, trade policy, or other factors

Critical minerals are typically defined by governments or organizations based on their importance to the economy and the potential risks to their supply

• Rare Earth Elements (REEs): neodymium, dysprosium, terbium
• Lithium
• Cobalt
• Graphite
• Gallium
• Indium
• Tungsten
• Platinum Group Metals (PGMs)

3. Why are critical minerals important?

 

• Minerals such as copper, lithium, nickel, and cobalt, along with certain rare earth elements, are considered critical due to their essential role in the global transition to greener and cleaner energy sources.
• According to the International Energy Agency (IEA), the demand for lithium surged by 30% in 2023, with nickel, cobalt, graphite, and rare earth elements experiencing growth between 8% and 15%, collectively valued at $325 billion.
• The IEA's Global Critical Minerals Outlook 2024 report indicates that achieving the world's goal of limiting global warming to 1.5 degrees Celsius within a net-zero emissions framework will necessitate a significant increase in demand for these minerals.
• By 2040, copper demand is projected to rise by 50%, nickel, cobalt, and rare earth elements by 100%, graphite by 300%, and lithium by 800%, which is vital for battery production.
• Developing sustainable supply chains for these minerals is therefore crucial. In India, the absence of readily available reserves has led to complete import dependence for minerals such as lithium, cobalt, and nickel. 

4. What is being done to spur production?

 

• Although India possesses natural reserves of several critical minerals, they remain largely unexplored and untapped. For example, despite holding 11% of the world's ilmenite deposits, which is the primary source of titanium dioxide used in numerous applications, India still imports a billion dollars' worth of titanium dioxide annually, as noted by former Mines Secretary Vivek Bharadwaj.
• Additionally, the "lucky" discovery of lithium reserves in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) by the Geological Survey of India (GSI) while exploring for limestone has raised hopes for achieving some level of self-sufficiency in lithium. Announced in February as India's first lithium find, these reserves are estimated at 5.9 million tonnes, prompting the government to expedite their extraction.
• Recognizing the risks of relying on a limited number of countries for these minerals and their processing, the central government amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 in August 2023 to allow mining concessions for 24 critical and strategic minerals.

5. Way Forward

 

The list of what's considered "critical" can vary by country and change over time based on technological developments and geopolitical situations. The management of critical minerals is an ongoing challenge that requires balancing economic needs, environmental concerns, and geopolitical realities

 

 

For Prelims: Critical minerals, Ministry of Mines, carbon emissions,  cleaner energy,  lithium, cobalt, nickel, graphite, tin, copper, Selenium, Cadmium, Centre of Excellence on critical minerals, Australia's CSIRO, Geological Survey of India,    For Mains:  1. What are critical minerals? Discuss their significance for a country's economic development and national security. Explain how the identification of critical minerals helps in reducing import dependency and ensuring resource security. (250 Words)

 

 

Previous Year Questions   1. With reference to the mineral resources of India, consider the following pairs: (UPSC 2010) Mineral                         90%Natural sources in 1. Copper                       Jharkhand 2. Nickel                        Orissa 3. Tungsten                    Kerala Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?   A. 1 and 2 only            B. 2 only             C. 1 and 3 only            D. 1, 2 and 3   Answer: B   2. Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called 'rare earth metals.' Why? (UPSC 2012) 1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export. 2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country. 3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only              B. 2 and 3 only           C. 1 and 3 only          D.  1, 2 and 3   Answer: C   3. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO)? (UPSC 2022) 1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India. 2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks. 3. It hears any objection to the Government's notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas. 4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 3            B. 3 and 4 only           C. 1 and 2 only          D. 1, 2 and 4   Answer: A   4. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the (UPSC 2020)  A. long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emission in a given year. B. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels. C. efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place. D. contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.   Answer: A   5. Direction: It consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement (I)’ and the others as ‘Statement (II)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answer using the codes given below: (UPSC ESE 2018) Statement (I): Green energy refers to one which does not harm the ecosystem of planet earth. Statement (II): All renewable energy is green energy. A. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I) B. Both statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true, but Statement (II) is not the correct explanation of Statement (I) C. Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is false D. Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is true   Answer: C   6. Which type of battery is used in the recently launched world's first fully electric cargo ship by change? (Delhi Police Constable 2017) A.  Lead Acid        B. Manganese        C. Lithium ion        D. Nickel metal hydride   Answer: C   7. White gold is an alloy of (UPSC CAPF 2022)  A. gold, nickel and palladium B. gold, cobalt and palladium C. gold, titanium and platinum D. gold, magnesium and palladium   Answer: A   8. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance? (UPSC 2012)  1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity. 2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far. 3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency. 4. It can be used as 'conducting electrodes' required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs. Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1 and 2 only          B. 3 and 4 only         C.  1, 2 and 4 only          D.  1, 2, 3 and 4   Answer: C   9. Graphite and diamonds are__________. (WBCS Prelims 2020)   A. isotopes           B.  isomers             C. isotones           D. allotropes   Answer: D   10. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2020) 1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury. 2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. 3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only         B. 2 and 3 only        C.  3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3   Answer: D   11. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India? (UPSC 2013) 1. Arsenic 2. Sorbitol 3. Fluoride 4. Formaldehyde 5. Uranium Select the correct answer using the codes given below. A. 1 and 3 only           B. 2, 4 and 5 only          C. 1, 3 and 5 only           D.  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5   Answer: C   12. In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of the bioremediation technique? (UPSC 2017) 1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature. 2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. 3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:  A. 1 only         B.  2 and 3 only          C.  1 and 3 only             D. 1, 2 and 3   Answer: C   13. Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste? (UPSC 2013)  1. Beryllium 2. Cadmium 3. Chromium 4. Heptachlor 5. Mercury 6. Lead 7. Plutonium Select the correct answer using the codes given below.  A. 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only           B. 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only          C. 2, 4, 5 and 7 only               D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7   Answer: B   14. When was the Geological Survey of India (GSI) of India founded? (UPRVUNL Staff Nurse 2021) A. 1851             B. 1951            C. 1871              D. 1931   Answer: A

 

 

Source: The Hindu

 

 

LINE OF ACTUAL CONTROL (LAC)

 

 

1.Context

The Indo-Tibetan Border Police force, which guards the 3,488-km-long India-China LAC, is establishing 10 all-woman border posts along this arduous and icy frontier, the Director-General of the paramilitary said.

Pic credits: TRT WORLD

 

2.About Line of Actual Control (LAC)

• The Line of Actual Control (LAC) is the de facto boundary that separates Indian-controlled territory from Chinese-controlled territory. Unlike a formally demarcated international border, it is not clearly marked on the ground or mutually agreed upon in precise terms by both countries. The concept of the LAC emerged after the 1962 India-China war, when hostilities ended without a final settlement of the border dispute.
• Stretching for about 3,488 kilometers, the LAC runs through three main sectors: the western sector in Ladakh, the middle sector covering parts of Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, and the eastern sector that spans Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim.
• Each side has its own perception of where the LAC lies, which often leads to overlapping claims and occasional standoffs between Indian and Chinese troops. The absence of a mutually recognized border has made this line one of the most sensitive and contested frontiers in the world.
• Over the years, both countries have signed various agreements to maintain peace and tranquillity along the LAC, emphasizing restraint and confidence-building measures. However, due to differing interpretations of the line, confrontations and incursions have continued to occur.
• The recent clashes, particularly in eastern Ladakh in 2020, highlighted the fragile nature of the arrangement and the pressing need for a clearer understanding between the two sides.
• Thus, the LAC represents more than just a boundary; it is a reflection of unresolved historical disputes and ongoing geopolitical tensions. While it serves as the working line that separates the territories under Indian and Chinese control, its ambiguous character keeps it at the center of India-China relations

It is divided into three sectors:

 

The eastern sector which spans Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim, The middle sector in Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh, and the western sector in Ladakh

 

3.The disagreement

• The alignment of the LAC in the eastern sector is along the 1914 McMahon Line, and there are minor disputes about the positions on the ground as per the principle of the high Himalayan watershed
• This pertains to India’s international boundary as well, but for certain areas such as Longju and Asaphila
• The line in the middle sector is the least controversial but for the precise alignment to be followed in the Barahoti plains.
• The major disagreements are in the western sector where the LAC emerged from two letters written by Chinese Prime Minister Zhou Enlai to PM Jawaharlal Nehru in 1959, after he had first mentioned such a ‘line’ in 1956.
• In his letter, Zhou said the LAC consisted of “the so-called McMahon Line in the east and the line up to which each side exercises actual control in the west”
• After the 1962 War, the Chinese claimed they had withdrawn to 20 km behind the LAC of November 1959
• During the Doklam crisis in 2017, the Chinese Foreign Ministry spokesperson urged India to abide by the “1959 LAC”
• India rejected the concept of LAC in both 1959 and 1962. Even during the war, Nehru was unequivocal: “There is no sense or meaning in the Chinese offer to withdraw twenty kilometres from what they call ‘line of actual control’

4.India's agreement to LAC

• LAC was discussed during Chinese Premier Li Peng’s 1991 visit to India, where PM P V Narasimha Rao and Li reached an understanding to maintain peace and tranquillity at the LAC. 
• India formally accepted the concept of the LAC when Rao paid a return visit to Beijing in 1993 and the two sides signed the Agreement to Maintain Peace and Tranquillity at the LAC
• The reference to the LAC was unqualified to make it clear that it was not referring to the LAC of 1959 or 1962 but to the LAC at the time when the agreement was signed
• To reconcile the differences about some areas, the two countries agreed that the Joint Working Group on the border issue would take up the task of clarifying the alignment of the LAC

5. How is the LAC different from the Line of Control with Pakistan?

• The LoC emerged from the 1948 ceasefire line negotiated by the UN after the Kashmir War. It was designated as the LoC in 1972, following the Shimla Agreement between the two countries. It is delineated on a map signed by DGMOs of both armies and has the international sanctity of a legal agreement.
• The LAC, in contrast, is only a concept – it is not agreed upon by the two countries, neither delineated on a map or demarcated on the ground.
• The Line of Actual Control (LAC) between India and China and the Line of Control (LoC) between India and Pakistan are both contested frontiers, but they differ fundamentally in their origin, status, and legal recognition.
• The LAC is not an internationally agreed boundary; it is simply the line that separates the territories controlled by India and China after the 1962 war. It came into existence informally as the ground reality of troop positions after hostilities, and while both countries recognize its existence, they do not agree on its precise alignment.
• This makes the LAC fluid and ambiguous, often leading to different interpretations and military face-offs. It is essentially a de facto line, with no official international recognition or treaty-based acceptance.
• In contrast, the LoC is a formally delineated line that divides the territories of India and Pakistan in Jammu and Kashmir. It originated from the ceasefire line drawn after the first India-Pakistan war of 1947–48, and was given its current name under the 1972 Simla Agreement.
• Unlike the LAC, the LoC is demarcated on maps, jointly surveyed, and broadly agreed upon by both sides, even though the underlying sovereignty dispute over Jammu and Kashmir remains unresolved.
• The LoC is under constant military monitoring, heavily fortified, and frequently the site of ceasefire violations, but it has legal standing as part of an international agreement.
• To put it simply, the LAC is undefined and disputed in interpretation, while the LoC is defined and agreed upon, though still contested in terms of territorial claims. The LAC reflects ambiguity and lack of settlement between India and China, whereas the LoC represents a ceasefire line formally negotiated between India and Pakistan

 

6. Way Forward

The two leaders met on the sidelines of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Summit here — this is Modi’s first visit to China in seven years. The two sides agreed on a “fair, reasonable and mutually acceptable resolution” of the border issue, and flagged the importance of a multipolar world, free trade and “role of their two economies to stabilise world trade

 

For Prelims: LAC, LOC For Mains: 1.What is this ‘line of control’? Is this the line China have created by aggression. Comment 2.What we know about the clash between Indian and Chinese soldiers in Arunachal Pradesh

 

Previous Year Questions 1.The Line of Actual Control (LAC) separates  (Karnataka Civil Police Constable 2020) A.India and Pakistan B.India and Afghanistan C.India and Nepal D.India and China Answer (D) 2.LAC (Line of Actual Control) is an effective border between India and ______. (SSC CHSL 2020) A.Pakistan B.Bhutan C.Sri Lanka D.China Answer (D)

 

 

 

Source:indianexpress

 

 

PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION (PSC)

 

 

1. Context

 

The 2025 national conference of chairpersons of the State Public Service Commissions (PSCs) is being hosted by the Telangana State Public Service Commission on December 19 and 20. Every year, whenever State PSCs conduct examinations for recruitment, they are mired in one controversy or the other. 

 

2. What is the history of PSCs?

 

• The origin of Public Service Commissions in India goes back to the British era, when the need for a merit-based and impartial civil service was increasingly recognised. Before formal commissions were established, civil services appointments were largely controlled by the British administration without a clear, independent recruitment mechanism.
• The first major step towards an independent recruitment body came in 1926, when the Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the creation of the first Public Service Commission at the national level..
• This body, known simply as the Public Service Commission, was tasked with advising the government on service-related matters and conducting examinations for certain posts, although its powers were still quite limited.
• A more robust framework emerged with the Government of India Act, 1935, which laid the foundation for a Federal Public Service Commission and also allowed for the establishment of Provincial Public Service Commissions. This was the beginning of what we now recognize as the Union and State Public Service Commissions.
• After independence, the Constitution of India (1950) strengthened and formalized the system.
• The old Federal PSC became the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), and each state was empowered to set up its own State Public Service Commission (SPSC). These commissions were granted constitutional status under Articles 315 to 323, ensuring independence and protection from political interference.
• Over time, PSCs evolved into key institutions responsible for recruiting civil servants through competitive examinations, maintaining merit-based selection, and advising governments on disciplinary matters, promotions, and appointments

 

 

3. How are Public Service Commissions Structured?

 

 

• The UPSC operates within an environment that is largely insulated from political influence. Its members are chosen for their competence and extensive experience in public administration, with care taken to ensure representation from all regions of the country.
• Although the Constitution does not specify minimum age or qualifications, most UPSC members tend to be over 55 years old and are known for maintaining a non-partisan stance.
• In contrast, State Public Service Commissions function in settings where political influence is more pronounced, and appointments often reflect elements of a patronage system. As a result, traditional expectations such as minimum age, qualifications, and administrative experience are frequently overlooked.
• The Union government, with its large administrative structure, has significant staffing requirements and the financial capacity to manage pension commitments and new recruitments.
• To streamline personnel matters, it set up the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions in 1985, which oversees policies related to human resource management.
• This institutional framework ensures that vacancies are declared on time, allowing the UPSC to issue notifications, hold examinations, and announce results consistently and efficiently.
• On the other hand, the staffing needs of State governments are smaller and often irregular. Many States face budgetary constraints that make it difficult to fulfil retirement and hiring obligations, resulting in raising the retirement age or postponing fresh recruitment.
• Most States also lack a dedicated personnel ministry. Consequently, vacancies are not announced in a timely manner, which means that State PSCs do not conduct examinations with the same regularity as the UPSC

 

 

4. How do they Work?

 

• The UPSC periodically sets up expert committees that include not just academics but also civil servants, social workers, and other specialists to review and update the examination syllabus.
• This helps maintain a balance between academic knowledge and current developments. Because it can draw on talent from across the country, the UPSC is able to design and evaluate question papers with high quality and reliability.
• It also uses a well-established system of inter-se moderation at various stages of the exam to reduce subjective differences in marking.
• Moreover, the UPSC manages to uphold both transparency and confidentiality by promptly addressing any errors and making necessary systemic improvements, which reduces the need for candidates to approach the courts with complaints.
• In comparison, most State PSCs do not regularly constitute committees to revise their syllabi. They also have limited access to subject experts, often relying only on local academic resources.
• As a result, achieving uniform moderation during evaluation becomes difficult. In addition, State PSCs must handle complicated calculations involving both vertical and horizontal reservations, and in some cases, regional or zonal quotas, which increases the complexity of the recruitment process. These challenges frequently lead to legal disputes, causing significant delays in finalizing selections.
• Such issues are among the major factors affecting the effectiveness and public trust in State PSCs.
• Many frustrated candidates express that they no longer have confidence in their State Commissions and would prefer the UPSC to conduct these examinations. To rebuild credibility, timely structural and procedural reforms are essential

 

5. Constitutional Provisions

 

 

• Article 315 establishes that India must have a UPSC for the Union and separate Public Service Commissions for each State. Two or more States may also form a Joint PSC if their legislatures agree. The UPSC can assist any State if the Governor requests and the President approves.
• Article 316 states that the President appoints members of the UPSC and Joint PSCs, while Governors appoint members of State PSCs. About half of the members must have at least ten years of government service. Members serve for six years or until they reach the age limit—65 for UPSC and 62 for State PSCs—and cannot be reappointed after their term ends.
• Article 317 provides that UPSC or State PSC members can be removed only by the President, based on a Supreme Court inquiry, except in cases like insolvency, outside paid employment, or physical/mental incapacity. The President or Governor may suspend a member while the inquiry is ongoing.
• Article 318 empowers the President or a Governor to determine the number of members and staff of the Commission and their service conditions, which cannot be altered to their disadvantage after appointment.
• Article 319 restricts former members from taking up further government jobs. The UPSC Chairperson cannot hold any future government office, while State PSC chairpersons or members may move to UPSC or another State PSC but not to other government posts.
• Article 320 outlines the functions of the Commissions, mainly conducting recruitment exams and advising on recruitment, promotions, transfers, disciplinary matters, and claims related to costs or pensions. Governments may make rules specifying matters where consultation with the PSC is not required.
• Article 321 allows Parliament or State Legislatures to assign additional duties to the PSCs.
• Article 322 states that PSC expenses are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India or the respective State, ensuring financial independence.
• Article 323 requires UPSC and State PSCs to submit annual reports on their work. These reports must be placed before Parliament or the State Legislature along with explanations wherever the PSC’s advice was not accepted

 

6. Roles and Functions of PSC

 

• The Constitution requires governments to consult the Public Service Commission on appointments and other matters listed under Article 320. The Commission’s responsibilities include holding examinations for State civil service posts and advising the government on recruitment methods, principles for appointments, promotions, inter-service transfers, suitability of candidates, and disciplinary cases involving State civil servants.
• Articles 229 and 234 further mandate consultation with the Commission for appointments to specific posts in the High Court establishment and the State Judicial Service. Several statutory bodies also follow similar requirements for certain categories of posts.
• Article 321 additionally empowers the State Legislature to assign extra functions to the Commission in relation to State services or local bodies, although no such legislation has been enacted so far.
• The State Government seeks the Commission’s advice for most civil service recruitments, but some posts are excluded through regulations framed under the proviso to Article 320(3). In West Bengal, for example, these exclusions are listed in the West Bengal Public Service Commission (Exemption from Consultation) Regulations, 2008

 

7. Way Forward

 

Reforms are also needed in the examination processes. The syllabus must be revised regularly, reflecting academic changes and aligning with UPSC standards. Any proposed revision should be made public, inviting feedback before implementation. State-specific topics—such as regional history, economy, or geography—can be evaluated through objective-type questions to reduce subjective bias. While the preliminary exam may remain fully objective, the mains should include both objective and descriptive papers. Translation of question papers should combine technology with human oversight to avoid errors. Frequent changes in question patterns can prevent overreliance on AI-generated answers

 

 

 

For Prelims: Union Public Service Commission, Lord Thomas Macaulay, Haileybury College, Satyendranath Tagore, Indian Constitutional Reforms, Government of India Act, 1919, Public Service Commission, Public Service Commission (Functions) Rules, 1926,  Government of India Act, of 1935, Article 378 of the Constitution, Consolidated Fund of India,  For Mains: 1. What is Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)? Discuss its evolution and Explain the functions of UPSC. (250 Words)

 

 

Previous Year Questions   1. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the Article ______  (MP Patwari 2017) A. 315                   B. 234                    C. 421                             D. 56   Answer: A   2. T.B. Macaulay has penned his 'Minute on Education' in the year  (AP SET 2016) A.1735                B. 1753                  C. 1853                             D.1835   Answer: D   3. Which of the following is NOT true about Mill's History of British India? (UGC NET 2019)  A. It founded the traditional institutions of India static and retrogressive B. The analysis made by Mill suited the needs of imperial government. C. It became a textbook on India for the British officers of the Indian Civil Services at Haileybury College D. It was not informed by the English utilitarian philosophy   Answer: D   4. Who among the following was the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Service?  (NDA 2019) 1. Satyendranath Tagore 2. Surendranath Banerjee 3. R.C. Dutt 4. Subhas Chandra Bose   Answer: A   5. Which among the following events happened earliest? (UPSC 2018) A. Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj. B. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neel Darpan C. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath. D. Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.   Answer: B   6. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved" and "Transferred" subjects. Which of the following were treated as "Reserved" subjects? (UPSC 2022) 1. Administration of Justice 2. Local Self-Government 3. Land Revenue 4. Police Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 3             B. 2, 3 and 4              C.  1, 3 and 4           D. 1, 2 and 4   Answer: A   7. Features of the Government of India Act 1935 are: (Rajasthan Police SI 2016) (a) The provincial autonomy (b) The establishment of Federal Court (c) The establishment of All India Federation at the Centre 1. a and b               2.  b and c             3. a and c                     4. a, b and c   Answer: 4   8. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2015)  1. The Department of Revenue responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament. 2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India 3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need authorization from the Parliament of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only      B. 2 and 3 only    C. 2 only     D.  1, 2 and 3   Answer: C

 

Source: The Hindu

 

TRADE DEFICIT

 

 

1. Context

 

India’s trade deficit in October surged by 141% in October 2025 to $21.8 billion. While this is a seemingly alarming jump, underlying data show that things aren’t all that bad, with India’s exports displaying some resilience in the face of significant headwinds, and its imports being disproportionately affected by the import of a few items.

 

2. What is the Trade balance?

 

• Trade balance is a measure of how much a country earns from selling goods to other countries compared to how much it spends on buying goods from abroad. It tells us whether a nation is bringing in more money through exports or sending out more money due to imports.
• If a country exports more than it imports, it has a trade surplus, meaning it earns extra foreign currency and its economy may appear stronger in terms of external trade.
• On the other hand, if imports are higher than exports, the country experiences a trade deficit, which means it is spending more on foreign goods than it is earning through exports.
• The trade balance is an important part of a country’s Balance of Payments because it reflects the health of international trade, affects the value of its currency, and influences economic policies.
• In simple terms, it shows whether a country is “selling more than it buys” or “buying more than it sells” in the global market

The trade balance refers to the gap between a country’s exports and imports. When a nation buys more goods from abroad than it sells, the situation is known as a trade deficit. Conversely, when export earnings are higher than import spending, it results in a trade surplus. In October 2025, India’s trade deficit rose sharply to $21.8 billion, compared to $9.05 billion in the same month the previous year. A trade deficit can widen for several reasons — exports may decline, imports may rise, or imports might simply grow at a faster pace than exports. In October 2025, India saw both higher imports and a slight dip in exports. This shift was driven largely by the performance of India’s merchandise trade rather than its services sector

 

3. India's Exports

 

• India’s overall exports in October 2025 dipped by 0.7%, settling at $72.9 billion. This decline was mainly driven by a significant fall in merchandise exports, which dropped by 11.8% to $34.4 billion. In contrast, the services sector performed strongly, registering an 11.9% increase during the same month.
• However, this weak merchandise performance in October did not substantially alter the broader trend.
• When viewed across the April–October 2025 period, India’s total exports still posted a 4.8% rise. During these seven months, merchandise exports inched up by 0.6%, while services exports expanded by 9.75%.
•  India achieved its highest-ever quarterly export levels in both the first and second quarters. This led to the strongest export showing in the first half of any financial year, driven largely by robust growth in services exports.
• It is also worth noting that the major challenges India currently faces—particularly the 50% tariffs imposed by the United States—impact only merchandise exports and not the services sector

 

 4. Sectors that are affected by this trend

 

• In October 2025, many labour-intensive industries experienced sharp declines in their export figures.
• Shipments of leather and related goods dropped by 15.7%, gems and jewellery fell by 29.5%, exports of organic and inorganic chemicals were down by 21%, engineering goods declined by 16.7%, cotton yarn by 13.3%, man-made yarn by 11.8%, and jute by 27.8%, among others.
• Since the United States is a major buyer of most of these products, the recently imposed tariffs have dealt a heavy blow to these sectors.
• Although exporters are attempting to move into new markets and broaden their global reach, reworking supply chains is a slow process, meaning these challenges are likely to continue for some more months

 

5. What are the Disadvantages of Trade Deficits?

 

 

• A trade deficit can create several challenges for a country, affecting both its economy and long-term growth prospects. When a nation imports more than it exports, money flows out of the economy, and this imbalance can have a range of consequences.
• One disadvantage is the increased reliance on foreign capital. To finance a persistent trade deficit, a country may have to borrow from abroad or attract foreign investment.
• Over time, this can lead to rising external debt and greater vulnerability to global financial fluctuations. If investors lose confidence, the country may face sudden capital outflows or currency instability.
• A large trade deficit can also put downward pressure on the domestic currency. As more foreign currency is demanded to pay for imports, the value of the national currency may depreciate.
• A weaker currency makes imports costlier, contributing to inflation, which in turn can reduce purchasing power and increase the cost of living.
• Another drawback is the potential harm to domestic industries. When imports surge, local producers may struggle to compete with cheaper or higher-quality foreign goods.
• This can lead to reduced production, job losses, and even the closure of certain industries. Over time, the country might become less self-reliant, depending heavily on imported goods and services.
• Moreover, a sustained trade deficit can signal deeper structural problems—such as low productivity, limited export diversification, or a lack of competitiveness in global markets. These issues can slow economic growth and hinder future development if not addressed through policy measures

 

6. What Measures are Needed for a Balanced Trade? 

 

• Achieving a balanced trade—where exports and imports remain reasonably aligned—requires a mix of policy interventions, structural reforms, and long-term economic strategies. Here is an explanatory, non–bullet-point answer:
• A balanced trade situation can be fostered by strengthening a country’s export capacity while ensuring that imports remain sustainable. One of the most important steps is improving the competitiveness of domestic industries.
• This involves investing in better infrastructure, reducing logistics costs, enhancing technology adoption, and supporting innovation so that Indian products can match or outperform global competitors. When goods become competitive in quality and price, export growth naturally strengthens.
• At the same time, diversification of export markets and products is crucial. Relying too heavily on a few countries or sectors makes trade vulnerable to external shocks such as tariffs, geopolitical tensions, or global demand fluctuations.
• By expanding into new regions and promoting high-value sectors—like pharmaceuticals, electronics, engineering goods, and services—India can reduce risk and stabilize export earnings.
• Another measure is encouraging domestic manufacturing to reduce unnecessary imports. Policies such as “Make in India,” production-linked incentives, and support for MSMEs help develop local supply chains that can replace imported goods. This not only saves foreign exchange but also boosts employment and industrial growth.
• Trade agreements also play a major role. Negotiating fair and strategic free trade agreements can open new markets for Indian exporters while ensuring that local industries are protected from excessive import competition.
• Clear, stable trade policies help build confidence among exporters and attract investment into export-oriented sectors.
• Improving ease of doing business is equally important. Simplified customs procedures, faster clearances, efficient ports, and digital trade facilitation make exporting smoother and cheaper. Reducing compliance burdens encourages more firms—especially small and medium enterprises—to participate in global trade.
• Finally, macroeconomic stability supports balanced trade. A stable currency, controlled inflation, and prudent fiscal policies make exports more predictable and imports manageable. When the domestic economy is stable, it creates an environment where trade can grow without creating imbalances

 

7. Way Forward

 

This issue can be examined from different angles. On the export front, India’s merchandise shipments are likely to remain under strain for as long as the 50% U.S. tariffs continue. Even so, the trade friction between India and the United States has begun to ease somewhat. Both countries completed the sixth round of negotiations on a Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA) in October, signalling renewed progress.

Officials from both sides have once again started expressing optimism about finalising at least the initial phase of the BTA. Such discussions had paused right after the steep tariffs were imposed, so their revival is a positive development. If the question of tariffs is resolved in the early part of the agreement, India’s merchandise exports could regain momentum.

 

For Prelims: Trade Deficit, Balance of Payments (BoP), Exports, Imports   For Mains: GS III - Economy

 

 

Previous Year Questions   1. Consider the following countries: 1. Australia 2. Canada 3. China 4. India 5. Japan 6. USA Which of the above are among the free-trade partners' of ASEAN? (UPSC 2018) A. 1, 2, 4 and 5          B.  3, 4, 5 and 6      C.  1, 3, 4 and 5       D.  2, 3, 4 and 6   2. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if (UPSC 2018) (a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output. (b) Agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output. (c) Poverty and unemployment increase. (d) Imports grow faster than exports.   3. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following: (2010) Development of infrastructure facilities. Promotion of investment from foreign sources. Promotion of exports of services only. Which of the above are the objectives of this Act? (a) 1 and 2 only     (b) 3 only         (c) 2 and 3 only           (d) 1, 2 and 3 4. A “closed economy” is an economy in which (UPSC 2011) (a) the money supply is fully controlled (b) deficit financing takes place (c) only exports take place (d) neither exports nor imports take place 5. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022) 1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. 2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only         (b) 2 only            (c) Both 1 and 2          (d) Neither 1 nor 2   Answers: 1-C, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D, 5- C

Source: The Hindu