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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 11 NOVEMBER 2025

AIR QUALITY INDEX (AQI)

 

1. Context

The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) on Monday did not release the daily air quality bulletin for the country which is usually done around 4 p.m. every day, which is considered the day’s Air Quality Index (AQI).
 

2. The Air Quality Index (AQI)

The AQI is a colour-coded index launched under the Swachh Bharat campaign to simplify the understanding of pollution levels. It helps convey the condition of the air and guides appropriate measures based on the severity of pollution. The AQI consists of six categories, each with a corresponding colour code: 'Good' (0-50), 'Satisfactory' (51-100), 'Moderately Polluted' (101-200), 'Poor' (201-300), 'Very Poor' (301-400) and 'Severe' (401-500).

3. Calculation of AQI

  • To calculate the AQI, a technical study was conducted by an expert group, including medical professionals, air quality experts, and academics.
  • Various pollutants, such as PM10, PM2.5, Nitrogen Dioxide, Ozone, Carbon, and others, are measured.
  • Each pollutant is assigned a weight based on its impact on human health.
  • The composite air quality index is determined by combining these weights, simplifying multiple data points into a single number and colour to represent overall air quality.
  • Monitoring stations across the country assess these pollutant levels.

4. Impact of Pollutants on Health

  • Among the most harmful pollutants are fine particulate matter, such as PM2.5, which has a diameter smaller than 2.5 micrometres.
  • PM2.5 particles can easily enter the circulatory system, bypassing the nose and throat.
  • They are associated with respiratory problems and reduced visibility, posing health risks such as asthma, heart attacks, bronchitis, and other respiratory issues.

5. Influence on Government Policy

  • Governments, especially in areas like Delhi, use the AQI to announce measures to combat air pollution.
  • When the AQI in the National Capital Region (NCR) reaches the 'severe' category, Stage 4 of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is implemented.
  • GRAP is designed for emergency measures to prevent further deterioration of air quality.
  • Specific actions may include prohibiting the use of non-BS-VI-compliant diesel four-wheelers and restricting the entry of trucks into the city while allowing petrol cars to continue operating as usual.

6. Conclusion

The Air Quality Index is an essential tool that simplifies the understanding of air pollution, assesses its health impacts, and influences government policies and actions to combat deteriorating air quality. As Mumbai braces for worsening air quality, the AQI will continue to be a critical resource for both the government and the public.

 
For Prelims: Air Pollution, Air Quality Index, PM 2.5, PM 10, BS-VI Vehicles, Graded Response Action Plan, National Capital Region, Nitrogen Dioxide, Ozone, Carbon, 
For Mains: 
1. With the onset of worsening air quality in Mumbai, discuss the importance of the AQI as a critical resource for both the government and the public. How can the AQI assist in addressing air pollution-related challenges in the upcoming winter months? (250 Words)

 

Previous Year Questions

1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (UPSC 2016)
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nitrogen dioxide
  4. Sulfur dioxide
  5. Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only      B. 2, 3 and 4 only   C. 1, 4 and 5 only     D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: B

2. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (UPSC 2020)

  1. Automobile exhaust
  2. Tobacco smoke
  3. Wood burning
  4. Using varnished wooden furniture
  5. Using products made of polyurethane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only  B. 2 and 4 only   C. 1, 3 and 4 only     D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

AnswerA

3. What is the ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? (UPSC 2016)

(a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions

(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies.

(c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022

(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank

Answer: A

4. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among (UPSC 2013)

(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

(c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature

(d) high concentration of NO2 O3 and CO in the evening

Answer: A

 

5. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment (UPSC 2013, 2022)

(a) Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen

(b) Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide

(c) Ozone and Carbon Dioxide

(d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide

 Answer: D

 

6. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (UPSC 2017)

(a) Measuring oxygen level in blood

(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems

(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem

(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions

Answer: C

7. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently published the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, in 2020. Which of the following statements is correct about EIA? (Punjab Civil Service 2020)
1. It predicts the effect of a proposed industrial/infrastructural project on the environment.
2. It prevents the proposed activity/project from being approved without proper oversight or taking adverse consequences into account.
3. It compares various alternatives for a project and seeks to identify the one which represents the best combination of economic and environmental costs and benefits.
4. As per the new notification, Coal and non-Coal mineral prospecting and solar photovoltaic projects do not need prior environmental clearance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 1, 2 and 4
Answer: D
 
8.  Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in (NDA 2017)
A. Washington        B. Geneva         C. Moscow         D.  London
 
Answer: B
 
 
9. With reference to the 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2017)
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only            B. 3 only           C. 2 and 3 only              D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
 
10. The IPCC is the United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change. IPCC stands for: (RRB NTPC CBT 2 2022)
A. Intergovernmental Provision on Climate Change
B. International Panel on Climate Change
C. International Provision on Climate Change
D. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
 
Answer: D
 
 
11. Comprehension (SSC CHSL 2020)
 
Direction: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Forest fire always (1) ______ by one of two reasons-naturally caused or human-caused. Natural fire is generally (2) ______ by lightning, with a very small percentage (3) ______ by spontaneous combustion of dry fuel such as sawdust and leaves. (4) ______, human-caused fire can happen (5) ______ any number of reasons.
Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1.
A. takes up    B. happens    C. causes    D. creates
 
Answer: B
 
12. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the (UPSC 2020) 
A. long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emission in a given year.
B. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.
C. efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
D. contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.
 
Answer: A
 
13. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (UPSC 2012)
A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
C. all the solar radiations
D. the infrared part of the solar radiation
 
Answer: D
 
14. As per the World Health Organisation (WHO) recommendation of a balanced diet, to avoid unhealthy weight gain, total fat should NOT exceed _______ of total energy intake. (UPSSSC Mandi Inspector 2019)
A. 20%         B.  30%        C. 10%          D. 40%
 
Answer: B
 
15. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems? (UPSC 2012)
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only        B. 2 and 3 only          C. 1 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: A
 
16. Which of the following ultraviolet rays is more dangerous? (UPTET 2017)
A. UV-A        B. UV-B          C.  UV-C          D.  None of the above
 
Answer: C
 
17. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019) 
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only         B. 2 and 3 only          C. 2 only          D.  1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: D
 
18. Which of the following is a VOC? (MP Vyapam 2022) 
A. Toulene          B. Water            C. Carbon dioxide          D. Carbon monoxide
 
Answer: A
 
19. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are of great concern because (UGC NET  Environmental Science  2020)
A. Once such compounds are in the vapour state, they are difficult to control in the environment.
B. Most of them are ozone depleting substances
C. They contribute to a general increase in reactive hydrocarbons in the atmosphere.
D. They are less soluble in water.
 
Answer: C

 Source: The Indian Express

 

PERSONALITY RIGHTS

1. Context

The Delhi High Court on Monday protected the personality rights of actor and Samajwadi Party’s Rajya Sabha member Jaya Bachchan. The court was hearing Ms. Bachchan’s plea stating several social media accounts, YouTube channels and websites were misusing her name and persona for commercial gains

2. About personality rights

  • Personality rights are the rights of a person to protect their identity, including their name, voice, signature, images, and any other feature easily identified by the public.
  • Personality rights are not expressly mentioned in a statute in India but are traced to fall under the right to privacy and the right to property.
  • The closest statute to protect personality rights is Article 21 of the Constitution of India under rights to privacy and publicity.
  • Other statutory provisions protecting personality rights include the Copyright Act, 1957. According to the Act, moral rights are only granted to authors and performers, including actors, singers, musicians, and dancers.
  • The provisions of the Act mandate that the Authors or the Performers have the right to be given credit or claim authorship of their work and also have a right to restrain others from causing any kind of damage to their work.
  • The Indian Trademarks Act, 1999 also protects personal rights under Section 14, which restricts the use of personal names and representations.
  • The Delhi High Court and the Madras High Court have passed interim orders protecting the personality rights of celebrities, but the law is still at a nascent stage in India.
  • Celebrities often register some aspects of their personality as trademarks to use them commercially. For example, Usain Bolt's "bolting" or lightning pose is a registered trademark.

4. How have Indian courts decided so far?

  • In a recent case, the Delhi High Court granted an ex-parte, omnibus injunction restraining 16 entities from using actor Anil Kapoor's name, likeness, and image for commercial purposes.
  • The court also granted an injunction against the use of technological tools like Artificial Intelligence, face morphing, and GIFs to create unauthorised versions of Kapoor.
  • In an earlier case, the Delhi High Court had issued a similar injunction against the unauthorised use of Amitabh Bachchan's personality rights.
  • The court had injuncted the use of variations of his name such as "Big B", his unique style of addressing the computer as "'Computer ji", and his catchphrase "lock kiya jaye".
  • In 2015, the Madras High Court observed that "personality right vests on those persons, who have attained the status of celebrity".
  • The court's observation came in the actor Rajnikanth's lawsuit against the producers of the movie "Main hoon Rajnikanth", claiming that his name, image, and style of delivering dialogues had infringed on his personality rights.
  • The court said that the producers after admitting that the actor has a high reputation can't now say that Rajnikanth is a common name.

5. When can the Court grant an injunction?

The Delhi High Court has listed out the following elements comprising the liability for infringement of the right of publicity:

  • The right has to be valid. This means that the court must be satisfied that the "plaintiff owns an enforceable right in the identity or persona of a human being."
  • The celebrity must be easily identifiable in the alleged misuse. "The celebrity must be identifiable from the defendant’s unauthorized use Infringement of right of publicity requires no proof of falsity, confusion, or deception, especially when the celebrity is identifiable," the HC had said.
  • The defendant must have intended to trade upon the identity of the plaintiff, from which identifiability can be presumed.

6. Conclusion

In essence, the protection of personality rights in India remains a developing area of law, with celebrities increasingly seeking legal recourse to safeguard their distinct identities in an evolving digital landscape.

For Prelims: Personality rights, Delhi High Court, Madras High Court, Right to property, trademark, right to privacy, Article 21, Copyright Act, 1957
For Mains:
1. Explain how can the legal framework for protecting personality rights in India be strengthened to better address the challenges of the digital age. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (UPSC 2021) 
A. Legal right available to citizens only
B. Legal right available to any person
C. Fundamental Right available, to citizens only
D. Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
Answer: B
 
2. In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999. The difference/differences between a "Trade Mark" and a Geographical Indication is/are (UPSC 2010)
1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company's right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community's right.
2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed.
3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods/products and handicrafts only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only          B. 1 and 2 only        C. 2 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: B
 
3. Which of the following statements regarding Article 21 of the Constitution of India is/ is correct?  (CDS GK 2017)
1. Article 21 is violated when under-trial prisoners are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite period.
2. Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not even the state has the authority to violate that right.
3. Under Article 21, the right of a woman to make reproductive choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2 and 3     B. 1 and 2 only     C. 1 and 3 only        D. 2 only
 
Answer: B
 
4. Article 21 of Indian Constitution secures: (OPSC OAS 2018)
A. Right to life only
B. Right to personal liberty only
C. Right to liberty and privacy
D. Right to life, personal liberty and right to privacy
 
Answer: D

5. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India? (UPSC 2021)

(a) Article 15
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 29

Answer: C

6. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement? (2018)

(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution.

(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV.

(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III.

(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution.

Answer: C

 
Source: The Indian Express
 
 

ANTI-DEFECTION LAW

 
 
 
 
1. Context
 
The Supreme Court on November 17 will hear a petition seeking contempt proceedings against the Telangana Speaker for allegedly not complying with its direction to decide disqualification pleas against 10 Bharat Rashtra Samithi (BRS) MLAs who defected to the ruling Congress.
 

2. About anti-defection law

The anti-defection law in India refers to the provisions laid down in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which was inserted by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985. The primary purpose of the anti-defection law is to curb "political defections" by legislators for personal gains or due to extraneous considerations, thereby promoting stability and integrity in the political system.

Key features and purposes of the anti-defection law include

  • The law provides for the disqualification of elected legislators if they voluntarily give up the membership of their political party or disobey the directives issued by their party leadership on voting in legislative matters.
  • By penalizing defections, the law aims to preserve stability and discipline within political parties. It discourages legislators from switching parties solely for opportunistic reasons, thereby promoting a more principled approach to politics.
  • Preventing defections helps in maintaining stable governments by reducing the likelihood of frequent changes in government formation due to opportunistic alliances or individual defections. This stability is essential for effective governance and policy implementation.
  • The law seeks to protect the mandate given by voters to a particular political party during elections. Defections can undermine the trust placed by voters in a party's policies and candidates, and the anti-defection law aims to safeguard the integrity of the electoral process.
  • By discouraging defections and ensuring that legislators adhere to the party's stance on legislative matters, the law contributes to the smooth functioning of legislatures. It reduces disruptions caused by political uncertainties and promotes a more focused approach to lawmaking and governance.
  • The anti-defection law upholds democratic principles by emphasizing the importance of party discipline and accountability. It encourages elected representatives to remain committed to the party's ideology and manifesto, thereby fostering a more transparent and accountable political system.
 

3. Has the anti-defection law ensured the stability of governments?

The effectiveness of the anti-defection law in ensuring the stability of governments in India is a subject of debate. While the law has certainly had some impact on curbing defections and promoting party discipline, its efficacy in maintaining government stability is not absolute.

Several factors contribute to this nuanced perspective

  • The anti-defection law has succeeded in reducing blatant opportunistic defections where legislators switch parties solely for personal gains or political expediency. This has helped in preventing frequent changes in government formation and instability arising from such defections.
  • In a multi-party democracy like India, coalition governments are common, and the anti-defection law has played a role in preserving these coalitions by deterring individual legislators from defecting and causing the collapse of the government.
  • By discouraging defections and ensuring party discipline, the law has contributed to the smooth functioning of legislatures, which is essential for passing legislation and conducting parliamentary business. This has indirectly supported government stability by facilitating the enactment of policies and laws.
  • Despite its provisions, the anti-defection law has faced challenges and criticisms. Some critics argue that the law has not entirely prevented defections, as legislators often find loopholes or exploit exceptions in the law to switch parties without facing disqualification.
  • Government stability is influenced by various factors beyond the anti-defection law, including political dynamics, coalition dynamics, public opinion, and socio-economic factors. The law alone cannot guarantee government stability in the face of broader political uncertainties and challenges.
  • While promoting stability, the anti-defection law has also raised concerns about its impact on democratic values such as freedom of speech and dissent within political parties. Critics argue that the law may stifle legitimate dissent and independent decision-making among legislators.

 

4. What constitutes defection? Who is the deciding authority?

Defection refers to the act of an elected representative or member of a political party abandoning their original party affiliation and joining another political party or forming a separate group, either independently or in association with others, without following the procedures laid down by their party or the law.

In the context of the anti-defection law in India, defection is specifically defined as:

  • If a member of a political party voluntarily gives up their membership of that party.
  • If an elected member votes or abstains from voting against the directives issued by their party leadership (whip) on a particular legislative matter, without obtaining prior permission.
  • If a member of a political party joins another political party after being elected as a representative.
  • If a member of a political party forms or joins a new group or political party, and such group consists of at least one-third of the members of the original political party in the legislature.

The deciding authority regarding defection cases is typically the Speaker or Chairman of the concerned legislative body (e.g., Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assembly, or State Legislative Council). Upon receiving a complaint or petition regarding a defection case, the Speaker or Chairman examines the matter and makes a decision based on the provisions of the anti-defection law.

The Speaker or Chairman is responsible for determining whether the actions of the member(s) constitute defection as per the law and, if so, for issuing appropriate orders, including disqualification of the defectors from membership of the legislature. The decision of the Speaker or Chairman can be challenged in the courts through legal recourse if it is perceived to be arbitrary or in violation of constitutional principles.

 

5. Kihoto Hollohan case (1993)

The Kihoto Hollohan vs. Zachillhu and Others case, decided by the Supreme Court of India in 1992, is a landmark case related to defection and the role of the Speaker in Indian politics.

  • The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, introduced through the 52nd Amendment in 1985, laid down provisions to curb defection by elected representatives. This case challenged the constitutionality of the Tenth Schedule, particularly the broad powers it granted to the Speaker in deciding defection cases.
  • The petitioners argued that giving the Speaker such extensive power violated the doctrine of basic structure and potentially infringed on the freedom of speech, dissent, and conscience of elected representatives.
  • The Supreme Court, in a majority judgment, upheld the Tenth Schedule and the Speaker's broad powers. The court reasoned that:
    • The Speaker occupies a crucial position in the parliamentary system and is expected to handle sensitive matters.
    • Granting the Speaker broad discretion is necessary for the efficient and effective functioning of the anti-defection law.
    • The court acknowledged the potential for bias but believed it was minimized by the Speaker's constitutional position and the requirement to act in good faith.

Significance: The Kihoto Hollohan case remains a pivotal judgment shaping Indian politics. It

  • Established the Speaker's authority in deciding defection cases.
  • affirmed the constitutionality of the anti-defection law.
  • However, the case also sparked discussions about the balance between stability and individual rights in the context of defection. It continues to be debated whether the broad powers granted to the Speaker are truly necessary or pose a risk to democratic principles.

 

6. SR Bommai case (1994)

The SR Bommai case, officially known as S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India, is a landmark judgment delivered by the Supreme Court of India in 1994. This case dealt with issues related to the dismissal of state governments under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, popularly known as the President's Rule.

The case was prompted by the dismissal of the government in the state of Karnataka in 1989 under Article 356 by the then-central government led by Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi. This dismissal led to legal challenges, including petitions filed by S.R. Bommai, who was the Chief Minister of Karnataka at the time of dismissal.

Key Issues

  1. Whether the decision of the President to impose President's Rule in a state under Article 356 was immune from judicial review.
  2. Whether the power of the President to dismiss a state government was absolute or whether there were limitations on this power.
  3. Whether there were grounds for judicial intervention in cases of misuse or abuse of Article 356 by the Central government.

Key Judgments

  • The Supreme Court held that the imposition of the President's Rule in a state is subject to judicial review. The Court ruled that the exercise of power under Article 356 is justiciable, and the President's satisfaction with imposing the President's Rule can be questioned in a court of law.
  • The Court laid down guidelines and limitations on the exercise of power under Article 356. It held that the President's Rule can only be imposed in exceptional circumstances where the constitutional machinery in a state has completely broken down, and the Governor's report justifying the imposition of the President's Rule must be based on relevant material.
  • The Court ruled that a floor test in the legislative assembly is the most effective way to determine the strength of the government and resolve political uncertainties. It held that the majority enjoyed by a government in the assembly should be tested on the floor of the House.

Significance: The SR Bommai case is significant as it established judicial guidelines and limitations on the use of Article 356 and provided clarity on the scope of judicial review in matters related to the dismissal of state governments. It reinforced the principles of federalism and democracy by limiting the Central government's power to dismiss state governments arbitrarily and ensuring accountability in the exercise of such powers.

 

7. The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 and the 10th Schedule of the Constitution

The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 was a significant amendment to the Constitution of India. It introduced the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, commonly known as the anti-defection law. The primary objective of this amendment was to curb the practice of political defections by legislators, which often led to instability in governments and undermined the democratic process.

Key provisions of the 52nd Amendment Act and the Tenth Schedule include

  1. The Tenth Schedule defines defection and provides criteria for disqualification of legislators who defect from their political party.
  2. Legislators can be disqualified if they voluntarily give up their party membership or violate the directives issued by their party leadership on voting in legislative matters.
  3. The Tenth Schedule empowers the Speaker or Chairman of the legislative body to decide on defection cases. The decision of the Speaker or Chairman regarding disqualification is final and cannot be questioned in a court of law except on certain grounds such as mala fide or violation of principles of natural justice.
  4. The Tenth Schedule provides certain exceptions to disqualification, such as when a political party merges with another party, and two-thirds of its members agree to the merger.
  5. While the decision of the Speaker or Chairman is generally final, it is subject to judicial review on certain grounds, such as violation of constitutional provisions or principles of natural justice.

The 52nd Amendment Act and the Tenth Schedule were introduced to promote stability and integrity in the political system by discouraging defections and preserving party discipline. However, over the years, there have been debates and discussions about the effectiveness of the anti-defection law and its impact on democratic principles such as freedom of speech and dissent within political parties. Nevertheless, the introduction of the Tenth Schedule remains a significant milestone in the constitutional history of India aimed at strengthening the democratic framework of the country.

 

8. 91st Amendment Act of 2003

The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 is an important amendment to the Constitution of India. This amendment introduced changes to Article 75 and Article 164, which deal with the appointment of Ministers in the Union Council of Ministers and State Council of Ministers, respectively. The primary objective of the 91st Amendment Act was to prevent the practice of "office of profit" by Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of the State Legislature (MLAs).

Key provisions of the 91st Amendment Act include

  1. The amendment clarified the definition of "office of profit" held by MPs and MLAs. An office of profit refers to any position held by a person which brings them some financial gain, advantage, or benefit.
  2.  The amendment exempted certain offices from being considered as offices of profit. These include offices held by MPs or MLAs as Ministers, or positions that the Parliament or State Legislature has specifically declared as not being offices of profit.
  3. The amendment specified that a person shall be disqualified from being a member of Parliament or State Legislature if they hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any state, other than offices exempted by law.
  4. The amendment allowed for the Parliament or State Legislature to make laws specifying the offices that are exempted from disqualification. It also provided for the interpretation of the term "office of profit" by the Parliament or State Legislature.

The 91st Amendment Act aimed to ensure that legislators do not hold positions that could potentially compromise their independence and impartiality in discharging their duties as elected representatives. By preventing MPs and MLAs from holding offices of profit, the amendment sought to uphold the principles of transparency, accountability, and integrity in the functioning of the legislative bodies in India.

 

8.1. What is that ‘exception’?

  • The exception mentioned in the context of the 91st Amendment Act of 2003 refers to certain offices that are exempted from being considered as "office of profit" and, therefore, do not lead to disqualification of MPs or MLAs holding such positions.
  • The amendment provides that certain offices can be specifically exempted by law from being considered as offices of profit. This means that the Parliament or State Legislature can pass laws to declare certain positions or offices as not falling under the definition of office of profit, thereby allowing MPs or MLAs to hold these positions without facing disqualification.
  • The purpose of this exception is to provide clarity and flexibility in determining which positions should be considered as offices of profit and which should be exempted. It allows for a case-by-case examination of positions held by legislators to ensure that they do not hold any office that could potentially compromise their independence or impartiality in discharging their duties as elected representatives.
  • Examples of offices that may be exempted from being considered as offices of profit include positions held by legislators as Ministers or positions that are honorary or ceremonial, without any substantial remuneration or executive authority attached to them. However, the specific exemptions may vary depending on the laws passed by the Parliament or State Legislature.

 

9. The Way Forward

The anti-defection law remains a significant milestone in India's constitutional history, aimed at strengthening democratic principles and promoting a more transparent and accountable political system. There is a need to review and strengthen the implementation of the law, enhance transparency in defection cases, promote intra-party democracy, and encourage public awareness to uphold the integrity of the electoral process and ensure the stability of governments.

 

 

For Prelims: Anti-Defection Law, 91st Amendment Act of 2003, 52nd Amendment Act of 1985, the 10th Schedule of the Constitution, Kihoto Hollohan case, SR Bommai case, Article 356 

For Mains: 
1. Discuss the significance of the anti-defection law in India's political landscape, highlighting its objectives and key features. Also, analyze the effectiveness of the law in curbing political defections and promoting stability within political parties. (250 Words)
2. Discuss the significance of intra-party democracy in strengthening the anti-defection law and promoting a more accountable political system in India. Highlight the importance of transparency and public awareness in upholding the integrity of the electoral process. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. Regarding anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only      B. 2 only       C. Both 1 and 2        D.  Neither 1 nor 2
 
 
2. Consider the following statements in respect of Anti-defection Law in India? (OPSC OAS 2022)
(i) Political Parties got Constitutional recognition by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment.
(ii) Anti-defection Law came into effect on March 18, 1985.
(iii) The decision of the Speaker in disqualifying an elected member is subject to judicial review.
(iv) Anti-defection law comes into action if there is a split in the Political Party.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
A. (ii), (iii) and (iv)      B. (i), (iii) and (iv)     C.  (i), (ii) and (iii)       D.  (i), (ii) and (iv)
 

3. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection? (UPSC 2014)

(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule

4. The 91st Amendment Act (2003), was made so that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed ___ percent of total number of members of the House of the People (or Assembly, in the case of the States). (DSSSB JE CE 2019) (DSSSB Junior Steno 2021)

A. 16      B. 20      C. 15      D. 18

5. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government: (UPSC 2017)

(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

Answers: 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-C, 5-C

Mains

1. The role of individual MPs (Members of Parliament) has diminished over the years and as a result healthy constructive debates on policy issues are not usually witnessed. How far can this be attributed to the anti-defection law which was legislated but with a different intention? (UPSC 2013)
2. ‘Once a Speaker, Always a Speaker’! Do you think this practice should be adopted to impart objectivity to the office of the Speaker of Lok Sabha? What could be its implications for the robust functioning of parliamentary business in India? (UPSC 2020)

Source: The Indian Express

 

AIR POLLUTION

 
 
 
1. Context
 
While outdoor air pollution is a matter of concern, most people assume their homes are safe. But indoor air can actually be two to five times more polluted and hazardous than outdoor air because pollutants get trapped inside. 
 
2. Air Pollution and its severity
 
According to the International Energy Associates, road transport accounts for 12% of India’s CO2 emissions, with heavy vehicles being the primary source of Particulate Matter (PM) 2.5 emissions. PM2.5 consists of tiny particles that can penetrate deeply into the lungs and enter the bloodstream, leading to various respiratory and cardiovascular issues. Heavy vehicles also play a major role in emitting Nitrogen Oxide (NOx), which has similar health effects. NOx contributes to the formation of ground-level ozone, which degrades air quality and increases heat, exacerbating air pollution in urban areas. Research shows that heavy vehicles are responsible for approximately 60-70% of vehicular PM emissions and about 40-50% of NOx emissions in cities
 
3. Measures to Control Air Pollution
 
  • With the transport sector expanding at a rate of 9.1% annually, the Bureau of Energy Efficiency’s (BEE) effort to develop draft Corporate Average Fuel Economy (CAFE) standards for cars in India is both timely and commendable.
  • The planned implementation timelines for CAFE III (2027-2032) and CAFE IV (2032-2037) are practical. Transitioning from the Modified India Driving Cycle (MIDC) to the World Light Duty Vehicle Testing Procedure (WLTP) starting March 31, 2027, is a positive move, as the WLTP provides a more accurate and globally standardized assessment of a vehicle's fuel consumption and CO2 emissions.
  • The proposed emissions targets under CAFE III at 91.7g CO2/km and CAFE IV at 70g CO2/km are achievable. These stringent CO2 targets are crucial for fostering innovation and promoting the adoption of cleaner technologies.
  • For the benefit of both the environment and public health, these targets should remain firm.
  • However, it is important to note that the CAFE norms do not cover emissions from heavy vehicles such as trucks and lorries
4. Government Initiatives to Control air pollution
 
  • In 2022, the government launched a vehicle scrappage policy aimed at retiring old and polluting vehicles, including heavy-duty ones. The policy requires passenger vehicles older than 20 years and commercial vehicles older than 15 years to pass a “fitness and emissions test.”
  • Vehicles that fail these tests are deemed end-of-life, lose their registration certificates, and are recommended for scrapping.
  • However, the policy has not yet been effectively implemented in Karnataka due to the limited number of scrapyards (only two in the entire state) and its voluntary nature.
  • In Bangalore, many older vehicles are not four-wheelers but include older BMTC buses, private vans, and heavy vehicles.
  • Maharashtra, among 21 states, has introduced incentives like road tax discounts or new vehicle purchase reductions to promote scrapping, but these measures have yet to significantly impact air pollution. It is crucial for policymakers to ensure that these guidelines are not just theoretically sound but practically enforced.
  • Current government measures to address air pollution—such as regular vehicle emissions testing, banning open garbage burning, and monitoring industrial emissions—must be strictly enforced.
  • While the government's efforts to reduce air pollution are commendable, it is important to emphasize that expanding mass transit is essential for a sustainable approach to tackling air pollution in India

For Prelims: National Clean Air Programme, Air Pollution, Particulate Matter, Clean Air Action Plans

For Mains: 
1. What are the challenges and opportunities presented by the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) for improving air quality in Indian cities? Discuss the measures required to overcome implementation hurdles and ensure the effective management of air pollution. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (UPSC 2016)
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nitrogen dioxide
  4. Sulfur dioxide
  5. Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only      B. 2, 3 and 4 only   C. 1, 4 and 5 only     D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

2. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (UPSC 2020)

  1. Automobile exhaust
  2. Tobacco smoke
  3. Wood burning
  4. Using varnished wooden furniture
  5. Using products made of polyurethane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only  B. 2 and 4 only   C. 1, 3 and 4 only     D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 

3. What is the ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? (UPSC 2016)

(a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions
(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies.
(c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022
(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank

4. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among (UPSC 2013)

(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature
(d) high concentration of NO2 O3 and CO in the evening
 

5. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment (UPSC 2013, 2022)

(a) Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen
(b) Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide
(c) Ozone and Carbon Dioxide
(d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide

6. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (UPSC 2017)

(a) Measuring oxygen level in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions
 
7. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently published the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, in 2020. Which of the following statements is correct about EIA? (Punjab Civil Service 2020)
1. It predicts the effect of a proposed industrial/infrastructural project on the environment.
2. It prevents the proposed activity/project from being approved without proper oversight or taking adverse consequences into account.
3. It compares various alternatives for a project and seeks to identify the one which represents the best combination of economic and environmental costs and benefits.
4. As per the new notification, Coal and non-Coal mineral prospecting and solar photovoltaic projects do not need prior environmental clearance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 1, 2 and 4
 
 
8.  Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in (NDA 2017)
A. Washington        B. Geneva         C. Moscow         D.  London
 
9. With reference to the 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2017)
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only            B. 3 only           C. 2 and 3 only              D. 1, 2 and 3
 
 
10. The IPCC is the United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change. IPCC stands for: (RRB NTPC CBT 2 2022)
A. Intergovernmental Provision on Climate Change
B. International Panel on Climate Change
C. International Provision on Climate Change
D. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
 
11. Comprehension (SSC CHSL 2020)
 
Direction: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Forest fire always (1) ______ by one of two reasons-naturally caused or human-caused. Natural fire is generally (2) ______ by lightning, with a very small percentage (3) ______ by spontaneous combustion of dry fuel such as sawdust and leaves. (4) ______, human-caused fire can happen (5) ______ any number of reasons.
Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1.
A. takes up    B. happens    C. causes    D. creates
 
12. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the (UPSC 2020) 
A. long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emission in a given year.
B. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.
C. efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
D. contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.
 
 
13. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (UPSC 2012)
A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
C. all the solar radiations
D. the infrared part of the solar radiation
 
14. As per the World Health Organisation (WHO) recommendation of a balanced diet, to avoid unhealthy weight gain, total fat should NOT exceed _______ of total energy intake. (UPSSSC Mandi Inspector 2019)
A. 20%         B.  30%        C. 10%          D. 40%
 
 
15. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems? (UPSC 2012)
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only        B. 2 and 3 only          C. 1 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
 
16. Which of the following ultraviolet rays is more dangerous? (UPTET 2017)
A. UV-A        B. UV-B          C.  UV-C          D.  None of the above
 
 
17. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019) 
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only         B. 2 and 3 only          C. 2 only          D.  1, 2 and 3
 
18. Which of the following is a VOC? (MP Vyapam 2022) 
A. Toulene          B. Water            C. Carbon dioxide          D. Carbon monoxide
 
 
19. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are of great concern because (UGC NET  Environmental Science  2020)
A. Once such compounds are in the vapour state, they are difficult to control in the environment.
B. Most of them are ozone-depleting substances
C. They contribute to a general increase in reactive hydrocarbons in the atmosphere.
D. They are less soluble in water.
 
Answers: 1-B, 2-A, 3-A, 4-A, 5-D, 6-C, 7-D, 8-B, 9-A, 10-D, 11-B, 12-A, 13-D, 14-B, 15-A, 16-C, 17-D, 18-A, 19-C
 
Source: The Hindu
 
 

ASIAN PACIFIC ECONOMIC COOPERATION (APEC)

 
 
1. Context
 
Diplomacy often resembles theatre. Summits come with scripts, staging and deliberate silences. The brief Trump-Xi meeting at the October 2025 APEC Summit in Busan revealed more through its setting and tone than through official statements
 
2. What is the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)?

APEC stands for the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation. It's a forum created in 1989, primarily aimed at promoting economic cooperation and trade among its member nations located in the Asia-Pacific region. The organization comprises 21 member economies, including countries like the United States, China, Japan, Australia, Canada, and others.

APEC's goals revolve around reducing barriers to trade and investment, promoting sustainable economic growth, facilitating economic and technical cooperation, and enhancing the overall prosperity of the region. Member economies use APEC as a platform to discuss and address regional economic issues, foster closer economic ties, and work toward greater integration and collaboration in the Asia-Pacific region

3. Origin and Development of Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)

  • The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) has its roots in discussions among Pacific Rim countries in the late 1980s. The concept was initially proposed by Australia's Prime Minister Bob Hawke, who suggested creating a forum for economic cooperation in the Asia-Pacific region.
  • The first step towards formalizing this idea was taken in 1989 when Australia hosted an informal ministerial meeting called the Ministerial Meeting on Economic Cooperation in the Asia-Pacific Region in Canberra. This gathering included representatives from 12 economies: Australia, Brunei Darussalam, Canada, Indonesia, Japan, Republic of Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and the United States.
  • During this meeting, the groundwork was laid for a more formal organization focused on enhancing economic cooperation and trade in the region. In November 1989, the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) was officially established with the signing of the Declaration of Common Resolve by its 12 founding member economies.
  • Since its inception, APEC has evolved and expanded both in terms of membership and its focus areas. Over time, more economies joined, increasing the total to 21 member economies. APEC has become a platform for discussing a wide range of economic issues, including trade liberalization, sustainable development, economic and technical cooperation, connectivity, and fostering closer ties among member economies.
  • The organization operates through annual ministerial meetings and leaders' summits, where discussions, negotiations, and agreements take place. APEC's primary goal remains to promote economic growth, trade, and investment across the Asia-Pacific region while addressing various challenges and opportunities in the global economy.

4.Why is India not a part of the APEC grouping?

India's absence from the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) grouping is primarily due to several factors, despite its geographical location in the Asia-Pacific region. When APEC was established in 1989, India was not among the founding members

Reasons contribute to India not being part of APEC:

  • At the time of APEC's formation, India's focus was more inward-looking. Its economic policies were centered around self-reliance and were not as oriented toward regional economic integration as some of the other economies that became founding members.
  • India pursued a different economic trajectory, particularly until the early 1990s. It followed policies that were not in line with the trade liberalization and economic openness advocated by APEC during its early years.
  • APEC membership is not automatic based solely on geographical location. The organization has its criteria and a selective approach to expansion. Economies that seek membership must demonstrate a commitment to certain principles, including trade liberalization, economic openness, and other specific criteria that India might not have fully aligned with in the past.
  • India has been actively engaged in other regional groupings like SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) and has also sought participation in the East Asia Summit (EAS) and the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP). These engagements might have been prioritized over APEC membership due to different geopolitical and economic considerations
5.Why APEC needs India?
  • India is one of the world's largest and fastest-growing economies. Its inclusion in APEC could significantly contribute to the economic dynamism of the region. India's market size, burgeoning middle class, and diverse economy could offer substantial opportunities for trade and investment among APEC member economies
  • India's participation could enhance the regional geopolitical balance within APEC. It could help in diversifying and broadening the perspectives and interests represented within the organization, fostering greater inclusivity and representation of South Asian concerns
  • India's strategic position in the Indian Ocean and its relationship with countries in South and Southeast Asia add a layer of strategic importance to the region. This could contribute to discussions on security, connectivity, and cooperation in the wider Asia-Pacific area.
  • India is known for its advancements in technology and innovation. Its inclusion could bring valuable expertise and collaboration opportunities in areas such as IT, biotechnology, pharmaceuticals, and other high-tech industries.
  • For APEC members, India's inclusion could offer expanded market access. India's diverse economy spans various sectors, including services, manufacturing, agriculture, and technology, providing new trade opportunities for APEC nations.
  • This is despite the fact that the US-India Joint Strategic Vision for the Asia-Pacific and Indian Ocean Region issued in 2015 states that “The United States welcomes India’s interest in joining the Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation forum, as the Indian economy is a dynamic part of the Asian economy.”
6. Way forward
While India's inclusion could be beneficial, it also depends on India's readiness to align its economic policies and priorities with those of APEC. India would need to demonstrate commitment to the principles of open trade, economic integration, and liberalization to facilitate smoother integration within the APEC framework.
 
 
For Prelims: Current events of national and international importance.
For Mains:  General Studies II: Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting
 
Previous Year Questions
1.APEC stands for ______ (Delhi Forest Gaurd 2021)
A.Association Pacific Economic Cooperation
B.Association Pacific Economic Community
C.Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
D.Asia-Pacific Economic Community
Answer (C)
Source: Indianexpress
 
 

PAY COMMISSION

 
 
 
1. Context
 
The Central government has constituted the 8th Central Pay Commission (CPC) with retired Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai as the Chairperson. It also consists of Professor Pulak Ghosh, faculty at IIM Bangalore, as a part-time member and Pankaj Jain IAS, Secretary to the government of India, as member-secretary. It will submit its report within 18 months.
 
2. What is the Pay Commission?
 
  • In India, Pay Commissions are constituted through an executive order following a decision by the Cabinet. Their primary function is to examine various aspects related to the pay structure, retirement benefits, and service conditions of Central Government employees, including members of the armed forces, and to suggest appropriate revisions wherever necessary. The establishment of the first Pay Commission dates back to the year 1946
  • A Pay Commission is an official body appointed by the Government of India to review and recommend changes to the salary structure, allowances, and pension benefits of Central Government employees, including defence personnel.
  • Its main purpose is to ensure that government employees are fairly compensated in line with the changing economic conditions of the country and the rising cost of living.
  • The idea of a Pay Commission originated soon after independence. The First Pay Commission was established in 1946, even before India became fully independent.
  • Since then, the government has set up a new Pay Commission roughly every ten years to revise the pay structure in keeping with inflation, fiscal capacity, and evolving economic realities.
  • So far, seven Pay Commissions have been constituted. The most recent one, the Seventh Pay Commission, was headed by Justice A.K. Mathur and submitted its report in 2015, which was implemented in 2016.
  • Each Pay Commission is tasked with examining the existing pay scales of government employees and making recommendations to rationalize them. It studies the disparities between different levels of employees, the balance between civilian and defence personnel salaries, and also the comparison between government and private sector pay levels.
  • The Commission’s recommendations aim to promote equity, efficiency, and satisfaction among employees, while ensuring that the government's financial burden remains sustainable.
  • The impact of Pay Commissions is significant. Their recommendations affect the income of around 47 lakh serving employees and over 50 lakh pensioners, which also has a multiplier effect on state governments and the economy as a whole.
  • Implementation of Pay Commission recommendations often leads to increased consumer spending, but it can also put pressure on government finances due to the rise in salary and pension expenditure
 
3. What are its terms of reference (TOR)?
 
 
  • The Terms of Reference (ToR) for each Pay Commission are approved by the Union Cabinet. In the case of the 8th Central Pay Commission (CPC), its ToR directs the body to take into account several key factors while framing its recommendations.
  • These include the overall economic situation of the country and the need to maintain fiscal discipline, the requirement to allocate sufficient funds for developmental and welfare initiatives, the financial burden posed by non-contributory pension schemes, and the likely effect of its recommendations on the finances of State governments, which often follow the CPC’s suggestions.
  • Additionally, the Commission is expected to assess the existing pay and working conditions in Central public sector undertakings as well as in the private sector to ensure a balanced and realistic approach
 
 
4. Global Practices on the Pay Commission
 
 
  • Across the world, until the 1970s, public sector pay structures were primarily designed to ensure equity by aligning government salaries with those in comparable private sector roles. During the 1980s, however, the focus shifted from equity to efficiency, emphasizing productivity and optimal resource use.
  • From the 1990s onward, compensation systems began to integrate performance-based pay and incentives, while also considering the government’s financial capacity. Today, public sector remuneration models are evolving further to attract and retain skilled and competent individuals, all while keeping overall expenditure under control.
  • According to international benchmarks, a fair public sector compensation framework should be guided by a clear pay philosophy and should ensure the ability to attract capable talent, maintain fairness within the system (internal equity), remain competitive with the external job market, and provide transparency in structure and rationale.
  • In the Indian context, although internal equity receives considerable emphasis, pay competitiveness with the private sector—particularly for senior-level positions—continues to lag behind.
  • Interestingly, comparative data from other major democracies reveal that, contrary to the popular belief that India’s public sector is oversized, inefficient, and overpaid, the country actually fares lower on most indicators of public sector employment and wage levels when compared with other large democratic nations
 
 
5. Way Forward
 

Several important elements within the Terms of Reference (ToR) of the Pay Commission merit closer examination. To begin with, the ToR directs the Commission to compare public sector pay structures with those in the private sector—a task that previous Pay Commissions have also undertaken. It has consistently been observed that while entry-level positions in government service tend to offer higher salaries than comparable roles in the private sector, the situation reverses at senior levels and for specialized positions. In the Seventh Pay Commission, the compression ratio—which measures the difference between the lowest and highest salaries in the Central government—was set at 1:12.5. Though government jobs offer various privileges, perks, and the assurance of job security that partly compensate for lower pay at senior levels, it may now be necessary to reconsider this structure, especially for top and expert-level roles, to ensure the government can attract and retain skilled professionals.

Another aspect worth noting is that the ToR does not explicitly address non-monetary factors such as professional development opportunities, training, workplace flexibility, or health and well-being initiatives. It is anticipated that the Pay Commission will take these qualitative factors into account in its final recommendations, recognizing their growing importance in shaping an effective and motivated public workforce

 

 

 
For Prelims: Pay Commission, Finance Commission, Article 280, Fiscal Consolidation, Fiscal Federalism, and Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) mechanism.
For Mains: 1. Discuss the Role and Challenges of the Finance Commission in Promoting Fiscal Federalism and Ensuring Equitable Resource Distribution in India. (250 words).
 

Previous year Question

1. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct? (UPSC 2011)
A. It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development.
B. It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertaking.
C. It ensures transparency in financial administration.
D. None of the statements (a), (b), and (c) given above is correct in this context.
Answer: D
 
2. With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2015)
1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent.
2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
 
3. Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission? (UPSC 2012)
1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design.
2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India's demographic dividend.
3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
 
Source: The Hindu

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