PRODUCTION LINKED INCENTIVE (PLI) SCHEME
The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme is an initiative by the Indian government to boost domestic manufacturing in specific sectors. It incentivizes companies, both domestic and foreign, to set up or expand production facilities in India by offering financial rewards based on incremental sales achieved over a set period.
- The government announces a PLI scheme for a particular sector with specific targets for production and sales.
- Companies apply for the scheme and submit their production plans.
- If selected, companies receive a percentage of their incremental sales (over a base year) as an incentive.
- The incentive amount varies depending on the sector and the level of incremental sales achieved.
- The scheme typically runs for several years, providing companies with long-term financial support.
3. Sectors with Current PLI Schemes
- Mobile phone manufacturing and specified electronic components have been successful in attracting major players like Apple and Samsung to set up production in India.
- Large-scale electronics manufacturing to boost domestic production of TVs, laptops, and other electronics products.
- High-efficiency solar PV modules to make India a global leader in solar energy production.
- Automobiles and auto components incentivize the production of electric vehicles, hydrogen fuel cell vehicles, and advanced auto components.
- Man-made fibre (MMF) apparel and textiles to boost domestic production of high-quality MMF textiles.
- White goods (air conditioners, refrigerators, etc.) to make India a global hub for white goods manufacturing.
4. Sectors Likely to See PLI Schemes in the Future
- The pharmaceuticals and medical devices sector is crucial for national health security and has the potential for significant growth.
- Green hydrogen and ammonia fuels are essential for achieving climate goals and could benefit from PLI support.
- Advanced manufacturing technologies include robotics, 3D printing, and artificial intelligence, which are crucial for future industries.
- The food processing sector has vast potential for value creation and job creation, and PLI could help address inefficiencies.
5. Benefits of the PLI Scheme
- PLI attracts investment and encourages companies to manufacture in India, reducing dependence on imports.
- New manufacturing units and increased production lead to job creation in various sectors.
- PLI attracts global companies with advanced technology, leading to knowledge transfer and skill development in India.
- Increased domestic production can lead to higher exports and strengthen the Indian economy.
6. Challenges in the PLI Scheme
- Companies need significant upfront investment to set up new production facilities, which can be a deterrent for some.
- The application and approval process for PLI schemes can be lengthy and complex, discouraging some companies.
- The government needs to ensure the long-term sustainability of PLI schemes to avoid dependence on subsidies.
7. The Way Forward
The PLI scheme is a promising initiative with the potential to transform India's manufacturing landscape. By addressing the challenges and continuously improving its design, the government can further incentivize domestic production and boost India's economic growth.
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For Prelims: Production Linked Incentive scheme, industrial policy
For Mains:
1. Discuss the role of the government in promoting domestic manufacturing. Should the focus be on incentives like the Production Linked Incentive scheme or on creating a conducive business environment? (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. Consider, the following statements : (UPSC 2023) Statement-I : India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods. Statement-II : Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India's ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Answer: D |
Source: The Indian Express
ASEAN
1. Context
2. About the ASEAN and East Asia Summit?
ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations)
- ASEAN is a regional intergovernmental organization consisting of ten countries in Southeast Asia.
- It was founded on August 8, 1967, to promote political and economic cooperation, regional stability, and social progress among its member states.
- The founding members of ASEAN are Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand, with Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, and Cambodia joining later.
- ASEAN holds regular meetings and summits to discuss regional issues, economic integration, and diplomatic cooperation.
Image Source: The Research GateEast Asia Summit (EAS)
- The East Asia Summit is a broader regional forum that includes ASEAN member states along with eight other countries, namely Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, South Korea, Russia, and the United States.
- The EAS was established in 2005 to provide a platform for discussions on strategic, political, and economic issues affecting East Asia.
- It addresses a wide range of regional and global challenges, from security and trade to environmental issues.
Image Source: Twitter3. The Rationality behind the ASEAN and East Asia Summit
- Promote regional peace and stability. The EAS provides a forum for leaders to discuss and address common security challenges, such as terrorism, piracy, and natural disasters.
- Foster economic growth and development. The EAS can help to promote trade and investment, and to facilitate economic integration in the region.
- Address non-traditional security challenges. The EAS can also address non-traditional security challenges, such as climate change, pandemics, and human trafficking.
4. About ‘multilateralism’
Multilateralism is a principle of international relations that emphasizes cooperation between countries. This cooperation can take many forms, such as diplomacy, trade agreements, and international organizations. There are several benefits to multilateralism including
4.1. Concept of Multilateralism
- The concept of multilateralism emphasizes diplomacy, negotiation, and cooperation among nations to achieve collective objectives.
- It rests on equality, non-interference in internal affairs, and respect for international law.
- Multilateral institutions like the United Nations, the World Trade Organization, and regional organizations such as ASEAN play significant roles in facilitating multilateral cooperation.
4.2. Purpose of Multilateralism
- Foster international cooperation and dialogue.
- Promote peace and security by addressing conflicts through diplomacy and collective security mechanisms.
- Facilitate economic integration and trade through agreements like the World Trade Organization (WTO).
- Address global challenges such as climate change, public health crises, and terrorism through coordinated efforts.
- Uphold international law and human rights.
- Create a more stable and predictable international system.
4.3. About post-Cold War multilateralism
- Post-Cold War multilateralism refers to the practice of cooperation between countries in the post-Cold War era.
- This cooperation is often seen as a way to address common challenges and promote peace and stability.
- There are several reasons why multilateralism has become more important in the post-Cold War era.
- The end of the Cold War led to a decline in superpower rivalry, which created an opportunity for countries to cooperate more closely.
- The rise of new challenges, such as terrorism and climate change, has made it clear that no country can address these challenges alone.
- The increasing interconnectedness of the world economy has made it more important for countries to cooperate on trade and investment issues.
5. Unilateralism and Multilateralism in International Relations
Unilateralism
- Unilateralism is an approach in international relations where a nation acts independently and without seeking the approval or cooperation of other countries.
- This can include making decisions, taking military action, or implementing policies without regard for international consensus.
- Unilateralism can be seen as a more assertive or isolationist stance.
Multilateralism
- Multilateralism involves collaboration and cooperation among multiple nations to address global challenges.
- It values diplomacy, negotiation, and shared responsibilities. Multilateral approaches are often considered more inclusive and consensus-based.
6. Is multilateralism declining?
- There is some evidence to suggest that multilateralism is declining. For example, the number of new international organizations has declined in recent years, and there has been a rise in unilateralism, particularly in the United States.
- However, there are also many examples of countries cooperating multilaterally to address common challenges.
- Ultimately, the future of multilateralism will depend on the willingness of countries to work together to address the challenges of the 21st century.
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For Prelims: ASEAN, East Asia Summit, Post-Cold War, multilateralism, G20 summit, United Nations, the World Trade Organization, Unilateralism,
For Mains:
1. Discuss the concept and purpose of post-Cold War multilateralism. What factors have contributed to the increased emphasis on multilateral cooperation in the post-Cold War era? (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. India is a member of which among the following? (UPSC 2015)
1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
2. Association of South-East Asian Nations
3. East Asia Summit
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only C. 1, 2 and 3 D. India is a member of none of them
Answer: B
2. Recently, the USA decided to support India's membership in multilateral export control regimes called the "Australia Group" and the "Wassenaar Arrangement". What is the difference between them? (UPSC 2011)
1. The Australia Group is an informal arrangement which aims to allow exporting countries to minimize the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapons proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar Arrangement is a formal group under the OECD holding identical objectives.
2. The Australia Group comprises predominantly of Asian, African and North American countries, whereas the member countries of Wassenaar Arrangement are predominantly from the European Union and American continents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
3. With reference to the "Look East Policy" of India, consider the following statements (UPSC 2011)
1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in East Asian affairs.
2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of the Cold War.
3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbours in Southeast and East Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
4.With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. 2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: C
5. In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20? (UPSC 2020)
A. Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey
B. Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand
C. Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam
D. Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea
Answer: A
6. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.
2. Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C.1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
7. In the Context of which of the following do you sometimes find the terms 'amber box, blue box and green tax' in the news? (UPSC CSE 2016)
A. WTO Affairs
B. SAARC affairs
C. UNFCC affairs
D. India-EU negotions on FTA
Answer-A
8. In the context of the affairs which of the following is the phrase "Special Safeguard Mechanisms" mentioned in the news frequently? (UPSC 2010) A. United Nations Environment Program B. World Trade Organization Agreement C. ASEAN-India D. Free Trade G-20 Summits Answer: B 9. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017) 1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of the WTO 2. TFA is a part of WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013 3. TFA came into force in January 2016 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: A 10. Which of the following are the main functions of WTO? (UPSC ESE 2020)
1. To organize meetings of member countries to arrive at trade agreements covering international trade
2. To ensure that member countries conduct trade practices as per agreement agreed upon and signed by the member countries
3. To provide a platform to negotiate and settle disputes related to international trade between and among member countries
A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
11. In a unilateral system of tolerance, tolerance is allowed on which side? (HPCL Engineer Mechanical 2021)
A. one side of the nominal size
B. no side of the nominal size
C. Both sides of the actual size
D. One side of the actual size
Answer: A
12. Which of the following is a bilateral element? (UPSSSC JE Electrical 2016)
A. constant current source
B. constant voltage source
C. capacitance
D. None of these
Answer: C
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STUBBLE BURNING
1. Context
2. What is Stubble?
Stubble refers to the leftover plant material, mainly crop residues, that remains in the field after the primary crop has been harvested. This includes the stems, leaves, and other organic material that is left behind.
Stubble burning is a common agricultural practice where farmers set fire to crop residues, such as straw and stubble, that remain in the field after the main crop (usually paddy or wheat) has been harvested. This practice is typically used as a quick and cost-effective method to clear the field for the next planting season. Stubble burning is particularly prevalent in regions with mechanized farming, where machines like combine harvesters leave behind a significant amount of crop residues.
3. Stubble burning contributes to air pollution
When stubble is burned, it releases a variety of pollutants into the air, including particulate matter, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, and sulfur dioxide. These pollutants can cause several health problems, including respiratory problems, heart disease, and cancer.
Stubble burning is a major contributor to air pollution in many parts of the world. In India, for example, stubble burning is responsible for up to 30% of the air pollution in Delhi during the winter months.
- Stubble burning generates fine particulate matter (PM2.5 and PM10) that can penetrate deep into the respiratory system, leading to respiratory problems and reduced air quality.
- The combustion of stubble releases carbon monoxide, which can have adverse health effects when inhaled, particularly in enclosed spaces.
- Stubble burning produces Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs), which can react with other pollutants in the atmosphere, contributing to the formation of ground-level ozone, a major air pollutant.
- Burning stubble emits greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4), contributing to climate change.
- The combustion of crop residues can release various hazardous chemicals and pollutants, further deteriorating air quality.
4. About the Central Scheme for the Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue
The Central Scheme on Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue (AMICMR) is a scheme launched by the Government of India to promote the use of in-situ techniques for managing crop residue. In-situ techniques are those that are used to manage crop residue on the field, rather than burning it. Examples of in-situ techniques include:
- Mulching is the practice of covering the soil with a layer of organic material, such as straw or leaves. This can help to suppress weeds, retain moisture, and improve soil health.
- Zero tillage is the practice of planting crops without tilling the soil. This can help to prevent soil erosion and retain moisture in the soil.
- Direct seeding is the practice of planting seeds directly into the soil, rather than transplanting seedlings. This can help to reduce soil disturbance and prevent the spread of weeds.
The AMICMR scheme provides financial assistance to farmers to purchase machinery that can be used for in-situ management of crop residue. The scheme also provides training and extension services to farmers on how to use these techniques.
The AMICMR scheme is a promising initiative that could help to reduce air pollution caused by stubble burning. However, the scheme needs to be scaled up and made more widely available to farmers to have a significant impact.
5. Conclusion
Stubble burning is a major contributor to air pollution in many parts of the world. However, there are several alternatives to stubble burning, such as in-situ management of crop residue. In-situ management of crop residue is a more sustainable way to manage stubble, as it does not release pollutants into the air and has several benefits for soil health and crop yields.
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For Prelims: Stubble burning, air pollution, particulate matter, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, sulfur dioxide, PM2.5, PM10, Volatile Organic Compounds, ozone, carbon dioxide, methane, Climate Change, The Central Scheme on Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue,
For Mains:
1. Critically evaluate the effectiveness of the Central Scheme on Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue (AMICMR) in addressing the issue of stubble burning in India. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions 1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? ( UPSC 2016)
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Answer: B 2. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment (UPSC 2013, 2022) (a) Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen (b) Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide (c) Ozone and Carbon Dioxide (d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide Answer:D 3. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (UPSC 2017) (a) Measuring oxygen level in blood (b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem (d) Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions Answer: C 4. Consider the following: (UPSC 2019) 1. Carbon monooxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: D 5. What is Particulate matter? (BPSC 2016) A. Solid residue B. Air pollutant C. Water pollutant D. Soil pollutant E. None of the above/More than one of the above Answer: B 6. Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas because it: (OPSC OAS 2021) A. Binds to digestive hormones
B. Damages lungs
C. Destroys RBCs
D. Binds to haemoglobin
Answer: D 7. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019) 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: D 8. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022) 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 μg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 μg/m³.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1, 3 and 4 B. 1 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 D.1 and 2 only Answer: B 9. Which of the following is a VOC? (MP Vyapam Sub Engineer Mechanical 2022) A. Toulene B. Water C. Carbon dioxide D. Carbon monoxide Answer: A 10. Which of the following Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are emitted from anthropogenic sources only? (UGC NET 2023) A. Isoprene
B. Benzene
C. Terpene
D. Methane
E. Toluene
1. A, B and C Only 2. B and E Only 3. A and C Only 4. C, D and E Only Answer: 2 11. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substance? (UPSC 2015) A. Bretton Woods Conference B. Montreal Protocol C. Kyoto Porotocol D. Nagoya Protocol Answer: B 12. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (UPSC 2012) A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
C. all the solar radiations
D. the infrared part of the solar radiation
Answer: D 13. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth? (UPSC 2014) 1. Volcanic action
2. Respiration
3. Photosynthesis
4. The decay of organic matter
Select the correct answer using the code given below A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: C 14. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'? (UPSC 2019) 1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: D 15. With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called 'coalbed methane' and 'shale gas' consider the following statements: (UPSC 2014) 1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks. 2. In India, abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: D Mains
1. Describe the key points of the revised Global Air Quality Guidelines (AQGs) recently released by the World Health Organisation (WHO). How are these different from its last update in 2005? What changes in India’s National Clean Air Programme are required to achieve revised standards? ( UPSC 2021)
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FOREIGN DIRECT INVESTMENT (FDI)
- India's net foreign direct investment (FDI) inflows experienced a decline, decreasing by nearly 31% to $25.5 billion during the first 10 months of the 2023-24 fiscal year. The Finance Ministry attributed this decline to a broader trend of slowing investments in developing countries, while expressing optimism for a potential increase in investments in the current calendar year.
- Although global FDI flows overall saw a 3% rise to approximately $1.4 trillion in 2023, economic uncertainty and elevated interest rates impacted global investment, resulting in a 9% decrease in FDI flows to developing nations, as outlined in the Ministry's February assessment of economic performance.
- Reflecting the global trend of reduced FDI flows to developing countries, gross FDI inflows to India also experienced a slight decline, from $61.7 billion to $59.5 billion during the period from April 2023 to January 2024. In terms of net inflows, the corresponding figures were $25.5 billion versus $36.8 billion. The decrease in net inflows was primarily attributed to an increase in repatriation, while the decline in gross inflows was minimal.
- While a modest uptick in global FDI flows is anticipated for the current calendar year, attributed to a decrease in inflation and borrowing costs in major markets that could stabilize financing conditions for international investment, significant risks persist, according to the Ministry. These risks include geopolitical tensions, elevated debt levels in numerous countries, and concerns regarding further fragmentation of the global economy
- FDI involves the transfer of funds and resources from one country to another. This capital inflow can help stimulate economic growth in the host country by providing funds for investment in infrastructure, technology, and other areas.
- FDI often leads to the creation of jobs in the host country. When foreign companies establish subsidiaries or invest in existing businesses, they typically hire local employees, which can help reduce unemployment and improve living standards
- Foreign investors often bring advanced technologies, processes, and management practices to the host country. This technology transfer can enhance the host country's productivity, competitiveness, and industrial capabilities
- FDI can provide access to new markets for both the host country and the investing company. Foreign investors can tap into the host country's consumer base, while the host country gains access to the investing company's global distribution networks.
- FDI can contribute to overall economic development in the host country by promoting industrialization, improving infrastructure, and fostering innovation and entrepreneurship.
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Automatic Route: Under the automatic route, FDI is allowed without the need for prior approval from the RBI or the government. Investors only need to notify the RBI within a specified time frame after the investment is made. This route is available for most sectors, except those that are prohibited or require government approval.
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Government Route: In sectors or activities that are not covered under the automatic route, FDI requires government approval. Investors must apply for approval through the Foreign Investment Facilitation Portal (FIFP) or the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB), depending on the sector.
- Under the automatic route, FDI of up to 100% is allowed for manufacturing of automobiles and components.
- For the manufacturing of electric vehicles (EVs), 100% FDI is allowed under the automatic route.
- In single-brand retail trading, 100% FDI is allowed, with up to 49% allowed under the automatic route. Beyond 49%, government approval is required.
- Multi-brand retail trading (supermarkets and department stores) with FDI is permitted in some states, subject to certain conditions and restrictions. The FDI limit is typically capped at 51%.
- FDI in the insurance sector is allowed up to 74%, with up to 49% under the automatic route. Beyond 49%, government approval is needed
- In the telecom sector, 100% FDI is allowed, with up to 49% under the automatic route. Beyond 49%, government approval is required
- In the defense sector, FDI up to 74% is allowed under the automatic route, with government approval required for investments beyond 49%
- In most segments of the media and broadcasting sector, including print and digital media, 100% FDI is allowed, with up to 49% under the automatic route
- FDI is prohibited in the atomic energy sector, which includes activities related to the production of atomic energy and nuclear power generation.
- FDI is generally prohibited in the gambling and betting industry, which includes casinos and online betting platforms
- FDI is not allowed in the lottery business, except for state-run lotteries
- FDI is prohibited in chit funds, which are traditional Indian savings and credit schemes.
- Nidhi companies are non-banking finance companies (NBFCs) that facilitate mutual benefit funds. FDI is typically not permitted in these entities
- While FDI is allowed in single-brand retail trading, it is generally prohibited in multi-brand retail trading of agricultural products. Some states have allowed it under specific conditions, but this remains a highly regulated area.
- FDI is not allowed in the trading of transferable development rights (TDRs) pertaining to the construction of real estate
- FPIs invest in a country's financial markets, primarily by buying and selling securities traded on stock exchanges and fixed-income instruments like bonds and government securities
- FPIs often seek to diversify their investment portfolios by spreading their investments across different asset classes, sectors, and countries. This diversification helps manage risk and enhance returns
- FPIs have the flexibility to buy and sell securities in the secondary market, providing liquidity to the market and contributing to price discovery
- FPIs typically have a shorter investment horizon compared to Foreign Direct Investors (FDIs). They may engage in short-term trading or hold securities for a few months to a few years.
- FPIs are subject to regulatory frameworks and restrictions in the countries where they invest. These regulations are designed to ensure that foreign investments do not pose undue risks to the local financial markets and economy.
| FPI (Foreign Portfolio Investment) | FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) |
| FPI involves the purchase of financial assets such as stocks, bonds, mutual funds, and other securities in a foreign country. These investments are typically made with the intention of earning returns on capital and do not result in significant control or ownership of the underlying businesses | FDI entails making an investment in a foreign country with the primary objective of establishing a lasting interest and significant control or influence over a business enterprise or physical assets. FDI often involves the acquisition of a substantial ownership stake (typically at least 10%) in a company or the establishment of new business operations. |
| FPI is generally characterized by a shorter investment horizon. Investors in FPI may engage in trading and portfolio rebalancing activities, and their investments are often more liquid. The focus is on earning capital gains and income from investments. | FDI is characterized by a longer-term commitment. Investors in FDI intend to engage in the day-to-day management or decision-making of the business, contribute to its growth and development, and generate profits over an extended period. |
| FPI investors typically have little to no influence or control over the companies in which they invest. They are passive investors who participate in the financial markets and rely on market dynamics to drive returns. | FDI investors actively participate in the management and decision-making of the businesses they invest in. They often seek to exercise control over company operations and strategy, which may include appointing board members or key executives. |
| FPI investments are often made through financial instruments like stocks, bonds, and securities. Investors may use instruments like mutual funds or exchange-traded funds (ETFs) to gain exposure to foreign markets | FDI investments involve a direct equity stake in a company, either through share acquisition or the establishment of a subsidiary or branch in the host country. FDI can also involve the purchase of real assets such as land, factories, or infrastructure |
| FPI can provide short-term capital inflows, but it may be more susceptible to market volatility and sudden capital outflows. It may not have as direct an impact on job creation and economic development as FDI. | FDI often contributes to long-term economic development by creating jobs, stimulating infrastructure development, transferring technology and expertise, and enhancing the competitiveness of local industries |
| FPI investments are subject to regulations that vary by country and may include foreign ownership limits, reporting requirements, and tax considerations. | FDI is subject to regulations that can be more stringent and may involve government approval, sector-specific conditions, and investment protection measures |
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For Prelims: Economic and Social Development-Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc
For Mains: General Studies III: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment
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Previous Year Questions
1. Both Foreign Direct Investments (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. (UPSC CSE 2011)
Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two?
A.FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital
B.FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors C.FDI flows only into the secondary markets, while FII targets primary market
D.FII is considered to the more stable than FDI
Answer (B)
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KATCHATHEEVU ISLAND
2. Location of Katchatheevu Island
Katchatheevu is a small, uninhabited island covering 285 acres situated in the Palk Strait, positioned between India and Sri Lanka. It measures approximately 1.6 kilometres in length and slightly over 300 meters wide at its widest point.
- The island is located northeast of Rameswaram, around 33 kilometres from the Indian coastline. It is situated approximately 62 kilometres southwest of Jaffna, which is at the northern tip of Sri Lanka. Moreover, Katchatheevu is about 24 kilometres away from Delft Island, an inhabited island that belongs to Sri Lanka.
- The notable feature on Katchatheevu Island is the St. Anthony’s Church, built in the early 20th century. This Catholic shrine holds cultural and religious importance, especially during its annual festival. Christian priests from both India and Sri Lanka conduct services during this festival, attracting devotees from both countries who make pilgrimages to the island. In 2023, around 2,500 Indians travelled from Rameswaram to participate in this significant event.
- Despite its religious and cultural significance, Katchatheevu is not suitable for permanent human settlement due to the absence of a reliable source of drinking water on the island. This limitation restricts any long-term habitation on the island, making it primarily a site for occasional religious gatherings and pilgrimages.
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3. Historical Background of Katchatheevu Island
Katchatheevu Island, formed as a result of a volcanic eruption in the 14th century, holds a relatively recent place in the geological timeline.
- During the early medieval period, Katchatheevu was under the control of the Jaffna kingdom of Sri Lanka. However, by the 17th century, control shifted to the Ramnad Zamindari, which was based in Ramanathapuram, approximately 55 kilometres northwest of Rameswaram.
- With the advent of colonial rule, Katchatheevu became part of the Madras Presidency under the British administration. In 1921, both India and Sri Lanka, then British colonies, laid claim to Katchatheevu to delineate fishing boundaries in the region.
- A survey conducted during this period marked Katchatheevu as part of Sri Lanka. However, a British delegation from India contested this claim, asserting ownership of the island by the Ramnad kingdom.
- The dispute over the ownership of Katchatheevu persisted until 1974 when a final resolution was reached. This resolution marked a significant milestone in clarifying the status of the island and delineating the maritime boundaries between India and Sri Lanka.
4. Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime Agreement and Fishing Rights
In 1974, efforts were made by then-Prime Minister Indira Gandhi to resolve the maritime border dispute between India and Sri Lanka permanently. This initiative led to the establishment of the 'Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime Agreement,' which resulted in the cession of Katchatheevu to Sri Lanka by India.
- Under the agreement, Indira Gandhi decided to "cede" Katchatheevu to Sri Lanka, perceiving the island to hold little strategic value for India. This move was intended to strengthen diplomatic ties between the two neighbouring countries.
- Despite ceding the island, Indian fishermen were granted continued access to Katchatheevu as per the agreement, maintaining their traditional fishing practices in the region. However, the agreement did not explicitly address the issue of fishing rights, leading to subsequent challenges and differing interpretations.
- Sri Lanka interpreted Indian fishermen's access to Katchatheevu as limited to activities such as resting, drying nets, and visiting the Catholic shrine, without requiring a visa. This interpretation created ambiguity regarding the extent of fishing rights granted to Indian fishermen in the waters surrounding Katchatheevu.
- In 1976, another agreement during India's Emergency period further complicated matters by prohibiting both countries from fishing in each other's Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs). However, Katchatheevu lies at the boundary of both countries' EEZs, adding to the uncertainty surrounding fishing rights and activities in the region.
- The agreements made in the 1970s regarding Katchatheevu and fishing rights have left unresolved issues, contributing to periodic tensions and disputes between Indian fishermen and Sri Lankan authorities. The lack of clear delineation and mutual understanding regarding fishing access around Katchatheevu continues to be a contentious issue between India and Sri Lanka.
5. Impact of the Sri Lankan Civil War on Katchatheevu
The period between 1983 and 2009 was marked by the Sri Lankan Civil War, during which the border dispute involving Katchatheevu took a back seat amidst the intense conflict.
- During the civil war, Sri Lankan naval forces were primarily focused on combating the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) based in Jaffna. This preoccupation allowed Indian fishermen to venture deep into Sri Lankan waters without significant repercussions. Incursions by Indian fishermen, especially using larger trawlers, became common during this time. These activities led to tensions as they not only overfished but also caused damage to Sri Lankan fishing equipment and vessels.
- The end of the civil war in 2009 brought about significant changes. Sri Lanka bolstered its maritime defences and shifted its attention to issues such as illegal fishing activities by Indian fishermen.
- Indian fishermen, facing resource depletion in Indian waters, continued to venture into Sri Lankan waters as they had done for years. However, with increased surveillance and stricter enforcement post-civil war, they began facing arrests and other consequences by the Sri Lankan navy.
- To this day, the Sri Lankan navy regularly apprehends Indian fishermen for illegal fishing activities in Sri Lankan waters. Incidents of alleged custodial torture and deaths have also been reported, further complicating the situation. Each such incident reignites demands to revisit the issue of Katchatheevu and its impact on fishing rights and maritime boundaries between India and Sri Lanka. The historical context of the island's ownership and fishing rights continues to be a source of contention and debate between the two nations.
6. Tamil Nadu's Stance on Katchatheevu
The issue of Katchatheevu holds significant political and emotional weight in Tamil Nadu, with successive governments and leaders advocating for its retrieval and the restoration of fishing rights for Tamil fishermen.
- The decision to "cede" Katchatheevu to Sri Lanka in 1974 without consulting the Tamil Nadu state assembly sparked immediate protests. This decision was seen as infringing on traditional fishing rights and livelihoods of Indian Tamil fishermen, given the historical ties of the Ramnad Zamindari to the island.
- The Tamil Nadu Assembly has consistently demanded the retrieval of Katchatheevu and the restoration of fishing rights. Leaders like J Jayalalitha and MK Stalin, among others, have actively pursued this agenda through legal and diplomatic channels.
- In 2008, Jayalalitha filed a petition arguing that ceding Katchatheevu required a constitutional amendment and had adversely affected fishermen's rights. Similar efforts were made by other leaders, including appeals to the Supreme Court.
- Despite Tamil Nadu's persistent demands, the Union government's stance has remained unchanged. It asserts that since Katchatheevu has been under dispute historically, no territorial or sovereignty claims were ceded.
- While there is vocal demand for Katchatheevu's retrieval, practical challenges hinder such efforts. The Union government has pointed out that revisiting Katchatheevu's status would require drastic measures, potentially leading to diplomatic complexities or conflict.
7. The Way Forward
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For Prelims: India-Sri Lanka, Katchatheevu island, LTTE, Sri Lanka Civil War, Exclusive Economic Zones
For Mains:
1. The Katchatheevu dispute highlights the complexities of maritime border demarcation. How can India ensure the security of its fishermen and promote sustainable fishing practices in the Palk Strait? (250 words)
2. You are a senior diplomat tasked with finding a solution to the Katchatheevu dispute. Outline a framework for negotiations that considers the historical, economic, and social aspects of the issue. (250 words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. Katchatheevu Island was ceded by India to which Country in 1974 (SSC CPO 2017)
A. Sri Lanka B.Maldives C.Indonesia D.Myanmar
2. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A.1 and 2 only B.2 and 3 only C.1 and 3 only D.1, 2 and 3
Answers: 1-A, 2-D
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BRAHMOS MISSILE
- The BrahMos missile is a supersonic cruise missile jointly developed by India's Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia's NPO Mashinostroyeniya. Its name is a portmanteau of the Brahmaputra and Moskva rivers.
- BrahMos is known for its speed and versatility. It is the fastest cruise missile in the world, capable of reaching speeds of up to Mach 3 (three times the speed of sound). This makes it extremely difficult for enemy defenses to intercept.
- The missile has both land-attack and anti-ship capabilities, meaning it can target both land-based targets and naval vessels. Its precision and range make it a potent weapon for both offensive and defensive purposes. It's deployed across various platforms including land, sea, and air.
- The BrahMos missile has become a significant asset in the Indian military's arsenal, providing a formidable deterrent and offensive capability. It's continuously being upgraded to enhance its capabilities and adapt it to different platforms and operational requirements

3. Evolution of Brahmos
- During the early 1980s, Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam spearheaded the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme, initiating the creation of various indigenous missiles such as Prithvi, Agni, Trishul, Akash, and Nag, each with diverse capabilities and operational ranges.
- In the early 1990s, India's strategic leadership recognized the necessity for cruise missiles—guided projectiles maintaining nearly constant speeds throughout their trajectories—to deliver sizable warheads with pinpoint accuracy over extensive distances.
- This requirement emerged prominently following the deployment of cruise missiles during the 1991 Gulf War.
- In 1998, an Inter-Governmental Agreement was formalized in Moscow between Dr. Kalam, then heading the DRDO, and N V Mikhailov, Russia's Deputy Defence Minister at the time.
- This agreement laid the foundation for BrahMos Aerospace, a collaborative venture between DRDO and the Russian space company NPO Mashinostroyenia (NPOM), with the Indian side holding 50.5% ownership and the Russians 49.5%. The venture derived its name from two rivers—Brahmaputra in India and Moskva in Russia.
- Subsequently, in 1999, the development of missiles commenced within the laboratories of DRDO and NPOM after BrahMos Aerospace secured funding from both governments. The first successful test launch occurred in 2001 from a specifically engineered land-based launcher
4.Significance of Brahmos
- The BrahMos missile is equipped with a solid propellant booster engine, comprising two stages. Initially, the first stage accelerates the missile to supersonic speeds, after which it detaches. Subsequently, the liquid ramjet, constituting the second stage, propels the missile to nearly three times the speed of sound during its cruise phase.
- Notably, the missile exhibits a minimal radar signature, enhancing its stealth capabilities, and can follow various trajectories.
- As a "fire and forget" weapon, it can maintain a cruising altitude of 15 km and descend to as low as 10 meters to effectively strike its target.
- Classified as "standoff range weapons," cruise missiles like BrahMos are launched from a distance substantial enough to evade defensive countermeasures, a feature common among the arsenals of major militaries worldwide.
- Compared to subsonic cruise missiles, BrahMos boasts three times the speed, 2.5 times the flight range, and extended operational capabilities. With export versions available, BrahMos serves as a crucial asset in defense diplomacy initiatives.
- In 2022, an air-launched variant of BrahMos underwent testing from a frontline SU-30MKI aircraft, while an advanced sea-to-sea variant was also tested from the INS Visakhapatnam during the same year.
- However, BrahMos was embroiled in controversy in 2022 when Pakistan alleged that an unarmed Indian missile had inadvertently landed within its territory on March 9, 2022. The Ministry of Defence attributed the incident to a technical malfunction resulting in accidental firing.
- Though the government initiated a high-level inquiry, the specific missile involved was not officially disclosed. Nonetheless, experts inferred from its trajectory that it bore the hallmarks of BrahMos
5. Types of BrahMos
- The BrahMos missile system is strategically deployed across various fronts, encompassing land-based formations along border regions, BrahMos-equipped Sukhoi-30 aircraft stationed in both the Northern and Southern theaters, and ships and submarines fitted with BrahMos capabilities in naval operations. This integrated setup constitutes a formidable triad, adept at addressing evolving demands in multidimensional warfare scenarios.
- To adapt to dynamic warfare requirements, ongoing efforts are focused on upgrading the BrahMos system, with emphasis on enhancing range, maneuverability, and accuracy.
- Current development initiatives include testing versions with extended ranges of up to 350 km, surpassing the original's 290 km limit. Furthermore, plans are underway for versions with even greater ranges, potentially reaching up to 800 km, and featuring hypersonic speeds. Concurrently, endeavors are directed towards reducing the size and radar signature of existing iterations while augmenting their overall capabilities.
- Across all three branches of the Armed Forces, BrahMos variants are subject to regular testing, including those presently in development.
- Land-Based: The land-based BrahMos setup comprises mobile autonomous launchers, typically housing four to six launchers, each armed with three missiles capable of near-simultaneous firing.
- These batteries are strategically deployed along India's land borders in various theaters. Upgraded versions of the land attack variant, capable of cruising at 2.8 Mach, boast precision striking capabilities with ranges of up to 400 km.
- Advanced iterations with enhanced range and speeds of up to 5 Mach are reportedly in the developmental pipeline. Notably, the ground systems of BrahMos are lauded for their streamlined design and minimal componentry.
- Ship-Based: Since 2005, the Navy has been inducting BrahMos missiles on its frontline warships, enhancing their ability to engage sea-based targets beyond the radar horizon. The naval variant has demonstrated efficacy in both sea-to-sea and sea-to-land engagements.
- These missiles can be deployed individually or in salvos of up to eight, with staggered firing intervals. This capability enables them to effectively target groups of frigates equipped with modern missile defense systems.
- Air-Launched: The successful flight testing of BrahMos from a Sukhoi-30MKI against a sea-based target in the Bay of Bengal on November 22, 2017, marked a significant milestone. Subsequent tests have validated its effectiveness.
- The BrahMos-equipped Sukhoi-30 aircraft, boasting a range of 1,500 km without mid-air refueling, serve as a pivotal strategic deterrent along both land borders and the strategically vital Indian Ocean Region. The Indian Air Force is actively integrating BrahMos with 40 Sukhoi-30 fighter jets across various airbases.
- Submarine-Launched: This variant can be launched from depths of approximately 50 meters below the water surface. The missile, stored in a canister, is vertically launched from the pressure hull of the submarine, employing distinct configurations for underwater and surface flights. Successful testing of this version was first conducted in March 2013 from a submerged platform off the coast of Visakhapatnam
6. Brahmos Missile Series
The BrahMos missile series is a family of supersonic cruise missiles developed jointly by India and Russia. Named after the Brahmaputra River in India and the Moskva River in Russia, the BrahMos series is renowned for its speed, precision, and versatility.
Here are some key variants within the BrahMos missile series:
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BrahMos Block-I: The initial variant of the BrahMos missile, featuring a range of approximately 290 km. It is capable of striking both land-based and naval targets with high accuracy.
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BrahMos Block-II: An upgraded version with enhanced capabilities, including improved range and accuracy. It incorporates advanced technologies to further enhance its effectiveness in various operational scenarios.
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BrahMos Block-III: This variant features additional upgrades aimed at improving its range, maneuverability, and stealth capabilities. It is designed to overcome evolving threats and maintain its position as a potent deterrent.
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BrahMos-A: The air-launched variant of the BrahMos missile, integrated onto Sukhoi Su-30MKI fighter aircraft of the Indian Air Force. It significantly extends the reach of the missile, allowing for precision strikes against ground and naval targets.
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BrahMos-N: The naval variant of the BrahMos missile, deployed on Indian Navy warships. It provides a formidable anti-ship and land-attack capability, enhancing the offensive capabilities of naval fleets.
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BrahMos-ER: The extended-range variant of the BrahMos missile, currently under development, aimed at achieving ranges beyond the existing capabilities. It will further enhance the strategic reach of the BrahMos series, allowing for precision strikes at longer distances.
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BrahMos-NG: A next-generation variant of the BrahMos missile, featuring reduced size and weight while maintaining high performance. It is designed for compatibility with a wider range of platforms, including aircraft, submarines, and surface vessels
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Previous Year Questions
1.Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE Prelims 2023)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d) |
SOUTHWEST MONSOON
- The southwest monsoon is a seasonal weather pattern that brings significant rainfall to large parts of South Asia, particularly India, between June and September
- The southwest monsoon typically begins in early June and lasts until late September. It starts with the arrival of the monsoon winds in the southern part of India, usually marked by the onset over the state of Kerala
- The southwest monsoon brings about 70-90% of India’s annual rainfall. The distribution of rainfall varies, with some regions receiving heavy rains, while others may experience scanty showers.
- The Western Ghats, the northeastern states, and the Himalayan foothills typically receive very heavy rainfall.
- The monsoon is critical for the Kharif crop season in India, which includes crops like rice, maize, pulses, and cotton. Adequate and timely monsoon rains are essential for a good harvest
- The monsoon starts retreating from northwestern India in early September and completely withdraws from the Indian subcontinent by mid-October. This phase is also known as the retreating or northeast monsoon
Mechanism:
- High-Pressure Area: During the summer, intense heating of the landmass in the Indian subcontinent creates a low-pressure area over northern India and the Tibetan Plateau.
- Low-Pressure Area: The Indian Ocean remains relatively cooler, creating a high-pressure area.
- Wind Movement: Air moves from the high-pressure area over the ocean to the low-pressure area over the land, carrying moisture from the ocean and resulting in rainfall.
- Easterly and westerly winds refer to the direction from which the winds originate
- Easterly winds are winds that blow from the east towards the west
- Easterly winds can affect weather patterns, including the development of tropical storms and cyclones. For instance, easterly waves in the tropics can lead to the formation of tropical cyclones in the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans
Characteristics:
- Trade Winds: One of the most well-known examples of easterly winds are the trade winds. These winds blow from the east towards the west in the tropics, from the subtropical high-pressure areas toward the equatorial low-pressure areas.
- Tropical Regions: In the tropical regions, particularly between 30 degrees north and south of the equator, easterly winds are prevalent. These are crucial for the weather patterns and climatic conditions in these regions.
- Monsoon Winds: During certain seasons, such as the northeast monsoon in India, easterly winds play a significant role. These winds bring dry air from the land towards the ocean during the winter months.
- Westerly winds are winds that blow from the west towards the east
- Westerly winds play a significant role in the weather of temperate regions, influencing the climate and the movement of storm systems.
- They are also responsible for carrying warm and moist air from the oceans inland, affecting precipitation patterns in coastal and inland regions.
- The westerlies can affect transoceanic travel and weather prediction due to their influence on the movement of high and low-pressure systems
Characteristics:
- Prevailing Westerlies: These winds are predominant in the mid-latitudes (between 30 and 60 degrees north and south of the equator). They blow from the subtropical high-pressure belts towards the poles.
- Jet Streams: High-altitude westerly winds known as jet streams are important in influencing weather patterns and the movement of weather systems across the globe. They are fast flowing and occur in the upper levels of the atmosphere.
- Polar Front: In the mid-latitudes, the westerlies interact with polar easterlies near the polar front, leading to the development of extratropical cyclones and storms
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Monsoons in India occur due to seasonal changes in wind patterns and temperature differences between land and sea.
Here's a concise explanation of the process:
- Differential heating: During summer, the Indian landmass heats up more quickly than the surrounding Indian Ocean.
- Low pressure system: The heated land creates a low-pressure area over the Indian subcontinent.
- Wind direction shift: This low pressure draws in moisture-laden winds from the cooler Indian Ocean towards the land.
- Orographic lift: As these winds encounter geographical features like the Western Ghats or the Himalayas, they are forced to rise.
- Condensation and precipitation: The rising air cools, causing water vapor to condense and form clouds, leading to heavy rainfall.
- Duration: This pattern typically lasts from June to September, bringing the majority of India's annual rainfall.
- The primary driver is the temperature difference between the land and the surrounding sea. During summer, the land heats up faster than the ocean, creating a low-pressure area over the land and a high-pressure area over the ocean. This pressure difference leads to the movement of moist air from the ocean to the land
- Warm sea surface temperatures are crucial as they increase the evaporation rate, contributing to the formation of moist air masses that drive the monsoon rains.
- The monsoon winds, which are part of the larger atmospheric circulation, shift according to the seasonal temperature differences. The southwest monsoon, for instance, is driven by the southwest winds that carry moisture from the Indian Ocean to the Indian subcontinent.
- The geographical features, such as mountain ranges, play a significant role. For example, the Western Ghats in India force moist air to rise, cool, and condense, leading to heavy rainfall on the windward side
- The movement and strength of the high-pressure systems over the oceans and low-pressure systems over the land influence the intensity and timing of the monsoon.
- Phenomena such as El Niño and La Niña can affect the strength and timing of the monsoon. For example, El Niño can lead to weaker monsoons due to altered wind patterns and sea surface temperatures
- El Niño is generally associated with a weaker Indian monsoon. The warming of the central and eastern Pacific Ocean during El Niño tends to disrupt the normal atmospheric circulation patterns, leading to reduced rainfall over the Indian subcontinent.
- The onset of the monsoon can be delayed, and the overall intensity of the rainfall during the monsoon season might be lower than usual
- El Niño often brings drier conditions to Southeast Asia and northern Australia, leading to droughts and reduced rainfall
- Eastern and southern Africa may experience drier conditions as well
- La Niña, characterized by cooler-than-average sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern Pacific Ocean, is typically associated with a stronger Indian monsoon. It often leads to increased rainfall over the Indian subcontinent
- The enhanced monsoon can lead to heavier rains and potentially more frequent and intense flooding
- La Niña tends to bring wetter conditions to Southeast Asia and northern Australia, potentially causing heavy rains and flooding
- La Niña can lead to wetter conditions in parts of northern South America
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For Prelims: Indian and World Geography
For Mains: GS-I, GS-III: Important Geophysical phenomena and environment
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Previous Year Questions
1.Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2012)
1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 Only
B. 2 Only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor
Answer (C)
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