INDIANS AND H1-B
- The H-1B visa program for skilled workers was introduced in 1990. These visas are initially issued for three years but can be extended to a maximum of six years.
- Since 2004, the issuance of new H-1B visas has been capped at 85,000 annually, with 20,000 reserved specifically for foreign students who hold master’s degrees or higher from U.S. universities.
- This cap, however, does not apply to certain entities like universities, think tanks, and other non-profit research organizations, allowing additional visas to be issued beyond the limit.
- Applicants for H-1B visas must have a job offer from a U.S.-based sponsor, such as a company or institution. The U.S. government also grants extensions for individuals already working under H-1B visas.
- During the fiscal year 2023 (October 2022 to September 2023), over 386,000 H-1B applications were approved. This figure includes nearly 119,000 new visas and approximately 267,000 extensions.
- The total number of approvals in 2023 reflects a decline from over 474,000 in the previous fiscal year, 2022
- Immigration remains one of the most divisive political topics in the United States. An October YouGov poll revealed that 14.6% of registered voters considered it the most critical issue in the upcoming election, a significant increase from just 2.1% in 2012.
- During election campaigns, much of the anti-immigration discourse centered on low-skilled labor migration. Beyond its inherent racial undertones, this narrative is driven by the perception that such immigration lowers wages and displaces jobs that might otherwise benefit the American working class.
- This demographic has long struggled with challenges like high unemployment, stagnant wages, inflation, a housing crisis, and other economic difficulties.
- Donald Trump effectively leveraged these concerns, pledging to improve conditions for the average American worker by restricting immigration.
- The current debate echoes many of the same themes as Trump’s rhetoric about Mexicans "stealing American jobs," though the focus has shifted to the immigration of skilled workers competing for higher-paying positions

- The H-1B visa program enables U.S. employers to hire foreign workers for roles requiring "a high level of skill" and "at least a bachelor’s degree," as outlined by the U.S. Department of Labor.
- Established in 1990, the program was designed to assist employers in filling roles that demand specialized skills not readily available within the U.S. workforce, allowing qualified foreign individuals to work temporarily in the United States.
- H-1B visas are typically issued for a maximum of six consecutive years. After this period, visa holders must either leave the U.S. for at least 12 months before returning or apply for permanent residency (a Green Card).
- Currently, the program has an annual limit of 65,000 new visas (the regular cap), with an additional 20,000 visas available for applicants holding master’s degrees or higher from U.S. universities. However, not all H-1B applications are subject to this cap, resulting in the total number of approved petitions often exceeding the cap.
- For example, in the fiscal year 2023, the United States Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS), under the Department of Homeland Security, approved 118,948 petitions for initial employment and 267,370 petitions for continuing employment.
- Certain applicants, such as those employed by higher education institutions, nonprofit organizations affiliated with such institutions, nonprofit research organizations, or government research entities, are exempt from the annual cap
- Indian nationals are the primary beneficiaries of the H-1B visa program, consistently accounting for over 70% of all approved H-1B petitions annually since 2015, according to U.S. government data. Chinese nationals rank a distant second, making up 12-13% of approvals since 2018.
- This significant representation of Indian professionals has drawn the attention of nativist MAGA Republicans, who have extended their anti-immigration rhetoric from low-skilled labor migration by Mexicans and Central Americans to include Indian workers in the tech industry.
- Their argument revolves around the claim that the H-1B program, originally designed to attract exceptional global talent, is being exploited by tech companies to fill lower- to mid-level positions at wages much lower than those expected by American workers.
- While proponents like Elon Musk argue that H-1B visas address a "permanent shortage of excellent engineering talent," critics counter that the issue is not a lack of skilled American workers but that they are deemed "too expensive to hire" by tech firms.
- This critique is supported by data. An analysis of 60,000 H-1B approvals from USCIS in the 2023 fiscal year, conducted by Bloomberg, revealed that nearly 70% of Indian H-1B recipients earned annual salaries below $100,000.
- For comparison, the median salary for IT professionals in the U.S. was $104,420 in May 2023, as reported by the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics. Approximately 25% of H-1B approvals for Indian professionals fell within the $100,000 to $150,000 salary range, while only 5% exceeded $150,000
For Prelims: H-1B visa, United States, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, STEM fields, lottery system,
For Mains:
1. What are the implications of the new H-1B visa regime for US-India relations?
Discuss the measures can the Indian government take to support Indian IT workers affected by the new H-1B visa regime. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019)
1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
2. Which of the following statements about town planning in British India in early 19th century is/are correct? (UPSC CAPF 2018)
1. The funds for town improvement were also raised through public lotteries.
2. The threats of epidemics gave an impetus to town planning in the early decades of 19th century.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
A.1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
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EL NINO AND LA NINA
- El Niño and La Niña, translating to “little boy” and “little girl” in Spanish, are climatic events arising from interactions between the ocean and atmosphere. They influence water temperatures in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean, thereby affecting global weather patterns.
- The Earth's rotation from east to west causes winds between 30 degrees north and south of the equator to tilt in their paths. This results in winds flowing southwest in the northern hemisphere and northwest in the southern hemisphere, a phenomenon known as the Coriolis Effect.
- Consequently, trade winds blow westward on either side of the equator. Typically, these winds move west from South America towards Asia, leading to upwelling, where cold water from beneath the ocean surface rises, replacing warmer surface waters.
- Occasionally, weakened trade winds shift back towards South America, preventing upwelling. This leads to warmer-than-normal sea surface temperatures along the equatorial Pacific Ocean, marking the onset of El Niño conditions.
- In contrast, during La Niña, stronger trade winds push warm water towards Asia, enhancing upwelling and bringing cold, nutrient-rich water to South America.
- Thus, El Niño and La Niña represent opposite phases of the El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO) cycle, which also includes a neutral phase.
- El Niño events are more common than La Niña ones, occurring every two to seven years when neutral ENSO conditions are disrupted by either phase. Recently, La Niña conditions were observed from 2020 to 2023
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- Due to ENSO and the associated changes in ocean temperatures, air circulation in the region is also influenced. This, in turn, affects precipitation levels in nearby areas and has an impact on the Indian monsoon.
- The current El Niño event, which started last June, has weakened considerably. It is anticipated that by June, neutral ENSO conditions will be in place. Following this, La Niña conditions are expected to develop, potentially starting to have an impact by August
- Like India, countries such as Indonesia, the Philippines, Malaysia, and their neighbors experience abundant rainfall during a La Niña year. This year, Indonesia has already experienced flooding.
- Conversely, droughts are common in the southern parts of North America, where winters tend to be warmer than usual.
- Canada and the northwestern coast of the United States face heavy rainfall and flooding. Southern Africa experiences above-average rainfall, while the eastern regions of the continent receive below-average rainfall.
- ENSO significantly influences hurricane activity over the Atlantic Ocean, with La Niña years typically seeing an increase in hurricanes. For example, in the La Niña year of 2021, the Atlantic Ocean saw a record 30 hurricanes
- In India, El Niño is known to reduce southwest monsoon rainfall, leading to higher temperatures and more intense heatwaves, as seen this summer.
- Historically, monsoon seasons following an El Niño, such as in 1982-1983 and 1987-1988, saw abundant rainfall in 1983 and 1988. A similar pattern may occur this year.
- From 2020 to 2023, the longest La Niña event of the century took place. This was followed by ENSO neutral conditions, which transitioned to El Niño by June 2023.
- However, El Niño has been weakening since last December. According to Rajeevan, this rapid shift to La Niña is a natural occurrence and has happened many times in the past.
- Scientists suggest that climate change will impact the ENSO cycle. Various studies indicate that global warming may alter the average oceanic conditions in the Pacific Ocean, leading to more frequent El Niño events.
- The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) also predicts that climate change will likely affect the intensity and frequency of extreme weather and climate events associated with El Niño and La Niña
For Prelims: Indian and World Geography
For Mains: GS-I, GS-III: Important Geophysical phenomena and environment
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PRESIDENTIAL REFERENCE
The Supreme Court's advisory role, as outlined in Article 143, traces its origins to the Government of India Act of 1935. This act granted the Governor-General the authority to seek the opinion of the federal court on significant legal matters.
A comparable feature exists in the Canadian Constitution, where the Supreme Court of Canada is empowered to give advisory opinions on legal issues referred by either the federal or provincial governments. In contrast, the U.S. Supreme Court has consistently refused to issue advisory opinions to the executive branch, adhering strictly to the principle of separation of powers embedded in the American Constitution
Under Article 143 of the Constitution, the President has the authority to seek the Supreme Court’s opinion on any legal or factual issue deemed to be of public significance. This referral is made based on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers. According to Article 145, such matters must be examined by a bench comprising at least five judges of the Supreme Court. Following the hearing, the Court may deliver its opinion as it deems appropriate. While the opinion is not legally binding on the President and does not set a judicial precedent, it holds considerable persuasive value. Consequently, it is generally respected and adhered to by both the executive and the judiciary |
3. Past instances
- Since 1950, approximately fifteen presidential references have been made to the Supreme Court, excluding the most recent one. Below are brief summaries of some notable opinions delivered by the Court in response to these references.
- The first such reference came in the Delhi Laws Act case (1951), where the Court outlined the concept of delegated legislation, allowing the legislature to delegate certain law-making powers to the executive for efficient law implementation.
- In the Kerala Education Bill case (1958), the Court established the principle of harmonious interpretation between Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy, while also clarifying the constitutional safeguards for minority-run educational institutions under Article 30.
- In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Court held that any transfer or acquisition of Indian territory requires a constitutional amendment as per Article 368. The Keshav Singh case (1965) addressed the scope of legislative powers and privileges.
- In the Presidential Election case (1974), the Court ruled that elections for the President must proceed even if there are vacancies in the electoral college due to the dissolution of state assemblies.
- The Special Courts Bill reference (1978) was particularly important, as the Court clarified that it can choose not to respond to a reference, that the questions posed must be clear and precise, and that the judiciary must not intrude into Parliament's domain when giving its opinion.
- The Third Judges case (1998) resulted in a comprehensive set of guidelines shaping the collegium system for appointing judges to the higher judiciary.
- Although the Supreme Court is not bound to respond to every reference, it has declined to provide an opinion on only one occasion — in 1993, concerning the Ram Janmabhoomi dispute
4. Current reference
- The current presidential reference stems from a recent Supreme Court ruling that established specific timelines for the President and State Governors to act on Bills passed by State legislatures.
- In that judgment, the Court also asserted that the decisions made by the President and Governors regarding such Bills are open to judicial scrutiny. This reference has posed 14 key questions, mainly focusing on the interpretation of Articles 200 and 201 of the Constitution.
- The central government has raised concerns about whether courts can impose timelines when the Constitution itself does not prescribe any. It also questions whether the actions of the President and Governors, taken before a Bill becomes law, can be subjected to judicial review. Additionally, the reference seeks clarity on the scope of the Supreme Court’s powers under Article 142.
- This legal dispute has largely been driven by political tensions between the Union government and Opposition-led State governments. In its judgment, the Supreme Court had referred to the timelines mentioned in a Ministry of Home Affairs Office Memorandum concerning the President's assent to Bills.
- Notably, in the Cauvery dispute reference (1992), the Court had stated that, in an advisory capacity, it does not have the authority to review its previous rulings.
- Nevertheless, a definitive opinion in the present case is expected to bring clarity to important constitutional questions, thereby aiding in the effective functioning of federalism and democratic governance
For Prelims: Article 143, Supreme Court's advisory jurisdiction
For Mains: General Studies II - Indian Polity & Governance
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Previous Year Questions
Prelims
1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017) 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 3 only Answer: D 2. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? (UPSC CSE 2019) Answer: B 3. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021) 1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the- existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 3
4. Consider the following statements about Electoral Bond Scheme 2018: (RPSC RAS Prelims 2018)
(A) The aim of this scheme is to bring about transparency in the funding process of political parties.
(B) Only the political parties recognized by the Election Commission which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of People or the Legislative Assembly of the State shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.
(C) Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue.
(D) The Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible political party in its account shall be credited on the same day.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. Only (A) and (B)
2. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
3. Only (B), (C) and (D)
4. Only (A), (C) and (D)
Answer: 2
5. With reference to the PM CARES Fund, consider the following statements: (AFCAT 27 2022)
I. The amount collected by it directly goes to the Consolidated Fund of India.
II. It can avail donations from the foreign contribution and donations to fund can also avail 100% tax exemption.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II
Answer: B
6. The Prime Minister's National Relief Fund is operated by which one of the following bodies? (CDS 2019)
A. The Prime Minister's Office (PMO)
B. The National Disaster Management Authority
C. The Ministry of Finance
D. The National Development Council (NDC)
Answer: A
Mains 1. In the light of recent controversy regarding the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVM), what are the challenges before the Election Commission of India to ensure the trustworthiness of elections in India? (UPSC 2018) 2. Discuss the role of the Election Commission of India in the light of the evolution of the Model Code of Conduct. ( UPSC 2022) |
PRESIDENT RULE
- President’s Rule, as outlined in Article 356, is invoked when a state’s constitutional machinery fails. In such cases, based on a Governor’s report or other relevant inputs, the President can issue a Proclamation to take over the state government’s functions, effectively placing them under the Union government’s control.
- Additionally, the State Assembly’s powers are transferred to Parliament. However, the President does not have the authority to assume the powers of a High Court.
- This proclamation must be presented before Parliament and will lapse in two months unless both Houses approve it.
- It can be extended every six months, up to a maximum of three years, but after the first year, further extensions require either the declaration of an Emergency at the national or state level or a determination by the Election Commission that elections cannot be conducted in the state.
- Article 356 does not specify the exact conditions for imposing President’s Rule, leaving it to the President’s discretion, based on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers, to determine whether governance in the state can continue as per constitutional provisions.
- A 2016 Lok Sabha Secretariat report identified various instances of its imposition beyond issues like militancy and law and order, including defections by legislators, collapse of coalitions, no-confidence motions, resignations of Chief Ministers, absence of legislatures in newly formed states, and public unrest causing instability.
- In the 1994 S.R. Bommai vs Union of India case, the Supreme Court outlined instances where the President’s Rule could or could not be applied, though it clarified that this list was not exhaustive
- President’s Rule has been enforced 135 times across 35 States and Union Territories, including some that no longer exist. The first instance occurred in June 1951 in Punjab when Chief Minister Gopi Chand Bhargava resigned due to internal conflicts within the Congress party.
- Punjab has remained under Central administration for over a decade in total. The only region to have experienced President’s Rule for a longer duration is Jammu and Kashmir, where it has been in place for nearly 15 years, including its time as a Union Territory.
- The longest uninterrupted periods were from 1990 to 1996 and from 2019 to 2024. Uttar Pradesh has seen President’s Rule imposed 10 times, making it one of the most frequently affected states after Manipur.
- There have also been instances where Article 356 was applied even when the ruling party at the Centre and the State were the same, such as in Andhra Pradesh (1973), Assam (1981), Gujarat (1974), Karnataka (1990), and most recently in Manipur (2025).
- A notable political use of President’s Rule occurred in 1977 when the newly elected Morarji Desai government dismissed nine Congress-ruled States, arguing that they had lost the electorate’s confidence after the Congress was defeated at the national level.
- In response, when Indira Gandhi regained power in 1980, she similarly dismissed governments in nine States for the same reason. The Supreme Court at the time declined to intervene in these decisions
- A few decades later, the S.R. Bommai verdict marked a turning point in judicial oversight of President’s Rule. The nine-judge Bench ruled that the President’s proclamation could be reviewed by the courts to determine whether it was issued based on any material, whether that material was relevant, or whether the decision was made in bad faith.
- Former Attorney-General Soli Sorabjee had noted in his analysis of the 1994 judgment that this meant proclamations could be invalidated if found unconstitutional. Former Lok Sabha Secretary General P.D.T. Acharya highlighted that this served as a strong deterrent against arbitrary use of the provision.
- From 1950 to 1994, President’s Rule was enforced 100 times, averaging 2.5 instances per year. In the three decades since, it has been applied 30 times, roughly once per year.
- The most recent imposition, in Manipur, is the first since Puducherry in February 2021, marking almost four years without its use.
- Since the Narendra Modi-led NDA government assumed office in 2014, President’s Rule has been imposed 11 times, including four instances in Jammu and Kashmir.
- Courts have overturned the proclamation on two occasions— in Arunachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand
Article 355 and Article 356 of the Indian Constitution are closely related, as the former lays the foundation for the latter.
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Article 355 – Duty of the Union to Protect States
- It places an obligation on the Union government to protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbances.
- It also ensures that the state government functions in accordance with constitutional provisions.
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Article 356 – President’s Rule
- If a state fails to function as per the Constitution, the President can invoke Article 356 based on the Governor’s report or other relevant inputs.
- This provision allows the Union to assume control of the state’s administration temporarily.
For Prelims: Article 356, Article 352, Article 360
For Mains: General Studies II - Polity & Governance
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Previous Year Questions
1.During which Five Year Plan was the Emergency clamped, new elections took place and the Janata Party was elected? (2009) (a) Third Answer (c) 2. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State? (2017)
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only Answer (b) |
SCHEDULED TRIBES IN INDIA
1. Context
2. Definition of Scheduled Tribes
- The term Scheduled Tribes first appeared in the Constitution of India.
- Article 366 (25) defined scheduled tribes as "such tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within such tribes or tribal communities as are deemed under Article 342 to be Scheduled Tribes for this constitution".
3. Article 342
- The President may, concerning any State or Union territory and where it is a state, after consultation with the Governor thereof by public notification, specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities which shall, for this constitution, is deemed to be scheduled tribes about that state or Union Territory, as the case may be.
- Parliament may be law included in or exclude from the list of Scheduled tribes specified in a notification issued under clause (1) any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community, but save as aforesaid, a notification issued under the said clause shall not be varied by any subsequent notification.
- Thus, the first specification of Scheduled Tribes about a particular State or Union Territory is a notified order of the President, after consultation with the State Governments concerned.
- These orders can be modified subsequently only through an Act of Parliament.
- The above Article also provides for listing of scheduled tribes State or Union Territory wise and not on an all-India basis.
4. The criterion for the specification of a community as Scheduled tribes
- The criterion followed for the specification of a community, as scheduled tribes are indications of primitive traits, distinctive culture, geographical isolation, shyness of contact with the community at large and backwardness.
- This criterion is not spelt out in the Constitution but has become well established.
- It subsumes the definitions contained in the 1931 Census, the reports of the first Backward Classes Commission 1955, the Advisory Committee (Kalelkar), on Revision of SC/ST lists (Lokur Committee), 1965 and the Joint Committee of Parliament on the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Bill 1967 (Chanda Committee), 1969.
- In the exercise of the powers conferred by Clause (1) of Article 342 of the Constitution of India, the President, after Consultation with the State Governments concerned has promulgated so far 9 orders specifying the Scheduled Tribes about the state and union territories.
- Out of these, eight are in operation at present in their original or amended form.
- One order namely the Constitution (Goa, Daman & Diu) Scheduled Tribes order 1968 has become defunct on account of the reorganization of Goa, Daman & Diu in 1987.
- Under the Goa, Daman & Diu Reorganization Act 1987 (18 of 1987) the list of Scheduled Tribes of Goa has been transferred to part XIX of the Schedule to the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) order, 1950 and that of Daman & Diu II of the Schedule of the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) (Union Territories) order, 1951.
- No community has been specified as a Scheduled Tribe in the State of Haryana and Punjab and the Union Territories of Chandigarh, Delhi and Puducherry.
5. Declaration as a Scheduled Tribe
- Article 342 provides for the specification of tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities which are deemed to be for the constitution of the Scheduled Tribes about that State or Union Territory.
- In pursuance of these provisions, the list of Scheduled Tribes is notified for each State or Union Territory and is valid only within the jurisdiction of that State or Union Territory and not outside.
- The list of Scheduled Tribes is State or UT-specific and a community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State. The inclusion of a community as a Scheduled Tribe is an ongoing process.
The essential characteristics of these communities are:
- Primitive Traits
- Geographical isolation
- Distinct culture
- Shy of Contact with the community at large
- Economically backward
6. Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
- Tribal communities live, in various ecological and geo-climatic conditions ranging from plains and forests to hills and inaccessible areas.
- Tribal groups are at different stages of social, economic and educational development.
- While some tribal communities have adopted a mainstream way of life, at the other end of the spectrum, there are certain Scheduled Tribes, 75 in number known as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), who are characterised by
- Pre-agriculture level of technology
- Stagnant or declining population
- Extremely low literacy
- Subsistence level of economy
7. Distribution of Tribes
- The Scheduled Tribes are notified in 30 states and UTs and the number of individual ethnic groups, etc. notified as Scheduled Tribes is 705.
- The tribal population of the country, as per the 2011 census, is 10.43 crores, constituting 8. 6 per cent of the total population. 89.97 per cent of them live in rural areas and 10.03 per cent in urban areas.
- The decadal population growth of the tribal from the Census 2001 to 2011 has been 23. 66 per cent against the 17. 69 of the entire population.
- The sex ratio of the overall population is 940 females per 1000 males and that of Scheduled Tribes is 990 females per thousand males.
Image Source: Vikaspedia
- Broadly the STs inhabit two distinct geographical areas Central India and the North Eastern Area.
- More than half of the Scheduled Tribe Population is concentrated in Central India i.e., Madhya Pradesh (14.69 per cent), Chhattisgarh (7.5 per cent), Jharkhand (8.29 per cent), Andhra Pradesh (5.7 per cent), Maharashtra (10.08 Per cent), Orissa (9.2 per cent), Gujarat (8.55 per cent) and Rajasthan (8.86 per cent).
- The other distinct area is the North East (Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh).
- More than two-thirds of the ST population is concentrated only in the seven states of the country, viz. Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Orissa, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh.
- There is no ST population in 3 states (Delhi NCR, Punjab and Haryana) and 2 UTs (Puducherry and Chandigarh) as no Scheduled Tribe is notified.
For Prelims: Scheduled Tribes, Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups, Kudmis, Mundas, Oraons, Santhals, Article 366 (25), Article 342, Backward Classes Commission 1955, the Advisory Committee (Kalelkar), on Revision of SC/ST lists (Lokur Committee), 1965 and the Joint Committee of Parliament on the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Bill 1967 (Chanda Committee), 1969, Goa, Daman & Diu Reorganization Act 1987
For Mains:
1. Who are Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups? Discuss the criterion for the specification of a community as Scheduled tribes. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions 1. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (UPSC 2019)
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4
Answer: C 2. With reference to the history of India, "Ulgulan" or the Great Tumult is the description of which of the following events? (UPSC 2020) A. The Revolt of 1857
B. The Mappila Rebellion of 1921
C. The Indigo Revolt of 1859 - 60
D. Birsa Munda's Revolt of 1899 - 1900
Answer: D 3. When did the Tana’ Bhagat Movement start? (Jharkhand Civil Service 2015)
A. April 1912 B. April 1913 C. April 1914 D. April 1915
Answer: C
4. Consider the following statements about the Santhal Hool of 1855 - 56: (UPSC CAPF)
1. The Santhals were in a desperate situation as tribal lands were leased out
2. The Santhal rebels were treated very leniently by British officials
3. Santhal inhabited areas were eventually constituted separate administrative units called Santhal parganas
4. The Santhal rebellion was the only major rebellion in mid-19th century India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: D
5. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government? (UPSC 2018)
1. The territories called 'Santhal Paraganas' were created.
2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
6. The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was formed by insertion of Article ______ in the Constitution of India. (SSC CGL 2020)
A. 328B B. 338A C. 338B D. 328A
Answer: B
7. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation? (UPSC 2018)
A. Committee on Government Assurances
B. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
C. Rules Committee
D. Business Advisory Committee
Answer: B
8. Justice Madan B Lokur committee was set up to take steps to (Haryana Civil Services 2021)
A. Look into violation of environment rules.
B. Prevent stubble burning
C. Draft new water policy
D. Regulate digital lending
Answer: B
9. Match the pairs - (Committees on Media) (MPSC 2019)
(A) (Name) (B) (Year)
(a) Chanda Committee (i) 1982
(b) Kuldip Nayar Committee (ii) August, 1977
(c) Verghese Committee (iii) March, 1977
(d) P.C. Joshi Committee (iv) 1964
1. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c – (iii), (d) – (iv)
2. (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c – (ii), (d) – (iv)
3. (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c – (ii), (d) – (i)
4. (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c – (iii), (d) – (i)
Answer: 3
10. Consider the formation of the following States and arrange these in chronological order : (UPPSC Combined State Exam 2021)
1. Goa
2. Telangana
3. Jharkhand
4. Haryana
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 4, 1, 3, 2 C. 3, 2, 4, 1 D. 4, 3, 1, 2
Answer: 2
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Source: Vikaspeida
ANTICIPATORY BILL IN CASTE CRIMES
Anticipatory bail is a legal provision in India that allows a person to seek protection from arrest in anticipation of being accused of a non-bailable offense. The idea is preventive—it does not wait until the police arrest the person, but instead provides relief beforehand.
This remedy is given under Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973. It is usually sought when someone believes that false charges might be framed against them or that they might be arrested out of malice or political rivalry. By obtaining anticipatory bail, the individual can avoid the trauma of police custody and still cooperate with the investigation.
When a court grants anticipatory bail, it essentially orders that if the police arrest the applicant, they must be released immediately on bail without being taken into custody. However, the court may impose conditions, such as requiring the person to cooperate with the investigation, not tamper with evidence, or not leave the country without permission.
The purpose of anticipatory bail is to protect personal liberty, prevent misuse of arrest powers, and strike a balance between the rights of the accused and the interests of investigation. It is not meant to shield offenders from legitimate arrest, but to protect citizens from harassment and wrongful detention
3. Why is anticipatory bill is barred from SC/ST cases?
- Anticipatory bail under Section 438 of the CrPC is generally available in India, but the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 (SC/ST Act) makes a specific exception. Section 18 of this Act clearly bars the use of anticipatory bail for offences registered under it. The reasoning lies in the very purpose of the law.
- The SC/ST Act was enacted to protect historically marginalized communities from caste-based atrocities, discrimination, and violence.
- Lawmakers were aware that in many cases, perpetrators of such crimes are from socially and economically dominant groups, while the victims belong to vulnerable sections. If anticipatory bail were freely available, it could dilute the deterrence of the law.
- It was feared that accused persons, especially those with influence, might obtain anticipatory bail quickly, intimidate victims, tamper with evidence, or misuse their position to escape justice.
- Therefore, the bar on anticipatory bail was seen as a way to give stronger protection to SCs and STs, ensuring that those accused of such offences face proper investigation and do not use legal loopholes to avoid accountability.
- That said, the issue has been debated in courts. In Subhash Kashinath Mahajan v. State of Maharashtra (2018), the Supreme Court initially held that anticipatory bail could be allowed in cases where a prima facie case under the Act was not made out.
- This led to controversy and protests, with critics arguing that it weakened the law. Later, in Prathvi Raj Chauhan v. Union of India (2020), the Supreme Court clarified that anticipatory bail can indeed be considered, but only in exceptional cases, and only if the court is convinced that the complaint is prima facie false or motivated.
- So, to sum up: anticipatory bail is barred under the SC/ST Act to safeguard vulnerable communities and ensure the law’s effectiveness, but the Supreme Court has allowed a very limited, cautious window to prevent misuse of false cases
- On November 26, 2024, Kiran, who belongs to the Scheduled Caste community, lodged an FIR claiming that Rajkumar Jain and his associates had assaulted him and his family because he declined to vote as instructed during the Assembly elections.
- The complaint stated that the accused used iron rods to attack him, hurled caste-based abuses, harassed his mother and aunt, snatched a mangalsutra, and even threatened to set their house on fire with petrol bombs.
- Independent witnesses were said to have seen the incident. The Additional Sessions Judge at Paranda refused anticipatory bail, observing that there was evident caste-based malice and supporting evidence.
- However, the Aurangabad Bench of the Bombay High Court overturned this order, calling the allegations politically driven, inflated, and contradictory, and subsequently granted bail. This decision was then challenged before the Supreme Court
The verdict makes it clear that the SC/ST Act is not merely a procedural safeguard but a substantive legal protection meant to uphold the dignity and safety of marginalized groups. The prohibition on anticipatory bail, though stringent, is constitutionally valid since it directly addresses the genuine risks of coercion and reprisal faced by Dalit and tribal complainants.
Looking ahead, the judiciary must honor the intent behind Section 18 and refrain from weakening its effect by prematurely dismissing allegations as exaggerated. Instead, courts should apply the “prima facie test” strictly on the basis of the FIR, without venturing into an evidentiary assessment at the bail stage. The ruling also acknowledges that acts of electoral revenge targeting SC/ST voters threaten not just individuals, but also the broader principles of democratic participation and social justice
For Prelims: Anticipatory bail, Regular Bial, Interim Bail, Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), Indian Penal Code (IPC), 41st Law Commission Report in 1969, Sections 437 and 439 of the CrPC, High court, Supreme Court, and Article 21.
For Mains: 1. What is Anticipatory Bail? Discuss the conditions for granting Anticipatory Bail.
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Previous year Questions
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SAUDI - PAKISTAN PACT
- The idea of collective defence implies that both nations are bound to act if either faces a security threat. To operationalize this, they have agreed to set up permanent coordination structures, including a joint military committee, systems for sharing intelligence, and broader training initiatives.
- Pakistan has maintained a military presence in Saudi Arabia for many years, but the latest defence pact formally embeds this cooperation within a treaty framework. Saudi Arabia is also believed to have extended considerable financial support to Pakistan’s nuclear programme in the past.
- In his 2024 book War, American journalist Bob Woodward recounts a conversation between Saudi Crown Prince Mohammed bin Salman (MBS) and U.S. Senator Lindsey Graham that underscores the closeness of their ties.
- When the Crown Prince mentioned plans for uranium enrichment, Senator Graham questioned whether it was intended for building a bomb. MBS reportedly replied that he wouldn’t need to manufacture one, as he could simply purchase it from Pakistan.
- Although such remarks highlight the depth of their strategic relationship, the agreement itself does not explicitly state that Pakistan’s nuclear arsenal would be available for Saudi defence—though Pakistan’s Defence Minister Khawaja Asif has hinted at that possibility.
- The broader message is unmistakable: Saudi Arabia is signaling dissatisfaction with its existing security arrangements and inviting Pakistan to take on a greater strategic role in the Gulf
- The timing of the agreement is as crucial as its substance. Saudi authorities revealed that negotiations with Pakistan had been underway for over a year, but the formal announcement came just a week after Israel’s strike on Qatar — a move that reflects the shifting security dynamics of the Gulf.
- Qatar hosts the Al-Udeid airbase, the largest American military installation in West Asia. Seeing such a well-fortified partner attacked without any repercussions appears to have convinced Riyadh that U.S. security assurances alone are no longer sufficient.
- This feeling of exposure is not new. Back in 2019, when Iran-backed groups targeted Saudi oil infrastructure, Washington refrained from intervening.
- The U.S., increasingly focused on East Asia, has little appetite to become deeply involved in Middle Eastern conflicts. Saudi Arabia’s strategic concerns are further sharpened by two developments — the ongoing Gaza conflict and the persistent threat from Yemen’s Houthis.
- The Hamas assault on Israel on October 7, 2023, and the subsequent Israeli offensive in Gaza derailed Riyadh’s U.S.-mediated plan to normalise ties with Tel Aviv through the Abraham Accords. The conflict has since widened across the region, adding to Gulf insecurity.
- At the same time, the Houthis have steadily strengthened their military capabilities. Their missile and drone operations have disrupted Saudi oil facilities and international shipping routes in the Red Sea.
- Even though a fragile truce exists, Riyadh still views them as a major threat. Despite repeated strikes by Saudi, U.S., and Israeli forces, the Houthis retain control over almost half of Yemen, including the capital, Sanaa.
- In this context, Pakistan emerges as a practical partner. As a Muslim-majority nation with a long history of providing military assistance to Saudi Arabia, it can reinforce Riyadh’s security. In return, Pakistan benefits from Saudi financial aid, which is vital for shoring up its struggling economy
- Before the October 7 attacks, Washington’s strategy focused on fostering closer ties between Israel and the Gulf monarchies. However, Israel’s subsequent military actions in Gaza, Syria, Lebanon, Yemen, Iran, and Qatar have unsettled Arab capitals.
- In the aftermath, Riyadh has made it clear that it would only normalise relations with Israel if Tel Aviv agrees to the establishment of a Palestinian state along the 1967 borders.
- Israel, for its part, has rejected such an outcome, casting uncertainty over the future expansion of the Abraham Accords. By strengthening its partnership with Pakistan, Saudi Arabia is sending a clear message to both the U.S. and Israel that it intends to diversify its security partnerships.
- Still, this approach carries considerable risks. Pakistan might be pulled into Saudi Arabia’s ongoing rivalries with Iran or even into the Yemen conflict. Conversely, Riyadh could find itself exposed to South Asian instability, particularly if India–Pakistan tensions rise again.
- The agreement does not eliminate Saudi Arabia’s fundamental vulnerabilities — such as the threat from Iranian missiles or Houthi drones — but it does serve as a safeguard at a moment when U.S. commitments appear less dependable and Israeli actions are fueling regional instability
- For India, the Saudi–Pakistan defence agreement presents challenges on several levels. Over the last ten years, New Delhi has significantly strengthened its engagement with Riyadh through energy cooperation, expanded trade, and counter-terrorism coordination.
- Nearly 2.6 million Indians live and work in Saudi Arabia, making the relationship crucial for both economic and social reasons.
- At the same time, India has cultivated a close strategic partnership with Israel, often showing a pro-Israel inclination in its West Asia policy.
- With Saudi–Israel normalisation stalled and Israel’s aggressive military actions unsettling Gulf states, Riyadh appears to have set aside India’s sensitivities by formalising security ties with Pakistan.
- The message seems clear: just as India can lean towards Israel, Saudi Arabia can tilt towards Pakistan.
- As Gulf monarchies broaden their network of alliances, they may pay less attention to India’s strategic concerns. If Pakistan manages to project itself as a reliable security partner for the region, India’s influence could diminish.
- Moreover, India must adapt to the wider transformation in the Gulf: U.S. dominance is waning, regional actors are reassessing their priorities, and traditional security structures are undergoing change.
- For New Delhi, vital interests — from energy security and safeguarding its expatriate community to preventing extremist threats — depend on ensuring stability in the Gulf.
- India’s most prudent response would be to pursue a balanced approach: consolidating its economic and political relations with Riyadh while simultaneously strengthening ties with other Gulf countries, Iran, and additional regional partners
For Prelims: China-Pakistan Economic Corridor, energy, water management, climate change, Belt and Road Initiative, Special Economic Zones, International North-South Transport Corridor, Chabahar Port,
For Mains:
1. Discuss the challenges and opportunities presented by CPEC for India in the context of regional cooperation and economic competitiveness. How can India navigate these challenges effectively? (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
Prelims:
1. Belt and Road Initiative’ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (UPSC CSE 2016) (a) African Union Answer: D 2. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently published the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, in 2020. Which of the following statements is correct about EIA? (Punjab Civil Service 2020)
1. It predicts the effect of a proposed industrial/infrastructural project on the environment.
2. It prevents the proposed activity/project from being approved without proper oversight or taking adverse consequences into account.
3. It compares various alternatives for a project and seeks to identify the one which represents the best combination of economic and environmental costs and benefits.
4. As per the new notification, Coal and non-Coal mineral prospecting and solar photovoltaic projects do not need prior environmental clearance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 1, 2 and 4
Answer: D
3. In the context of India’s preparation for Climate -Smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2021)
1. The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is part of a project led by the Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research program.
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural (CGIAR) headquartered in France.
3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centers.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
4. With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021)
1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.
2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
5. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2020)
1. 36% of India's districts are classified as "overexploited" or "critical" by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
6. Consider the following statements:
1. On the planet Earth, the freshwater available for use amounts to less than 1% of the total water found.
2. Of the total freshwater found on the planet Earth 95% is bound up in polar ice caps and glaciers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
7. Special Economic Zones (SEZ) have been created first time in the: (OPSC OAS 2019)
A. EXIM Policy, 2000
B. EXIM Policy, 2005
C. Industrial Policy, 1956
D. Industrial Policy, 1991
Answer: A
8. Consider the statement: "India wants Chabahar port to be included in the 13-nations International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) that extends from India to Russia." Which of the following country/countries is/are members of INSTC? (Haryana Civil Services 2021)
1. Iran
2. Iraq
3. China
4. Mongolia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 and 4 only D. 1, 3 and 4
Answer: A
9. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India? (UPSC CSE 2017)
A. India's trade with African countries will enormously increase.
B. India's relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
C. India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
D. Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipe between Iraq and India.
Answer: C
Mains
1. The China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) is viewed as a cardinal subset of China’s larger ‘One Belt One Road’ initiative. Give a brief description of CPEC and enumerate the reasons why India has distanced itself from the same. (UPSC CSE 2018) 2. China and Pakistan have entered into an agreement for the development of an economic corridor. What threat does this pose for India’s security? Critically examine. (UPSC CSE 2014) 3. “China is using its economic relations and positive trade surplus as tools to develop potential military power status in Asia”. In the light of this statement, discuss its impact on India as her neighbour. (UPSC CSE 2017) |
FENTANYL
- Fentanyl, a man-made opioid, has become the primary driver of drug overdose deaths in the United States. Originally created in the 1960s for medical use, it continues to be prescribed in tightly controlled doses to patients experiencing severe pain.
- Outside medical supervision, however, fentanyl is extremely dangerous — nearly 50 times stronger than heroin. As little as 2 milligrams can be lethal, since it acts as an agonist on the mu-opioid receptors found on nerve cells, which normally interact with the body’s natural pain-regulating chemicals.
- In high doses, fentanyl overstimulates these receptors, suppresses the brainstem’s respiratory centers that regulate automatic breathing, rapidly crosses the blood–brain barrier, and accumulates in the central nervous system. This leads to severely reduced breathing (hypoventilation) and life-threatening respiratory depression.
- Overdoses can be countered with naloxone, a competitive antagonist of the mu-opioid receptor. By displacing fentanyl and other opioids from the receptor, it helps restore normal breathing. But naloxone must be given quickly, as prolonged oxygen deprivation can cause brain damage or death within minutes.
- Between August 2023 and August 2024, over 57,000 Americans died from opioid overdoses, the majority linked to fentanyl. In 2022, the U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) reported seizing 50.6 million fentanyl-laced pills along with enough powdered fentanyl to create an estimated 379 million potentially lethal doses — enough to kill the entire U.S. population
The Major’s List is issued annually to identify regions where geography, trade, or industry plays a significant role in the movement of narcotics or the chemicals used to manufacture them into global markets. According to the U.S. State Department, inclusion on this list does not necessarily indicate how effective a country’s anti-narcotics measures are. Instead, it reflects whether substantial amounts of drugs or precursor chemicals are being produced or trafficked through that nation. However, certain countries — including Afghanistan, Bolivia, Myanmar, Colombia, and Venezuela — have been singled out as having “failed demonstrably” in meeting their responsibilities under international drug-control treaties |
- Unlike heroin or cocaine, which are extracted from plants, fentanyl is entirely synthetic and produced in laboratories from chemical compounds known as precursors. The most significant of these are N-phenethyl-4-piperidone (NPP) and 4-anilino-N-phenethylpiperidine (4-ANPP). While these chemicals have legitimate industrial and pharmaceutical applications, they can also be diverted into illegal production networks.
- In illicit labs, these precursors are chemically transformed into fentanyl powder through standard organic chemistry reactions. The process can be carried out using common glassware, basic solvents, and moderate heat.
- This means that once traffickers acquire the precursor chemicals, converting them into fentanyl is relatively straightforward.
- Moreover, because only minimal amounts of precursors are needed to produce large volumes of fentanyl, and they can be shipped covertly, regulating the trade has proven extremely challenging
- The global fentanyl supply chain involves numerous players. China and India are key sources of precursor chemicals, some of which are illegally diverted. Mexican cartels are primarily responsible for converting these precursors into fentanyl powder.
- The finished product is then either pressed into counterfeit pills or mixed with other drugs and trafficked into the U.S., mainly via the Mexico–U.S. border.
- To combat this, the U.S. has used criminal prosecutions, trade sanctions, diplomatic engagement, and strengthened law enforcement measures. In January 2025, two Indian firms, Raxuter Chemicals and Athos Chemicals, were charged with conspiring to export fentanyl precursors to the U.S. and Mexico.
- A senior executive at Raxuter, Bhavesh Lathiya, was arrested in New York on smuggling charges.
- Following these developments, the U.S. Embassy in New Delhi revoked or denied visas for certain business executives linked to the illicit fentanyl trade