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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 24 MARCH 2025

INTERNATIONAL DAY OF FOREST 2025

 
 
1. Context
 
Every year, March 21 is observed as the International Day of Forest (IDF) by the United Nations to commemorate the green cover around the world and reiterate its importance. The theme of the 2025 IDF is “Forests and Food“, celebrating the crucial role played by forests in food security, nutrition, and livelihoods
 
2. International Day of Forest (IDF)
 
  • The International Day of Forests (IDF) is observed annually on March 21 to raise awareness about the importance of forests and their role in sustaining life on Earth.
  • Established by the United Nations General Assembly on December 21, 2012, through Resolution 67/200, it encourages global efforts to protect and manage forests sustainably.
  • The day aligns with the first day of spring in the Northern Hemisphere, symbolizing renewal and growth, though its significance is universal
  • As per the United Nations website, the International Day of Forests (IDF) is dedicated to celebrating and promoting awareness about the significance of all types of forests. On this occasion, countries are encouraged to engage in local, national, and international initiatives, including activities such as tree-planting drives.
  • The United Nations Forum on Forests and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), in collaboration with governments, the Collaborative Partnership on Forests, and other relevant organizations, lead the observance of this day. The event was first celebrated in 2012
 
3. Significance of Forest
 
  • Forests play a crucial role in replenishing drinking water sources and function as natural filtration systems. Their root networks absorb excess nutrients and pollutants from rainwater runoff before it reaches underground aquifers, ensuring safe and clean water for consumption.

  • These same root systems help prevent landslides by stabilizing soil, mitigate flooding after heavy rainfall by aiding water absorption, and, in the case of mangrove forests, serve as natural coastal barriers that reduce the impact of storm surges.

  • One of the most vital functions of forests is supporting food security. They provide direct sources of sustenance, such as fruits and wild animals, while also aiding agriculture by protecting pollinators and supplying water.

  • Forests directly support the livelihoods of approximately 1.6 billion people by providing timber, fuel, food, employment, and shelter. Around 300 million individuals reside within forested areas. In India, to safeguard the rights of forest-dependent communities, the government enacted the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (FRA).

  • Forests are home to more than 80% of terrestrial biodiversity, including 80% of amphibians and 75% of bird species. Tropical rainforests, in particular, harbor over half of the world's vertebrate species.

  • Alongside oceans and soil, forests serve as the planet’s largest carbon sinks, storing vast amounts of climate-warming gases primarily produced by burning fossil fuels.

  • Forests also contribute to cloud formation, which helps reflect sunlight back into space. Additionally, they act as natural air conditioners by releasing moisture into the atmosphere through evaporation, helping to regulate temperatures

 
4. India State of forest report 2023
 
  • In December 2024, the Ministry of Environment released the 18th edition of the State of Forest Report (ISFR-2023). Published every two years, the ISFR assesses forest cover across the country using satellite imagery.

  • Between 2021 and 2023, India's net forest cover expanded by 156.41 sq km, bringing the total forested area to 21.76% of the country's geographical land—an increase of just 0.05% compared to the 2021 assessment. With this growth, the total forest cover now stands at 7,15,342.61 sq km.

  • From 2003 to 2013, forest cover increased by 0.61 percentage points, rising from 20.62% to 21.23%. Over the subsequent decade, growth slowed, with only a 0.53 percentage point rise, reaching 21.76% in 2023.

  • Among states, Chhattisgarh recorded the highest increase in forest and tree cover (683.62 sq km), followed by Uttar Pradesh (559.19 sq km), Odisha (558.57 sq km), and Rajasthan (394.46 sq km). Conversely, Madhya Pradesh experienced the largest decline (612.41 sq km), followed by Karnataka (459.36 sq km), Ladakh (159.26 sq km), and Nagaland (125.22 sq km).

  • For the first time, a forest cover assessment of the Western Ghats was conducted. Findings revealed that the eco-sensitive zone designated by the central government has lost 58.22 sq km of forest cover since 2013.

  • The country's mangrove forests have seen a reduction of 7.43 sq km since 2021. As of now, India’s total mangrove cover stands at 4,991.68 sq km, representing 0.15% of the nation's total land area

5. Way Forward
 
The State of Forest Report (ISFR-2023) highlights both progress and challenges in India's forest conservation efforts. While there has been a marginal increase in overall forest cover, the slow growth rate over the past decade raises concerns about long-term sustainability. The decline in forest cover across eco-sensitive regions like the Western Ghats and the reduction in mangrove forests emphasize the need for targeted conservation strategies. With states showing both gains and losses, region-specific policies, afforestation programs, and stricter environmental regulations are essential to reversing forest degradation. Moving forward, a balanced approach that integrates forest conservation, biodiversity protection, and sustainable development is crucial to ensuring India's ecological security and resilience against climate change
 
 
For Prelims: Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change, Forest (Conservation) Act Amendment (FCAA), State Expert Committee,  Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
For Mains: 
1. The Forest (Conservation) Act Amendment (FCAA) 2023 has raised concerns about the potential weakening of protection for unclassed forests. Discuss the potential ecological and legal consequences of the FCAA, and suggest measures to ensure the sustainable management of these forests. (250 words)
2. “Forests are the lungs of our planet.” Discuss the importance of unclassed forests for India's ecological security and suggest a multi-pronged approach for their sustainable management. (250 words)
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. Which of the following statements about tropical rainforests are correct? (UPSC CAPF 2021)
1. The soils of tropical rainforests are quite infertile.
2. The vegetation is evergreen, enabling photosynthesis to take place year around.
3. They have been described as 'deserts covered by trees'.
4. They are the most productive land-based ecosystem.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 2 and 4 only             B. 1, 3, and 4 only        C. 1, 2, and 3 only           D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
 
2. "If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys." Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement? (UPSC 2022)
A. The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation, and evaporation.
B. Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles, and mammals thrive.
C. Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
D. Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
 
3. If the tropical rainforest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to the tropical deciduous forest. This is because (UPSC 2011)
A. The soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients.
B. propagules of the trees in the rainforest have poor viability.
C. The rainforest species are slow-growing.
D. exotic species invades the fertile soil of rain forest.
 
4. Consider the following States:
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Mizoram
In which of the above States do 'Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests' occur? (UPSC 2015)
A. 1 only       B. 2 and 3 only           C. 1 and 3 only          D. 1, 2 and 3
 
 
5. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently published the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, in 2020. Which of the following statements is correct about EIA? (Punjab Civil Service 2020)
1. It predicts the effect of a proposed industrial/infrastructural project on the environment.
2. It prevents the proposed activity/project from being approved without proper oversight or taking adverse consequences into account.
3. It compares various alternatives for a project and seeks to identify the one which represents the best combination of economic and environmental costs and benefits.
4. As per the new notification, Coal and non-Coal mineral prospecting and solar photovoltaic projects do not need prior environmental clearance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only 1 and 2  B. Only 2, 3 and 4      C. Only 1, 2 and 3      D. Only 1, 2 and 4
 
6. With reference to the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements: (UPSC 2014)
1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education, and public awareness.
3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only          B. 2 only            C. 2 and 3 only              D. 1, 2 and 3
 
7. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019)
1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only          B. 2 only             C. Both 1 and 2                D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
8. Consider the following States: (UPSC 2019)
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
With reference to the State mentioned above, in terms of the percentage of forest cover to the total area of the State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
A. 2-3-1-4        B. 2-3-4-1         C. 3-2-4-1                D. 3-2-1-4

9. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (UPSC 2021)

(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

10. A particular State in India has the following characteristics: (UPSC 2012)

1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes the Protected Area Network in this State.

Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh          (b) Assam       (c) Himachal Pradesh        (d) Uttarakhand

11. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019)
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only         B. 2 and 3 only         C. 3 only             D. 1, 2 and 3
 
12. The Indian Forest Act 1927 was enacted after repealing which of the following Indian forest acts? (SSC CGL 2021)
A. Indian Forest Act, 1922
B. Indian Forest Act, 1878
C. Indian Forest Act, 1865
D. Indian Forest Act, 1882
 
13. In which year Forest Conservation Act was passed? (UPTET 2019)
A.  1986     B. 1990           C. 1980         D. 1988
 
Answer: 1-D, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C, 5-D, 6-C, 7-A, 8-C, 9-D, 10-A, 11-B, 12-B, 13-C

Mains

1. What are the consequences of Illegal mining? Discuss the Ministry of Environment and Forests’ concept of GO AND NO GO zones for coal mining sector. (UPSC 2013)
2. Examine the status of forest resources of India and its resultant impact on climate change. (UPSC 2020)
 
Source: Indianexpress
 

ANTI DUMPING DUTY

 
 
1. Context
 
India has imposed anti-dumping duty on five Chinese goods to protect domestic players from cheap imports from the neighbouring country.
 
2.What is anti dumping duty?
 

An anti-dumping duty (ADD) is a protectionist tariff imposed by a government on imported goods that are sold below their fair market value, a practice known as "dumping." Dumping occurs when a foreign company exports a product at a price lower than what it charges in its domestic market or below its production cost, potentially harming the importing country’s domestic industries. The duty aims to level the playing field by offsetting this price difference, protecting local businesses from unfair competition.

  • Legal Basis: Governed internationally by the World Trade Organization (WTO) under the Agreement on Implementation of Article VI of GATT 1994 (Anti-Dumping Agreement). It allows countries to impose ADD if dumping causes or threatens "material injury" to domestic industries.
  • Process:
    1. A domestic industry files a complaint.
    2. An investigation assesses dumping margins (export price vs. normal value), injury, and causality.
    3. If confirmed, the government imposes a duty, typically calculated as the difference between the export price and the "normal value" (domestic price or cost-plus-profit in the exporting country)
 
3. Countervailing duties
 

Countervailing duties (CVDs) are tariffs imposed by a government on imported goods to counteract subsidies provided by the exporting country’s government to its producers or exporters. These subsidies—such as tax breaks, grants, or low-interest loans—can artificially lower the price of exported goods, giving them an unfair advantage in the importing country’s market. CVDs aim to neutralize this advantage, protecting domestic industries from subsidized foreign competition.

  • Legal Basis: Governed by the World Trade Organization (WTO) under the Agreement on Subsidies and Countervailing Measures (SCM Agreement), part of GATT 1994. Countries can impose CVDs if subsidies cause or threaten "material injury" to their domestic industries.
  • Process:
    1. A domestic industry files a complaint with evidence of subsidies and injury.
    2. An investigation confirms the subsidy’s existence, calculates its value (subsidy margin), and assesses harm.
    3. If proven, a duty is levied, typically equal to the subsidy amount, to raise the import price to a fair level.
 
4. Differences between Anti Dumping and Countervailing duties
 
 
Aspect Countervailing Duties (CVDs) Anti-Dumping Duties (ADDs)
Purpose Counteract foreign government subsidies Counteract dumping by foreign companies
Target Government subsidies Private companies selling below fair value
Legal Basis WTO SCM Agreement WTO Anti-Dumping Agreement
Investigation Focus Subsidies and their impact Dumping and its impact
Calculation Based on subsidy amount Based on price difference
Example Solar panels subsidized by a foreign government Steel sold below home market price
 
 
5. World Trade Organisation (WTO)
 

The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an international body that regulates and facilitates global trade among its member nations. Established on January 1, 1995, under the Marrakesh Agreement, it succeeded the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), which began in 1948. Headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, the WTO provides a framework for negotiating trade agreements, resolving disputes, and promoting free and fair trade. As of March 2025, it has 164 member countries, representing over 98% of global trade, with India as a founding member since 1995.

Key Functions of the WTO

  • The WTO oversees the implementation and operation of multilateral trade agreements negotiated by its member countries. These agreements cover goods, services, and intellectual property
  • The WTO serves as a platform for member countries to negotiate trade liberalization and resolve trade-related issues. Notable negotiations include the Doha Round, which focuses on development and reducing trade barriers
  • The WTO provides a structured process for resolving trade disputes between member countries. Its dispute settlement mechanism is binding and aims to ensure that trade rules are followed
  • The WTO conducts regular reviews of member countries' trade policies and practices to ensure transparency and adherence to global trade rules
  • The WTO provides support to developing and least-developed countries to help them integrate into the global trading system and comply with WTO rules
  • The WTO collaborates with organizations like the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank to ensure coherence in global economic policy-making
 
 
For Prelims: World Trade Organisation (WTO), Anti Dumping duty
 
For Mains: GS III - Economy
 
 
Source: The Hindu
 
 

DELIMITATION EXERCISE

 
 
 
1. Context
 
 
Describing as “unclear and confusing” the promise of Union Home Minister Amit Shah that southern states will not lose a single seat in the Lok Sabha on a pro rata basis after delimitation, a Joint Action Committee for Fair Delimitation (JAC) led by Tamil Nadu Chief Minister MK Stalin passed a resolution demanding that the “freeze on Parliamentary constituencies based on 1971 Census Population should be extended by another 25 years”
 
 
2. About delimitation
  • Delimitation refers to the process of determining the number of seats and defining the boundaries of electoral constituencies for the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies.
  • It also involves allocating seats specifically reserved for Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) within these legislative bodies.
  • As outlined in Articles 82 and 170 of the Constitution, the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, as well as the demarcation of constituencies, is subject to adjustment following each Census.
  • This delimitation process is overseen by a Delimitation Commission established by an act of Parliament.
  • Such redistricting exercises have historically occurred following the 1951, 1961, and 1971 Censuses.

3. Constitutional Requirements and Current Status
  • The constitutional requirement for democratic governance stipulates that the government should be elected by the people, with the principle of 'one citizen-one vote-one value' being paramount.
  • Historically, the number of seats in the Lok Sabha was determined based on population figures from the 1951, 1961, and 1971 Censuses, resulting in an average population per seat of 7.3 lahks, 8.4 lahks, and 10.1 lahks respectively.
  • However, since the 1971 Census, the number of seats has been frozen to incentivize population control measures, ensuring that states with higher population growth do not gain disproportionately higher representation.
  • This freeze was initially implemented through the 42nd Amendment Act until the year 2000 and extended by the 84th Amendment Act until 2026.
  • Consequently, seat allocation is based on the population figures from the 1971 Census, with adjustments slated to occur following the first Census after 2026.
  • Ordinarily, the delimitation process, including determining the number of seats, defining territorial constituency boundaries, and allocating reserved seats for Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST), would align with the Census of 2031, being the first Census post-2026.
  • However, with the postponement of the 2021 Census and the approach of the year 2026, discussions are underway regarding the impending delimitation exercise.

 

4. Issues Surrounding Delimitation

The freezing of seat numbers based on the 1971 Census aimed to incentivize population control measures. However, over the past five decades, population growth has been uneven across states, with states like Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan experiencing greater increases compared to states like Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh.

Options Under Discussion

Two main options are being debated regarding the revised delimitation exercise based on projected 2026 population figures:

  1. Maintain Existing Seats (543) Redistribution: Under this option, the existing 543 seats would be redistributed among states.
  2. Increase Seats to 848 with Proportionate Redistribution: This option involves increasing the total number of seats to 848, with proportional increases among states.

Potential Disadvantages

Regardless of the chosen option, it's evident that southern states, smaller northern states like Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and northeastern states may be at a disadvantage compared to northern states such as Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan. Such discrepancies may contradict the federal principles of the country and foster feelings of disenchantment among populations in states that stand to lose representation. Moreover, it contradicts the philosophy of freezing seats based on the 1971 Census, as states with better population control may lose political significance.

 

5. International Practices in Seat Allocation

  • In the United States, the number of seats in the House of Representatives, akin to India's Lok Sabha, has remained fixed at 435 since 1913. Despite the population increase from 9.4 crore in 1911 to an estimated 33.4 crore in 2023, the method of equal proportion is utilized to redistribute seats among states following each Census. This method aims to maintain fairness, ensuring that no significant gain or loss occurs for any state. For instance, after the 2020 Census, 37 states saw no change in their number of seats, while Texas gained two seats, five states gained one seat each, and seven states lost one seat each.
  • In the European Union Parliament, comprised of 720 members, seat allocation among its 27 member countries follows the principle of degressive proportionality. This principle entails that the ratio of population to the number of seats increases as population size increases. For example, Denmark, with a population of around 60 lahks, has 15 seats (with an average population of 4 lahks per member), while Germany, with a population of 8.3 crores, has 96 seats (with an average population of 8.6 lahks per member).

 

6. Proposed Ideal Solution

  • The dilemma between democratic and federal principles in delimitation can be effectively addressed by striking a balance that acknowledges the significance of both. A harmonious solution can be achieved by giving equal weight to democratic representation and federal structure.
  • The number of Members of Parliament (MPs) in the Lok Sabha could be capped at the current level of 543 seats. This ensures continuity in representation from various states, thereby upholding the federal principle. MPs primarily legislate on matters listed in the Union List, such as Defense, External Affairs, Railways, Telecommunication, and Taxation, and hold the Central government accountable.
  • To meet democratic representational requirements, the number of Members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs) in each state can be increased in alignment with the current population. This adjustment can be made without altering the number of seats in the Rajya Sabha, thereby addressing the need for fair representation at the state level.
  • Crucially, to strengthen democracy at the grassroots level, empowering local bodies like panchayats and municipalities is imperative. These entities engage directly with citizens on a daily basis and play a vital role in governance. Significant devolution of powers and finances to these bodies is essential to enhance democracy at the grassroots level, ensuring effective citizen participation in decision-making processes.

 

7. The Way Forward

Finding a balanced approach to delimitation that considers democratic representation, federal stability, and local governance empowerment is crucial for India's future. This proposed solution offers a starting point for discussion and debate to ensure a fair and effective delimitation process that strengthens the nation's democracy.

 

For Prelims: Delimitation, Census, Covid-19 Pandemic, Article 82,  Article 170

For Mains: 

1. Critically analyze the potential conflict between the principle of "one citizen-one vote" and the freezing of Lok Sabha seats based on the 1971 Census in the context of delimitation. Discuss how this can impact federalism and representation in India. (250 Words)
2. How can the delimitation exercise be conducted in a manner that fosters national integration and strengthens the federal structure of India? (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1.  With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2012)
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only             B. 2 only           C. Both 1 and 2               D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
2. Barak Valley in Assam is famous for which among the following? (MSTET 2019)
A.  Bamboo Industry
B. Petroleum Production
C. Cottage Industries
D. Tea Cultivation
 
3. Which one of the following is an important crop of the Barak Valley? (Karnataka Civil Police Constable 2019)
A. Sugarcane           B.  Jute            C. Tea                    D. Cotton
 
4. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2021)
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. 3. As per the- existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only           B.  2 only          C. 1 and 3             D. 2 and 3
 
 
5. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to  (UPSC 2015) 
A. protect the interests of the Scheduled Tribes
B. determine  the boundaries between States
C. determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
D. protect the interests of all the border States
 
Answers: 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-B, 5-A
Source: The Hindu
 

GLOBAL WARMING

 

1. Context

Soaring temperatures are leading to rapid and largely irreversible changes in the mountain ranges of the world, according to a new UNESCO report. In several regions, higher elevations seem to be warming faster than lower ones; glaciers are melting at an accelerated rate; permafrost is thawing at an increased rate; snow cover has declined; and snowfall patterns have become more erratic

2. The difference in Temperature rise

  • Temperature rises over land is much higher than over oceans. Overland the annual mean temperatures have risen by as much as 1.59 degree Celsius since preindustrial times, according to the latest report of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change.
  • Oceans, in contrast, have warmed by about 0.88 degree Celsius. The warming trends over the Indian region are very different.
  • An assessment of climate change over the Indian subcontinent, published by the Ministry of Earth Sciences in 2020, said annual mean temperatures had risen by 0.7 degree Celsius from 1900.
  • This is significantly lower than the 1.59 degree Celsius rise for land temperatures across the world. It could give the impression that the problem of climate change in India was not as acute as in other parts of the world. But that is not entirely accurate. 

3. Why is warming over India is lower?

  • The relatively lower rise in temperatures over India is not a surprise. Also, India is not a special case. The increase in temperatures is known to be more prominent in the higher altitudes, near the polar regions, than near the equator.
  • This is attributable to a complex set of atmospheric phenomena, including heat transfers from the tropics to the poles through prevailing systems of air circulation. India happens to be in the tropical region, quite close to the equator.
  • A substantial part of the difference between the temperature rise over India and that over the entire world can be explained by understanding what the different numbers represent. 
  • The planet as a whole has warmed by 1.1 degree Celsius compared with preindustrial times.
  • But, as mentioned earlier, this is just the average. Different regions have seen very different levels of warming.
  • The polar regions, particularly the Arctic, have seen significantly greater warming. The IPCC report says the Arctic region has warmed at least twice as much as the world average.
  • Its current annual mean temperatures are about 2 degrees Celsius higher than pre-industrial times. Some other studies suggest the Arctic could be warming even faster.
  • Again, this happens because of a variety of reasons, including the processes mentioned earlier. Another prominent cause is what is known as the albedo effect, or how much sunlight a surface reflects. The ice cover in the Arctic is melting, because of which more land or water is getting exposed to the Sun.
  • Ice traps the least amount of heat and reflects most of the solar radiation when compared with land or water.
  • More recent research suggests that the higher warming in the polar region could be attributed to a host of factors, including the albedo effect, changes in clouds, water vapour, and atmospheric temperatures.
  • The warming in the polar regions accounts for a substantial part of the 1.1-degree Celsius temperature rise over the entire globe. 

4. Higher warming over land than oceans

  • However, the 0.7 degree Celsius temperature rise over India has to be compared with the warming seen over land areas, not the entire planet.
  • As mentioned, land areas have become warmer by 1.59 degree Celsius. Land areas tend to get heated faster and by a larger amount, than oceans.
  • Daily and seasonal variations in heating over land and oceans are usually explained in terms of their different heat capacities. Oceans have a higher capacity to cool themselves down through the process of evaporation.
  • The warmer water evaporates, leaving the rest of the ocean relatively cooler. However, longer-term enhanced heating trends over land have to be attributed to other, more complicated, physical processes involving land-ocean-atmospheric interactions.

5. Impact of Aerosols

  • Aerosols refer to all kinds of particles suspended in the atmosphere. These particles have the potential to affect the local temperature in multiple ways.
  • Many of these scatter sunlight back, so that lesser heat is absorbed by the land. Aerosols also affect cloud formation.
  • Clouds, in turn, have an impact on how much sunlight is reflected or absorbed.
    Aerosol concentration in the Indian region is quite high, due to natural as well as man-made reasons.
  • Due to its location in the tropics and the arid climate, India is no stranger to dust. But it also happens to be experiencing heavy pollution right now.
  • Emissions from vehicles, industries, construction, and other activities add a lot of aerosols to the Indian region. A reduction in warming could be an unintended but positive side effect.
For Prelims: Global Warming, Intercontinental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), Aerosols, Albedo, Climate change, and land-ocean-atmospheric interactions.

Previous year Questions

1. In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration? (UPSC 2017)
1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 only
Answer: D
 
2. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
1. Climatic and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short-Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of the G20 group of countries.
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon, and hydrofluorocarbons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Source: The Indian Express
 

CONSUMER PRICE INDEX (CPI)

1. Context

The All-India Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) and Rural Labourers (CPI-RL) (Base: 1986-87=100) decreased by 7 points each,  for the month of February 2025, falling to 1309 and 1321 points, respectively

2. Consumer Price Index

  • The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure of the change in prices of a basket of goods and services that are commonly purchased by consumers. It is the most commonly used measure of inflation.
  • The CPI is calculated by comparing the prices of the goods and services in the basket in a particular period to those of the same in a base period.
  • The base period is usually the previous year's corresponding period. The difference in prices is expressed as a percentage, and this is the CPI inflation rate.
  • The CPI is calculated for eight different categories of goods and services Food and beverages, Housing, Clothing and footwear, Transport, Health, Education, Communication, Recreation and Miscellaneous goods and services.
  • The weights of each category in the CPI are determined by the expenditure patterns of urban households. For example, food and beverages have the highest weight in the CPI, followed by housing and transport.
  • The CPI inflation rate is an important indicator of the cost of living.
  • It is used by the government to set monetary policy and by businesses to make pricing decisions.

3. Wholesale Price Index

  • The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is a measure of the change in prices of goods and services at the wholesale level.
  • It is calculated by comparing the prices of a basket of goods and services in a particular period to those of the same in a base period.
  • The base period is usually the previous year's corresponding period. The difference in prices is expressed as a percentage, and this is the WPI inflation rate.
  • The WPI is calculated for 67 groups of commodities, which are further divided into 225 subgroups.
  • The weights of each group and subgroup in the WPI are determined by the value of the goods and services produced in each group and subgroup.
  • The WPI inflation rate is an important indicator of inflation at the wholesale level.
  • It is used by businesses to make pricing decisions and by the government to set monetary policy.

4. Findings of the Report

4.1. Food inflation

  • Food inflation in India remained high in August, at 9.94%. This was driven by rising prices of essential food items, such as cereals, pulses, vegetables, and oils.
  • Eleven of the 12 items on the heavyweight food and beverages group of the CPI logged price increases, with oils and fats, the sole item logging a year-on-year decline in prices, posting its first sequential increase in nine months.
  • Vegetables provided some relief, with tomatoes leading an appreciable month-on-month deflation of 5.88% in the 19-member basket.
  • However, the cooking staples of potatoes and onions were among the seven items that continued to log sequential inflation (2.3% and 12.3%, respectively).

4.2. Monsoon deficit and rising crude oil prices

  • The near-term inflation outlook is also made more uncertain by other factors, including a distinct deficit in monsoon rainfall.
  • Besides the overall 10% shortfall, sharp regional and temporal anomalies in rain distribution have impacted either the sowing or the quality of produce of several farm items.
  • Kharif's sowing of pulses had, as of September 8, recorded an 8.6% shortfall compared with the year-earlier period.
  • Another inflation driver, crude oil, has also seen a steady rise in prices as the output cuts by major oil producers of the OPEC+ grouping start to bite.
  • The price of India's crude basket had, as of September 12, climbed 7.2% from the average in August to $92.65/barrel, according to official data.

4.3. RBI measures to control inflation

  • For the RBI, the latest inflation data further roils its interest rate calculus.
  • Unless CPI inflation decelerates by an incredible 250 basis points in September to a 4.33% pace, price gains are certain to substantially overshoot the monetary authority's 6.2% forecast for the July-September quarter, leaving it with few real options to achieve its medium-term price stability goal of 4% inflation.
  • As the RBI has been at pains to stress, failure to anchor inflation expectations risks hurting growth.

5. About the sticky Consumer Price Index (CPI)

  • The sticky Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a subset of the CPI that includes goods and services that change prices relatively infrequently.
  • These goods and services are thought to incorporate expectations about future inflation to a greater degree than prices that change more frequently.
  • Some of the items included in the sticky CPI are Rent, Housing costs, Utilities, Education, Healthcare, Transportation, Household furnishings and appliances, Personal insurance, Recreation, and Miscellaneous goods and services. 
  • The sticky CPI is often used by economists to measure inflation expectations.
  • This is because prices of sticky goods and services are less likely to be affected by short-term changes in supply and demand, and are therefore more likely to reflect changes in inflation expectations.
  • The sticky CPI is also used by central banks to set monetary policy.
  • This is because the central bank wants to make sure that inflation expectations are anchored at a low level.
  • If inflation expectations start to rise, the central bank may raise interest rates to bring them back down.

6. How India’s retail inflation is measured?

  • India's retail inflation is measured by the Consumer Price Index (CPI), a basket of goods and services commonly purchased by urban households.
  • The CPI is calculated by the National Statistical Office (NSO) every month.
  • The CPI is calculated by comparing the prices of the goods and services in the basket in a particular month to those of the same in a base month.
  • The base month is usually the previous year's corresponding month. The difference in prices is expressed as a percentage, and this is the CPI inflation rate.
  • The CPI is calculated for eight different categories of goods and services, Food and beverages, Housing, Clothing and footwear, Transport, Health, Education, Communication, Recreation and Miscellaneous goods and services.
  • The weights of each category in the CPI are determined by the expenditure patterns of urban households. For example, food and beverages have the highest weight in the CPI, followed by housing and transport.
  • The CPI inflation rate is an important indicator of the cost of living in India.
  • It is used by the government to set monetary policy and by businesses to make pricing decisions.

7. Calculation of Inflation

  • Inflation is the rate at which the prices of goods and services increase over time.
  • It is calculated by comparing the prices of a basket of goods and services in a particular period to the prices of the same basket of goods and services in a base period.
  • The base period is usually the previous year's corresponding period. The difference in prices is expressed as a percentage, and this is the inflation rate.

There are two main ways to calculate inflation

1. Consumer Price Index (CPI): The CPI is a measure of the change in prices of a basket of goods and services that are commonly purchased by consumers. It is the most commonly used measure of inflation.

The CPI is calculated by the following formula:

CPI = (Cost of a basket of goods and services in current period / Cost of a basket of goods and services in base period) * 100

2. Producer Price Index (PPI): The PPI is a measure of the change in prices of goods and services that are produced by businesses. It is used to track inflation at the wholesale level.

The PPI is calculated by the following formula:

PPI = (Cost of a basket of goods and services at the wholesale level in the current period / Cost of a basket of goods and services at the wholesale level in the base period) * 100

 

For Prelims: Consumer Price Index, Wholesale Price Index, Inflation,  retail inflation, Producer Pirce Index, National Statistical Office, OPEC+, Crude oil, Kharif season, Monsoon, 
For Mains: 
1. Analyse the factors contributing to high food inflation in India in recent months. Discuss the impact of high food inflation on the Indian economy and suggest measures to mitigate it. (250 words)
2. Explain the concept of sticky inflation. What are the various factors that contribute to sticky inflation? Discuss the implications of sticky inflation for the Indian economy. (250 words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct? (UPSC 2015)
A. Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only
B. The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
C. Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
D. Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
 
Answer: C
 
2. With reference to India, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2010)
1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis only.
2. As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI(IW)), the WPI gives less weight to food articles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only       B. 2 only       C. Both 1 and 2          D.  Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer: C
 
3. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2020)
1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 A. 1 and  2 only       B. 2 only       C. 3 only           D. 1, 2 and 3
 
4. India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons? (UPSC 2011)
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30.
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 
A. 1 and 2 only          B. 2 and 3 only        C. 1 and 3 only          D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: B
 
 
5. The Public Distribution System, which evolved as a system of management of food and distribution of food grains, was relaunched as _______ Public Distribution System in 1997. (SSC JE EE 2021) 
A. Evolved         B. Transformed      C. Tested            D. Targeted
 
Answer: D
 
6. Under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana, up to what quantity of rice and wheat can be purchased at a subsidised cost? (FCI AG III 2023) 
A. 35 kg          B. 40 kg          C. 30 kg           D. 25 kg           E. 50 kg
 
Answer: A
 
7. As per the the National Statistical Office (NSO) report released on 7 January 2022, India's Gross domestic product (GDP) is expected to grow at ___________ per cent (in first advance estimates) in the fiscal year 2021-22?  (ESIC UDC 2022) 
A. 17.6 per cent     B. 9.5 per cent     C. 11 per cent        D. 9.2 per cent   E. None of the above
 
Answer: D
 
8. The main emphasis of OPEC (Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries) is on which of the following? (UKPSC 2016)
A. The production of petroleum
B. Control over prices of petroleum
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
 
Answer: C
 
9. In the context of global oil prices, "Brent crude oil" is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply? (UPSC 2011)
1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
2. It is sourced from the North Sea.
3. It does not contain sulfur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only    B. 1 and 2 only        C. 1 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: B
 
10. The term 'West Texas Intermediate', sometimes found in news, refers to a grade of (UPSC 2020)
A. Crude oil   B. Bullion         C. Rare earth elements       D.  Uranium
 
Answer: C
 
11. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019)
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 
A. 1 and 3 only        B.  2, 3 and 4 only        C. 2 and 4 only         D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
 
Answer: A
 
Source: The Hindu
 
 

ADITYA-L1 

1. Context 

Scientists from the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) have reported observations of a flareless coronal mass ejection (CME) from the solar atmosphere with the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) instrument onboard Aditya-L1 mission

2. About Aditya-L1

  • Aditya-L1's core objective revolves around positioning a spacecraft in the 'L1' spot in space, marking India's inaugural dedicated solar mission.
  • This mission follows ISRO's successful AstroSat (2015), making it the agency's second astronomy observatory-class endeavour.
Image Source: ISRO

3. A Paradigm Shift in Solar Observations

  • India's prior solar observations relied on ground-based telescopes and data from international solar missions.
  • With ageing ground-based telescopes, India lacked a modern observational facility.
  • Aditya-L1 seeks to address this gap and provide comprehensive solar data, advancing solar physics research.

4. Space weather alerts

  • Astronomy-based space missions are gaining prominence due to their potential to inspire youth and contribute to scientific advancements.
  • These missions, although time-consuming in development, play a crucial role in expanding our understanding of celestial phenomena.
  • Solar flares, Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs), and solar winds can disrupt space weather and impact satellite-dependent operations, such as telecommunications and power grids.
  • Aditya-L1's role in studying the Sun is pivotal in enhancing our ability to predict and manage space weather disruptions.
  • While AstroSat remains operational after eight years, Aditya-L1 presents a promising path for future Indian astronomy missions.
  • With seven payloads, including instruments dedicated to solar observation, Aditya-L1 aims to advance our understanding of solar eruptions and flares.
  • Solar physics now demands multiwavelength astronomy to comprehensively study solar events.
  • Coordinating data from various instruments on Aditya-L1 is crucial to unravelling the complexities of solar phenomena.
  • Aditya-L1 seeks to provide user-friendly information for safeguarding satellite-dependent operations.
  • It may generate space weather alerts based on data obtained, enhancing our preparedness for space weather disturbances.

5. The Significance of L1

  • Aditya-L1 embarks on a journey of nearly 100 days to reach L1, a location between the Earth and the Sun.
  • This journey is shorter than Mangalyaan's voyage to Mars in 2014.
  • After departing Earth's gravity, Aditya-L1 will enter a heliocentric path before reaching the L1 orbit.
  • Six of Aditya-L1's payloads will remain inactive until approximately January 6, 2024, when the spacecraft is expected to enter a 'halo' orbit near L1.
  • The activation of these payloads will enable the calibration of instruments before the commencement of scientific data collection.
  • The L1 point in space, where Aditya-L1 will position itself, is one of the five Lagrange Points existing between any two celestial bodies in space.
  • Being at L1 allows the spacecraft to make continuous observations with minimal energy expenditure.
  • L1 is favoured for its unobstructed view of the Sun, making it ideal for solar research.

12. The Way Forward

  • The Aditya-L1 mission represents a significant step in India's space exploration journey, offering the nation a unique opportunity to study the Sun comprehensively and contribute to space weather predictions.
  • Positioned at the L1 point, this mission holds great promise for advancing our understanding of the Sun and its impact on Earth's space environment.
 
For Prelims: ISRO, Aditya L1, AstroSat, Coronal Mass Ejections, 'halo' orbit, 
For Mains: 
1. Describe the significance of the Aditya-L1 mission in the context of India's space exploration efforts. Explain how it differs from India's previous solar experiments. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2018)
1. PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 only
Answer: A
 
2. ISRO is related to: (SSC JE EE 2020) 
A. space research       B. agricultural research       C. seed research          D. marine research
 
Answer: A
 
3. Aditya L1 is a ______. (ISRO IPRC Technical Assistant Mechanical 2016) 
A. Long-range missile
B. Rocket to moon
C. Spacecraft project
D. Light combat aircraft
 
Answer: C
 
4. With reference to 'Astrosat', the astronomical observatory launched by India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2016)
1. Other than USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space.
2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only           B.  2 only          C. Both 1 and 2         D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer: D
 
5. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (UPSC 2022)
1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only   
B. 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only   
C.  1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only   
D.  1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
 
Answer: C
 
Source: The Indian Express

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