CENTRAL BUREAU OF INVESTIGATION (CBI)
1. Context
2. About the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the premier investigating police agency in India. It functions under Dept. of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Public Grievances, Government of India. The CBI was established in 1941, to investigate cases of corruption in procurement during the Second World War. The Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption recommended the establishment of the CBI. Under Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946.
2.1. Organisation
- The CBI is headed by a Director, who is an IPS officer of the rank of Additional Director General of Police.
- The Director is appointed by the Government of India on the recommendation of a Collegium consisting of the Chief Justice of India, the Prime Minister of India, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
- The CBI has a headquarters in New Delhi and zonal offices in major cities across India. It also has branches in several countries around the world.
2.2. The CBI is organized into four divisions
- Anti-Corruption Division Investigates corruption cases against public servants.
- The Economic Offences Division Investigates economic offences, such as bank fraud, tax evasion, and securities scams.
- The Special Crime Division Investigates special crimes, such as murder, kidnapping, and extortion.
- Cyber Crime Division Investigates cyber crimes, such as hacking, online fraud, and child pornography.
2.3. The main functions of the CBI are
- To investigate serious crimes such as corruption, murder, and terrorism.
- To coordinate investigations between different state police forces.
- To assist state governments in investigating serious crimes.
- To collect and maintain intelligence on crime.
- To train police officers in investigation techniques.
- To collaborate with international law enforcement agencies.
3. Santhanam Committee
- The Santhanam Committee was a committee appointed by the Government of India in 1962 to investigate corruption in the administration. The committee was headed by K. Santhanam, a retired Indian Civil Service officer.
- The committee submitted its report in 1963. The report was highly critical of the government's efforts to combat corruption. The report recommended several reforms, including the establishment of a central agency to investigate corruption in high places.
- The government accepted the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee. The Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) was established in 1963. The DSPE was later renamed the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
- The Santhanam Committee's report had a significant impact on the fight against corruption in India. The establishment of the CBI was a major step forward in the government's efforts to combat corruption.
3.1. The key recommendations of the Santhanam Committee
- The establishment of a central agency to investigate corruption in high places.
- The agency should be independent of the government.
- The agency should have the power to arrest and prosecute offenders.
- The agency should have the power to investigate any crime that is committed by a public servant or that affects the security of India.
The Santhanam Committee's report was a landmark document in the fight against corruption in India. It helped to lay the foundation for the establishment of the CBI and the strengthening of the government's anti-corruption efforts.
4. About the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946
The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 (DSPE Act) is an act of the Indian Parliament that provides for the constitution of a special police force called the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) for the investigation of certain offences in India.
4.1. Key Provisions of the DSPE Act
- Establishes the DSPE, a special police force under the superintendence of the Central Government.
- Empower the DSPE to investigate offences notified by the Central Government.
- Grants the DSPE the powers and jurisdiction of a police force in any area of India.
- Allows the Central Government to extend the powers and jurisdiction of the DSPE to other areas of India.
4.2. Significance of the DSPE Act
- Plays a crucial role in investigating serious crimes, particularly corruption and economic offences.
- Acts as a central investigative agency, facilitating coordination between different state police forces.
- Enhances the investigative capacity of the Indian government, enabling it to address complex and high-profile cases.
The DSPE Act is a vital piece of legislation in India's fight against crime. It empowers the government to effectively investigate and prosecute serious offences, contributing to a safer and more just society.
5. The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption. In 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC. It has the status of an autonomous body, free of control from any executive authority, charged with monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government of India, advising various authorities in central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilance work.
5.1. Objectives of CVC
- To promote efficiency and integrity in the administration.
- To investigate and monitor corruption cases in central government ministries, departments, and public sector undertakings (PSUs).
- To propose remedial measures to prevent corruption.
- To advise the government on the implementation of anti-corruption policies.
- To review the effectiveness of vigilance systems in government organizations.
- To exercise superintendence over the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) in respect of investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
5.2. Functions of CVC
- To receive and examine complaints relating to corruption and misuse of power by public servants.
- To inquire or cause inquiry into any matters concerning corruption or misuse of power by public servants.
- To investigate or cause investigation into offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
- To advise the government on matters relating to corruption and vigilance administration.
- To examine the systems of vigilance and corruption prevention in government organizations and public sector undertakings and to recommend measures for their improvement.
- To monitor the implementation of the government's policies on corruption prevention and to evaluate their effectiveness.
- To undertake research and studies on corruption and to disseminate information and knowledge on the subject.
- To coordinate the activities of various agencies engaged in the fight against corruption.
- To collaborate with international organizations in the fight against corruption.
5.3. Powers of CVC
- To summon any person and examine him on oath.
- To require the production of any document or thing.
- To enter and inspect any premises occupied by any public servant.
- To seize any document or thing which may be relevant to any matter under inquiry.
- To arrest any person against whom a case of corruption is registered.
- To prosecute any person against whom a case of corruption is registered.
- To recommend to the government to take disciplinary action against any public servant against whom a case of corruption is registered.
6. The key differences between the CVC and the CBI
Feature | CVC | CBI |
Role | Monitoring and preventing corruption | Investigating corruption and other serious crimes |
Head | Central Vigilance Commissioner | Director |
Composition | Officers drawn from the IAS, IRS, and other central services | Officers drawn from the IPS, IRS, and other central services |
Powers | Advisory, review | Investigative, prosecutorial |
Relationship | Provides information to CBI, reviews CBI investigations | Investigates cases referred by CVC and other agencies |
Independence | Independent of the government |
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For Prelims: Central Bureau of Investigation, Solicitor General, Dept. of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Public Grievances, Santhanam Committee, Prevention of Corruption, Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946, Cyber Crime, Central Vigilance Commission,
For Mains:
1. Evaluate the role of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) in promoting transparency and integrity within government organizations in India. (250 Words)
2. Explore the challenges faced by the CBI in maintaining independence and impartiality while operating under the administrative control of the central government. (250 Words)
3. Discuss the effectiveness of the CBI in addressing corruption cases and its contribution to the anti-corruption efforts in India. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
Prelims
1. "Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation" is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. (SSC CGL 2017)
A. Union B. State C. Global D. Concurrent
Answer: A
2. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
3. santhanam committee was established for prevention of which social problem- (RPSC 2015)
A. dowry system B. communal riots C. aids D. corruption
Answer: D
4. The Central Vigilance Commission was established on the recommendation of which one of the following Committees? (NDA 2018)
A. Santhanam Committee B. Dinesh Goswami Committee
C. Tarkunde Committee D. Narasimham Committee
Answer: A
5. Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Bill, 2018 amends various provisions of Prevention of Corruption Act (PCA) ______. (UPSSSC Forest Guard 2018) (UP Police SI 2021)
A. 1971 B. 1988 C. 1994 D. 2003
Answer: B
6. With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements: (2017)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Answer: B Mains 1. Discuss how emerging technologies and globalisation contribute to money laundering. Elaborate measures to tackle the problem of money laundering both at national and international levels. (UPSC 2021)
2. “Institutional quality is a crucial driver of economic performance”. In this context suggest reforms in the Civil Service for strengthening democracy. (UPSC 2020)
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UNLAWFUL ACTIVITIES (PREVENTION) ACT (UAPA)
The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) is an Indian law that was enacted in 1967 to effectively prevent unlawful activities that pose a threat to the sovereignty and integrity of India.
Key highlights of the UAPA
- Objective: The primary objective of the UAPA is to provide law enforcement agencies with effective tools to combat terrorism and other activities that threaten the security of the nation.
- Definition of Unlawful Activities: The act defines unlawful activities to include actions that intend to or support the cession of a part of the territory of India or disrupt the sovereignty and integrity of the country.
- Powers of Designation: The government has the authority to designate an organization as a terrorist organization if it believes that such an organization is involved in terrorism. This designation has significant legal consequences, including the freezing of assets.
- Powers of Arrest and Detention: The UAPA provides law enforcement agencies with powers of arrest and detention to prevent individuals from engaging in unlawful activities. The act allows for preventive detention to curb potential threats before they materialise.
- Banning of Terrorist Organizations: The government can proscribe organizations as terrorist organizations, making their activities illegal. This includes banning these organisations, freezing their assets, and taking other measures to curb their operations.
- Admissibility of Confessions: The UAPA allows for confessions made to police officers to be admissible in court, subject to certain safeguards. This provision has been a point of contention, with concerns about potential misuse and coercion.
- Designation of Individuals as Terrorists: In addition to organizations, the UAPA allows the government to designate individuals as terrorists. This designation carries legal consequences, including restrictions on travel and freezing of assets.
- Amendments and Stringency: Over the years, the UAPA has undergone several amendments to strengthen its provisions and make it more effective in dealing with emerging threats. However, these amendments have also been criticized for potential violations of civil liberties.
- International Cooperation: The UAPA allows for cooperation with foreign countries in matters related to the prevention of unlawful activities. This includes extradition of individuals involved in such activities.
3. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and Human Rights
The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and human rights lie in the impact the act can have on various fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India and international human rights standards.
The key points connecting the UAPA and human rights:
- The UAPA allows for preventive detention, which means individuals can be detained without formal charges based on suspicions of involvement in unlawful activities. This raises concerns about the right to liberty, as individuals may be deprived of their freedom without the presumption of innocence until proven guilty.
- The admissibility of confessions made to police officers under the UAPA raises issues related to the right against self-incrimination. There is a risk that such confessions might be obtained under duress or coercion, compromising the fairness of legal proceedings.
- Designating individuals as terrorists and proscribing organizations without due process may impinge on the right to a fair trial. This includes the right to be informed of charges, the right to legal representation, and the right to present a defense.
- The UAPA provides authorities with the power to proscribe organizations as terrorist organizations, limiting their activities. Critics argue that this may infringe upon the right to freedom of association, particularly when such designations are made without sufficient evidence or proper legal procedures.
- The potential for misuse of the UAPA to target individuals or organizations critical of the government raises concerns about freedom of expression. If the act is used to suppress dissent or stifle legitimate political or social activities, it can undermine this fundamental right.
- The UAPA grants authorities the power to intercept communications and conduct surveillance on individuals suspected of engaging in unlawful activities. This raises concerns about the right to privacy, as individuals may be subjected to intrusive surveillance without adequate safeguards.
- Human rights standards require that any restrictions on rights, such as those imposed by the UAPA, must be proportionate and necessary for achieving a legitimate aim. Critics argue that the broad scope of the UAPA may lead to disproportionate measures that unduly restrict individual rights.
- The UAPA's compatibility with international human rights standards, including the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR), is a critical point of consideration. Ensuring that the act aligns with these standards is essential to upholding human rights principles.
4. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and Article 22 of the Constitution
The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and Article 22 of the Indian Constitution lie in how the UAPA's provisions for arrest and detention intersect with the constitutional safeguards provided under Article 22.
- Article 22 provides certain protections to individuals who are arrested or detained. It outlines the rights of arrested individuals, emphasizing safeguards to prevent arbitrary or unlawful detention.
- Article 22(1) states that every person who is arrested and detained shall be informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest. This provision ensures that individuals are aware of the reasons behind their arrest, preventing arbitrary or secret detentions.
- Article 22(1) also guarantees the right of an arrested person to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of their choice. This ensures that individuals have access to legal assistance during the legal process, contributing to a fair and just legal system.
- The UAPA includes provisions for preventive detention, allowing authorities to detain individuals to prevent them from committing certain offences. However, Article 22(4) allows preventive detention only under specific circumstances, and certain safeguards must be followed, such as providing the detenu with the grounds for detention and an opportunity to make a representation against the detention.
- Article 22(4) further mandates that a person detained under a law providing for preventive detention must be afforded the earliest opportunity to make a representation against the detention. Additionally, the case of every person detained is required to be placed before an advisory board within three months.
- The UAPA allows for confessions made to police officers to be admissible in court, subject to certain safeguards. However, this provision has been a point of concern concerning Article 22, as confessions obtained under duress or coercion may violate the right against self-incrimination.
- Article 22(2) ensures the right to be brought before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours of arrest, excluding the time necessary for the journey. This provision aims to prevent prolonged detention without judicial oversight and contributes to the right to a speedy trial.
For Prelims: Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, Article 22, Terrorism
For Mains:
1. Discuss the key provisions of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and analyze how they may impact fundamental human rights. Elaborate on the balance between national security concerns and the protection of individual rights. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions 1. Under Article 22 of the Constitution of India, with the exception of certain provisions stated there in, what is the maximum period for detention of a person under preventive detention? (MPSC 2014) A. 2 months B. 3 months C. 4 months D. 6 months
2. Article 22 of the Constitution ensures (CTET 2016) A. Right not to be ill-treated during arrest or while in custody B. Right to Constitutional Remedies C. Right against Exploitation D. Right to Education Answers: 1-B, 2-A Mains 1. Indian government has recently strengthed the anti-terrorism laws by amending the Unlawful Activities(Prevention) Act, (UAPA), 1967 and the NIA Act. Analyze the changes in the context of prevailing security environment while discussing scope and reasons for opposing the UAPA by human rights organizations. (UPSC 2019) |
Source: The Indian Express
MONEY BILL
Article 110 of the Constitution of India pertains to the definition and procedure of passing a Money Bill in the Parliament. According to this article, a Money Bill exclusively contains provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters:
- The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax.
- The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Government of India, including the giving of any guarantee by the Indian government for the purpose of securing a loan or the repayment of any money borrowed by it.
- The custody of the consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund.
- The appropriation of moneys out of the consolidated Fund of India.
- The declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or the increasing of the amount of any such expenditure.
- The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a State.
A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (House of the People), and it cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on a Money Bill, and the Lok Sabha can either accept or reject these recommendations. The Rajya Sabha cannot amend a Money Bill, and if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by both houses
The decision regarding whether a bill is a Money Bill or not rests with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) in the Indian parliamentary system. As per Article 110 of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker is responsible for certifying whether a bill is a Money Bill or not.
Here is the process involved:
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Introduction in Lok Sabha: A bill is introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. If it is introduced in the Lok Sabha and the Speaker is of the opinion that it exclusively deals with matters listed in Article 110, it may be certified as a Money Bill.
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Certification by the Speaker: The Speaker examines the provisions of the bill and determines whether it falls within the definition of a Money Bill as specified in Article 110. If the Speaker certifies it as a Money Bill, the bill is deemed to be so.
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Presentation to Rajya Sabha: After the Speaker's certification, the Money Bill is sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations. However, the Rajya Sabha's powers regarding a Money Bill are limited. It can only make recommendations, and the Lok Sabha is not bound to accept them.
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President's Assent: Once the Lok Sabha passes the Money Bill, it is sent to the President for assent. The President's role is mostly formal, and the President cannot withhold assent to a Money Bill. If the President gives assent, the Money Bill becomes law
Subject | Money Bill | Ordinary Bill |
---|---|---|
Initiation | Can only be introduced in Lok Sabha (LS). | Can be introduced in either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. |
Certification | Requires certification by the Speaker of LS. | Does not require certification by the Speaker. |
Scope | Deals exclusively with financial matters listed in Article 110. | Covers a wide range of subjects, including non-financial matters. |
Role of Rajya Sabha | Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations, no power to reject or amend. | Rajya Sabha has the power to suggest amendments and can reject the bill. |
Timeframe for Rajya Sabha | Rajya Sabha must return it within 14 days; otherwise, it is deemed passed. | Rajya Sabha has the usual time for discussion, amendments, and decision. |
President's Assent | President cannot withhold assent; mandatory approval. | President can use discretionary powers, and assent is not mandatory. |
Usage and Importance | Primarily deals with financial matters like taxation and government spending. | Encompasses a wide range of legislative subjects, both financial and non-financial. |
Examples | Budget-related bills, finance bills, appropriation bills. | Social, economic, or legislative reforms, not necessarily tied to financial matters. |
A Finance Bill is a type of legislation presented in a country's parliament that outlines the government's proposals related to taxation, government spending, and other financial matters for a specific fiscal year. The primary purpose of a Finance Bill is to give legal effect to the fiscal policies announced by the government in the annual budget.
Key features of a Finance Bill include:
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Taxation Proposals: The Finance Bill contains provisions related to changes in taxes, duties, and levies. It may introduce new taxes, amend existing tax rates, or provide exemptions.
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Appropriation of Funds: The bill includes details about the allocation and appropriation of funds for various government expenditures. It outlines how the government plans to collect and spend money during the fiscal year.
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Government Spending: The Finance Bill specifies the government's planned expenditures across different sectors, such as education, healthcare, defense, infrastructure, and more.
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Economic Policies: It may contain measures to stimulate economic growth, control inflation, or address other macroeconomic concerns.
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Implementation of Budget Proposals: The Finance Bill is presented in conjunction with the annual budget, and it seeks to implement the financial proposals outlined in the budget speech delivered by the Finance Minister.
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Parliamentary Approval: In many parliamentary systems, the Finance Bill must be approved by the legislature to become law. It goes through the normal legislative process, including debates, committee scrutiny, and voting.
In some countries, including India, a specific type of Finance Bill is known as the "Money Bill." A Money Bill exclusively deals with matters specified in the constitution, such as taxation, borrowing, and expenditure from the consolidated fund. Money Bills have special procedures for introduction and passage, and they require certification by the Speaker of the lower house (e.g., Lok Sabha in India)
For Prelims: Money Bill, Financial Bill, Aadhaar Act, Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, Finance Act, Supreme Court,
For Mains:
1. What are the constitutional safeguards in place to prevent misuse of the Money Bill? Critically assess the mechanisms to ensure that only appropriate bills are categorized as Money Bills. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct? (UPSC 2018)
1. A bill shall be deemed to be a money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
2. A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
3. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.
4. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
Answer: 3
2. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2018)
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, the Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
3. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2015)
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
4. With reference to the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2021)
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
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Source: Indianexpress
QUANTUM COMPUTING
1. Context
- Quantum computing is a rapidly-emerging technology that harnesses the laws of quantum mechanics to solve problems too complex for classical computers.
- IBM Quantum makes real quantum hardware a tool scientists only began to imagine three decades ago available to hundreds of thousands of developers.
- Engineers deliver ever-more-powerful superconducting quantum processors at regular intervals, alongside crucial advances in software and quantum-classical orchestration.
- This work drives toward the quantum computing speed and capacity necessary to change the world.
- These machines are very different from the classical computers that have been around for more than half a century.

3. Need for quantum computers
- For some problems, supercomputers aren’t that super. When scientists and engineers encounter difficult problems, they turn to supercomputers.
- These are very large classical computers, often with thousands of classical CPU and GPU cores. However, even supercomputers struggle to solve certain kinds of problems.
- If a supercomputer gets stumped, that's probably because the big classical machine was asked to solve a problem with a high degree of complexity. When classical computers fail, it's often due to complexity
- Complex problems are problems with lots of variables interacting in complicated ways.
- Modelling the behaviour of individual atoms in a molecule is a complex problem, because of all the different electrons interacting with one another.
- Sorting out the ideal routes for a few hundred tankers in a global shipping network is complex too.
4. Quantum computers work
- Quantum computers are elegant machines, smaller and requiring less energy than supercomputers.
- An IBM Quantum processor is a wafer not much bigger than the one found in a laptop.
- And a quantum hardware system is about the size of a car, made up mostly of cooling systems to keep the superconducting processor at its ultra-cold operational temperature.
- A classical processor uses bits to perform its operations. A quantum computer uses qubits (CUE-bits) to run multidimensional quantum algorithms.
4.1. Superfluids
- A desktop computer likely uses a fan to get cold enough to work.
- Quantum processors need to be very cold about a hundredth of a degree above absolute zero.
- To achieve this, we use super-cooled superfluids to create superconductors.
4.2. Superconductors
- At those ultra-low temperatures, certain materials in our processors exhibit another important quantum mechanical effect: electrons move through them without resistance. This makes them "superconductors."
- When electrons pass through superconductors they match up, forming "Cooper pairs."
- These pairs can carry a charge across barriers, or insulators, through a process known as quantum tunnelling.
- Two superconductors placed on either side of an insulator form a Josephson junction.
4.3. Control
- Our quantum computers use Josephson junctions as superconducting qubits.
- By firing microwave photons at these qubits, we can control their behaviour and get them to hold, change, and read out individual units of quantum information.
4.4. Superposition
- A qubit itself isn't very useful. But it can perform an important trick: placing the quantum information it holds into a state of superposition, which represents a combination of all possible configurations of the qubit.
- Groups of qubits in superposition can create complex, multidimensional computational spaces. Complex problems can be represented in new ways in these spaces.
4.5. Entanglement
- Entanglement is a quantum mechanical effect that correlates the behaviour of two separate things.
- When two qubits are entangled, changes to one qubit directly impact the other.
- Quantum algorithms leverage those relationships to find solutions to complex problems.
- Right now, IBM Quantum leads the world in quantum computing hardware and software. It is a clear and detailed plan to scale quantum processors, overcomes the scaling problem, and build the hardware necessary for quantum advantage.
- Quantum advantage will not be achieved with hardware alone.
- IBM has also spent years advancing the software that will be necessary to do useful work using quantum computers.
- They developed the Qiskit quantum SDK. It is open-source, python-based, and by far the most widely-used quantum SDK in the world.
- The Qiskit Runtime is the most powerful quantum programming model in the world.
- Achieving quantum advantage will require new methods of suppressing errors, increasing speed, and orchestrating quantum and classical resources.
For Prelims: Quantum computing, supercomputers, Qiskit Runtime, IBM, National Mission on Quantum Technologies and Applications, superconductors,
For Mains:
1. What is Quantum computing? Discuss the need for Quantum Computers in emerging countries like India. (250 Words)
2. What are quantum computers and how are they different from conventional computers? Where does India stand in the race to build quantum computers that can realise their full potential? (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. India's first Supercomputer is (TSPSC AEE 2015)
A. Aditya
B. Param Yuva
C. Param
D. Vikram-100
Answer: C
2. What is the full form of IBM? (SSC Steno 2017)
A. International Business Machine
B. Indian Beta Machine
C. Integral Business Machine
D. Internal Beta Machine
Answer: A
3. Which one of the following is the context in which the term "qubit" is mentioned? (UPSC 2022)
A. Cloud Services
B. Quantum Computing
C. Visible Light Communication Technologies
D. Wireless Communication Technologies
Answer: B
4. Quantum computing uses (ACC 124 CGAT 2021)
A. Qubit
B. Bits
C. Bytes
D. Qubytes
Answer: A
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SCHEDULED CASTE LIST
- The designation of Scheduled Castes is governed by Article 341 of the Indian Constitution. It empowers the President of India to specify the castes, races, or tribes deemed to be Scheduled Castes in various states and union territories
- The primary purpose of the SC list is to ensure that members of these communities receive special consideration and benefits in education, employment, and political representation to help overcome historical disadvantages and discrimination
- Members of Scheduled Castes are entitled to reservations (quotas) in educational institutions, government jobs, and legislatures. This includes reserved seats in the Lok Sabha (the lower house of India's Parliament) and State Legislative Assemblies
- In addition to reservations, various social welfare schemes and programs are designed to improve the living conditions, educational attainment, and economic status of SC communities. These include scholarships, grants, and special financial assistance
- The list of Scheduled Castes can be amended from time to time by the Parliament of India. New communities can be added, and existing communities can be removed based on changing socio-economic conditions and through recommendations from state governments and commissions
- The SC list varies from state to state. A community recognized as SC in one state may not necessarily be recognized as such in another state. This is because the socio-economic conditions and historical context of caste-based discrimination can differ across regions
The authority to amend the Scheduled Caste (SC) list rests with the Parliament of India. This process is outlined in Article 341 of the Indian Constitution. Here's how it works:
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Presidential Notification: Article 341(1) states that the President of India, after consulting with the Governor of the respective state, can specify the castes, races, or tribes to be recognized as Scheduled Castes in relation to that state or union territory. This is done through a public notification.
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Parliamentary Approval: Article 341(2) stipulates that any inclusion or exclusion of castes, races, or tribes from the list of Scheduled Castes can only be done through a law enacted by Parliament. This means that the President cannot unilaterally amend the SC list; any changes must be approved by the Parliament through legislation.
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Process:
- Proposal: A proposal for amending the SC list typically starts with recommendations from state governments or Union territories, which may conduct their own reviews and surveys.
- Review and Recommendation: These recommendations are reviewed by the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, which advises the President on such matters.
- Legislative Process: Based on these recommendations, the central government can introduce a bill in Parliament to amend the SC list. This bill must go through the usual legislative process, including approval by both houses of Parliament (the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha) and receiving the President's assent.
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Consultation: The President must consult with the Governor of the concerned state before making any specification of Scheduled Castes in that state, ensuring that local contexts and perspectives are considered
Article 341 of the Indian Constitution is designed to address the historical injustices and social disadvantages faced by certain communities, by formally recognizing them as Scheduled Castes (SCs).
The purpose of Article 341 is multifaceted:
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Identification and Recognition: Article 341 provides a mechanism for identifying and officially recognizing castes, races, or tribes that have historically faced extreme social, educational, and economic disadvantages. This formal recognition is crucial for the implementation of targeted affirmative action policies.
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Legal Framework for Affirmative Action: By identifying and listing Scheduled Castes, Article 341 creates a legal basis for implementing various affirmative action measures aimed at uplifting these communities. These measures include reservations (quotas) in education, employment, and political representation, as well as various social welfare programs.
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Consultation and Specification:
- Article 341(1): Empowers the President of India, in consultation with the Governor of a state, to specify the castes, races, or tribes that shall be treated as Scheduled Castes in relation to that state or union territory. This ensures that local conditions and contexts are considered in the identification process.
- Article 341(2): Stipulates that any subsequent amendments to this list, such as adding or removing castes, must be enacted by Parliament. This ensures that changes to the SC list are subject to a thorough legislative process, providing an additional layer of scrutiny and legitimacy
- The overarching goal of Article 341 is to promote social justice and equality. By recognizing certain communities as Scheduled Castes, the Constitution aims to rectify historical discrimination and provide these communities with enhanced opportunities for social, educational, and economic advancement
- The identification of Scheduled Castes under Article 341 allows the government to design and implement targeted interventions and policies that specifically address the needs and challenges of these communities. This helps in ensuring that the benefits of affirmative action and social welfare programs reach those who need them the most
- The NCSC monitors the implementation of constitutional and other legal safeguards for SCs.
- It investigates and inquires into specific complaints regarding the deprivation of rights and safeguards of SCs
- The Commission advises the central and state governments on policies and measures required to improve the socio-economic development of SCs.
- It provides recommendations on the planning process and socioeconomic development schemes for SCs
- The NCSC presents annual reports to the President of India on the working of these safeguards and measures.
- These reports are then laid before each house of Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations and the reasons for non-acceptance of any recommendations
- The Commission reviews the progress of the development of SCs under the Union and any State.
- It participates in and advises on the planning process for the socio-economic development of SCs
- The NCSC conducts studies, research, and analysis on issues relating to the socio-economic development of SCs.
- It promotes awareness and education among SC communities regarding their rights and the measures available to them
- The NCSC has the powers of a civil court in matters of summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person from any part of India and examining them on oath.
- It can also require the production of any document, receive evidence on affidavits, and issue commissions for the examination of witnesses and documents
- The Commission works to ensure that SCs are protected against discrimination and exploitation in various sectors, including employment, education, and access to resources.
- It looks into complaints regarding violations of rights and discrimination against SCs in different areas
- The NCSC reviews the working of the constitutional and other legal safeguards for SCs and recommends measures for their effective implementation.
- It suggests amendments to existing laws or the introduction of new legislation aimed at improving the status and welfare of SCs
For Prelims: Current events of national and international importance
For Mains: GS-II: Government policies and intervention
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Previous Year Questions
Prelims 1.Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (UPSC CSE 2019) 1. PVTGs reside in 18 states and one Union Territory. 2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. 3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. 4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 Answer (c)
Given this analysis, the correct statements are 1, 2, and 4 Mains 1.What are the two major legal initiatives by the state since independence addressing discrimination against Scheduled Tribes (STs)? (UPSC CSE 2017) |
POLITICAL WOMEN REPRESENTATION
- India, as a sovereign republic, granted all women the right to vote starting from the first general elections in 1952.
- Despite this constitutional right, women's representation in the Lok Sabha and State legislative assemblies has been quite limited.
- Up until 2004, the proportion of women MPs in the Lok Sabha hovered between 5% and 10%. This figure increased slightly to 12% in 2014 and currently stands at 14% in the 18th Lok Sabha. Representation in State Legislative Assemblies is even lower, with a national average of around 9%.
- The 73rd and 74th Constitutional amendments in 1992/1993 established a one-third reservation for women in panchayats and municipalities. However, efforts between 1996 and 2008 to extend similar reservations to the Lok Sabha and assemblies were unsuccessful
- Women's representation in parliament varies across different democracies, and enhancing this representation remains a persistent challenge since women make up half the population in all countries.
- To ensure higher representation of women, two primary methods are used globally: (a) voluntary or legally mandated quotas for candidates within political parties and (b) reserved seats in parliament through quotas.
- Quotas within political parties offer voters a more democratic choice and provide flexibility for parties in selecting women candidates. Critics of reserved parliamentary quotas for women argue that it might undermine the perception of merit-based competition.
- Additionally, since reserved seats for women would be rotated after each delimitation, this might decrease the motivation for MPs to diligently serve their constituencies.
- The accompanying table shows a snapshot of women's representation in various democracies worldwide.
- It is observed that countries like Bangladesh and Pakistan, which have parliamentary quotas, tend to perform worse in terms of women's representation compared to countries with political party quotas

- As of April 2024, India is ranked 143rd in the 'Monthly Ranking of Women in National Parliaments' by the Inter-Parliamentary Union, an international organization for national parliaments.
- The Trinamool Congress has the highest proportion of women MPs in the current Lok Sabha at 38%. Both the ruling Bharatiya Janata Party and the main opposition Congress party have approximately 13% women MPs each. Naam Tamilar Katchi, a state party in Tamil Nadu, has implemented a voluntary quota of 50% for women candidates in the last three general elections.
- Despite these efforts, voluntary or legislated quotas within political parties are unlikely to achieve the desired representation in India. Therefore, through the 106th Constitutional Amendment in September 2023, Parliament has provided for a one-third reservation of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State legislative assemblies.
- This aims to ensure fair representation of women in legislatures, enhancing gender sensitivity in parliamentary processes and legislation, and potentially increasing the number of women ministers at both the central and state levels.
- This reservation will take effect following the delimitation exercise based on the first Census conducted after the act's commencement. Consequently, the overdue Census from 2021 should be conducted without further delay to implement this reservation starting with the general elections in 2029
For Prelims: Census, 106th Amendment Act, Article 360
For Mains: GS II- Women Political representation in India and related challenges
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Previous Year Questions
Prelims
1. Reservation for women in India is available in (UPTET 2019)
A. Lok Sabha B. Cabinet C. Vidhan Sabha D. Panchayati Raj Institutions
Answer: D
2. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
3. The Committee on the status of women was headed by (Telangana Group 1 2016)
A. Mrinal Gore B. Mamatha Benerjee C. Mary John D. Vina Mazumdar
Answer: D
4. Two of the schemes launched by the Government of India for Women’s development are Swadhar and Swayam Siddha. As regards the difference between them, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2010) 1. Swayam Siddha is meant for those in difficult circumstances such as women survivors of natural disasters or terrorism, women prisoners released from jails, mentally challenged women etc., whereas Swadhar is meant for holistic empowerment of women through Self Help Groups.
2. Swayam Siddha is implemented through Local Self Government bodies or reputed Voluntary Organizations whereas Swadhar is implemented through the ICDS units set up in the states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A.1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: D 5. The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was formed by insertion of Article ______ in the Constitution of India. (SSC CGL 2020) A. 328B B. 338A C. 338B D. 328A Answer: C 6. Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts (UPSC 2013) 1. consists of not more than 25 members of the Lok Sabha.
2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government.
3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B 7. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation? (UPSC 2018) A.Committee on Government Assurances
B. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
C. Rules Committee
D. Business Advisory Committee
Answer: B 8. The historic 73rd and 74th amendment act relates to (Karnataka PC 2020) A. Local Self Government
B.Anti-Defection
C. Emergency Provisions
D. Parliamentary powers to amend the constitution
Answer: A 9. Which of the following is/are true regarding Urban Local Bodies in India? (UPSC CAPF 2014) 1. The Constitution's 74th Amendment Act envisages three types of urban local bodies, namely Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council, and Municipal Corporation. 2. Municipal Corporations are established in cities with a population greater than 1 million.
3. Bombay and Calcutta Corporations were the first Municipal Corporations that were established during British time.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A 10. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021)
1. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all women above the age of 21.
2. The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in the legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Mains 1. “Empowering women is the key to control population growth”. Discuss. (UPSC 2019) 2. Discuss the positive and negative effects of globalization on women in India? (UPSC 2015) 3. Male membership needs to be encouraged in order to make women’s organization free from gender bias. Comment. (UPSC 2013) |