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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 15 JULY 2024

NIPAH VIRUS

 
 
1. Context
If the Indian drug regulator greenlights it, a human clinical trial to test the safety and efficacy of a novel Nipah monoclonal antibody MBP1F5, which might offer immediate protection to people at risk of infection against the deadly disease, might begin next year. A similar trial will be carried out in Bangladesh as well. Though trials on many vaccines are currently under way, there is no approved vaccine against the Nipah virus anywhere in the world
 
2. Nipah Virus
  • Nipah virus (NiV) is a zoonotic virus that can spread between animals and people.
  • The natural host of NiV is fruit bats, also known as flying foxes.
  • NiV can also infect pigs and people
  • NiV infection can cause a range of illnesses, from asymptomatic infection to acute respiratory illness and fatal encephalitis. The case fatality rate for NiV infection is estimated to be between 40% and 75%
  • The symptoms of NiV infection typically appear 4-14 days after exposure to the virus. The initial symptoms are similar to those of the flu, including fever, headache, and cough.
  • In severe cases, the virus can cause encephalitis, which is a swelling of the brain. Encephalitis can lead to coma and death.
  • NiV can be transmitted from animals to people through contact with infected saliva, urine, or other bodily fluids.
  • It can also be transmitted through contact with contaminated food or water. Person-to-person transmission of NiV is possible, but it is rare.
  • Nipah virus outbreaks have been reported in several countries in Southeast Asia, including Malaysia, Bangladesh, India, and Singapore.
  • The virus has caused sporadic outbreaks, with varying levels of severity
3.Transmission
 
Nipah Virus — The Jenner Institute
  • The first outbreaks of the Nipah virus among humans was reported from Malaysia (1998) and Singapore (1999).
  • The virus takes its name from the village in Malaysia where the person in whom the virus was first isolated died of the disease.
  • The transmission from animals happens mainly through consumption of contaminated food. According to the CDC, transmission can happen due to consumption of raw date palm sap or fruit that has been contaminated with saliva or urine from infected bats.
  • Some cases of NiV [Nipah] infection have also been reported among people who climb trees where bats often roost.
  • The animal host reservoir for this virus is known to be the fruit bat, commonly known as flying fox.
  • Fruit bats are known to transmit this virus to other animals like pigs, and also dogs, cats, goats, horses and sheep
  • Humans get infected mainly through direct contact with these animals, or through consumption of food contaminated by saliva or urine of these infected animals
  • Since it was first identified in 1998-99, there have been multiple outbreaks of the Nipah virus, all of them in South and Southeast Asian nations. In Bangladesh, there have been at least 10 outbreaks since 2001.
    In India, West Bengal had seen an outbreak in 2001 and 2007, while Kerala had reported several cases in 2018, and isolated cases in 2019 and 2021.
4. Zoonotic diseases

Zoonotic diseases, also known as zoonoses, are infectious diseases that can be transmitted between animals and humans. These diseases can be caused by bacteria, viruses, parasites, and fungi, and they pose a significant public health concern worldwide. Zoonotic diseases can be transmitted through direct or indirect contact with infected animals, their secretions, or contaminated environments. Some common examples of zoonotic diseases include:

  1. Influenza: Various strains of influenza viruses can infect both animals and humans. Influenza viruses can undergo genetic changes, leading to new strains that have the potential to cause pandemics.

  2. Rabies: Rabies is a viral disease that primarily affects mammals, including bats, dogs, and raccoons. It is transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected animal and can be fatal if not treated promptly.

  3. Salmonellosis: Caused by the bacterium Salmonella, this disease is often associated with contaminated food products, particularly those of animal origin such as poultry and eggs.

  4. Lyme Disease: Transmitted by ticks, Lyme disease is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi and is commonly found in wildlife, particularly deer. Humans can become infected when bitten by an infected tick.

  5. West Nile Virus: This mosquito-borne virus primarily circulates among birds but can be transmitted to humans through mosquito bites, leading to fever and, in some cases, severe neurological complications.

  6. E. coli Infections: Certain strains of Escherichia coli (E. coli) can cause gastrointestinal illness in humans. Contaminated food and water, as well as contact with infected animals, can lead to E. coli infections.

  7. HIV/AIDS: While the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is primarily transmitted among humans, it is believed to have originated from the transfer of simian immunodeficiency virus (SIV) from non-human primates to humans, making it a zoonotic disease.

  8. COVID-19: The coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) pandemic, caused by the novel coronavirus SARS-CoV-2, is believed to have originated in bats and was likely transmitted to humans through an intermediate animal host, highlighting the zoonotic nature of the virus.

5. Way forward
Nipah virus is considered a serious public health concern due to its high mortality rate, the potential for person-to-person transmission, and the lack of specific treatments or vaccines. Surveillance and research efforts are ongoing to better understand and combat this virus. It's essential to stay updated on the latest information and follow public health guidelines if you live in or travel to regions where Nipah virus is known to be present.
 
For Prelims: Viruses, Bacteria, Immunity, Vaccine types
For Mains: 1.Discuss the challenges in controlling viral diseases and the strategies employed by governments and international organizations in addressing viral epidemics. Highlight the lessons learned from recent viral outbreaks
2.Analyze the global problem of antibiotic resistance and its implications for healthcare. Suggest policy measures and interventions to combat the growing threat of antibiotic-resistant bacteria
 
 
 
Previous Year Questions
1.Viruses can affect (UPSC CSE 2016)
1.Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Plants
Select the correct code with the following code
A.1 and 2 only
B. 3 Only
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3
Answer (D)
2. Which of the following statements is/ are correct? (UPSC CSE 2013)
1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy
2.Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium
3.Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only 
Select the correct answer using the code given below
A. 1 Only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3
Answer (A)
 
Source: indianexpress
 

CENTRAL BUREAU OF INVESTIGATION (CBI)

 

1. Context

The Supreme Court on July 10 2024 upheld the maintainability of the West Bengal government’s suit accusing the Union government of “constitutional overreach” by employing the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) to register and investigate cases in the State despite its withdrawal of general consent on November 16, 2018.

2. About the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the premier investigating police agency in India. It functions under Dept. of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Public Grievances, Government of India. The CBI was established in 1941, to investigate cases of corruption in procurement during the Second World War. The Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption recommended the establishment of the CBI. Under Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946.

2.1. Organisation

  • The CBI is headed by a Director, who is an IPS officer of the rank of Additional Director General of Police.
  • The Director is appointed by the Government of India on the recommendation of a Collegium consisting of the Chief Justice of India, the Prime Minister of India, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
  • The CBI has a headquarters in New Delhi and zonal offices in major cities across India. It also has branches in several countries around the world.

2.2. The CBI is organized into four divisions

  • Anti-Corruption Division Investigates corruption cases against public servants.
  • The Economic Offences Division Investigates economic offences, such as bank fraud, tax evasion, and securities scams.
  • The Special Crime Division Investigates special crimes, such as murder, kidnapping, and extortion.
  • Cyber Crime Division Investigates cyber crimes, such as hacking, online fraud, and child pornography.
The CBI plays a vital role in the fight against crime in India. It has a strong reputation for its professionalism and impartiality. The CBI has been credited with solving many high-profile cases. The CBI also assists the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) and the Lokpal.

2.3. The main functions of the CBI are

  • To investigate serious crimes such as corruption, murder, and terrorism.
  • To coordinate investigations between different state police forces.
  • To assist state governments in investigating serious crimes.
  • To collect and maintain intelligence on crime.
  • To train police officers in investigation techniques.
  • To collaborate with international law enforcement agencies.

3. Santhanam Committee

  • The Santhanam Committee was a committee appointed by the Government of India in 1962 to investigate corruption in the administration. The committee was headed by K. Santhanam, a retired Indian Civil Service officer.
  • The committee submitted its report in 1963. The report was highly critical of the government's efforts to combat corruption. The report recommended several reforms, including the establishment of a central agency to investigate corruption in high places.
  • The government accepted the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee. The Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) was established in 1963. The DSPE was later renamed the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
  • The Santhanam Committee's report had a significant impact on the fight against corruption in India. The establishment of the CBI was a major step forward in the government's efforts to combat corruption.

3.1. The key recommendations of the Santhanam Committee

  • The establishment of a central agency to investigate corruption in high places.
  • The agency should be independent of the government.
  • The agency should have the power to arrest and prosecute offenders.
  • The agency should have the power to investigate any crime that is committed by a public servant or that affects the security of India.

The Santhanam Committee's report was a landmark document in the fight against corruption in India. It helped to lay the foundation for the establishment of the CBI and the strengthening of the government's anti-corruption efforts.

4. About the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946

The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 (DSPE Act) is an act of the Indian Parliament that provides for the constitution of a special police force called the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) for the investigation of certain offences in India.

4.1. Key Provisions of the DSPE Act

  • Establishes the DSPE, a special police force under the superintendence of the Central Government.
  • Empower the DSPE to investigate offences notified by the Central Government.
  • Grants the DSPE the powers and jurisdiction of a police force in any area of India.
  • Allows the Central Government to extend the powers and jurisdiction of the DSPE to other areas of India.

4.2. Significance of the DSPE Act

  • Plays a crucial role in investigating serious crimes, particularly corruption and economic offences.
  • Acts as a central investigative agency, facilitating coordination between different state police forces.
  • Enhances the investigative capacity of the Indian government, enabling it to address complex and high-profile cases.

The DSPE Act is a vital piece of legislation in India's fight against crime. It empowers the government to effectively investigate and prosecute serious offences, contributing to a safer and more just society.

The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption. In 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC. It has the status of an autonomous body, free of control from any executive authority, charged with monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government of India, advising various authorities in central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilance work.

5.1. Objectives of CVC

  • To promote efficiency and integrity in the administration.
  • To investigate and monitor corruption cases in central government ministries, departments, and public sector undertakings (PSUs).
  • To propose remedial measures to prevent corruption.
  • To advise the government on the implementation of anti-corruption policies.
  • To review the effectiveness of vigilance systems in government organizations.
  • To exercise superintendence over the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) in respect of investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.

5.2. Functions of CVC

  • To receive and examine complaints relating to corruption and misuse of power by public servants.
  • To inquire or cause inquiry into any matters concerning corruption or misuse of power by public servants.
  • To investigate or cause investigation into offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
  • To advise the government on matters relating to corruption and vigilance administration.
  • To examine the systems of vigilance and corruption prevention in government organizations and public sector undertakings and to recommend measures for their improvement.
  • To monitor the implementation of the government's policies on corruption prevention and to evaluate their effectiveness.
  • To undertake research and studies on corruption and to disseminate information and knowledge on the subject.
  • To coordinate the activities of various agencies engaged in the fight against corruption.
  • To collaborate with international organizations in the fight against corruption.

5.3. Powers of CVC

  • To summon any person and examine him on oath.
  • To require the production of any document or thing.
  • To enter and inspect any premises occupied by any public servant.
  • To seize any document or thing which may be relevant to any matter under inquiry.
  • To arrest any person against whom a case of corruption is registered.
  • To prosecute any person against whom a case of corruption is registered.
  • To recommend to the government to take disciplinary action against any public servant against whom a case of corruption is registered.

6. The key differences between the CVC and the CBI

Feature CVC CBI
Role Monitoring and preventing corruption Investigating corruption and other serious crimes
Head Central Vigilance Commissioner Director
Composition Officers drawn from the IAS, IRS, and other central services Officers drawn from the IPS, IRS, and other central services
Powers Advisory, review Investigative, prosecutorial
Relationship Provides information to CBI, reviews CBI investigations Investigates cases referred by CVC and other agencies
Independence Independent of the government
 
 
 
 
For Prelims: Central Bureau of Investigation, Solicitor General, Dept. of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Public Grievances, Santhanam Committee, Prevention of Corruption, Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946, Cyber Crime,  Central Vigilance Commission, 
For Mains: 
1. Evaluate the role of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) in promoting transparency and integrity within government organizations in India. (250 Words)
2. Explore the challenges faced by the CBI in maintaining independence and impartiality while operating under the administrative control of the central government. (250 Words)
3. Discuss the effectiveness of the CBI in addressing corruption cases and its contribution to the anti-corruption efforts in India. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
Prelims
 
1. "Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation" is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. (SSC CGL 2017)
A. Union      B. State        C. Global          D. Concurrent
 
Answer: A
 
2. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022) 
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only       B.  2 only        C. Both 1 and 2          D.  Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer: D
 
3. santhanam committee was established for prevention of which social problem- (RPSC 2015)
A. dowry system      B.  communal riots    C. aids         D. corruption
 
Answer: D
 
4. The Central Vigilance Commission was established on the recommendation of which one of the following Committees? (NDA 2018)
A. Santhanam Committee      B.  Dinesh Goswami Committee         
C. Tarkunde Committee         D. Narasimham Committee
 
Answer: A
 
5. Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Bill, 2018 amends various provisions of Prevention of Corruption Act (PCA) ______. (UPSSSC Forest Guard 2018) (UP Police SI 2021)
A. 1971        B. 1988          C. 1994         D. 2003
 
Answer: B

6.  With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements: (2017)

  1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
  2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
  3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only     (b) 2 only         (c) 1 and 3 only                (d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: B

Mains

1. Discuss how emerging technologies and globalisation contribute to money laundering. Elaborate measures to tackle the problem of money laundering both at national and international levels. (UPSC 2021)
2. “Institutional quality is a crucial driver of economic performance”. In this context suggest reforms in the Civil Service for strengthening democracy. (UPSC 2020)
 
Source: The Indian Express
 
 
VERTICAL DEVOLUTION 
 
 
 
 
1. Context 
 
On July 11 2024, Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M.K. Stalin alleged that the Union government was withholding funds for the State’s Metro rail completion and other vital projects. In this article, dated February 7, 2024, J. Jeyaranjan and R. Srinivasan explain how the government’s tax policies reduce aggregate financial transfers to States, weakening cooperative federalism
 
 
2. The Growing Impact of Cesses and Surcharges on Fiscal Federalism
 
  • The net divisible pool, encompassing the net proceeds, constitutes a significant portion of gross tax revenue slated for vertical devolution from the Union to the States. Over time, changes in tax structures, including a constitutional amendment in 2000, expanded the scope of taxes included in the net proceeds, although certain cesses and surcharges remained excluded.
  • Despite expectations that the introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in 2017 would streamline tax structures and absorb many cesses and surcharges, new ones continued to emerge, further exacerbating the issue. For instance, the recent introduction of the Agriculture Infrastructure and Development Cess in 2021-22 exemplifies this trend.
  • Conflicting government data regarding the proportion of cesses and surcharges in gross tax revenue underscores the need for accurate estimation. Disaggregated data analysis reveals a significant increase in collections from ₹70,559 crore in 2009-10 to ₹6.6 lakh crore in 2023-24 (RE) and ₹7 lakh crore in 2024-25 (BE). Excluding the GST compensation cess, collections rose from ₹70,559 crore in 2009-10 to ₹5.1 lakh crore in 2023-24 (RE) and ₹5.5 lakh crore in 2024-25 (BE).
  • Although cesses and surcharges as a share of gross tax revenue dipped initially from 11.3% in 2009-10 to 9.5% in 2014-15, they surged to 20.2% in 2020-21 before settling at 16.3% in 2022-23. Tentative figures for 2023-24 suggest a share of 14.8%, still higher than earlier years.
  • Between 2009-10 and 2023-24, the Union government collected a cumulative total of ₹36.6 lakh crore from cesses and surcharges, with an additional ₹5.5 lakh crore projected for 2024-25. Notably, these funds were retained solely by the Union government, bypassing sharing with States, thus impacting fiscal federalism.
3. Rising Dependency on Tied Transfers
  • The Union government may argue that a portion of the cesses and surcharges collected is used to fund centrally sponsored schemes and central sector schemes, as well as provide non-plan grants or capital transfers to States. However, these transfers are not untied, unlike the devolution of the State's share in central taxes. In centrally sponsored schemes, States are required to bear about 40% of the cost, and even in central sector schemes, the Union government's contribution is often minimal, leaving States to shoulder a significant financial burden.
  • Moreover, when States contribute substantially to implementing a central project, the Union government often seeks to claim the credit by insisting on displaying the Prime Minister's photograph or other forms of labelling. Recent disputes over labelling in the Ayushman Bharat wellness centres exemplify this issue. Additionally, many grants given to States are contingent on fulfilling conditionalities, some of which include the requirement for labelling. Furthermore, most capital transfers provided to States are in the form of loans, which must be repaid to the Union government.
  • None of the transfers to States outside the recommendations of the Finance Commission are either unconditional or suited to meet their specific needs. Instead, they reinforce a centralizing tendency in the fiscal realm, effectively pushing the Union-State relationship toward a patron-client dynamic. Any deviation from the guidelines or failure to meet imposed conditionalities can result in the denial of such resources.
  • The share of States in central taxes is considered a benchmark in assessing fiscal federalism. It is concerning, then, that the Union government is increasingly providing fewer untied transfers to States while retaining more gross tax revenue as cesses and surcharges. Substituting untied transfers with central schemes does not mitigate the loss; rather, it introduces inflexibilities in Union-State relations and undermines the spirit of cooperative fiscal federalism.
 

4. CAG's Critical Scrutiny of Cesses and Surcharges

  • The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) has subjected cesses and surcharges to critical examination. According to the established protocol, all cesses must be transferred to a reserve fund in the Public Account of India upon collection. However, CAG reports have revealed numerous instances of either non-transfer or short transfer of the collected amounts to the respective funds.
  • For instance, a CAG report in 2023 highlighted that out of the ₹52,732 crore collected towards the Health and Education Cess in 2021-22, only ₹31,788 crore (or 60%) was transferred to the reserve fund of Prarambhik Shikha Kosh. Similarly, the Research and Development Cess, intended for the Fund for Technology Development and Application, saw a total collection of ₹8,077 crores between 1996-97 and 2017-18 but only ₹779 crore (or 9.6%) was transferred to the Fund, as noted in a CAG report in 2019.
  • The Swachh Bharat Cess, earmarked for the Rashtriya Swachhata Kosh, experienced a shortfall of ₹4,891 crore between 2015–16 and 2017–18. Additionally, the Road Cess and Clean Energy Cess saw shortfalls of ₹72,726 crore and ₹44,505 crore, respectively, between 2010–11 and 2017–18.
  • The non-transfers and short transfers of cesses undermine the rationale behind their collection. It also reinforces the perception that cesses and surcharges are merely a mechanism to divert funds away from the divisible pool to meet other financial needs of the Union government.

 

5. Deviations from Finance Commission Recommendations

  • The Union Finance Minister's assertion in Parliament on February 8, 2024, that they strictly adhere to the recommendations of the Finance Commission (FC) raises questions about its robustness.
  • While retaining a significant portion of gross tax revenue as cesses and surcharges may have constitutional backing, what about the FC recommendations regarding the sharing of net proceeds with all States? The 13th FC (2010 to 2015) recommended a 32% share, the 14th FC (2015 to 2020) recommended 42%, and the 15th FC (2020 to 2025) recommended 41%.
  • Comparing annual estimates of net proceeds with the "States’ share of central taxes" reveals that the Union government has consistently failed to share even the FC-recommended percentages. The shortfall was particularly pronounced during the ongoing period of the 15th FC.
  • Taking cesses and surcharges into account to create a revised divisible pool further diminishes the share of devolution. This shortfall vis-a-vis FC recommendations translates into substantial sums. Between 2009-10 and 2024-25 (BE), the cumulative amount not devolved to States amounted to ₹5.61 lakh crore. Specifically, during the 13th FC period, ₹44,922 crore was not devolved, during the 14th FC period, it was ₹1.36 lakh crore, and during the ongoing 15th FC period (including 2024-25 BE), it reached a staggering ₹3.69 lakh crore.
  • The failure to devolve these funds to States represents a significant constitutional impropriety that warrants attention.
 
6. The Reform Agenda for Fiscal Federalism
  • The sharing of resources from the divisible pool and the proliferation of cesses and surcharges are critical issues that the 16th Finance Commission (FC) must address.
  • The FC should take the lead in rectifying historical imbalances in vertical devolution by compensating States for past shortfalls. It should also mandate the Union government to provide accurate estimates of "net proceeds" in budget documents and arrange to provide the shortfalls in devolution over the last decade as a lump sum untied grant to States.
  • Furthermore, the Union government must take legislative action to impose strict limits on the collection of cesses and surcharges. These levies should automatically expire after a short period and should not be rebranded under another name.
  • In addition to addressing legitimate grievances regarding horizontal devolution, the stance of the 16th FC on vertical devolution will be crucial for the preservation of fiscal federalism in India.
 
7. The Way Forward
 
Addressing vertical devolution concerns and ensuring equitable resource sharing is crucial for the survival of India's fiscal federalism. The 16th FC has a significant opportunity to play a leading role in reforming the system and promoting a more balanced and cooperative federal structure.
 
 
For Prelims: fiscal federalism, vertical devolution, Finance Commission, CAG, Chess, Surcharges
For Mains: 
1. Explain the concept of vertical devolution in the context of fiscal federalism in India. Discuss two disturbing trends within vertical devolution that need urgent redressal. (250 Words)
2. Analyze the implications of cesses and surcharges on fiscal federalism in India, considering their growth, conflicting government data, and the cumulative amount collected by the Union government. (250 Words)
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct? (UPSC 2011)
A. It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development.
B. It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertaking.
C. It ensures transparency in financial administration.
D. None of the statements (a), (b), and (c) given above is correct in this context.
 
 
2. With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2015)
1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent.
2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
 
3. Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission? (UPSC 2012)
1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design.
2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India's demographic dividend.
3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
 
4. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Directorate of Enforcement? (CDS 2021) 
A. It is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
B. It enforces the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
C. It enforces the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
D. It enforces the Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988.
 
 
5. The Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) of India can be removed from office only by the: (UPSC CAPF 2015) 
A. President on the advice of the Union Cabinet.
B. Chief justice of the Supreme Court.
C. President of India after an address in both Houses of Parliament.
D. President on the advice of Chief Justice of India.
 
 
6. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2015) 
1. The Department of Revenue responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 and 2 only           B. 2 and 3 only          C. 2 only          D. 1, 2 and 3
 
 
7. The Contingency Fund of India is placed at whose disposal? (SSC CGL 2017)
A. The Prime Minister
B. Judge of Supreme Court
C. The President
D. The Finance Minister
 
 
8. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for their intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)? (UPSC 2012)
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares a national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programs by the ministers are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1, 3 and 4 only      B. 2 only          C. 2 and 3 only            D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
 
Answers: 1-D, 2-A, 3- C, 4-D, 5-C, 6-C, 7-C, 8-C
 
Source: The Hindu
 

ELECTRIC VEHICLES

1. Context

Monsoon season has arrived. There was recently the news of roof collapse at Delhi Airport which led to damage of vehicles and also one death. Even otherwise, waterlogged roads and basements are a common sight after the heavy rains during the monsoons, posing major risk to vehicles.Knowing all the risks, it is essential to protect your vehicle through a comprehensive motor insurance cover, especially during the monsoon season. After all, a car is one of the biggest investments one makes during lifetime. With monsoons just having set in, it is the right time to re-evaluate your vehicle insurance, particularly if you own an electric vehicle (EV).

2. What are Electric Vehicles?

  • An E-vehicle or Electric Vehicle is one that needs an electric motor to generate power and function instead of an internal-combustion engine that generates power by burning a mix of gases and fuel.
  • Electric Vehicles have a battery that can be charged by an electric supply.
  • This electric energy is used to run the motor. There is a hybrid electric vehicle as well, which means a combination of an electric motor and a combustion engine.

3. Types of Electric Vehicles

  • Plug-in electric – Such Electric Vehicles run purely on electricity, and it is powered when it is plugged in to charge. They don’t produce emissions like petrol or diesel.
  • Plug-in hybrid – Their primary source of power is electricity, but these vehicles also have a fuel engine. These cars produce emissions only when they run on fuel engines but not when they run on electricity.
  • Hybrid-electric – These Electric Vehicles primarily run on petrol or diesel, but they’re also fitted with an electric battery. One can charge the battery through regenerative braking. It comes with a button that lets you switch from using a fuel engine to using an electric battery (EV mode.)
  • Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles (FCEVs)– these vehicles use a highly efficient electrochemical process to convert hydrogen into electricity, and it powers the electric motor.

4. Initiatives by the Government

The government has set a target of 30% new sales of electric vehicles and two-wheelers by 2030. The government is working towards it by following the initiative and various government schemes.

National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP)

  • It is a road map/document for India’s fuel security by promoting and faster adoption of electric vehicles in India with the initial allocation of Rs 75 crore. The ambition is to have around 6 million vehicles on the road by 2020.
  • This plan is for affordable and environmentally friendly transportation in the country and to achieve automotive leadership in global manufacturing.
Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (hybrid and) electric vehicles (FAME)
  • The scheme was announced by the government in 2015 with the objective of market creation and developing a manufacturing ecosystem with sustainable development.
  • It is formulated by the Department of Heavy Industry, having 4 key areas- technology creation, demand creation, pilot projects, and infrastructure related to charging.
Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (hybrid and) electric vehicles (FAME) II
  • Based on the result and experience of phase I of the scheme, phase II was launched with an allocation of Rs 10000 Crore over three years, recently approved by the cabinet.
  • This scheme vision a holistic approach to the EV industry, including infrastructure for charging, manufacturing of batteries, market creation, public demand, and push for EVs in public transport.
  • It also offers incentives to the manufacturer of electric vehicles and their components.
  • It enables the creation of charging infrastructure in selected cities and major highways at an interval of 25 km.

5. Electric Vehicle Policy, 2020

Electric Vehicle Policy 2020 has been announced by the Delhi Government, where it put emphasis on the replacement of two-wheelers, shared vehicles, public transport, and private four-wheelers with Electric Vehicles. Some of the Features of EV Policy 2020 are given below:

  • As per Electric Vehicle Policy, the focus is given to e-mobility, which includes e-buses and e-autos.
  • The government has decided to give low-interest loans so that people can purchase Electric Vehicles easily.
  • The main goal of the E-Vehicle Policy in India is to reduce pollution and curb health issues in Delhi.
  • State EV Fund will be introduced for the expenditure of EV Policy.

6. Challenges in promoting Battery Electric Vehicle (BEV) Adoption

  • Subsidy Limitations: In contrast to countries like Norway, where extensive subsidies have spurred BEV adoption, India's subsidy structure primarily benefits the middle or upper middle classes. This inequality raises concerns about the effectiveness and fairness of upfront purchase subsidies, which tend to benefit those who can afford BEVs.
  • Charging Network: Investing in comprehensive charging infrastructure is crucial for driving BEV adoption. Countries like Norway and China have seen success by expanding public charging stations while providing purchase subsidies. However, India's charging infrastructure remains insufficient, particularly for two- and three-wheelers, which dominate the vehicle mix. Adapting charging strategies to accommodate different vehicle types and power requirements is essential for promoting widespread adoption.
  • Electricity Source: India's reliance on coal-fired thermal plants for electricity generation poses a challenge to the potential environmental benefits of BEVs. While EVs may reduce tailpipe emissions, continued reliance on thermal plants contributes to pollution. Shifting towards renewable energy sources is necessary to mitigate these concerns and achieve cleaner electric mobility.
  • Limited Access to the Global Lithium Value Chain: India's heavy reliance on imports for lithium-ion batteries raises concerns about supply chain vulnerabilities. The concentration of global lithium production and key battery components in a handful of countries creates dependency risks. Diversification of the country's battery technology and exploring alternative options to lithium-ion batteries is crucial for long-term sustainability.
  • Technology Agnostic Approach: While BEVs have gained traction in the two-wheeler and three-wheeler segments, the four-wheeler segment lags behind. Governments must adopt a technology-agnostic approach that encourages the adoption of various electrification technologies, including hybrids and fuel-cell vehicles. Such an approach promotes innovation, fosters competition, and allows manufacturers to meet emissions objectives irrespective of technology.
  • Exploring Alternative Technologies: Hybrids serve as an intermediate step toward full electrification, offering improved fuel efficiency without relying solely on charging infrastructure. Additionally, exploring flex-fuel vehicles running on multiple fuel types, fuel cell electric vehicles, hydrogen internal combustion engine vehicles, and synthetic fuels can provide alternative options for reducing emissions and promoting sustainable mobility.
For Prelims: Electric Vehicles, Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles (FCEVs), Electric Vehicle Policy, 2020, National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP), Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (hybrid and) electric vehicles (FAME), Global Lithium Value Chain.
For Mains: 1. Analyze the challenges and opportunities in promoting the adoption of electric vehicles (EVs) in developing countries like India. Discuss the key factors that hinder EV penetration and propose strategies to overcome them.(250 Words)
 
 

Previous year Question

1. Which of the following Indian States/Union Territories launched Electric Vehicle Policy on 7th August 2020? (UPPSC 2020)

A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Delhi
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: C
Source: The Indian Express
 

DIRECT TAXES

 
 
1. Context
Personal income tax collections continue to outpace corporate tax collections, with cumulative net direct tax collections having grown by nearly 20 per cent to Rs 5.74 lakh crore during the April 1-July 11 period of the ongoing financial year (2024-25)
 
2. What is a Direct Tax?

A direct tax is one that is levied directly on an individual or organization's income, wealth, or property. The taxpayer bears the burden of the tax and cannot easily shift it to someone else. In contrast, an indirect tax is levied on a transaction, such as a sale of goods or services, and often gets passed on to the consumer in the final price.

Here are some common examples of direct taxes:

  • Income tax: This is a tax on the income earned by individuals and businesses.
  • Property tax: This is a tax on the value of real estate or other property.
  • Wealth tax: This is a tax on the total value of a person's assets. (Less common than income and property tax)
  • Inheritance tax: This is a tax on the value of assets that are inherited from a deceased person.
3. What is the difference between direct tax and indirect tax? 
 
Subject Direct Tax Indirect Tax
Definition Taxes imposed directly on individuals or entities. Taxes imposed on goods and services rather than on individuals or entities directly.
Burden Cannot be shifted; borne by the taxpayer. Initially borne by the seller or producer, but can be shifted to the end consumer through higher prices.
Examples Income tax, property tax, wealth tax, capital gains tax. Sales tax, value-added tax (VAT), excise duty, customs duty, goods and services tax (GST).
Progressivity Usually progressive; tax rate increases as taxable amount increases. Not inherently progressive; applied uniformly regardless of income level.
 
4. What are the components of direct tax?
 

Direct taxes typically consist of several components, each targeting different sources of income or assets.

The main components of direct taxes include:

  • Income Tax: This is the tax imposed on an individual's or entity's income, including wages, salaries, interest, dividends, rental income, and other sources of income. Income tax rates may vary depending on the level of income and other factors.

  • Corporate Tax: Corporations are subject to corporate income tax on their profits. This tax is levied on the earnings of corporations and business entities.

  • Capital Gains Tax: This tax is levied on the profit earned from the sale of assets such as stocks, bonds, real estate, and other investments. The tax rate may vary depending on how long the asset was held before being sold.

  • Property Tax: Property tax is imposed on the value of real estate properties owned by individuals or entities. It is typically assessed annually by local governments based on the assessed value of the property.

  • Wealth Tax: Some countries levy a tax on the net wealth or assets owned by individuals or entities above a certain threshold. This tax is often based on the total value of assets such as real estate, investments, cash, and other valuables.

  • Inheritance Tax (Estate Tax): This tax is imposed on the transfer of assets from a deceased person to their heirs or beneficiaries. It is based on the value of the inherited assets and may vary depending on the relationship between the deceased and the heir, as well as the size of the estate

 
 
Income tax is part of direct tax or indirect tax?
 
Income tax is a component of direct tax. It is imposed directly on individuals or entities based on their income. The burden of income tax cannot be shifted to someone else; it is the responsibility of the taxpayer to pay the tax on their earnings. Therefore, income tax falls under the category of direct taxes
 
5.What is the tax structure in India?
 

India's tax structure has three tiers: central government, state governments, and local municipal bodies. Each tier levies specific taxes. Here's a breakdown:

Level Taxes Levied
Central Government * Income Tax * Corporation Tax * Goods and Services Tax (CGST) * Customs Duty * Central Excise Duty (phased out with GST)
State Governments * Value Added Tax (VAT) (replaced by GST for most goods and services) * State Excise Duty * Professional Tax * Land Revenue * Stamp Duty * Income tax on agricultural income (rare)
Local Municipal Bodies * Property Tax * Octroi (mostly abolished) * Entertainment Tax (varies by state) * Local service taxes
 

Key Components:

  • Direct Taxes: Income tax, corporate tax, wealth tax (not very common).
  • Indirect Taxes: Goods and Services Tax (GST), customs duty, excise duty (mostly replaced by GST), VAT (mostly replaced by GST), sales tax (varies by state).

GST (Goods and Services Tax): Introduced in 2017, GST is a major reform that applies a single tax on the supply of goods and services across the country. It has replaced a multitude of indirect taxes, simplifying the tax system. GST has three components:

  • CGST: Central Goods and Services Tax (collected by central government)
  • SGST: State Goods and Services Tax (collected by state government)
  • IGST: Integrated Goods and Services Tax (levied on inter-state transactions, collected by central government)
Net direct tax collections had stood at Rs 16.64 lakh crore in the preceding financial year 2022-23. Refunds stood at Rs 3.79 lakh crore in FY24, an increase of 22.74 per cent over the refunds of Rs 3.09 lakh crore issued in FY23
Income tax collections continued to be higher than corporate tax collections. Gross corporate tax collection (provisional) in FY24 was Rs 11.32 lakh crore, a growth of 13.06 per cent over Rs 10 lakh crore collected in the preceding year, while the net corporate tax collection stood at Rs 9.11 lakh crore, up 10.26 per cent from Rs 8.26 lakh crore in the previous financial year
 
6. What is the net direct tax?
 

"Net direct tax" typically refers to the total amount of direct taxes collected by a government after accounting for any refunds or rebates.

To calculate the net direct tax, you would start with the gross direct tax collections, which is the total amount of direct taxes collected from individuals and entities. Then, any refunds or rebates issued to taxpayers would be subtracted from the gross collections to arrive at the net direct tax.

The net direct tax collection is an important indicator of a government's revenue from direct taxes and its effectiveness in tax administration. It reflects the actual amount of revenue that the government receives from direct taxes after adjusting for any refunds or adjustments made to taxpayers

7. Major tax reforms in India

 

India has undergone several major tax reforms over the years to simplify the tax structure, improve compliance, and boost economic growth.

Some of the significant tax reforms in India include:

  • Goods and Services Tax (GST): One of the most significant tax reforms in India, GST was introduced on July 1, 2017, replacing a complex system of indirect taxes including VAT, service tax, excise duty, and others. GST is a destination-based tax levied on the supply of goods and services, aimed at creating a unified national market, eliminating cascading effects of taxes, and streamlining tax administration.

  • Direct Tax Code (DTC): The Direct Tax Code was proposed to replace the existing Income Tax Act, 1961, with a simplified, modernized, and taxpayer-friendly direct tax regime. Although the DTC has not been implemented in its entirety, certain provisions and reforms proposed in the code have been incorporated into the existing tax laws to improve efficiency and reduce litigation.

  • Reduction in Corporate Tax Rates: In September 2019, the Indian government announced significant cuts in corporate tax rates to boost investment, promote economic growth, and make Indian industry globally competitive. The corporate tax rate for domestic companies was reduced from 30% to 22%, and for new manufacturing companies incorporated after October 1, 2019, the tax rate was further reduced to 15%.

  • Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act: The Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act was enacted in 1988 to prohibit benami transactions and provide for confiscation of benami properties. In 2016, the government amended the Act to make it more stringent and effective in curbing black money and undisclosed income.

  • Demonetization: In November 2016, the Indian government announced the demonetization of high-denomination currency notes (Rs. 500 and Rs. 1,000) to curb black money, corruption, and counterfeiting. The demonetization move was accompanied by various measures to promote digital transactions and increase tax compliance.

  • Introduction of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC): The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code was introduced in 2016 to provide a comprehensive framework for the resolution of insolvency and bankruptcy cases in a time-bound manner. The IBC aims to promote ease of doing business, protect the interests of creditors and investors, and facilitate the resolution of stressed assets

 
 
 
For Prelims: Economic and Social Development-Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc.
For Mains: GSIII: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment
 
Previous Year Questions
1.Enumerate the indirect taxes which have been subsumed in the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India. Also, comment on the revenue implications of the GST introduced in India since July 2017. (UPC CSE GS III 2019)
 
 
 
Source: Indianexpress
 

ILLEGAL IMMIGRANTS

 
 
 
1. Context
 
 
Union Home Minister Amit Shah  said that there is a need to provide employment opportunities to the residents of border villages in order to prevent migration
 
 
2. About Illegal Immigrant
 
  • An illegal immigrant is a person who enters or resides in a country without fulfilling the legal requirements for immigration.
  • This can involve entering a country without proper documentation, staying beyond the permitted period of a visa, or working without authorization.
  • However, it's important to note that the term "illegal immigrant" is often considered controversial and dehumanizing.
  • It can contribute to negative stereotypes and discrimination against immigrants, regardless of their legal status.
  • Instead, it's preferred to use terms like undocumented immigrant, irregular migrant, or unauthorized migrant.
  • These terms are more neutral and focus on the individual's legal status rather than their character or potential threat.
 

3. Who is a Citizen?

 
A citizen is a legally recognized member of a sovereign state or country. Citizenship implies a set of rights, privileges, and responsibilities granted to individuals by the government of the country to which they belong. These rights and obligations may include the right to vote, the right to work and live in the country, access to social services, and the duty to obey laws and pay taxes.
 
 

4. Legal Challenge to Assam Accord's Citizenship Criteria

 

The ongoing hearings before a Constitutional bench, led by Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud, are centred on a legal challenge to Section 6A of the Citizenship Act. This provision, introduced following the signing of the Assam Accord in 1985, has become a focal point for determining who is considered a foreigner in the state. The Accord's criteria, including the cutoff date and regularization provisions, also formed the basis for the final National Register of Citizens in Assam, released in 2019.

Key Elements of the Challenge

  • Clause 5 of the Assam Accord designates January 1, 1966, as the base cutoff date for identifying and removing "foreigners" in the state. This clause also incorporates provisions for the regularization of individuals who arrived in Assam after that date but before March 24, 1971.
  • Section 6A of the Citizenship Act was added as an amendment to accommodate the provisions of the Assam Accord. It establishes March 24, 1971, as the definitive cutoff date for entry into the state. Anyone entering Assam after this date is considered an "illegal immigrant."

Implications for Those Arriving Between 1966 and 1971

  • Individuals arriving in Assam on or after January 1, 1966, but before March 25, 1971, from Bangladesh would be identified as "foreigners."
  • They are granted the opportunity to register themselves based on rules established by the Central Government.
  • While excluded from electoral rolls, they are afforded the same rights and obligations as Indian citizens for 10 years from the date of being identified as foreigners.
  • After these ten years, they are to be recognized as citizens.

 

5. Legal Challenge to Section 6A

 

The challenge to Section 6A of the Citizenship Act revolves around its constitutional validity, primarily brought forth by the Assam Sanmilita Mahasangha (ASM), an organization championing the rights of "indigenous" communities in Assam. The central contention is that the establishment of a different cutoff date for Indian citizenship in Assam (1971) compared to the rest of India (July 1948) is deemed "discriminatory, arbitrary, and illegal." The petition argues that this provision violates the rights of indigenous Assamese people.

Key Arguments and Concerns

  • The plea calls for the establishment of 1951 as the cutoff date for inclusion in the National Register of Citizens (NRC) instead of 1971, aligning it with the rest of India. This move aims for uniformity in citizenship criteria.
  • ASM asserts that the application of Section 6A exclusively to Assam has resulted in a significant demographic shift, reducing the indigenous people of Assam to a minority in their own state. This demographic change is perceived as detrimental to the economic, political, and cultural well-being of the state.
  • ASM contends that the NRC process, guided by the cutoff date of Bangladesh's independence in 1971, has favoured a large number of Hindu and Muslim Bengalis and Nepalis who migrated from East Pakistan. This has allegedly resulted in the illegal occupation of lands belonging to indigenous tribes, impacting their cultural survival, political control, and employment opportunities.

 

6. Constitutional Issues Surrounding Section 6A of the Citizenship Act

 

The challenge to Section 6A raises several significant constitutional issues, which will be explored by the five-judge bench of the Supreme Court. These issues touch upon various fundamental rights and principles enshrined in the Indian Constitution.

  • Whether Section 6A, by establishing a different cut-off date for Assam than stipulated in Article 6 of the Constitution, violates Articles 10 and 11, which deal with the right to move freely and reside in any part of India.
  • This raises questions about whether this deviation requires a formal "variation" of Article 6 itself, or if it can be justified under existing legal provisions.
  • Does Section 6A dilute the political rights of the Assamese people by potentially altering the demographic balance through the naturalization of migrants? This involves interpreting Articles 325 and 326, which guarantee the right to vote and reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, respectively.
  • Does Section 6A violate the fundamental right of indigenous communities to conserve their culture, as enshrined in Article 29(1)? This brings up the scope of this fundamental right and its application in the context of a changing demographic landscape.
  • Does an influx of illegal immigration constitute "external aggression" or "internal disturbance" as defined in Article 355, which empowers the Union to protect states from such threats? This question delves into the interpretation of Article 355 and its relevance to the Assam situation.
  • Does Section 6A unfairly single out Assam by applying a different cut-off date than other border states, thereby violating the right to equality under Article 14? This necessitates evaluating the justification for such a distinction and its potential discriminatory effects.
  • Does the influx of immigrants, as facilitated by Section 6A, adversely affect the lives and personal liberty of Assamese citizens under Article 21? This examines the potential negative impact of immigration on various aspects of life and liberty in the state.
  • In granting relief under Article 32, should the court consider the delay in challenging Section 6A? This involves weighing the principle of timely justice against the complexity of the legal issues and potential consequences of delayed action.
  • After decades of migrant presence and naturalization, can any meaningful relief be granted without causing undue prejudice to individuals already integrated into society This raises questions about balancing legal principles with the realities of human lives and the potential for disruption caused by retroactive changes.
  • Does Section 6A violate the basic premise of the Citizenship Act by potentially allowing individuals to retain their citizenship in Bangladesh while becoming Indian citizens? This relates to the interpretation of Section 5 of the Act and its requirement for full renunciation of foreign citizenship.
  • Does Section 6A contravene the provisions of Section 5 by granting citizenship without requiring an oath of allegiance or ensuring reciprocity from Bangladesh? This involves evaluating the legal basis for these requirements and their potential application in the case of Section 6A.
  • Does the specific nature of the Immigrants (Expulsion from Assam) Act exclude the General Foreigners Act and its associated tribunals from dealing with migrant issues in Assam? This question focuses on the legal framework applicable to immigration within the state and its consistency with national laws.
  • Does Section 6A undermine the rule of law by prioritizing political considerations over legal principles? This raises concerns about the potential for political pressure to influence lawmaking and its impact on the balance of legal authority.
  • Does Section 6A violate Article 14 by failing to establish a clear and transparent mechanism for determining individuals' eligibility for citizenship based on their residency in Assam? This centres on the potential for arbitrary decision-making and its impact on the fundamental right to equality.
 
 

Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance.

Mains Examination: General Studies II- Polity

 

Previous Year Questions

1.  With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2012)
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only             B. 2 only           C. Both 1 and 2               D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
 
2. Barak Valley in Assam is famous for which among the following? (MSTET 2019)
A.  Bamboo Industry
B. Petroleum Production
C. Cottage Industries
D. Tea Cultivation
 
 
3. Which one of the following is an important crop of the Barak Valley? (Karnataka Civil Police Constable 2019)
A. Sugarcane           B.  Jute            C. Tea                    D. Cotton
 
 
4. Under Assam Accord of 1985, foreigners who had entered Assam before March 25, _____ were to be given citizenship.  (DSSSB JE & Section Officer 2022)
A. 1954           B. 1971         C.  1981           D. 1966
 
Answers: 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-B
 
 Source: The Indian Express
 

WORLD PRESS FREEDOM INDEX

 

1. Context

Prime Minister Narendra Modi said the media’s natural role is to create discourse by discussing serious issues as he inaugurated the Indian Newspaper Society’s secretariat, INS Towers, in Mumbai

2. What is the World Press Freedom Index?

  • The World Press Freedom Index is an annual report published by Reporters Without Borders (RSF) that evaluates the level of press freedom in countries around the world.
  • The report measures the level of freedom that journalists, media outlets, and netizens have in each country to gather and disseminate news and information, without fear of censorship, retaliation, or violence.
  • The World Press Freedom Index ranks 180 countries based on a variety of factors, including media independence, pluralism, legal framework, transparency, and the safety of journalists.
  • The report aims to raise awareness about the importance of press freedom and hold governments accountable for violations of this fundamental right.
  • The World Press Freedom Index has been published annually since 2002 and has become an important tool for researchers, journalists, and policymakers to monitor the state of press freedom around the world.

3. What is the ranking of India in the World Press Freedom Index?

  • According to the latest Reporters Without Borders (RSF) report, India's ranking in the World Press Freedom Index has dropped to 161 out of 180 countries, down from its previous rank of 150 in 2022.
  • This suggests that Press freedom in India has faced significant challenges and restrictions, as journalists and media outlets are increasingly facing censorship, legal harassment, and violence.
  • In contrast, Pakistan has improved its ranking, moving up to 150 from last year's 157th rank, indicating a relatively better situation for media freedom in the country.
  • Similarly, Sri Lanka has made significant progress, moving up to 135th position this year from 146th in 2022.
  • It is worth noting that Norway, Ireland, and Denmark hold the top three positions in the press freedom ranking, indicating a favorable environment for press freedom in these countries.
  • In contrast, Vietnam, China, and North Korea occupy the bottom three positions, reflecting severe restrictions on media freedom and human rights abuses in these countries.

4. India's Performance

  • India's position has been consistently falling in the index since 2016 when it was ranked 133.
  • The reasons behind the fall in the ranking are the increased violence against journalists and a politically partisan media.
  • The other Phenomenon that dangerously restricts the free flow of information is the acquisition of media outlets by oligarchs who maintain close ties with political leaders.
  • The organization asserts that many journalists in India are forced to censor themselves due to extreme pressure.

5. What is Reporters without Borders?

  • Reporters Without Borders or Reporters Sans Frontiers (in French) is a global media watchdog headquartered in Paris, France, and it publishes a yearly report on press freedom in countries across the world.
  • Founded in 1985 and RSF is at the forefront of the defence and promotion of freedom of information.
  • Recognized as a public interest organization in France since 1995, RSF has consultative status with the United Nations, UNESCO, the Council of Europe, and the International Organization of Francophonie (OIF).

6. How does it measure Press Freedom?

  • Press freedom is defined as the ability of journalists as individuals and collectives to select, produce, and disseminate news in the public interest independent of political, economic, legal, and social interference and in the absence of threats to their physical and mental safety.
  • The index then compares levels of press freedom globally based on this definition.
    It develops a score between 0 (for the worst possible performance in terms of securing press freedom) and 100 (the best possible score).
  • This year, Norway scored 95.18 at the first position, North Korea at 21.72 and India scored 36.62. A score below 70 falls under the ‘problematic’ category. 
  • A tally of abuses against media and journalists in connection with their work, arrived at by monitoring and analyzing news stories on journalists being imprisoned or killed.
  • A qualitative analysis of the situation in each country or territory based on the responses of “press freedom specialists”, including journalists, researchers, academics, and human rights defenders, to an RSF questionnaire available in 24 languages. These include Arabic, Chinese, English, Hindi, Spanish, etc.

7. What does the 2023 report say about press freedom globally?

  • The index states in 2023 that "the environment for journalism is bad in seven out of ten countries, and satisfactory in only three out of ten.
  • It also highlighted concerns of propaganda fake news, further heightened given the rise of artificial intelligence technology.
  • Programs like Midourney, which can create life-like images based on a simple text prompt, were mentioned in this context.
  • North Korea (180th), China (179th), Vietnam (178th), Myanmar (173rd)- Asia's one-party regimes and dictatorships are the ones that constrict journalism the most, with leaders tightening their totalitarian stranglehold on the public discourse, it states, terming China as the world's biggest jailer of journalists and press freedom advocates.

8. Constitutional Provisions

  • The Supreme Court in Romesh Thappar vs. the state of Madras, 1950 observed that freedom of the press lay at the foundation of all democratic organizations.
  • It is guaranteed under the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19, which deals with the 'Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.
  • Freedom of the press is not expressly protected by the Indian legal system but it is impliedly protected under Article 19(1) (a) of the constitution.
  • The freedom of the press is also not absolute.
For Prelims: World Press Freedom Index, Reporters without Borders, United Nations, UNESCO, the Council of Europe, and the International Organization of Francophonie (OIF), Article 19 (1) (a), and freedom of speech and expression.
 Source: The Indian Express
 
 
 

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