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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 15 JUNE 2024

NATIONAL INVESTIGATION AGENCY (NIA)

1. Context

The National Investigation Agency (NIA) made the sixth arrest in the human trafficking and cyber frauds case, wherein the youth were recruited and sent overseas to work in alleged fake call centres involved in online crimes

2. About National Investigation Agency (NIA)

  • The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is a federal counter-terrorism law enforcement agency in India.
  • It was established in 2008 after the Mumbai terror attack the same year.
  • The NIA is empowered to deal with the investigation of terror-related crimes across states without special permission from the states under written proclamation from the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • The primary mandate of the National Investigation Agency is to investigate and prosecute offences that have national and cross-border implications, specifically focusing on terrorism, insurgency, and other related matters.
  • The NIA is headquartered in New Delhi and has 12 regional offices across the country.
  • It is headed by a Director General of Police (DGP) rank officer.
  • The NIA has a team of highly trained and experienced officers who are experts in counter-terrorism investigations.
  • The NIA has been successful in investigating and prosecuting several high-profile terrorism cases, including the 26/11 Mumbai attacks, the 2012 Pune bombing, the 2013 Hyderabad blasts, and the 2014 Pathankot attack.
  • The NIA has also played a key role in disrupting terrorist networks and preventing terrorist attacks.
  • It has arrested several senior terrorist operatives and seized a large quantity of arms and ammunition.

3. The Changes Made under the NIA (Amendment) Act 2019

The National Investigation Agency (Amendment) Act, 2019, brought significant changes and enhancements to the powers and jurisdiction of the National Investigation Agency (NIA) in India. The amendments aimed to strengthen the agency's ability to combat terrorism and other transnational crimes effectively.

The key changes made under the NIA (Amendment) Act, 2019

  • The amendment expanded the jurisdiction of the NIA. Previously, the agency could investigate cases related to terrorism and certain other offences listed in the NIA Act.
  • The Act adds new offences to the list of scheduled offences that can be investigated by the NIA. These include
  • Cyber terrorism under Section 66-F of the Information Technology Act, 2000
  • Human trafficking under Section 370 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
  • Counterfeiting of currency or bank notes under Sections 489C and 489E of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
  • Manufacture or sale of prohibited arms or ammunition under Sections 25 and 26 of the Arms Act, 1959
  • Offenses under the Explosive Substances Act, 1908
  • This extension of jurisdiction gives the NIA greater reach and authority in handling cases with international ramifications.
  •  The amendment allowed for the establishment of special courts for the trial of NIA cases.
  • These courts are designated to expedite the trial process and ensure that cases are heard and disposed of more quickly, particularly in terrorism-related cases.
  • The NIA (Amendment) Act introduced provisions for the protection of witnesses.
  • It empowers the NIA to request the central government to issue orders for the protection of witnesses.
  • Ensuring the safety of witnesses is crucial for the successful prosecution of cases, especially in terrorism-related trials.
  • The amended law allows the NIA to seize and attach properties that are believed to be the proceeds of terrorism or used for terrorism-related activities.
  • This provision is essential in disrupting the financial networks of terrorist organizations.
  • The NIA can now request the central government to seek extradition of individuals involved in terrorism and other offences under the NIA Act.
  • This provision facilitates the extradition of accused persons from foreign countries to face trial in India.
  • The central government has the authority to designate session courts as NIA Special Courts.
  • These courts are responsible for the trial of NIA cases and follow the procedures outlined in the NIA Act.
  • The NIA Act includes a schedule listing offences that fall under its jurisdiction.
  • The amendment allows for offences in this schedule to be amended by the central government through notification.
  • This flexibility allows for the inclusion of new offences based on emerging threats and challenges.
  • The NIA (Amendment) Act includes provisions to enhance transparency and accountability in the agency's functioning.
  • It mandates the submission of an annual report on its activities to the central government, which is then laid before both houses of Parliament.

4. The Way Forward

The NIA is a vital component of India's counter-terrorism architecture. By taking the necessary steps to improve the NIA's functioning, the government can make the agency more effective in combating terrorism and protecting the country from terrorist threats.
 
For Prelims: National Investigation Agency, Terrorism, NIA Act,2008,  NIA (Amendment) Act, 2019, the Ministry of Home Affairs, Information Technology Act, 2000, Indian Penal Code, Arms Act 1959, Explosive Substances Act, 1908, 
For Mains: 
1. "The NIA (Amendment) Act, 2019, introduced provisions for the confiscation of property believed to be connected to terrorism." Analyze the significance of this provision in curbing the financial networks of terrorist organizations and its alignment with international counter-terrorism efforts. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions

1. The Stiglitz Commission established by the President of the United Nations General Assembly was in the international news. The commission was supposed to deal with: (UPSC CSE 2010)

(a) The challenges posed by the impending global climate change and prepare a road map
(b) The workings of the global financial systems and to explore ways and means to secure a more sustainable global order
(c) Global terrorism and prepare a global action plan for the mitigation of terrorism
(d) Expansion of the United Nations Security Council in the present global scenario

Answer: B

2. Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: (UPPSC 2020)

List – I                              List – II

A. Indian Arm Act             1. 1876

B. Royal Title Act              2. 1878

C. Indian High Court Act   3. 1869

D. Indian Divorce Act        4. 1861

A. (A) 2, (B) 3, (C) 1, (D) 4

B. (A) 3, (B) 1, (C) 2, (D) 4

C. (A) 1, (B) 2, (C) 3, (D) 4

D. (A) 2, (B) 1, (C) 4, (D) 3

Answer: D

3. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched? (UPPSC RO/ARO 2020) 

A. Prevention of Sedition Meetings Act - 1908
B. Explosive Substances Act - 1908
C. Indian Criminal Law Amendment Act - 1908
D. Newspaper (Incentive to Offence) Act - 1908

Answer: A

 
Source: indianexpress
 

WHOLESALE PRICE INDEX (WPI)

 
 
1. Context

Inflation in India’s wholesale prices accelerated to a 15-month high of 2.61% in May, more than double April’s pace, with food inflation surging to a 10-month peak of 7.4% driven by steeper prices for vegetables, fruits, pulses and cereals, and a resurgence of price rise in manufactured products after 14 months of deflation

2. What is the Wholesale Price Index(WPI)?

The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is a measure of the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses or retailers. It is one of the key indicators used to measure inflation and economic performance in a country.

WPI tracks the average price changes of goods at the wholesale level, providing insights into inflationary pressures in the economy. It includes various categories of goods such as agricultural products, industrial raw materials, fuel and power, and manufactured goods.

Governments and policymakers use WPI data to monitor inflation trends, formulate monetary and fiscal policies, and assess the overall health of the economy. It serves as a crucial tool for businesses to adjust pricing strategies, forecast costs, and make informed decisions regarding production and investment

3. Importance of WPI

 

The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) holds several significant roles in economic analysis and policymaking:

  • WPI is a key indicator used to measure inflationary pressures in the economy. By tracking changes in the prices of goods at the wholesale level, it provides insights into the direction and magnitude of inflation. This data is crucial for policymakers in formulating monetary and fiscal policies to maintain price stability
  • WPI serves as a barometer of economic performance, reflecting changes in production costs, input prices, and overall market conditions. Fluctuations in WPI can indicate shifts in supply and demand dynamics, business confidence, and economic activity levels
  • Governments and central banks rely on WPI data to formulate and adjust monetary and fiscal policies. By assessing inflationary trends captured by WPI, policymakers can make informed decisions regarding interest rates, money supply, taxation, and government spending to achieve macroeconomic objectives such as price stability, economic growth, and employment generation
  • Businesses utilize WPI as a tool for forecasting production costs and adjusting pricing strategies. By monitoring changes in wholesale prices of goods, companies can anticipate future cost pressures, optimize supply chain management, and make pricing decisions to maintain profitability and competitiveness in the market
  • WPI data is also crucial for analyzing trends in international trade. Changes in wholesale prices can affect export competitiveness, import demand, and trade balances. Policymakers use WPI information to assess the impact of exchange rate fluctuations, trade policies, and global economic conditions on domestic industries and trade relations
4. What is the Consumer Price Index(CPI)?
 

The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure that examines the weighted average of prices of a basket of consumer goods and services, such as transportation, food, and medical care. It is one of the most widely used indicators for tracking inflation and assessing changes in the cost of living over time.

CPI is calculated by collecting price data for a representative sample of goods and services that are typically purchased by urban consumers. The prices of these items are then aggregated and weighted according to their relative importance in the average consumer's expenditure. The resulting index reflects the average price level experienced by consumers

CPI is used by governments, central banks, businesses, and households for various purposes:

  • CPI is primarily used to measure inflation, which is the rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services is rising. By tracking changes in the CPI over time, policymakers can gauge the extent of inflationary pressures in the economy and adjust monetary and fiscal policies accordingly
  • Many labour contracts, pension plans, and government benefits are indexed to CPI. This means that payments or wages are adjusted periodically based on changes in the CPI to maintain purchasing power and account for changes in the cost of living
  • Central banks often use CPI as a key input in their monetary policy decisions. By targeting a specific inflation rate, central banks aim to achieve price stability and support sustainable economic growth. CPI data helps policymakers assess whether monetary policy actions are effectively controlling inflation
  • Investors and financial analysts use CPI data to adjust their investment strategies and financial planning. Understanding inflation trends can help investors anticipate changes in interest rates, bond yields, and stock market performance, which in turn influence investment decisions
  • CPI data provides insights into consumer behavior and spending patterns. Changes in the prices of specific goods and services reflected in the CPI can affect consumer preferences, purchasing decisions, and overall economic activity
5.What is the distinction between WPI and CPI?
 
Subject Wholesale Price Index (WPI) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
Scope of Goods and Services Measures changes in prices of goods traded in bulk by wholesalers, including raw materials, intermediate goods, and finished goods. Tracks changes in prices of goods and services purchased by households for consumption, including food, housing, transportation, etc.
Target Audience Relevant to businesses, policymakers, and analysts involved in production, manufacturing, and trade. Important for individuals, households, labor unions, and policymakers involved in setting wages, pensions, and social security benefits.
Weighting and Composition Based on a fixed basket of goods and services weighted according to their relative importance in wholesale trade. Based on a basket of goods and services representative of urban consumer spending patterns.
Policy Implications Changes in WPI affect production costs, supply chain management, and business profitability. Used by policymakers to assess inflation trends and formulate industrial and trade policies. Changes in CPI directly impact the cost of living for households and influence consumer behavior, purchasing power, and welfare. Used by policymakers to adjust wages, social benefits, and taxation policies.
 
6. Way Forward
 
Both WPI and CPI are measures of price levels, they differ in their scope, target audience, composition, and policy implications. WPI focuses on wholesale trade and production costs, while CPI reflects consumer spending patterns and the cost of living for households
 
For Prelims: Consumer Price Index, Wholesale Price Index, Inflation,  retail inflation, Producer Pirce Index, National Statistical Office, OPEC+, Crude oil, Kharif season, Monsoon, 
For Mains: 
1. Analyse the factors contributing to high food inflation in India in recent months. Discuss the impact of high food inflation on the Indian economy and suggest measures to mitigate it. (250 words)
2. Explain the concept of sticky inflation. What are the various factors that contribute to sticky inflation? Discuss the implications of sticky inflation for the Indian economy. (250 words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct? (UPSC 2015)
A. Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only
B. The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
C. Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
D. Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
 
Answer: C
 
2. With reference to India, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2010)
1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis only.
2. As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI(IW)), the WPI gives less weight to food articles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only       B. 2 only       C. Both 1 and 2          D.  Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer: C
 
3. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2020)
1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 A. 1 and  2 only       B. 2 only       C. 3 only           D. 1, 2 and 3
 
4. India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons? (UPSC 2011)
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30.
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 
A. 1 and 2 only          B. 2 and 3 only        C. 1 and 3 only          D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: B
 
 
5. The Public Distribution System, which evolved as a system of management of food and distribution of food grains, was relaunched as _______ Public Distribution System in 1997. (SSC JE EE 2021) 
A. Evolved         B. Transformed      C. Tested            D. Targeted
 
Answer: D
 
6. Under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana, up to what quantity of rice and wheat can be purchased at a subsidised cost? (FCI AG III 2023) 
A. 35 kg          B. 40 kg          C. 30 kg           D. 25 kg           E. 50 kg
 
Answer: A
 
7. As per the the National Statistical Office (NSO) report released on 7 January 2022, India's Gross domestic product (GDP) is expected to grow at ___________ per cent (in first advance estimates) in the fiscal year 2021-22?  (ESIC UDC 2022) 
A. 17.6 per cent     B. 9.5 per cent     C. 11 per cent        D. 9.2 per cent   E. None of the above
 
Answer: D
 
8. The main emphasis of OPEC (Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries) is on which of the following? (UKPSC 2016)
A. The production of petroleum
B. Control over prices of petroleum
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
 
Answer: C
 
9. In the context of global oil prices, "Brent crude oil" is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply? (UPSC 2011)
1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
2. It is sourced from the North Sea.
3. It does not contain sulfur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only    B. 1 and 2 only        C. 1 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: B
 
10. The term 'West Texas Intermediate', sometimes found in news, refers to a grade of (UPSC 2020)
A. Crude oil   B. Bullion         C. Rare earth elements       D.  Uranium
 
Answer: C
 
11. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019)
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 
A. 1 and 3 only        B.  2, 3 and 4 only        C. 2 and 4 only         D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
 
Answer: A
 
Source: The Hindu
 

HOUSEHOLD CONSUMPTION EXPENDITURE SURVEY 2022-23

 
 
 
1. Context
 
The latest official Survey on Household Consumption Expenditure for 2022-23 (August-July) shows that the average monthly per capita spending in rural India on vegetables (at Rs 202.86), fresh and dry fruits (Rs 140.16) and pulses (Rs 75.98) was lower than on milk and milk products (Rs 314.22)
 
2.Household Consumption Expenditure Survey 2022-23
 
  • The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) 2022-23 was conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) in India. It aimed to gather data on the spending patterns of households across the country
  • The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey is typically conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) in India. This survey is crucial for understanding the consumption patterns and expenditure habits of households, providing valuable insights into the economic conditions and trends.
  • The HCES collects data on various aspects of household expenditures, including food, education, healthcare, housing, and more. It is an essential tool for policymakers, researchers, and economists to analyse and formulate strategies related to economic development and social welfare.

2.1. Statistics

  • Data from the Household Consumer Expenditure Survey (HCES), conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), indicates a decline in the percentage of food expenditure in the average monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) for both rural and urban India.
  • In rural areas, the share of food in MPCE decreased from 52.9% in 2011-12, 53.1% in 2004-05, and 59.4% in 1999-2000 to 46.4% in 2022-23.
  • Similarly, in urban areas, although the drop was not as pronounced, there was still a decrease from 48.1% in 1999-2000 to 40.5% in 2004-05, 42.6% in 2011-12, and 39.2% in 2022-23
3.Analysis on Consumer Expenditure Survey
 
  • Reducing spending on food as a proportion of your overall consumption allows for more financial resources to be allocated to various other areas, including consumer durables, clothing, footwear, fuel for transportation, and entertainment. In simpler terms, it opens up the possibility to aspire for a broader range of goods and experiences.
  • From the 1999-2000 National Sample Survey 55th round to 2022-23, the proportion of expenditure on food has gradually decreased for both urban and rural households. Notably, it is the first instance where spending on food has dropped below 50% of the total consumption expenditure in rural India and below 40% in urban India, marking a significant shift.
  • In 1999-2000, the share of food in consumption expenditure in rural India was as high as 59.4%, remaining around 50% during the first decade of the new millennium. However, in 2022-23, it reached 46.38%. In urban India, the share of food in the average monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) has declined to 39.17% in 2022-23 from 48.06% in 1999-2000
4.What is Monthly Per Capita Consumer Expenditure (MPCE)?
 

Monthly Per Capita Consumer Expenditure (MPCE) is a metric that measures the average spending per person in a household over a specified period, usually a month. It is a key indicator used in economic surveys and studies to assess the patterns of household consumption and expenditure.

Here's a breakdown of the components:

  • Monthly: The expenditure is calculated over a monthly timeframe. This allows for a regular and standardized measurement of consumer spending.

  • Per Capita: The total household expenditure is divided by the number of individuals in the household to arrive at the per capita expenditure. This normalization accounts for variations in household size, providing a more accurate representation of spending on an individual basis.

  • Consumer Expenditure: This includes the total spending on various goods and services by members of a household. Consumer expenditure encompasses a wide range of items such as food, housing, education, healthcare, transportation, entertainment, and more.

MPCE is a crucial parameter for understanding the economic well-being and consumption patterns of households. It helps policymakers, researchers, and economists analyze trends in consumer behavior, identify changes in spending patterns over time, and assess the impact of economic policies on households.

The data on MPCE is often collected through household surveys, such as the National Sample Survey in India, where respondents are asked to provide details about their expenditures across different categories. This information is then aggregated and analyzed to draw conclusions about the economic conditions of the population

5.Way Forward

The Consumer Price Index (CPI)-based inflation, also called retail inflation, is currently based on a basket that was decided in 2012. But over the last 11 years, as the latest Household Consumption Expenditure (HCE) Survey 2022-23 shows, a lot has changed.

 

For Prelims:  Current events of national and international importance

For Mains: General Studies III: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment

Source: Indianexpress

ILLEGAL IMMIGRANTS

 
 
 
1. Context
 
 
Recently, The Supreme Court asked the Centre and Assam government to provide details on the “estimated inflow of illegal migrants” to Assam and other Northeastern states after March 25, 1971, and the status of border fencing.
 
 
2. About Illegal Immigrant
 
  • An illegal immigrant is a person who enters or resides in a country without fulfilling the legal requirements for immigration.
  • This can involve entering a country without proper documentation, staying beyond the permitted period of a visa, or working without authorization.
  • However, it's important to note that the term "illegal immigrant" is often considered controversial and dehumanizing.
  • It can contribute to negative stereotypes and discrimination against immigrants, regardless of their legal status.
  • Instead, it's preferred to use terms like undocumented immigrant, irregular migrant, or unauthorized migrant.
  • These terms are more neutral and focus on the individual's legal status rather than their character or potential threat.
 

3. Who is a Citizen?

 
A citizen is a legally recognized member of a sovereign state or country. Citizenship implies a set of rights, privileges, and responsibilities granted to individuals by the government of the country to which they belong. These rights and obligations may include the right to vote, the right to work and live in the country, access to social services, and the duty to obey laws and pay taxes.
 
 

4. Legal Challenge to Assam Accord's Citizenship Criteria

 

The ongoing hearings before a Constitutional bench, led by Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud, are centred on a legal challenge to Section 6A of the Citizenship Act. This provision, introduced following the signing of the Assam Accord in 1985, has become a focal point for determining who is considered a foreigner in the state. The Accord's criteria, including the cutoff date and regularization provisions, also formed the basis for the final National Register of Citizens in Assam, released in 2019.

Key Elements of the Challenge

  • Clause 5 of the Assam Accord designates January 1, 1966, as the base cutoff date for identifying and removing "foreigners" in the state. This clause also incorporates provisions for the regularization of individuals who arrived in Assam after that date but before March 24, 1971.
  • Section 6A of the Citizenship Act was added as an amendment to accommodate the provisions of the Assam Accord. It establishes March 24, 1971, as the definitive cutoff date for entry into the state. Anyone entering Assam after this date is considered an "illegal immigrant."

Implications for Those Arriving Between 1966 and 1971

  • Individuals arriving in Assam on or after January 1, 1966, but before March 25, 1971, from Bangladesh would be identified as "foreigners."
  • They are granted the opportunity to register themselves based on rules established by the Central Government.
  • While excluded from electoral rolls, they are afforded the same rights and obligations as Indian citizens for 10 years from the date of being identified as foreigners.
  • After these ten years, they are to be recognized as citizens.

 

5. Legal Challenge to Section 6A

 

The challenge to Section 6A of the Citizenship Act revolves around its constitutional validity, primarily brought forth by the Assam Sanmilita Mahasangha (ASM), an organization championing the rights of "indigenous" communities in Assam. The central contention is that the establishment of a different cutoff date for Indian citizenship in Assam (1971) compared to the rest of India (July 1948) is deemed "discriminatory, arbitrary, and illegal." The petition argues that this provision violates the rights of indigenous Assamese people.

Key Arguments and Concerns

  • The plea calls for the establishment of 1951 as the cutoff date for inclusion in the National Register of Citizens (NRC) instead of 1971, aligning it with the rest of India. This move aims for uniformity in citizenship criteria.
  • ASM asserts that the application of Section 6A exclusively to Assam has resulted in a significant demographic shift, reducing the indigenous people of Assam to a minority in their own state. This demographic change is perceived as detrimental to the economic, political, and cultural well-being of the state.
  • ASM contends that the NRC process, guided by the cutoff date of Bangladesh's independence in 1971, has favoured a large number of Hindu and Muslim Bengalis and Nepalis who migrated from East Pakistan. This has allegedly resulted in the illegal occupation of lands belonging to indigenous tribes, impacting their cultural survival, political control, and employment opportunities.

 

6. Constitutional Issues Surrounding Section 6A of the Citizenship Act

 

The challenge to Section 6A raises several significant constitutional issues, which will be explored by the five-judge bench of the Supreme Court. These issues touch upon various fundamental rights and principles enshrined in the Indian Constitution.

  • Whether Section 6A, by establishing a different cut-off date for Assam than stipulated in Article 6 of the Constitution, violates Articles 10 and 11, which deal with the right to move freely and reside in any part of India.
  • This raises questions about whether this deviation requires a formal "variation" of Article 6 itself, or if it can be justified under existing legal provisions.
  • Does Section 6A dilute the political rights of the Assamese people by potentially altering the demographic balance through the naturalization of migrants? This involves interpreting Articles 325 and 326, which guarantee the right to vote and reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, respectively.
  • Does Section 6A violate the fundamental right of indigenous communities to conserve their culture, as enshrined in Article 29(1)? This brings up the scope of this fundamental right and its application in the context of a changing demographic landscape.
  • Does an influx of illegal immigration constitute "external aggression" or "internal disturbance" as defined in Article 355, which empowers the Union to protect states from such threats? This question delves into the interpretation of Article 355 and its relevance to the Assam situation.
  • Does Section 6A unfairly single out Assam by applying a different cut-off date than other border states, thereby violating the right to equality under Article 14? This necessitates evaluating the justification for such a distinction and its potential discriminatory effects.
  • Does the influx of immigrants, as facilitated by Section 6A, adversely affect the lives and personal liberty of Assamese citizens under Article 21? This examines the potential negative impact of immigration on various aspects of life and liberty in the state.
  • In granting relief under Article 32, should the court consider the delay in challenging Section 6A? This involves weighing the principle of timely justice against the complexity of the legal issues and potential consequences of delayed action.
  • After decades of migrant presence and naturalization, can any meaningful relief be granted without causing undue prejudice to individuals already integrated into society This raises questions about balancing legal principles with the realities of human lives and the potential for disruption caused by retroactive changes.
  • Does Section 6A violate the basic premise of the Citizenship Act by potentially allowing individuals to retain their citizenship in Bangladesh while becoming Indian citizens? This relates to the interpretation of Section 5 of the Act and its requirement for full renunciation of foreign citizenship.
  • Does Section 6A contravene the provisions of Section 5 by granting citizenship without requiring an oath of allegiance or ensuring reciprocity from Bangladesh? This involves evaluating the legal basis for these requirements and their potential application in the case of Section 6A.
  • Does the specific nature of the Immigrants (Expulsion from Assam) Act exclude the General Foreigners Act and its associated tribunals from dealing with migrant issues in Assam? This question focuses on the legal framework applicable to immigration within the state and its consistency with national laws.
  • Does Section 6A undermine the rule of law by prioritizing political considerations over legal principles? This raises concerns about the potential for political pressure to influence lawmaking and its impact on the balance of legal authority.
  • Does Section 6A violate Article 14 by failing to establish a clear and transparent mechanism for determining individuals' eligibility for citizenship based on their residency in Assam? This centres on the potential for arbitrary decision-making and its impact on the fundamental right to equality.
 
 

Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance.

Mains Examination: General Studies II- Polity

 

Previous Year Questions

1.  With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2012)
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only             B. 2 only           C. Both 1 and 2               D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
 
2. Barak Valley in Assam is famous for which among the following? (MSTET 2019)
A.  Bamboo Industry
B. Petroleum Production
C. Cottage Industries
D. Tea Cultivation
 
 
3. Which one of the following is an important crop of the Barak Valley? (Karnataka Civil Police Constable 2019)
A. Sugarcane           B.  Jute            C. Tea                    D. Cotton
 
 
4. Under Assam Accord of 1985, foreigners who had entered Assam before March 25, _____ were to be given citizenship.  (DSSSB JE & Section Officer 2022)
A. 1954           B. 1971         C.  1981           D. 1966
 
Answers: 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-B
 
 Source: The Indian Express
 

DEEPFAKES

1. Context

Despite widespread fears of an election cycle riddled with AI-generated dis/misinformation campaigns, the deepfake apocalypse did not come to India.

2. What are Deepfakes

  • Deepfake is a type of synthetic media in which a person in an already-existing video or image is replaced with another person. It manipulates the audio/video, which has the propensity to the device, using machine learning and artificial intelligence.
  • Due to the ease with which bogus news, celebrity pornographic content, etc. get shared online, it has drawn attention.
  • It makes a fake version of original or real audio-visual content by superimposing a new audio or image over an existing media file.
  • In September 2019, the AI company Deeptrance discovered 15,000 deep fakes videos online-nearly tripling in just nine months. A starting 96% of them were pornographic, and 99% of them matched the faces of famous women to porn actors.
  • Deepfakes can be used to damage reputation, fabricate evidence, defraud the public, and undermine trust in democratic institutions.
  • All this can be achieved with fewer resources, with scale and speed, and even microtargeted to galvanize support.
3. How did Deepfakes Work?
  • Deepfake content is created by using two competing AI algorithms- one is called the generator and the other is called the discriminator.
  • The discriminator is tasked with determining if the fake multimedia content produced by the generator is real and manufactured.
  • A generative adversarial network is created when the generator and discriminator work together (GAN). Every time the discriminator correctly recognizes the content as being fake, it gives the generator important insights into how to make the next deep fakes better.
  • The first step in establishing a GAN is to identify the desired output and create a training dataset for the generator.
  • Video clips can be supplied to the discriminator after the generator starts producing output at a level that is acceptable.
4. Who are the Victims?
  • The first case of malicious use of deep fake was detected in pornography. According to sensity.ai, 96% of deepfakes are pornographic videos, with over 135 million views on pornographic websites alone. Deepfake pornography exclusively targets women.
  • Pornographic deepfakes can threaten, intimidate, and inflict psychological harm. It reduces women to sexual objects causing emotional distress, and in some cases, leading to financial loss and collateral consequences like job loss.
  • Deepfake could act as a powerful tool by a malicious nation-state to undermine public safety and create uncertainty and chaos in the target country. Deepfake can undermine trust in institutions and diplomacy.
5. Challenges with Deepfake
  • Deepfake causes financial fraud, which poses problems for the entire financial system.
  • In the era of the threat of fake news, it also poses a threat to the security of cyber systems and the validity of online registration.
  • Deepfakes in phishing efforts would make it more challenging for people to recognize a hoax.
  • In any nation, deep fakes can be used to sabotage democratic procedures like elections.
  • The potential for harm to people, organizations, and societies is enormous since it can be used to generate phony pornographic videos and make politicians appear to say things they did not.
  • Any genuine evidence of a crime can be easily discounted as false because the public is so distrustful due to the prevalence of deep fakes.
  • Fake movies are likely to become more popular outside the world of celebrities as new technology enables unskilled people to create deep fakes with just a few images. This will feed the growth of revenge porn.
  • The use of fake identities and impostor frauds in cybercrime is rising.

6. What is the Solution?

  • Media literacy efforts must be enhanced to cultivate a discerning public. Media literacy for consumers is the most effective tool to combat disinformation and deep fakes.
  • We also need meaningful regulations with a collaborative discussion with the technology industry, Civil society, and policymakers to develop legislative solutions to disincentivize the creation and distribution of malicious deepfakes.
  • Social media platforms are taking cognizance of the deepfake issue, and almost all of them have some policy or acceptable terms of use for deepfakes.
  • We also need easy-to-use and accessible technology solutions to detect deepfakes, authenticate media, and amplify authoritative sources.

For Prelims & Mains

For Prelims: Artificial Intelligence (AI), Deepfake Technology,  and AI algorithms.
For Mains: 1. What are deepfakes and explain the challenges with deep-fake technology in the present technological world.
 
Source: The Hindu
 

LANDSLIDES

1. Context

At least six people were killed, five are missing and 1,500-odd tourists stranded as massive landslides triggered by incessant rainfall caused devastation in northern Sikkim’s Mangan district

2. Key Points

  • A new report looked at landslide-vulnerable regions in 17 states and two Union Territories of India in the Himalayas and Western Ghats.
  • Rajouri, Thrissur, Pulwama, Palakkad, Malappuram, South Sikkim, East Sikkim and Kozhikode in Kerala, Jammu Kashmir and Sikkim are other high-risk districts found in Landslide Atlas of India 2023.
  • Hyderabad-based National Remote Sensing Centre created the all-India database of nearly 80, 000 landslides that occurred from 1998 to 2022.
3. Landslides in India
  • The recent cases of land subsidence in Joshimath, Uttarakhand, captured the spotlight.
  • On June 29, 2022, at least 79 people were killed in a landslide in the Noney district of Manipur.
  • The risk analysis in the report was based on the density of human and livestock populations, which indicates the impacts on people due to these landslides.
  • The disaster in Kedaranath in 2013 and the landslides caused by the devastating Sikkim earthquake in 2011 are also included in this atlas.
Between 1988 and 2022, the maximum number of landslides 12, 385 recorded in Mizoram.
Uttarakhand followed it at 11, 219, Tripura at 8, 070, Arunachal Pradesh at 7, 689, and Jammu and Kashmir at 7,280. Kerala saw 6,039, Manipur 5,494 and Maharashtra recorded 5, 112 incidents of landslides.
 
  • Globally, landslides rank third in terms of deaths among natural disasters.
  • However, deforestation due to unplanned urbanisation and human greed increases the risk of such incidents.
  • In 2006, about 4 million people were affected by landslides, including a large number of Indians.
  • India is among the four major countries where the risk of landslides is the highest; it added. If we look at the figures, about 0.42 million square kilometres in the country are prone to landslides, which is 12.6 per cent of the total land area of the country.
  • However, the figure does not include snow-covered areas. Around 0.18 million sq km of landslide-prone areas in the country are in North East Himalayas, including Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas.
  • Of the rest, 0.14 million sq km falls in North West Himalaya (Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir); 90, 000 sq km in the Western Ghats and Konkan hills (Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Goa and Maharashtra) and 10, 000 sq km in Eastern Ghats of Aruku in Andhra Pradesh.

4. Reasons for landslides

  • Sudden heavy rains due to climate change are also increasing landslides. Around 73 per cent of landslides in the Himalayan region are attributed to heavy rains and reduced water-absorbing capacity of the soil.
  • Global climate change is causing heavy rainfall that erodes steep slopes with loose soil found in a 2020 study by the Indian Institute of Technology in Delhi.
  • Therefore, the increasing number of landslides can no longer be termed as just natural disasters, as human actions have also played a major role in it.
5. Data On Landslides
  • Uttakarkhand, Kerala, Jammu and Kashmir, Mizoram, Tripura, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh reported the highest number of landslides during 1998 – 2022
  • Mizoram topped the list, recording 12,385 landslide events in the past 25 years, of which 8,926 were recorded in 2017 alone
  • Likewise, 2,071 events of the total 2,132 landslides reported in Nagaland during this period occurred during the 2017 monsoon season
  • Manipur, too, showed a similar trend, wherein 4,559 out of 5,494 landslide events were experienced during the rainy season of 2017, Of the total 690, Tamil Nadu suffered 603 landslide events in 2018 alone
  • Among all these states, an alarming situation is emerging from Uttarakhand and Kerala
  • While Uttarakhand’s fragility was recently exposed during the land subsidence events reported from Joshimath since January, this Himalayan state has experienced the second highest number (11,219) of landslides since 1998, all events since occurring post 2000
  • The year-wise number of landslide events in the state is: 2003 (32), 2010 (307), 2012 (473), 2013 (6,610), 2017 (1), 2021 (329) and 2022 (1)
  • The number of districts with the maximum landslide exposure are in Arunachal Pradesh (16), Kerala (14), Uttarakhand and Jammu and Kashmir (13 each), Himachal Pradesh, Assam and Maharashtra (11 each), Mizoram (8) and Nagaland (7)
  • Kerala has been consistently reporting massive landslides since it suffered the century’s worst floods in 2018
  • The year-wise landslide events here are 2018 (5,191), 2019 (756), 2020 (9) and 2021 (29).
  • From the events and images obtained, the NRSC ranked Rudraprayag in Uttarakhand at the top of 147 vulnerable districts
  • It has the highest landslide density in the country, along with having the highest exposure to total population and number of houses

For Prelims & Mains

For Prelims: Landslides, climate change, ISRO, Disaster management, National Remote Sensing Centre, Landslide Atlas of India

Previous year questions

1. Which of the following statements in respect of landslides are correct? (NDA 2022)

1. These occur only on gentle slopes during rain.
2. They generally occur in clay-rich soil.
3. Earthquakes trigger landslides.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2         B. 2 and 3            C. 1 and 3              D. 1, 2 and 3

 Answer: (B)

For Mains:

1. Describe the various causes and the effects of landslides. Mention the important components of the National Landslide Risk Management Strategy. (250 words) (2021)

Source: The Down to Earth

UNLAWFUL ACTIVITIES (PREVENTION) ACT (UAPA)

 
 
 
1. Context
 
 
The invocation of stringent UAPA charges, 14 years after an FIR was first registered against author-activist Arundhati Roy and Dr Sheikh Showkat Hussain, former professor at the Central University of Kashmir, for allegedly “delivering provocative speeches in public,” allows the state to bypass the statute of limitation
 
2. About Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA)
 

The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) is an Indian law that was enacted in 1967 to effectively prevent unlawful activities that pose a threat to the sovereignty and integrity of India.

Key highlights of the UAPA

  • Objective: The primary objective of the UAPA is to provide law enforcement agencies with effective tools to combat terrorism and other activities that threaten the security of the nation.
  • Definition of Unlawful Activities: The act defines unlawful activities to include actions that intend to or support the cession of a part of the territory of India or disrupt the sovereignty and integrity of the country.
  • Powers of Designation: The government has the authority to designate an organization as a terrorist organization if it believes that such an organization is involved in terrorism. This designation has significant legal consequences, including the freezing of assets.
  • Powers of Arrest and Detention: The UAPA provides law enforcement agencies with powers of arrest and detention to prevent individuals from engaging in unlawful activities. The act allows for preventive detention to curb potential threats before they materialise.
  • Banning of Terrorist Organizations: The government can proscribe organizations as terrorist organizations, making their activities illegal. This includes banning these organisations, freezing their assets, and taking other measures to curb their operations.
  • Admissibility of Confessions: The UAPA allows for confessions made to police officers to be admissible in court, subject to certain safeguards. This provision has been a point of contention, with concerns about potential misuse and coercion.
  • Designation of Individuals as Terrorists: In addition to organizations, the UAPA allows the government to designate individuals as terrorists. This designation carries legal consequences, including restrictions on travel and freezing of assets.
  • Amendments and Stringency: Over the years, the UAPA has undergone several amendments to strengthen its provisions and make it more effective in dealing with emerging threats. However, these amendments have also been criticized for potential violations of civil liberties.
  • International Cooperation: The UAPA allows for cooperation with foreign countries in matters related to the prevention of unlawful activities. This includes extradition of individuals involved in such activities.
 

3. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and Human Rights

 

The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and human rights lie in the impact the act can have on various fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India and international human rights standards.

The key points connecting the UAPA and human rights:

  • The UAPA allows for preventive detention, which means individuals can be detained without formal charges based on suspicions of involvement in unlawful activities. This raises concerns about the right to liberty, as individuals may be deprived of their freedom without the presumption of innocence until proven guilty.
  • The admissibility of confessions made to police officers under the UAPA raises issues related to the right against self-incrimination. There is a risk that such confessions might be obtained under duress or coercion, compromising the fairness of legal proceedings.
  • Designating individuals as terrorists and proscribing organizations without due process may impinge on the right to a fair trial. This includes the right to be informed of charges, the right to legal representation, and the right to present a defense.
  • The UAPA provides authorities with the power to proscribe organizations as terrorist organizations, limiting their activities. Critics argue that this may infringe upon the right to freedom of association, particularly when such designations are made without sufficient evidence or proper legal procedures.
  • The potential for misuse of the UAPA to target individuals or organizations critical of the government raises concerns about freedom of expression. If the act is used to suppress dissent or stifle legitimate political or social activities, it can undermine this fundamental right.
  • The UAPA grants authorities the power to intercept communications and conduct surveillance on individuals suspected of engaging in unlawful activities. This raises concerns about the right to privacy, as individuals may be subjected to intrusive surveillance without adequate safeguards.
  • Human rights standards require that any restrictions on rights, such as those imposed by the UAPA, must be proportionate and necessary for achieving a legitimate aim. Critics argue that the broad scope of the UAPA may lead to disproportionate measures that unduly restrict individual rights.
  • The UAPA's compatibility with international human rights standards, including the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR), is a critical point of consideration. Ensuring that the act aligns with these standards is essential to upholding human rights principles.
 

4. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and Article 22 of the Constitution

 

The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and Article 22 of the Indian Constitution lie in how the UAPA's provisions for arrest and detention intersect with the constitutional safeguards provided under Article 22. 

  • Article 22 provides certain protections to individuals who are arrested or detained. It outlines the rights of arrested individuals, emphasizing safeguards to prevent arbitrary or unlawful detention.
  • Article 22(1) states that every person who is arrested and detained shall be informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest. This provision ensures that individuals are aware of the reasons behind their arrest, preventing arbitrary or secret detentions.
  • Article 22(1) also guarantees the right of an arrested person to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of their choice. This ensures that individuals have access to legal assistance during the legal process, contributing to a fair and just legal system.
  • The UAPA includes provisions for preventive detention, allowing authorities to detain individuals to prevent them from committing certain offences. However, Article 22(4) allows preventive detention only under specific circumstances, and certain safeguards must be followed, such as providing the detenu with the grounds for detention and an opportunity to make a representation against the detention.
  • Article 22(4) further mandates that a person detained under a law providing for preventive detention must be afforded the earliest opportunity to make a representation against the detention. Additionally, the case of every person detained is required to be placed before an advisory board within three months.
  • The UAPA allows for confessions made to police officers to be admissible in court, subject to certain safeguards. However, this provision has been a point of concern concerning Article 22, as confessions obtained under duress or coercion may violate the right against self-incrimination.
  • Article 22(2) ensures the right to be brought before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours of arrest, excluding the time necessary for the journey. This provision aims to prevent prolonged detention without judicial oversight and contributes to the right to a speedy trial.
 
 
For Prelims: Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, Article 22, Terrorism
For Mains: 
1. Discuss the key provisions of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) and analyze how they may impact fundamental human rights. Elaborate on the balance between national security concerns and the protection of individual rights. (250 Words)

 

Previous Year Questions

1. Under Article 22 of the Constitution of India, with the exception of certain provisions stated there in, what is the maximum period for detention of a person under preventive detention? (MPSC 2014)

A. 2 months       B. 3 months         C. 4 months           D. 6 months

 

2. Article 22 of the Constitution ensures (CTET 2016)

A. Right not to be ill-treated during arrest or while in custody

B. Right to Constitutional Remedies

C. Right against Exploitation

D. Right to Education

Answers: 1-B, 2-A

Mains

1. Indian government has recently strengthed the anti-terrorism laws by amending the Unlawful Activities(Prevention) Act, (UAPA), 1967 and the NIA Act. Analyze the changes in the context of prevailing security environment while discussing scope and reasons for opposing the UAPA by human rights organizations. (UPSC 2019)

Source: The Indian Express

 


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