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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 08 MARCH 2024

ROLE OF GOVERNOR IN PUBLIC UNIVERSITIES

 

1. Context

Kerala Governor Arif Mohammed Khan as Chancellor of universities on Thursday invalidated the appointments of the Vice-Chancellors of Calicut University and Sree Sankaracharya University of Sanskrit M.K. Jayaraj and M.V. Narayanan respectively.
 

2. What is the role of the Chancellor in public universities? 

  • State public universities are established through laws passed by state legislatures. In most laws, the Governor has been designated as the chancellor of these universities.
  • The chancellor functions as the head of public universities and appoints the Vice-Chancellor of the university. Further, the Chancellor can declare invalid, any university proceeding which is not as per existing laws.
  • In some states such as Bihar, Gujarat, and Jharkhand the Chancellor has the power to conduct inspections in the university. The chancellor also presides over the convocation of the university and confirms proposals for conferring honorary degrees. This is different in Telangana, where the Chancellor is appointed by the state government.
  • The Chancellor presides over the meetings of various university bodies (such as the court/senate of the university). The court/senate decides on matters of general policy related to the development of the university, such as: (i) establishing new university departments, (ii) conferring and withdrawing degrees and titles, and (iii) instituting fellowships.
  • The West Bengal University Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2022 designates the Chief Minister of West Bengal as the Chancellor of the 31 public universities in the state.
  • Further, the Chief Minister (instead of the Governor) will be the head of these universities and preside over the meetings of University bodies (Such as the Court/Senate).

3. Does the Governor have discretion in his capacity as Chancellor?

  • The Sarkaria and Puunchi Commission also dealt with the role of the Governor in educational institutions. Both Commissions concurred that while discharging statutory functions, the Governor is not legally bounded by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
  • However, it may be advantageous for the Governor to consult the concerned Minister.
  • The Sarkaria Commission recommended that state legislatures should avoid conferring statutory powers on the Governor, which were not envisaged by the constitution.
  • The Puunchi Commission observed that the role of the Governor as the Chancellor may expose the office to controversies or public criticism. Hence, the role of the governor should be restricted to constitutional provisions only.

4. Recent Developments

  • Recently, some states have taken steps to reduce the oversight of the Governor in-state public universities.
  • In April 2022, the Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly passed two Bills, to transfer the power of appointing the Vice-Chancellor (in public universities) from the Governor, to the state Government. As of June 8, 2022, these bills have not received the Governor's assent.
  • In 2021, Maharastra amended the process to appoint the Vice Chancellor of state public universities. Before the amendment, a search Committee forwarded a panel of a least five names to the Chancellor (who is the Governor).
  • The Chancellor could then appoint one of the persons from the suggested panel as Vice-Chancellor, or ask for a fresh panel of names to be recommended.
  • The 2021 amendment mandated the search Committee to first forward the panel names to the state government which would recommend a panel of two names (from the original panel) to the Chancellor.
  • The Chancellor must appoint one of the two names from the panel as Vice-Chancellor within thirty days.
  • As per the amendment, the Chancellor has no option of asking for a fresh panel of names to be recommended.
  • The Chancellor must appoint one of the two names from the panel as Vice-Chancellor within thirty days.  As per the amendment, the Chancellor has no option of asking for a fresh panel of names to be recommended.

For Prelims & Mains

For Prelims: Governor, Sarkaria Commission, Puunchi Commission, Vice-Chancellor.
For Mains: 1. Explain the role of the Chancellor (Governor) in public universities in light of recent developments that took place in Tamil Nadu and Maharastra.
 
Source: PSR
 

HUMAN AND ANIMAL CONFLICT

 
 
 
1. Context
 
The increased area under cultivation, changing cropping patterns, significant increase in the population of animals due to conservation efforts, and movement of livestock and humans in wildlife habitats during odd hours are the main reasons for the rise in human-wildlife conflict incidents
An elephant attacks a resident in a field in Burdwan district of West Bengal | AFP/Getty Images
 
2. What is a Human and Animal Conflict?
 

Human-animal conflict refers to the interactions and conflicts that arise between humans and wildlife when their interests and activities overlap. This conflict often occurs when human activities and development encroach upon natural habitats, leading to increased contact and competition for resources between humans and animals. The consequences of human-animal conflict can be detrimental to both parties and may include economic losses, damage to property, injury, and loss of life for both humans and animals.

Common scenarios of human-animal conflict include:

  • Crop Raiding: Wild animals may enter agricultural fields and damage crops, leading to economic losses for farmers.

  • Livestock Predation: Predatory animals may attack and kill domesticated animals, such as cattle, sheep, or poultry, causing financial losses for livestock farmers.

  • Urban Encroachment: As human populations expand and urban areas expand into natural habitats, animals may find themselves in close proximity to human settlements, leading to conflicts over space and resources.

  • Road Accidents: Animals crossing roads, especially in areas near forests or wildlife habitats, can lead to collisions with vehicles, resulting in injuries or fatalities for both humans and animals.

  • Attacks on Humans: In some cases, wild animals may perceive humans as a threat and may attack, leading to injuries or fatalities.

  • Conservation Challenges: Human-animal conflict can pose challenges for wildlife conservation efforts, as negative interactions with humans may lead to retaliation against wildlife, posing a threat to endangered species

3. What are the reasons for the increase in human-wildlife conflict?
 

Experts attribute the surge in incidents of human-wildlife conflict to various factors, including the expansion of cultivated areas around wildlife habitats, alterations in cropping patterns, a notable rise in the populations of animals like elephants and tigers resulting from conservation initiatives, and the movement of livestock and humans into wildlife habitats during unconventional hours. Additionally, there has been a significant upturn in the populations of prolific breeders such as wild boars and peacocks.

Notably, the increased frequency of conflicts involving elephants is primarily attributed to habitat depletion and fragmentation caused by human activities. Furthermore, the invasion of alien species has diminished the availability of food and water, while the cultivation of monoculture species like eucalyptus and acacia has adversely impacted plant biodiversity

4. Kerala State vs Human and Animal Conflict

  • Approximately 30% of Kerala's land area is covered by forests. Given the relatively small size of the state, with an average width of approximately 70 km and a population exceeding 3.46 crore, numerous densely populated human settlements are situated in close proximity to protected forest regions.
  • Additionally, many agricultural plantations are located near wildlife habitats, particularly in hilly areas, including the heavily forested eastern part of the state. While this geographical arrangement inevitably results in human-animal conflict, Kerala has experienced a notable surge in such incidents in recent years.
  • Residents living near the fringes of forests have suffered substantial financial losses to their livelihoods, primarily due to frequent raids by elephants and wild boars. Since 2015, over 600 people in Kerala have lost their lives in conflicts with animals.
  • This has triggered protests among affected villagers, some of which have escalated into open confrontations between protesters and officials from the State Forest department
  • According to a study conducted by the State Forest department, Kerala experienced human-wildlife conflicts in 1,004 areas.
  • The study documented more than 48,000 incidents of crop damage from 2013-14 to 2018-19. Among the 35 forest and wildlife divisions in the state, Nilambur north (94), Wayanad south (92), and Wayanad north (70) forest ranges reported the highest numbers of major conflict locations.
  • The State recorded the highest number of incidents involving wild elephants, accounting for 14,611 occurrences between 2013-14 and 2018-19. Other contributors to these incidents include wild boars (5,518), bonnet macaques (4,405), and snakes (2,531).
  • Elephants, bonnet macaques, and wild boars have caused significant damage to farmers living in forest fringe areas. Herbivores like sambar, spotted deer, and gaur have also played a considerable role in crop damage.
  • The study reported a total of 814 livestock animals, including cattle, buffalo, and goats, being killed or injured in such attacks, with tigers preying on 420 of these animals
5.What are the reasons for the increase in human-wildlife conflict?
 
  • Experts attribute the escalation in human-wildlife conflict incidents to several factors, including the expansion of cultivated areas surrounding wildlife habitats, alterations in cropping patterns, a notable rise in the populations of animals like elephants and tigers resulting from conservation efforts, and the movement of livestock and humans into wildlife habitats during unconventional hours.
  • Additionally, there has been a significant upturn in the populations of prolific breeders such as wild boars and peacocks.
  • However, the increased frequency of conflicts involving elephants can be traced to habitat depletion and fragmentation caused by human activities. Furthermore, the presence of invasive alien species has diminished the availability of food and water. The cultivation of monoculture species like eucalyptus and acacia has also had adverse effects on plant biodiversity
6.What are the proposed solutions and why are they not effective?
 
  • Elephant-resistant trenches and solar-powered fences are commonly employed in Kerala and are generally deemed effective, provided they receive proper maintenance. However, there are several areas where these protective measures have not been implemented.
  • Additionally, nearby residents often break these fences to allow their cattle to graze in the forests, and elephants themselves may damage the fences using their legs and tusks.
  • In a master plan costing ₹620 crores to address this issue, the Forest department proposes the installation of elevated power fences that are beyond the reach of elephants.
  • Furthermore, as part of the State government's new eco-restoration policy, the Forest department aims to plant suitable indigenous vegetation (wild mango, wild gooseberry, and wild jackfruit) in the forests to ensure food security for wild animals and discourage them from entering agricultural lands.
  • Complementary measures include establishing early warning systems that utilize drones and human observers to track the movement of elephants and other dangerous animals, allowing people to avoid areas where they have been spotted. However, the widespread implementation of such warning mechanisms is lacking in Kerala.
  • On the contrary, these measures are not effective against wild boars. Despite Kerala's request to declare wild boars as vermin still pending with the Centre, the State government has recently granted local bodies the authority to cull wild boars that pose threats to agricultural crops or human life.
  • Other alternatives include capturing and neutering the boars or relocating them to forests where predators like tigers and leopards are present
7.How is human-animal conflict connected to the ESZ norm?
 

Human-animal conflict is connected to the concept of Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZ) norms through the need to establish buffer areas around protected areas, wildlife habitats, and other ecologically sensitive zones. ESZ norms are guidelines and regulations aimed at minimizing human disturbances and activities that could negatively impact biodiversity and ecosystems in designated areas. These zones are established to create a buffer between human settlements and wildlife habitats, reducing the chances of conflict between humans and animals.

Here's how human-animal conflict is connected to ESZ norms:

  • Buffer Zones: ESZ norms often define buffer zones around national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and other ecologically sensitive areas. These buffer zones act as a transitional space to mitigate the impacts of human activities on wildlife and vice versa.

  • Land Use Planning: ESZ norms include regulations related to land use planning around protected areas. By controlling and guiding developmental activities in these zones, there is an attempt to minimize disturbances to wildlife and their habitats, consequently reducing the likelihood of conflict.

  • Wildlife Corridors: ESZ norms may address the creation and preservation of wildlife corridors, which are crucial for the movement of animals between different habitats. Ensuring the connectivity of habitats helps in preventing isolated populations, which can lead to increased interactions and conflicts with humans.

  • Conservation Measures: ESZ norms may include measures to conserve and restore natural habitats. By maintaining the integrity of these habitats, the likelihood of wildlife straying into human-dominated landscapes in search of food or suitable habitat is reduced.

  • Community Engagement: Some ESZ norms encourage community engagement and participation in conservation efforts. Involving local communities in wildlife conservation can lead to better understanding and cooperation, reducing conflicts by promoting coexistence

 

Previous Year Questions
 

1.Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC): (UPSC CSE 2017)

  1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

 
Source: The Hindu
 

DIRECTORATE OF ENFORCEMENT (ED)

1. Context

A Rouse Avenue Court on Thursday issued summons to Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal to physically appear before the court on March 16 following a fresh complaint by the Enforcement Directorate (ED) against him for not complying with its summons in the alleged Delhi excise policy scam

2. About the Directorate of Enforcement 

The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is a law enforcement agency in India that operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. It is responsible for enforcing economic laws and fighting financial crimes in the country. The primary objective of the Directorate of Enforcement is to enforce the provisions of two major laws:

  • Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA): This law deals with foreign exchange and foreign trade in India. The ED ensures compliance with FEMA regulations and investigates violations related to foreign exchange transactions.

  • Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA): The ED is also responsible for implementing the provisions of the PMLA, which focuses on preventing money laundering and combating the financing of terrorism. It investigates cases related to money laundering and takes appropriate action against those involved.

The Directorate of Enforcement plays a crucial role in maintaining the economic stability of the country by addressing financial offenses and ensuring compliance with relevant laws. It conducts investigations, searches, and seizures, and has the authority to attach and confiscate properties acquired through illegal means

3. Establishment and History

  • The Directorate of Enforcement was established on 1st May 1956, as the "Enforcement Unit" within the Department of Economic Affairs.
  • Its primary focus was on preventing and detecting violations of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) of 1947.
  • Over the years, the agency's role expanded, and in 1999, the Enforcement Directorate was established as a separate entity under the Ministry of Finance.
  • The enactment of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) in 2002 further broadened its jurisdiction, giving it the power to investigate cases related to money laundering.
  • Since its establishment, the ED has played a crucial role in combating economic offences and ensuring compliance with economic laws in India.
  • It has been involved in several high-profile cases, including those related to financial scams, money laundering by influential individuals, and cross-border financial crimes.
  • The ED collaborates with various domestic and international agencies, including financial intelligence units, law enforcement agencies, and Interpol, to gather information, share intelligence, and effectively coordinate efforts to combat economic offences.

4. Functions and Roles of ED

4.1. Enforcing Economic Laws

  • The primary function of the ED is to enforce two key economic laws in India: the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) and the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA).
  • It ensures compliance with these laws and investigates money laundering, foreign exchange violations, and economic fraud cases.

4.2. Money Laundering Investigations

  • The ED investigates cases involving money laundering, which is the process of concealing the origins of illegally obtained money to make it appear legitimate.
  • It identifies and seizes properties and assets derived from illicit activities and prevents their further use.

4.3. Foreign Exchange Violations

  •  The ED is responsible for investigating cases related to violations of foreign exchange laws and regulations.
  • It monitors and controls foreign exchange transactions to maintain the stability of the Indian rupee and prevent illegal activities such as smuggling and illegal money transfers.

4.4 Financial Frauds

  • The ED also investigates and takes action against financial frauds, including bank frauds, Ponzi schemes, and other fraudulent activities affecting the Indian financial system.
  • It works closely with other law enforcement agencies, such as the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), to tackle complex financial crimes.

5.  Challenges

5.1. The complexity of economic crimes.

  • Economic crimes are often complex and involve a variety of financial transactions.
  • This can make it difficult for the ED to trace the proceeds of crime and to build a case against the perpetrators.

5.2. The difficulty of tracing the proceeds of crime

  • The proceeds of crime are often hidden in complex financial structures, making it difficult for the ED to track them down.
  • The ED also faces challenges in obtaining information from foreign jurisdictions, where the proceeds of crime may have been transferred.

5.3. The lack of international cooperation

  • Economic crime is often transnational, making it difficult for the ED to cooperate with foreign law enforcement agencies.
  • This is due to differences in legal systems, as well as political and economic considerations.

5.4. Political interference

  • The ED has been accused of being used as a political tool by the ruling party to target its opponents and critics.
  • This has raised questions about the independence and impartiality of the ED.

5.5. Lack of transparency

  • The ED has been criticized for its lack of transparency.
  • The agency does not publish its annual reports, and it is difficult to obtain information about its investigations.
  • This has made it difficult for the public to hold the ED accountable.

5.6. Human rights violations

  •  The ED has been accused of violating the human rights of those it investigates.
  • The agency has been accused of using coercive tactics, such as prolonged detention and interrogation, to extract confessions from suspects.

5.7. The limited resources

  • The ED is a relatively small agency with limited resources.
  • This can make it difficult for the ED to investigate complex economic crimes and prosecute the perpetrators.

6. Conclusion

  • The Directorate of Enforcement in India plays a crucial role in enforcing economic laws, preventing money laundering, and combating financial crimes.
  • With its specialized expertise, investigative capabilities, and coordination with domestic and international partners, the ED contributes to the integrity of the financial system, national security, and the country's overall socio-economic development.
For Prelims: Directorate of Enforcement, Financial Action Task Force, Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), Supreme Court, Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) of 1947, Central Bureau of Investigation, 
For Mains: 
1. Discuss the establishment and evolution of the Directorate of Enforcement in India. Explain its key functions and roles in combating economic offences. (250 Words)
 
 

Previous Year Questions

1. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Directorate of Enforcement ? (CDS  2021)
A. It is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
B. It enforces the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
C. It enforces the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
D. It enforces the Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988.
 
Answer: D
 
2. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 become effective since which one of the following dates? (UKPSC RO/ARO 2012)
 
A. July 2002          B. August 2003        C. July 2004         D. July 2005
 
Answer: D
 
3. FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act) was finally implemented in the year (UPPSC  2013)
A. 1991         B. 1997         C. 2000             D. 2007
 
Answer: C
 
4. The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act was replaced by the ______ in India. (SSC Steno 2020) 
A. Foreign Exchange Currency Act
B. Foreign Exchange Finances Act
C. Foreign Exchange Funds Act
D. Foreign Exchange Management Act
 
Answer: D
 
5. "Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation" is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. (SSC CGL 2017) 
A. Union             B. State             C. Global          D. Concurrent
 
Answer: A
 
Source: The Indian Express
 

REPRESENTATION OF PEOPLE ACT 1951

1. Context

The Election Commission of India has approached the Union government proposing amendments to the Representation of the People Act, 1950.

2. Background

  • The Constitution allows Parliament to make provisions in all matters relating to elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures.
  • After independence, there was a need to hold general elections to elect a truly representative government based on universal adult suffrage.
  • Article 325 of the constitution ensures universal suffrage and provides that no person be ineligible for inclusion in or to claim to be included in a special, electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex.
  • In the exercise of this power, the Parliament has enacted laws like Representation of the People Act 1950 (RPA Act 1950), and Representation of the People Act 1951 (RPA Act 1951).

3. The Representation of the People Act, 1951

  • It is an act of Parliament of India to provide for the conduct of election of the Houses of Parliament and to the House or Houses of the Legislature of each state, the qualifications and disqualifications for membership of those Houses, the corrupt practices and other offences at or in connection with such elections and the decision of doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with such elections.
  • It was introduced in Parliament by Law Minister Dr B.R. Ambedkar. The Act was enacted by the provisional parliament under Article 327 of the Indian Constitution, before the first general election.

3.1. Key provisions of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951

  • It regulates the actual conduct of elections and by-elections in the country.
  • It provides administrative machinery for conducting elections.
  • It deals with the registration of political parties.
  • It specifies the qualifications and disqualifications for membership of the Houses.
  • It provides Provisions to curb corrupt practices and other offences.
  • It lays down the procedure for settling doubts and disputes arising out of elections.

3.2. Qualifications for Contesting Elections in India

  • A person must be an elector in the constituency
  • The Minimum age for becoming MLA/MP (Lok Sabha) is 25 years.
  • The person must be a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe in any State/UT if he/she wants to contest a seat reserved for them.
  • The Minimum age limit for contesting elections at the Panchayat and Municipality levels is 21 years.
  • A person shall not be qualified to be chosen as a representative of any state or Union territory in the Rajya Sabha unless he/she is an elector for a Parliamentary constituency.

3.3. Disqualification of MPs and MLAs

The RPA, 1951 lays down certain rules for the disqualification of MPs and MLAs.

Section 8 (1) A person convicted of an offence punishable under certain acts of the Indian Penal Code, Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955, Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act 1967, Prevention of Corruption Act 1988, Prevention of Terrorism Act 2002 etc, shall be disqualified, where the convicted person is sentenced to
(i) Only fine, for six years from the date of such conviction
(ii) Imprisonment from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for six years since his release.
 
Section 8 (2) A Person convicted for the contravention of
(a) Any law providing for the prevention of hoarding or profiteering; or
(b)Any law relating to the adulteration of food or drugs or
(c) Any provisions of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961.
 
Section 8(3) of the Act states that if an MP or MLA is convicted of any other crime and is sent to jail for 2 years or more. He/she will be disqualified for 6 years from the time of release. Even if a person is on bail after the conviction and his appeal is pending disposal, he/she is disqualified from contesting an election.
 
Section 8 (4) allowed convicted MPs, MLAs and MLCs to continue in their posts, provided they appealed against their conviction/sentence in higher courts within 3 months of the date of judgment by the trial court. The Supreme Court in July 2013 struck down section 8 (4) of the RPA, 1951 and declared it ultra vires and held that the disqualification takes place from the date of conviction.

3.4. Voting Rights

Article 326 of the Constitution guarantees the right to vote to every citizen above the age of 18 years unless disqualified by any law. Section 62 of the RPA, 1951 also ensures that every person who is in the electoral roll of that constituency is entitled to vote.

  • One can vote in one constituency only and only for one time in a particular election.
  • If a person is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or transportation, then he is not eligible for voting, however, in the case of preventive custody he can vote.
  • The Election Commission of India (ECI) had said that the person under preventive custody had the right to vote, but not under trials and convicts.
  • The Act allows those serving sentences of less than 2 years to contest election from prison.

3.5. Provisions Related to Political Parties

  • Every association or body to become a political party must be registered with the ECI whose registration decision will be final.
  • Registered Political Parties, over time, can get recognition as “State Part” or National Party”.
  • Change in name and address of a registered political party must be communicated to the ECI.
  • The ECI cannot derecognise a party
  • Voluntary Contributions by any person or company within India (other than a government company) can be accepted by the registered political party.
  • A company can donate any amount of money to any political party.
  • There is no obligation of the company to report such donations in its profit and loss account.
  • It is mandatory for the political parties to submit to the ECI a list of donations they received above Rs. 2, 000.
  • Political parties cannot receive more than Rs 2000 as cash donations.
  • Now, Political parties are eligible to accept contributions from foreign companies defined under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010.
  • Individuals contesting elections have to file an affidavit, declaring their criminal records, assets and liabilities and educational qualification.
  • After getting elected, MPs are required to file a declaration of assets and liabilities with the Speaker of Lok Sabha and the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
  • These declarations have to be made by MPs within 90 days of taking their seats in Parliament.
  • Candidates need to furnish information on whether he/she is accused of any offence punishable with imprisonment of 2 years or more in a pending case or has been convicted of an offence.
  • Any class of person can be notified by the ECI in consultation with the concerned government which can give their votes by postal ballot.
  • At every election where a poll is taken, the votes are counted by or under the supervision of the Returning Officer and contesting candidate, his election agent and his counting agents.
  • Destruction, loss, damage or tampering of ballot papers at the time of counting must be reported by the RO to the ECI.
  • All government or non-government officials are included within the scope of corrupt practices.
  •  Any gift/offer/ promise or gratification to any person as motive or reward.
  • Any direct or indirect interference attempt to interfere on the part of the candidate with the free exercise of any electoral right.
  • The publication by a candidate of any statement of fact that is false about the personal character/ conduct of any candidate
  • The hiring of any vehicle by a candidate of any elector to or from any polling station
  • Any person who promotes or attempts to promote on grounds of religion, race, caste, community or language, feelings of enmity or hatred between different classes of citizens of India can be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to 3 years.
  • Prohibition of public meetings during 48 hours ending with the hour fixed for the conclusion of the poll.

3.6. Significance of the Acts

  • The Provision of direct election for every constituency makes the process of election more democratic and participatory by encouraging and empowering people to play an active role in choosing appropriate candidates.
  • The RPA, 1950 provides for delimitation which brings equality in the process of election by ensuring roughly an equal number of electors in each constituency.
  • The acts strengthened the federal polity of the country by giving due representation to each state in the Parliament.
  • The RPA, 1951 plays a significant role in breaking the politicians, police and criminal nexus by prohibiting the entry of persons with a criminal background into the electoral process.
  • The RPA, 1951 provides for the expenditure monitoring mechanism which ensures the accountability and transparency of the candidate in the use of public funds or misuse of power for personal benefits.
  • The RPA, 1951 prohibits corrupt practices like booth capturing, bribery or promoting enmity etc., and ensures the conduct of free and fair elections which in turn encourage political liberalization and democratization.
  • The RPA, 1951 provides that only those political parties which are registered under section 29A of the RPA, 1951 are eligible to receive electoral bonds, thus providing a mechanism to track the source of political funding and ensuring transparency in electoral funding.

3.7. Amendments to the Act

None of the above was introduced in the ballot papers/Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in the General Election to the State Assemblies in 2013.

  • Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail is an independent system attached to the EVMs that allows voters to verify that their votes are cast as intended.
  • It was introduced in 2013 after the Supreme Court allowed the ECI the requirement of free and fair elections in its verdict in the People’s Union for Civil Liberties vs. Union of India case (2013).
  • The displaying of any election matter by television or similar apparatus in a constituency, 48 before the polling ends or concludes is prohibited.
  • Section 126 does not apply to Print media, news portals and social media.
  • Section 126A prohibits the conduct of exit polls and dissemination of their results during the period mentioned.
  • A candidate contesting polls in large states can spend up to Rs 70 lakh in the Lok Sabha election and Rs. 28 lakh in an Assembly election.
  • Section 8 (4) allowed convicted MPs, and MLAs to stand for elections by filing a complaint that was repealed. It is a step towards decriminalising politics.
  • Insertion of Section 62 (2), which allowed a person post detention to contest elections as he no longer ceased to be an elector as his name is included in the electoral roll.
  • The recent amendments included Section 20A of RPA, which now allows NRI to vote from their current residence via the postal ballot system.

3.8. Challenges to the Act

  • Even after the provision of the declaration of assets and liabilities in the RPA Act, candidates do not disclose all the assets and provide wrong and incomplete information regarding their assets, liabilities income and educational qualifications.
  • Despite the inclusion of several provisions aimed at making the ECI an independent body, it is still dependent on the Union for financial matters that pave the way for political parties to manage to get the officers in their favour through money and muscle power.
  • The ECI does not have an independent staff of its own so whenever elections take place, it has to depend upon the staff of Central and State Governments hence the dual responsibility of the administrative staff, to the government for ordinary administration and to the ECI for electoral administration is not conducive to the impartial and efficient functioning of the Commission.
  • The RPAs lack clear provisions and guidelines on matters related to the misuse of official machinery that gives an unfair advantage to the ruling party at the time of elections and leads to the misuse of public funds for furthering the prospects of candidates of a particular party.

4. The Way Forward

  • By an amendment made to the RPA 1951, conducting and publishing results of exit polls have been prohibited. There should be a similar prohibition or restriction on opinion polls as several manipulated opinion polls could impact the voting pattern.
  • The RPA, 1951 should be amended to include all the items related to the election disclosure in the affidavit and making false declarations in connection with the election to be an offence.
  • TO curb the practice of bureaucratization of politics and to secure complete independence of the Election Commission, its expenditure should be charged to the Consolidated Fund of India.
  • Parliament must pass a law dealing with the serious problem of delisting valid electors from electoral rolls because illiterate electorate residing in far villages cannot watch over the publication of electorate lists.
 
For Prelims: Indian Polity and Governance-Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.
For Mains: General Studies II: Parliament and State legislatures structure, functioning, conduct of business, powers & privileges and issues arising out of these.
1. Discuss the significance of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, in ensuring the decriminalization of politics. Evaluate the effectiveness of the Act in preventing individuals with a criminal background from entering the electoral process. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. According to the Representation of the People Act, 1951, in the event of a person being elected to both houses of Parliament, he has to notify within ______ days in which house he intends to function. (Delhi Police Constable 2020) 
A. 22       B. 10        C.  20            D. 15
 
Answer: B
 
2. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 extends to (MPPSC 2018)
A. whole of India       
B. whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
C. Union Territories
D. only the- State of Jammu and Kashmir
Answer: A
 
3. Under the Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955, all offences are (MPPSC 2013)
A. Cognizable   B. Bailable   C. Compoundable   D.Punishment with imprisonment and fine both
Answer: A
 
4. The right to vote is in which article of the Indian Constitution? (Bihar Forest Guard 2019)
A. Article 322        B. Article 324      C. Article 326         D. Article 330
 
Answer: C
 
5. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a (UPSC 2017)
A. Fundamental Right     B.  Natural Right   C. Constitutional Right      D. Legal Right
 
Answer: C
 

6. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)

  1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
  2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
  3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only           (b) 2 only              (c) 2 and 3 only                (d) 3 only

Answer: D

7. The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) system was used for the first time by the Election Commission of India in (UPSC CAPF 2019) 

A. North Paravur Assembly Constituency, Kerala
B. Noksen Assembly Constituency, Nagaland
C. Mapusa Assembly Constituency, Goa
D. Nambol Assembly Constituency, Manipur

Answer: B

8. In which of the following options, Electronic Voting Machines were used for the first time during general elections all over India? (Rajasthan Police Constable 2020)

A. 2014      B. 1999         C. 2004        D. 2009

Answer: C

9. Which one of the following statements about 'personal liberty' is not correct? (UPSC CAPF 2021) 
A. State does not have the authority to deprive any person within the territory of India of his/her personal liberty without any rational basis.
B. Basis of depriving a person of his/her personal liberty must be in accordance with procedures established by law.
C. Personal liberty can be secured by the judicial writ of Habeas Corpus.
D. The majority view of the Supreme Court in A. K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras case invented 'due process of law'.
 
Answer: D

10. Consider the following statements about Electoral Bond Scheme 2018: (RPSC RAS 2018)

(A) The aim of this scheme is to bring about transparency in the funding process of political parties.
(B) Only the political parties recognized by the Election Commission which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of People or the Legislative Assembly of the State shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.
(C) Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue.
(D) The Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible political party in its account shall be credited on the same day.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. Only (A) and (B)             B. (A), (B), (C) and (D)   

C. Only (B), (C) and (D)       D. Only (A), (C) and (D)

Answer: B

Mains

1. Discuss the role of the Election Commission of India in the light of the evolution of the Model Code of Conduct. (UPSC 2022)

 
Source: The Indian Express and PRS Legislative
 

INS JATAYU 

 
 
 
1. Context
 

Navy Chief Admiral R Hari Kumar  compared INS Jatayu — the new naval base at the Minicoy Island of Lakshadweep — to the mythical character Jatayu in Ramayan, saying that naming the base on him is a recognition of the spirit of providing security, surveillance and selfless service

 
 
2. About INS Jatayu

INS Jatayu is a naval base being established on Minicoy Island, Lakshadweep, India. It will be an upgrade of the existing Naval Detachment Minicoy, which currently functions under the operational command of the Naval Officer-in-Charge (Lakshadweep).

Significance

  • INS Jatayu marks a crucial step in India's efforts to fortify its security presence in the strategically important Lakshadweep Islands.
  • The base will improve the Navy's operational reach and capacity in the region, allowing it better to address threats and challenges like piracy and narcotics trafficking.
  • The establishment of the base is aligned with the government's focus on the comprehensive development of the Lakshadweep Islands.

3. The Strategic Significance of the Lakshadweep Islands

  • Lakshadweep, derived from Sanskrit and Malayalam meaning 'a hundred thousand islands', comprises 36 islands situated between 220 km and 440 km from Kochi.
  • Among these islands, only 11 are inhabited, collectively occupying a mere 32 sq km of land. This archipelago forms part of a series of coral islands in the Indian Ocean, extending southward to the Maldives and further to the Chagos archipelago beyond the equator.
  • The Lakshadweep Islands hold immense strategic importance for India due to their location in the Indian Ocean. Minicoy, one of the islands, occupies a critical position, intersecting vital Sea Lines of Communications (SLOCs), which are essentially the world’s primary maritime highways.
  • Notably, these include the Eight Degree Channel between Minicoy and the Maldives, as well as the Nine Degree Channel between Minicoy and the primary cluster of Lakshadweep islands.
  • However, alongside their strategic significance, the Lakshadweep Islands also face vulnerabilities, particularly concerning marine pollution. The island chain's position in key maritime routes underscores the need for heightened security measures and environmental conservation efforts in the region.
 

4. Transformation of Naval Detachment Minicoy into INS Jatayu

  • The current Naval Detachment Minicoy, operating under the jurisdiction of the Naval Officer-in-Charge (Lakshadweep), is set to undergo a significant transformation as it is commissioned as INS Jatayu.
  • Initially serving with administrative, logistical, and medical facilities, INS Jatayu will evolve into a full-fledged naval base with enhanced infrastructure upon securing necessary environmental and regulatory approvals.
  • Challenges may arise concerning the delicate ecological balance of the island, particularly in the construction of a jetty.
  • However, there are strategic plans in place to address this concern by developing a new airfield capable of accommodating both military and civilian aircraft operations.
  • This transition signifies a substantial upgrade in the capabilities and scope of operations for INS Jatayu, reflecting the Indian Navy's commitment to bolstering security infrastructure in the region.

 

5. INS Jatayu's Role

  • The establishment of INS Jatayu marks a significant stride in bolstering the Indian Navy's operational capabilities in the Lakshadweep Islands, aligning with the government's broader agenda of comprehensive island development. By providing an independent naval unit with essential infrastructure and resources, the Navy anticipates a notable enhancement in its operational efficiency within the region.
  • The strategic positioning of the base is intended to fortify the Navy's operational reach, particularly in conducting anti-piracy and anti-narcotics operations across the western Arabian Sea. Additionally, INS Jatayu's commissioning will contribute to reinforcing the Navy's presence along the western seaboard, amplifying its capacity to safeguard maritime interests.
  • Furthermore, the proposed airfield associated with INS Jatayu is poised to support a diverse range of aircraft, including P8I maritime reconnaissance planes and fighter jets. This expansion is pivotal in extending the Navy's operational surveillance capabilities, a crucial endeavour amid India's efforts to counter the escalating Chinese influence within the Indian Ocean Region.
  • The timing of these developments is particularly pertinent against the backdrop of strained relations between India and the Maldives, exacerbated by the election of President Mohamed Muizzu, perceived as pro-China. INS Jatayu's establishment underscores India's strategic imperative to assert its presence and safeguard its interests in the region amidst evolving geopolitical dynamics.
 
6. The Way Forward
 
By effectively addressing the key areas, India can leverage INS Jatayu as a catalyst for enhanced maritime security, sustainable development, and strategic influence in the Lakshadweep Islands and the wider Indian Ocean Region.
 
 
For Prelims: INS Jatayu, Lakshadweep, Indian Ocean Region,  Naval Detachment Minicoy, INS Dweeprakshak
For Mains: 
1. Discuss the strategic significance of the Lakshadweep Islands for India's maritime security objectives, highlighting key geographical features and challenges faced in the region. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. Which is India's first indigenous Aircraft carrier? (KSP Civil SI 2020)
A. INS Vikrant         B. INS Virat           C. INS Vaibhav          D. INS Varaha
 

2. Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (UPSC 2016)

(a) Amphibious warfare ship
(b) Nuclear-powered submarine 
(c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
(d) Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier

3 Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (UPSC 2017)

  1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
  2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only      (b) 2 only           (c) Both 1 and 2                 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. The Lakshadweep islands are located in the ________  (SSC GD 2019) 
A. Indian Ocean      B. Pacific Ocean       C. Arabian Sea       D. Bay of Bengal
 
5. With reference to 'Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)', consider the following statements: (UPSC 2015)
1. It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills. 2. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 Only          B. 2 Only    C. Both 1 and 2            D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
6. With reference to 'Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)' sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2017) 
1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an EI Nino's impact on the monsoon. '
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only          B. 2 only          C. Both 1 and 2             D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answers: 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-C, 5-D, 6-B

 
Source: The Indian Express
 

FOREIGN DIRECT INVESTMENT (FDI)

 
 
1. Context
According to experts, India’s current resource classification rules based on the UNFC have made the prospect of mineral exploration unattractive to private companies as it fails to provide any degree of economic certainty, which in turn has hindered the flow of private investment in the sector. Between FY19 and FY23, the mining industry recorded foreign direct investment (FDI) in equity valuing $1.1 billion, just .4 per cent of gross equity inflows worth $259 billion
 
2. FDI in India
  • In 2022-23, FDI inflows (including reinvested earnings and other capital) stood at $71.3 billion, down 16 per cent from $84.8 billion in 2021-22. Flows in 2022-23 were, in fact, below levels seen in 2019-20
  • The disaggregated data shows that much of the fall during this period has been in fresh equity flows.
  • Equity flows dropped from roughly $59.6 billion in 2021-22 to around $47.6 billion in 2022-23, and, in the first four months of the ongoing year, plunged to $13.9 billion from $22 billion last year
  • This drop in FDI is not just concentrated in the tech space. Between 2021-22 and 2022-23, FDI fell not only in the computer software and hardware sector, but also in the automobile industry, construction (infrastructure activities), and metallurgical industries
 
3. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) refers to the investment made by individuals, businesses, or governments from one country (the home country) into another country (the host country) with the objective of establishing a lasting interest or significant degree of influence in the foreign business or enterprise
Key Aspects:
  • FDI involves the transfer of funds and resources from one country to another. This capital inflow can help stimulate economic growth in the host country by providing funds for investment in infrastructure, technology, and other areas.
  • FDI often leads to the creation of jobs in the host country. When foreign companies establish subsidiaries or invest in existing businesses, they typically hire local employees, which can help reduce unemployment and improve living standards
  • Foreign investors often bring advanced technologies, processes, and management practices to the host country. This technology transfer can enhance the host country's productivity, competitiveness, and industrial capabilities
  • FDI can provide access to new markets for both the host country and the investing company. Foreign investors can tap into the host country's consumer base, while the host country gains access to the investing company's global distribution networks.
  • FDI can contribute to overall economic development in the host country by promoting industrialization, improving infrastructure, and fostering innovation and entrepreneurship.
4.FDI Routes in India
India has several routes through which Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) can enter the country. These routes are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), and they define the conditions, limits, and sectors in which FDI is allowed
  1. Automatic Route: Under the automatic route, FDI is allowed without the need for prior approval from the RBI or the government. Investors only need to notify the RBI within a specified time frame after the investment is made. This route is available for most sectors, except those that are prohibited or require government approval.

  2. Government Route: In sectors or activities that are not covered under the automatic route, FDI requires government approval. Investors must apply for approval through the Foreign Investment Facilitation Portal (FIFP) or the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB), depending on the sector.

4.1. Examples
  • Under the automatic route, FDI of up to 100% is allowed for manufacturing of automobiles and components.
  • For the manufacturing of electric vehicles (EVs), 100% FDI is allowed under the automatic route.
  • In single-brand retail trading, 100% FDI is allowed, with up to 49% allowed under the automatic route. Beyond 49%, government approval is required.
  • Multi-brand retail trading (supermarkets and department stores) with FDI is permitted in some states, subject to certain conditions and restrictions. The FDI limit is typically capped at 51%.
  • FDI in the insurance sector is allowed up to 74%, with up to 49% under the automatic route. Beyond 49%, government approval is needed
  • In the telecom sector, 100% FDI is allowed, with up to 49% under the automatic route. Beyond 49%, government approval is required
  • In the defense sector, FDI up to 74% is allowed under the automatic route, with government approval required for investments beyond 49%
  • In most segments of the media and broadcasting sector, including print and digital media, 100% FDI is allowed, with up to 49% under the automatic route
4.2.Sectors where FDI Prohibited
  • FDI is prohibited in the atomic energy sector, which includes activities related to the production of atomic energy and nuclear power generation.
  • FDI is generally prohibited in the gambling and betting industry, which includes casinos and online betting platforms
  • FDI is not allowed in the lottery business, except for state-run lotteries
  • FDI is prohibited in chit funds, which are traditional Indian savings and credit schemes.
  •  Nidhi companies are non-banking finance companies (NBFCs) that facilitate mutual benefit funds. FDI is typically not permitted in these entities
  • While FDI is allowed in single-brand retail trading, it is generally prohibited in multi-brand retail trading of agricultural products. Some states have allowed it under specific conditions, but this remains a highly regulated area.
  • FDI is not allowed in the trading of transferable development rights (TDRs) pertaining to the construction of real estate
5. Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs)
Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) refer to foreign individuals, institutions, or funds that invest in financial assets in a country, such as stocks, bonds, mutual funds, and other securities. FPIs are distinct from Foreign Direct Investors (FDIs), who typically make long-term investments in companies and assets to establish a lasting interest
Key Aspects:
  • FPIs invest in a country's financial markets, primarily by buying and selling securities traded on stock exchanges and fixed-income instruments like bonds and government securities
  • FPIs often seek to diversify their investment portfolios by spreading their investments across different asset classes, sectors, and countries. This diversification helps manage risk and enhance returns
  • FPIs have the flexibility to buy and sell securities in the secondary market, providing liquidity to the market and contributing to price discovery
  • FPIs typically have a shorter investment horizon compared to Foreign Direct Investors (FDIs). They may engage in short-term trading or hold securities for a few months to a few years.
  • FPIs are subject to regulatory frameworks and restrictions in the countries where they invest. These regulations are designed to ensure that foreign investments do not pose undue risks to the local financial markets and economy.
6.Foreign Portfolio vs. Foreign Direct Investment
FPI (Foreign Portfolio Investment) FDI (Foreign Direct Investment)
FPI involves the purchase of financial assets such as stocks, bonds, mutual funds, and other securities in a foreign country. These investments are typically made with the intention of earning returns on capital and do not result in significant control or ownership of the underlying businesses FDI entails making an investment in a foreign country with the primary objective of establishing a lasting interest and significant control or influence over a business enterprise or physical assets. FDI often involves the acquisition of a substantial ownership stake (typically at least 10%) in a company or the establishment of new business operations.
FPI is generally characterized by a shorter investment horizon. Investors in FPI may engage in trading and portfolio rebalancing activities, and their investments are often more liquid. The focus is on earning capital gains and income from investments. FDI is characterized by a longer-term commitment. Investors in FDI intend to engage in the day-to-day management or decision-making of the business, contribute to its growth and development, and generate profits over an extended period.
FPI investors typically have little to no influence or control over the companies in which they invest. They are passive investors who participate in the financial markets and rely on market dynamics to drive returns. FDI investors actively participate in the management and decision-making of the businesses they invest in. They often seek to exercise control over company operations and strategy, which may include appointing board members or key executives.
FPI investments are often made through financial instruments like stocks, bonds, and securities. Investors may use instruments like mutual funds or exchange-traded funds (ETFs) to gain exposure to foreign markets FDI investments involve a direct equity stake in a company, either through share acquisition or the establishment of a subsidiary or branch in the host country. FDI can also involve the purchase of real assets such as land, factories, or infrastructure
FPI can provide short-term capital inflows, but it may be more susceptible to market volatility and sudden capital outflows. It may not have as direct an impact on job creation and economic development as FDI. FDI often contributes to long-term economic development by creating jobs, stimulating infrastructure development, transferring technology and expertise, and enhancing the competitiveness of local industries
FPI investments are subject to regulations that vary by country and may include foreign ownership limits, reporting requirements, and tax considerations. FDI is subject to regulations that can be more stringent and may involve government approval, sector-specific conditions, and investment protection measures
 
 
 
 
For Prelims: Economic and Social Development-Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc
For Mains: General Studies III: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. Both Foreign Direct Investments (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. (UPSC CSE 2011)
 
Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two?
A.FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital
B.FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors C.FDI flows only into the secondary markets, while FII targets primary market
D.FII is considered to the more stable than FDI
 
Answer (B)
 
Source: indianexpress

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