INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) KEY (25/09/2025)

INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY

 
 
 
 
 
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Personality Rights and Election Commission of India , Environmental Impact Assessment(EIA), GST 2.0, Goods and Services Tax (GST) for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like Illegal migrants  and Air Pollution important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for September 25, 2024
 
 

How are courts protecting personality rights?

For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international Significance

For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity

Context:

The Delhi High Court has recently issued a series of orders protecting the personality rights of Bollywood celebrities from unauthorised commercial use. On September 9 and 10, Justice Tejas Karia granted relief to actors Aishwarya Rai Bachchan and Abhishek Bachchan, after they flagged the misuse of their images and voices through AI-generated content and merchandise. A week later, Justice Manmeet P.S. Arora extended similar protections to filmmaker Karan Johar, by barring the unauthorised use of his persona through deepfakes, and other digital manipulation. Actors Amitabh Bachchan, Anil Kapoor, and Jackie Shroff have already secured such protections. These petitions signal a wider push for judicial recognition of personality rights in the digital era.

 

Read about:

Copyright Act, 1957

Are personality rights protected?

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • Personality rights protect an individual’s identity markers—such as name, image, likeness, voice, signature, and other unique features—from being commercially misused without consent.
  • Although India does not have a single codified law on this subject, these rights are recognised through common law principles relating to privacy, defamation, and publicity, and are further strengthened by judicial rulings.
  • Remedies available to courts include injunctions, monetary compensation, and takedown orders to prevent misuse in advertisements, merchandise, AI-generated material, or online platforms.
  • Legal recognition is scattered across different intellectual property statutes. Under the Copyright Act, 1957, performers enjoy both exclusive rights (Section 38A) and moral rights (Section 38B), giving them authority to control the use of their performances and object to distortion or unauthorised reproduction.
  • Similarly, the Trade Marks Act, 1999, allows public figures to register personal identifiers—such as names, signatures, and popular phrases—as trademarks. Celebrities like Shah Rukh Khan, Priyanka Chopra, Ajay Devgn, and Amitabh Bachchan have secured trademark registrations for their names.
  • Still, the strongest protection often arises from the tort of “passing off” under Section 27 of the Trade Marks Act, which safeguards the goodwill attached to an unregistered mark and prevents misrepresentation suggesting false association or endorsement.
  • However, courts usually require proof of reputation and goodwill before offering relief, making such protection conditional.
  • At its core, personality rights are linked to autonomy and privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution. When a celebrity chooses to feature in a campaign, film, or advertisement, they exercise agency over their public persona.
  • But unauthorised uses—such as printing their photographs on products or generating deepfakes and AI chatbots in their likeness—strip them of this autonomy, eroding both dignity and control.

Judicial Developments

  • The doctrine of personality rights in India originates from R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu (1994), where the Supreme Court recognised the individual’s right to control the use of their identity while linking it to the constitutional right to privacy.
  • In this case, the Court allowed post-publication remedies like defamation suits but ruled against prior censorship, clarifying that personal details already in the public record may be published without consent.
  • Later, in a case involving actor Rajinikanth, the Madras High Court restrained the release of the film Main Hoon Rajnikanth, holding that celebrities can prevent unauthorised commercial use of their identity even without proof of deception, provided they are clearly recognisable.
  • The digital era has brought newer challenges. In 2023, the Delhi High Court granted Anil Kapoor broad protection over his persona—including his name, image, voice, likeness, and even his iconic expression “jhakaas.”
  • Justice Prathiba Singh clarified that legitimate uses such as critique, satire, or parody are shielded under free speech, but commercial exploitation or tarnishment is unlawful.
  • Similarly, in 2024, the Delhi High Court protected Jackie Shroff’s identity against unauthorised use by e-commerce sites and AI platforms, observing that such misuse not only violates rights but also weakens the commercial value built by the actor.
  • The Bombay High Court further extended this principle to AI-related threats in a case brought by singer Arijit Singh.
  • The court prohibited the unauthorised cloning of his voice through AI tools, reaffirming that traits such as name, voice, and likeness fall within personality rights. Justice R.I. Chagla voiced concern over the growing risks of generative AI, highlighting how artists are increasingly vulnerable to its misuse.

Balancing with Free Expression

  • The wide scope of personality rights raises concerns about curtailing free speech. Article 19(1)(a) protects the right to free expression, which covers satire, parody, and criticism of public figures. Indian courts have consistently balanced this freedom with the individual’s right to dignity.
  • In DM Entertainment Pvt. Ltd. v. Baby Gift House (2010), where singer Daler Mehndi’s rights were invoked against shops selling dolls resembling him, the Delhi High Court granted an injunction but cautioned that caricature and parody ordinarily fall outside the scope of infringement. The court warned that overprotecting publicity rights could chill legitimate free speech.
  • This balance was reaffirmed in Digital Collectibles PTE Ltd. v. Galactus Funware Technology Pvt. Ltd. (2023), involving unauthorised use of sports stars’ images.
  • The Delhi High Court held that while commercial misrepresentation is prohibited, content already in the public domain or used for satire, criticism, or artistic purposes cannot automatically amount to infringement.
  • Justice Amit Bansal emphasised that expressions such as lampooning, parody, art, or academic work remain legitimate exercises of free speech

 

Follow Up Question

Mains

1.Discuss the impediments India is facing in its pursuit of a permanent seat in the UN Security Council (UPSC CSE 2015)

Prelims

 1. What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (UPSC 2021) 
A. Legal right available to citizens only
B. Legal right available to any person
C. Fundamental Right available, to citizens only
D. Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right

 

Answer (B)
 
  • Originally, the Right to Property was a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 of the Constitution.

  • However, through the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, it was removed from Part III (Fundamental Rights) and placed under Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution.

  • Article 300A states: “No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.”

  • Hence, it is now a constitutional legal right, available not just to citizens, but to any person, including foreigners and legal entities.

👉 So, it is not a Fundamental Right anymore, but remains a legal/constitutional right.

 

Election Commission of India

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international Significance like ECINet portal and app

For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity

Context:

The Election Commission has rolled out a new ‘e-sign’ feature on its ECINet portal and app, which requires those seeking to register as voters, or applying for deletion and corrections, to verify their identity using their Aadhaar-linked phone numbers

 

Read about:

What is the Form 7 of the Election Commission?

Who has the responsibility of preparing an electoral roll?

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • Electoral registration officers (EROs) of parliamentary constituencies are authorised under Section 22 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 to amend or remove names from the electoral roll, either on their own initiative or based on applications received.
  • Before doing so, they must carry out an inquiry, give the concerned voter an opportunity to respond, and then issue a formal order.
  • An entry in the roll can be deleted if the voter has passed away, shifted residence outside the constituency, or is otherwise ineligible—such as not being an Indian citizen or being below 18 years of age.
  • The Registration of Electors Rules, 1960 prescribes the forms for new enrolment, corrections, and deletions. Form 7 is used to raise objections regarding the inclusion or deletion of a name, whether by an elector wishing to remove their own name or by one challenging the eligibility of another voter in the constituency.
  • The Election Commission’s recent update follows allegations by Opposition leader Rahul Gandhi, who claimed misuse of online voter deletion forms in Karnataka’s Aland constituency ahead of the 2023 Assembly elections, calling it part of “electoral fraud.”
  • Previously, applicants could submit forms on the EC’s portal or apps by linking a phone number to their Electors Photo Identity Card (EPIC) number, without any verification of whether the details matched. Now, the process includes an e-sign authentication requirement on the EC’s ECINet portal, introduced this week.
  • Applicants filling Form 6 (new voter registration), Form 7 (inclusion/deletion objections), or Form 8 (corrections) must clear the e-sign step. They are reminded that the name on the voter card must match the Aadhaar record and the mobile number used must be Aadhaar-linked.
  • Once the form is filled, applicants are redirected to an external e-sign page managed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (CDAC) under the Union Ministry of Electronics and IT.
  • There, they must enter their Aadhaar number, receive a one-time password (OTP) on the registered mobile, and give consent for Aadhaar-based authentication. Only after this verification are they redirected back to ECINet to submit the form.
  • According to officials, this step significantly reduces the scope for manipulation such as that alleged in Aland.
  • The ECINet platform, launched earlier this year, integrates around 40 earlier portals and apps, including ERONet (introduced in 2018 for EROs). It allows electors to submit applications and enables Booth Level Officers and EROs to process them following due inquiry

 

Additional Information

 

  • The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a constitutional body entrusted with the responsibility of conducting free, fair, and impartial elections in the country. Established under Article 324 of the Constitution, it has the authority to supervise, direct, and control the entire process of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President. Its powers are both broad and comprehensive, ensuring that the democratic process functions smoothly and without undue influence.
  • The Commission has the power to decide on every aspect of the electoral process, beginning with the preparation of electoral rolls.
  • It oversees the registration of political parties, monitors their functioning, and grants or withdraws recognition to them under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order.
  • This authority also extends to the allotment of symbols to parties and candidates, which forms an important aspect of India’s electoral identity system.
  • In matters of law and order during elections, the Commission issues guidelines to state governments and ensures the deployment of central and state forces wherever necessary to maintain peace and security at polling stations.
  • It also lays down a Model Code of Conduct, which political parties and candidates are bound to follow from the time elections are announced until the process concludes.
  • The Commission has the power to censure or take action against violations, thereby maintaining the ethical standards of electoral democracy.
  • The Election Commission plays a critical role in ensuring transparency. It monitors election expenditure by candidates and political parties, imposes limits to prevent undue money power, and has mechanisms for auditing and scrutiny of accounts.
  • It also has the authority to counter malpractices such as booth capturing, impersonation, bribery, and undue influence, and can order repolling if necessary.
  • Apart from these operational functions, the Commission also acts as a quasi-judicial body. It settles disputes relating to splits and mergers in political parties, and adjudicates issues concerning the disqualification of legislators on grounds such as defection, corrupt practices, or failure to submit accounts of election expenditure.
  • In this sense, it functions not merely as an administrative authority but also as a guardian of democratic norms.
  • With the advent of technology, the Election Commission has introduced innovations such as Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) and Voter Verified Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) systems to enhance accuracy and build voter confidence.
  • It has also developed online platforms for voter registration and monitoring, ensuring accessibility and efficiency in the electoral process.
  • Thus, the powers and functions of the Election Commission are not confined to conducting the mechanics of polling alone; they extend to preserving the integrity of the electoral system, safeguarding the level playing field among political parties, and upholding the principles of democracy.
  • The Commission serves as an independent constitutional authority, insulated from executive interference, and plays a pivotal role in ensuring that the people’s will is freely and fairly expressed through elections
 
Follow Up Question
Mains
 
1.To enhance the quality of democracy in India the Election Commission of India has proposed electoral reforms in 2016. What are the suggested reforms and how far are they significant to make democracy successful? (UPSC CSE 2017)
 
Prelims
1.Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
 
Answer (D)
 

Statement 1: The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
❌ Incorrect.

  • The Constitution (Article 324) provides for a multi-member body but does not fix the number.

  • The ECI originally started as a single-member body (the Chief Election Commissioner).

  • It became a three-member body in 1989, and since then it has usually been headed by the CEC with two other Election Commissioners.

  • It is not a five-member body.

Statement 2: Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
❌ Incorrect.

  • The Election Commission of India alone has the power to fix and announce the schedule of elections (under Article 324).

  • The Ministry of Home Affairs may provide logistical support such as security forces, but it has no authority to decide election dates.

Statement 3: Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
✅ Correct.

  • Under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, the ECI decides disputes over recognition of parties, splits, and mergers

 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international Significance
 
For Mains Examination: GS III - Environment and Ecology
 
Context:
 
An expert panel of the Union Environment Ministry has recommended environmental clearance for the 2,220 MW Oju hydroelectric project proposed on the Subansiri river in Taksing near the China border.
 
Read about:
 
What is an Environmental Impact Assessment(EIA)?
 
What is the significance of the EIA?
 
Key takeaways:
 
 
  • The Northeast region of India holds immense potential in renewable energy, tourism, and human resources. It contributes more than 40 per cent of India’s hydropower capacity, estimated at nearly 62,000 MW, though less than 7 per cent of this potential is currently being utilized.
  • Similarly, the solar power potential of the region is pegged at around 57,360 MW, yet only about 17 per cent has been tapped. This makes the Northeast a promising destination for investments in solar, wind, and small hydroelectric projects.
  • To boost connectivity and infrastructure, the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has allocated 10 per cent of its budget to the Northeast. This investment, amounting to over $5 billion, has supported the construction of nearly 4,950 km of national highways.
  • Additionally, the North East Special Infrastructure Development Scheme (NESIDS), launched in 2018, earmarked around a billion dollars for projects in road development, water supply, and power infrastructure.
  • What makes the region strategically important is its international location. The Northeast shares a 5,484 km-long border with five countries—Myanmar, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, and Tibet (China).
  • This geographical advantage enhances its potential as a hub for cross-border trade. Initiatives like the India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway, the Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project, and the revival of the Stilwell Road are expected to further strengthen overland trade between India and Southeast Asia.
  • In terms of environmental governance, the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) plays a crucial role in weighing both the positive and negative consequences of major development projects before they are approved.
  • Its purpose is to evaluate economic, social, and ecological effects in a comprehensive manner. In the Subansiri basin, a series of hydropower projects have been planned, with the Oju project being the largest in terms of capacity. Other projects in the basin include Niare, Naba, Nalo, Dengser, Upper Subansiri, and Lower Subansiri.
  • The Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC) of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has already cleared the Oju project, which is situated about 5 km downstream of Redi village in the Taksing block of Upper Subansiri district.
  • It is to be developed by Oju Subansiri Hydro Power Corporation Pvt. Ltd. However, concerns have been raised by local environmentalists, including activist Bimal Gogoi, who pointed out that the cumulative impact assessment (CIA) and carrying capacity study (CCS) of the Subansiri basin were outdated, as they were last conducted in 2014.
  • While the EAC acknowledged the dated nature of the data, it nonetheless accepted the project proponent’s submissions after detailed discussions on hydrology and ecological flow
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)
 
  • The Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is a systematic process used to evaluate the likely environmental consequences of a proposed project or development before it is given approval.
  • The idea behind EIA is to ensure that economic growth and infrastructural expansion do not come at the cost of irreparable harm to the environment. It acts as a preventive measure, helping policymakers, project developers, and local communities understand the potential effects of a project on natural resources, ecosystems, and human well-being.
  • When a project is proposed—be it a dam, mining operation, industrial complex, or highway construction—an EIA study is conducted to predict how it might affect air, water, land, biodiversity, and local communities.
  • It looks at both direct impacts, such as pollution or displacement of people, and indirect ones, like long-term changes in land use or ecological balance. It also considers cumulative impacts that may arise when several projects operate in the same region.
  • The process usually involves data collection, baseline studies of the existing environment, prediction of possible impacts, and the suggestion of measures to mitigate adverse effects.
  • Importantly, it also allows for public participation, where local communities and stakeholders can raise concerns about the project’s implications. This participatory approach makes the decision-making process more democratic and transparent.
  • In India, EIA is governed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, with detailed procedures laid out in the EIA Notification of 2006 and its subsequent amendments.
  • Certain categories of projects must obtain environmental clearance from the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change or the respective State Environment Impact Assessment Authorities, depending on their scale.
  • Thus, EIA serves as a bridge between development needs and environmental protection. Its primary purpose is not to stop projects but to make them more sustainable by ensuring that environmental considerations are built into their planning and execution
 
Follow Up Question
 
Mains
 
1. Environmental impact assessment studies are increasingly undertaken before project is cleared by the government. Discuss the environmental impacts of coal-fired thermal plants located at Pitheads. (UPSC CSE 2014)
 
Prelims
 

1.Consider the following rivers (UPSC CSE 2014)

1. Barak

2. Lohit

3. Subansiri

Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal Pradesh?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (b)
 
  • Barak River: It originates in the hills of Manipur and flows through Mizoram and Assam before entering Bangladesh. It does not flow through Arunachal Pradesh.

  • Lohit River: It rises in eastern Tibet, enters India in Arunachal Pradesh, and then joins the Brahmaputra in Assam.

  • Subansiri River: Originates in Tibet, flows through Arunachal Pradesh, and then enters Assam to join the Brahmaputra.

So, Lohit and Subansiri flow through Arunachal Pradesh.

👉 Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only

 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international Significance like GST 2.0
 
For Mains Examination: GS III - Economy
 
Context:
 
After having issued a directive to its field officers to monitor the price changes for 54 product categories under GST 2.0, the Centre is keeping a close watch on the benefits being passed on to the consumers as the sweeping tax rate cuts became effective from September 22, government sources said Tuesday.
 
 
Read about:
 
 
What is the Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
 
What are the key GST 2.0 institutional reforms?
 
 
Key takeaways:
 
 
  • The government has urged consumers to use the National Consumer Helpline to report cases where GST rate benefits are not being passed on to them.
  • Although several consumers have voiced concerns on social media, particularly about FMCG products on e-commerce platforms not reflecting the reduced GST rates, the government has decided against taking any immediate action. Instead, it will wait for field officers to submit their reports before making a move
  • As part of the GST reform process, the earlier multiple slab structure of 5%, 12%, 18%, and 28% was replaced with a simplified framework consisting of a 5% merit rate, an 18% standard rate, and a higher 40% rate applied to sin and demerit goods like pan masala, tobacco, and cigarettes.
  • This rationalisation brought significant tax cuts on a range of daily-use and aspirational items, including white goods.
  • Field officers have begun compiling price data, and while most products have reflected a fall in prices, some continue to show delays in reduction owing to unsold inventory still in circulation.
  • Currently, GST does not have a permanent anti-profiteering clause. When GST was introduced in July 2017, an anti-profiteering mechanism was included through Section 171(2) of the CGST Act.
  • Subsequently, the National Anti-profiteering Authority (NAA) was established in November 2017 to ensure that businesses passed on the benefits of reduced tax rates and input tax credit to consumers through price cuts.
  • Initially, NAA was meant to function for only two years but was later extended. From December 1, 2022, responsibility for handling anti-profiteering complaints shifted to the Competition Commission of India (CCI).
  • Later, through a notification dated October 1, 2024, the government designated the Principal Bench of the GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) as the authority for these cases, and April 1, 2025, was notified as the sunset date for the anti-profiteering provision under GST.
  • Revenue Secretary Arvind Shrivastava, after the 56th GST Council meeting on September 3, highlighted that only around 704 cases had been filed with the NAA since its inception, and with the body no longer in place, future cases will be addressed under the new system
 

Simplified & rationalised rate structure to reduce classification disputes

One of the pillars of GST 2.0 is rationalising the number of tax slabs. Instead of the four main slabs, most goods/services now fall into two main rates (5% and 18%), plus a “demerit/sl sin goods” category with a high rate (40%)

Strengthening Dispute Resolution Mechanism: GSTAT

A major reform is making the Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) fully operational, with mandated timelines for hearing cases

Before this, many appeals piled up, and different states or jurisdictions might interpret the same rules differently. With GSTAT, there’s a dedicated body for resolving GST disputes. That reduces burden on courts, ensures more uniform jurisprudence, and shortens the time businesses wait for decisions. This boosts confidence in the tax system

Faster, more predictable refunds & handling of the Inverted Duty Structure

Refunds, especially under the “Inverted Duty Structure” (IDS), have been a pain point. Under IDS, when input GST > output GST, the excess must be refunded to the taxpayer. But delays, paperwork, and audit risk often blocked this. GST 2.0 introduces more automatic or provisional refunds, risk-based assessments, and timelines

Simplified registrations, returns and digitalisation

To reduce compliance burden, especially on small businesses, the reforms propose faster registration (e.g. 3-day registration for low risk businesses), pre-filled returns (i.e., auto-importing transaction or invoice data so that taxpayers only confirm/finalize rather than fill in every detail manually), and streamlined documentation

Digital tools, risk-based monitoring, direct e-invoicing, upgraded back-end systems reduce discretion, errors, and processing delays. This helps reduce corruption or arbitrary rejections, and helps small firms who may not have large tax compliance staffs

Clarification of valuation rules and place of supply

Ambiguities in how to value certain supplies, or where a supply is “consumed” (place of supply) have led to disputes and inconsistent application across states or sectors. GST 2.0 reforms aim to bring more clarity—telling, for instance, how certain intermediated services should treat place of supply—to ease export compliance, inter-state supplies, and prevent disagreement

Enhanced institutional governance, transparency & accountability

Beyond individual mechanisms, GST 2.0 pushes for stronger governance structures. This means clearer rules (e.g. on credit notes, post-sale discounts), better audit and scrutiny systems using technology, faster adjudication via GSTAT, and more uniform interpretations via National Authority for Advance Rulings in some cases

 

Follow Up Question

Mains

1.Enumerate the indirect taxes which have been subsumed in the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India. Also, comment on the revenue implications of the GST introduced in India since July 2017. (UPSC CSE 2019)

Prelims

1.What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (UPSC CSE 2017)

1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.

2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.

3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer (a)
 
  • Statement 1 is correct – GST replaced multiple indirect taxes (like excise duty, service tax, VAT, etc.) levied by both Centre and States, thereby creating a unified national market. This is one of the main objectives of GST.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect – GST is a domestic indirect tax reform. It has little direct impact on the Current Account Deficit (CAD), which depends on imports, exports, remittances, and capital flows.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect – GST is expected to improve efficiency and formalize the economy, but saying it will “enormously increase” the economy’s size and help India overtake China in the near future is an exaggerated claim and not a certain outcome.

So, only statement 1 is the most likely advantage of GST

 

 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international Significance
 
For Mains Examination: GS III - Environment and Ecology
 
Context:
 
 If there is one health hazard that has crept up unacknowledged on Indian cities, it is noise. Legally, it is already recognised as an air pollutant under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. Medically, it is among the leading contributors to hypertension, sleep disruption, stress disorders, and cognitive decline — conditions that together shorten lives and push people toward premature death.
 
Read about:
 
 
Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
 
What are the laws related to noise pollution in India?
 
 
Key takeaways:
 
 

Noise Pollution: An Overlooked Public Health Crisis

In Delhi, slum settlements located next to railway tracks are bearing the brunt of railway-induced noise pollution, with levels surpassing the permissible limits set by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) — in some cases, exceeding them by nearly 85%.

A study published in the BMJ Journal (December 2024) has drawn a direct link between environmental exposures such as air pollution and road traffic noise and rising infertility among both men and women. Notably, the research indicated that women aged 35–45 faced a heightened risk of infertility from noise exposure, while no such association was found in younger women aged 30–34.9.

According to Doctors, the connection between noise and reduced fertility, especially in women above 35, underscores how environmental stress can disrupt reproductive health. Prolonged exposure to high decibel levels triggers biological mechanisms such as:

  • Chronic Stress: Continuous noise beyond 55 dB elevates cortisol levels, disturbing hormonal balance (oestrogen and progesterone), which may cause irregular cycles, anovulation (no ovulation), or amenorrhea (absence of menstruation).

  • Sleep Disturbances: Noise lowers melatonin levels, affecting ovarian functions and fertility. In women above 35, this worsens natural fertility decline.

  • Oxidative Stress & Inflammation: Long-term exposure increases oxidative damage and inflammation, potentially reducing egg quality and endometrial receptivity, and aggravating reproductive conditions like endometriosis

 

Noise Standards vs. Reality

  • The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends that daytime noise in residential areas should not exceed 55 dB(A), roughly the sound of a normal conversation. India’s Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 prescribe the same limits: 55 dB during the day (6 a.m.–10 p.m.) and 45 dB at night.
  • However, the decibel scale is logarithmic, meaning a 10 dB increase represents a tenfold jump in intensity. In Indian cities, traffic corridors often register above 70 dB(A).
  • As with air pollution, the worst effects fall on those with the least protection — street vendors, traffic police, delivery workers, and slum dwellers. For them, the constant noise is not just an annoyance but a daily occupational hazard that chips away at long-term health
 

Governance Failures

Despite the scale of the problem, noise monitoring remains minimal, enforcement mechanisms are weak, and responsibility is spread thin across multiple agencies. Symbolic measures — like honking bans or festival crackdowns — do little to address structural causes. This neglect reflects three systemic shortcomings:

  • Poor monitoring: Unlike air pollution, where satellite data and sensors provide detailed insights, noise data in India is sparse, reactive, and inconsistent.

  • Cultural and structural barriers: Noise is not recognized as a health hazard comparable to smog, leading to greater tolerance — and sometimes participation — in noisy practices.

  • Fragmented governance: Pollution boards, municipalities, and police share jurisdiction, but none has sufficient resources or incentives to enforce meaningful regulation

 
 

The Way Forward

 
  • Noise must be treated on par with air and water pollution in public health agendas. Evidence-based interventions rooted in health research are essential. Urban planning should prioritize noise-buffering mechanisms such as green belts, trees, and zoning that separates residential areas from noisy corridors.
  • Pilot experiments with green buffers show promise, but scaling up requires systematic evaluation and community involvement. Governance reforms are equally critical — regulations should be enforceable, data must be transparent, and agencies must coordinate across sectors like transport, urban planning, and pollution control.
  • Awareness drives, in partnership with religious leaders and community groups, can also help shift social norms and reduce tolerance for harmful noise levels.
  • India’s failure to act decisively on air pollution has already shown the costs of delay — worsening health outcomes and deepening inequalities.
  • Noise pollution, already recognized in law as an air pollutant, must not be neglected. By integrating noise control into clean-air policies, embedding it in urban design, and prioritizing it in public health frameworks, India can protect vulnerable communities, safeguard reproductive and overall health, and reclaim the fundamental right to a quieter environment.
 
Follow-Up Question
 
1.In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (UPSC 2016)
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nitrogen dioxide
  4. Sulfur dioxide
  5. Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only     

B. 2, 3 and 4 only   

C. 1, 4 and 5 only     

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer (B)
 

The Air Quality Index (AQI) in India (developed by CPCB) is calculated based on eight pollutants:

  • PM10

  • PM2.5

  • Nitrogen dioxide (NOâ‚‚)

  • Sulphur dioxide (SOâ‚‚)

  • Carbon monoxide (CO)

  • Ozone (O₃)

  • Ammonia (NH₃)

  • Lead (Pb)

👉 Carbon dioxide (CO₂) and Methane (CH₄) are not included in AQI calculations.

So, the relevant gases from the options are:

  • Carbon monoxide (CO)

  • Nitrogen dioxide (NOâ‚‚)

  • Sulphur dioxide (SOâ‚‚)

 


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