CHANDRAYAAN-3
1. Context
- Chandrayaan-3 is the third lunar mission of the ISRO. It follows the Chandrayaan-1 and Chandrayaan-2 missions.
- The primary objective of Chandrayaan-3 is to achieve a successful landing on the Moon's surface, rectifying the setback faced by its predecessor, Chandrayaan-2, in 2019.
- The Chandrayaan-3 mission aims to demonstrate India's capability to soft-land a lander and rover on the lunar surface.
- By executing a precise landing, ISRO intends to showcase the technological advancements and expertise of the Indian space program.
- The mission will contribute to expanding our understanding of the Moon, its geological features, and its evolution.
- To ensure the success of Chandrayaan-3, ISRO has incorporated improvements and modifications based on the lessons learned from Chandrayaan-2.
- These include enhancements in the design and functioning of the lander and rover, as well as improvements in navigation and landing systems.
- Rigorous testing and evaluations have been conducted to address the shortcomings identified during the previous mission.
- It can be expected that they will be similar to those carried by Chandrayaan-2, aiming to study lunar topography, mineralogy, surface composition, and the Moon's environment.
- These instruments will gather valuable data to further our knowledge of the Moon and contribute to scientific research.
3. Chandrayaan-2 Mission and its Objectives and Discoveries
- The Chandrayaan-2 mission, launched on July 22, 2019, had a multifaceted objective.
- While the most discussed goal was to demonstrate the ability to soft-land a lander and rover on the unexplored south pole of the Moon, it also aimed to expand lunar scientific knowledge through various studies.
- These studies included detailed investigations of topography, seismography, mineral identification and distribution, surface chemical composition, topsoil thermo-physical characteristics and the lunar atmosphere composition.
4. Chandrayaan 2 Orbiter
- Despite the challenges faced by the Vikram lunar lander, which crash-landed on the Moon's surface on September 6, 2019, the Mission's orbiter remained fully operational.
- The orbiter gathered a wealth of new information about the Moon and its environment, significantly contributing to our understanding of the lunar surface, sub-surface and exosphere.
- The data collected by the orbiter added valuable insights into the exploration of permanently shadowed regions and the study of craters and boulders beneath the regolith.
5. Reasons for Failure of the Vikram Lander
- The landing attempt of the Chandrayaan-2 Mission's Vikram lander encountered a setback when ISRO lost contact shortly before the scheduled touchdown on September 7.
- The lander was decelerating but failed to slow down to the required safe landing speed of 2 meters per second.
- Designed to absorb an impact even at 5 meters per second, Vikram hit the Moon's surface at a much higher speed, resulting in damage to itself and its instruments.
- The crash landing of the Vikram lander prevented the successful demonstration of soft landing technology in space.
- However, ISRO identified and rectified the small error responsible for the failure, paving the way for the upcoming Chandrayaan-3 mission to showcase this technology without any glitches.
- Furthermore, the crash landing also resulted in missed opportunities for gathering additional data about the lunar terrain, composition and mineralogy.
6. The Way Forward
- The lander Vikram and rover Pragyaan was equipped with instruments to conduct surface observations, which, combined with the orbiter's support, could have provided diverse sets of data contributing to a more comprehensive understanding of the Moon.
- With Chandrayaan-3 on the horizon, ISRO aims to overcome previous challenges, achieve a successful soft landing on the Moon, and advance scientific exploration by collecting valuable information about our celestial neighbour.
For Prelims: Vikram lander, Chandrayaan-3, Chandrayaan-2, Moon, ISRO, lunar mission, celestial body,
For Mains:
1. Discuss the primary objective of Chandrayaan-3 and its significance in India's space exploration efforts. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions 1. In the context of space technology, what is "Bhuvan", recently in the news? (UPSC 2010)
A. A mini satellite, launched by ISRO for promoting the distance education in India
B. The name given to the next Moon Impact Probe, for Chandrayan-II
C. A geoportal of ISRO with 3 D imaging capabilities of India
D. A space telescope developed by India
Answer: C 2. What will be India's second moon mission by ISRO? (Maharashtra Talathi 2019) A. Chandrayaan 1 B. Chandrayaan 1.A C. Chandrayaan 2 D. Chandrayaan 3 Answer: C 3. Chandrayaan - 2 was launched from which of the following states by ISRO? (DSSSB LDC 2019) A. Maharashtra B. Rajasthan C. Kerala D. Andhra Pradesh Answer: D 4. The phases of the moon as we see from the Earth are due to changing relative positions of the sun, the earth and the moon. Which of the following statements is true? (CTET 2022)
A. on a full moon day, the earth comes between the sun and the moon
B. on a new moon day, the moon is in between the earth and the sun
C. on a full moon day, the moon is in between the earth and the sun
D. on a new moon day, the earth is between the sun and the moon.
E. on a new moon day, the sun is between the moon and the earth
1. A, B 2. B, C 3. C, D 4. A, E Answer: 1 5. ISRO is related to: (SSC JE EE 2020) A. space research B. agricultural research C. seed research D. marine research Answer: A 6. “The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to (UPSC 2020) A. Voyager-2 B. New Horizons C. LISA Pathfinder D. Evolved LISA Answer: D
1. India has achieved remarkable successes in unmanned space missions including the Chandrayaan and Mars Orbiter Mission, but has not ventured into manned space missions, both in terms of technology and logistics? Explain critically (UPSC GS3, 2017)
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Source: The Indian Express
CITIZENSHIP AMENDMENT ACT (CAA)
The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) of 2019 is a controversial piece of legislation enacted by the Government of India on December 12, 2019. The act amends the Citizenship Act of 1955 to provide a pathway to Indian citizenship for certain religious minorities from neighbouring countries.
Key features of the Citizenship Amendment Act include
- Eligibility Criteria: The CAA grants eligibility for Indian citizenship to Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian migrants who arrived in India from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan on or before December 31, 2014, and have faced religious persecution on their home countries.
- Exclusion of Muslims: Notably, the CAA excludes Muslims from its purview, leading to criticisms of religious discrimination and accusations of violating the secular principles enshrined in the Indian Constitution.
- Criticism and Protests: The Citizenship Amendment Act sparked widespread protests across India, with critics arguing that the act undermines the secular fabric of the nation and discriminates against Muslims. Protesters also raised concerns about the potential marginalisation of Muslim communities and the exclusionary nature of the legislation.
- Support from Government: The government defended the Citizenship Amendment Act, asserting that it aims to provide refuge and protection to persecuted religious minorities from neighbouring countries. The government argued that the act does not infringe upon the rights of Indian Muslims and is in line with the country's secular ethos.
- Legal Challenges: Several petitions challenging the constitutional validity of the Citizenship Amendment Act were filed in the Supreme Court of India. The court has heard arguments from both sides and is expected to deliver its judgment on the matter.
The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) of 2019 has sparked various concerns and criticisms, both domestically within India and internationally.
- One of the primary concerns regarding the CAA is its exclusion of Muslims from the list of religious minorities eligible for citizenship under the act. Critics argue that this selective approach based on religion goes against the secular principles enshrined in India's constitution and promotes religious discrimination.
- The CAA's focus on granting citizenship based on religious identity raises concerns about the secular nature of India's democracy. Critics argue that the act undermines the inclusive and pluralistic ethos of the country by favouring specific religious communities.
- Opponents of the CAA fear that the act, coupled with other proposed policies like the National Register of Citizens (NRC) and National Population Register (NPR), could have implications for the demographic composition of India. They raise concerns about the marginalisation and exclusion of certain communities, particularly Muslims, and the potential for statelessness among vulnerable populations.
- The constitutionality of the Citizenship Amendment Act has been challenged in the Supreme Court of India. Critics argue that the act violates the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution, including the right to equality and non-discrimination.
- The implementation of the CAA has led to social and political polarization within India. The act has become a contentious issue, leading to protests, debates, and divisions along religious and ideological lines.
- The CAA has also attracted international attention and scrutiny, with concerns raised by human rights organizations and foreign governments regarding religious freedom, minority rights, and the potential impact on vulnerable communities.
5. The Indian ideas and rules of citizenship in the Constitution before the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), 2019
Before the enactment of the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) in 2019, the principles and rules of citizenship in India were primarily governed by the Constitution of India, which came into effect on January 26, 1950. The Constitution lays down the framework for citizenship and enshrines certain fundamental rights and principles related to citizenship.
- Citizenship by Birth: According to Article 5 of the Indian Constitution, any person born in India on or after January 26, 1950, but before July 1, 1987, was automatically considered a citizen of India by birth, regardless of the nationality of their parents.
- Citizenship by Descent: Individuals born outside India on or after January 26, 1950, but before July 1, 1987, were eligible for Indian citizenship if either of their parents was a citizen of India at the time of their birth.
- Citizenship by Registration: The Constitution provides provisions for certain categories of persons to acquire Indian citizenship through registration. This includes persons of Indian origin who have resided in India for a specified period and meet other criteria prescribed by law.
- Citizenship by Naturalization: Foreigners who have resided in India for a specified period and fulfilled other conditions prescribed by law were eligible to apply for Indian citizenship through naturalization.
- Citizenship by Incorporation of Territory: Any territory that became part of India through accession or merger automatically conferred Indian citizenship on its inhabitants as per the provisions of the Constitution.
- Fundamental Rights: The Constitution guarantees certain fundamental rights to all citizens of India, regardless of their religion, ethnicity, or place of birth. These rights include the right to equality, freedom of speech and expression, freedom of religion, and the right to life and personal liberty.
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Citizenship Act, 1955: This act, enacted based on the Constitution's provisions, outlined ways to acquire Indian citizenship. Here are the main routes:
- Birth: Being born in India (with some limitations) granted citizenship.
- Descent: Children born to Indian parents abroad could become citizens.
- Registration: People of Indian origin residing in India for seven years could register.
- Naturalization: Foreigners meeting specific residency requirements could apply for naturalization.
The Indian Constitution before the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) of 2019 outlined principles of citizenship that were based on inclusivity, equality, and non-discrimination, with provisions for acquiring citizenship through birth, descent, registration, naturalization, and territorial incorporation. The CAA introduced amendments to these principles, particularly regarding eligibility for citizenship based on religious identity.
6. Section 6A of the Citizenship Act
Section 6A is a special provision inserted into the Indian Citizenship Act, 1955, in 1985, as part of the Assam Accord. It deals with the citizenship of people who migrated to Assam from Bangladesh:
- It applies to people who entered Assam on or after January 1, 1966, but before March 25, 1971.
- It grants citizenship to these people if they can prove that they were "ordinarily resident" in Assam on March 24, 1971.
- People who claim citizenship under Section 6A must apply to a Foreigners Tribunal. The Tribunal will then decide whether or not to grant them citizenship based on the evidence they provide.
7. What does NRC mean?
- NRC stands for the National Register of Citizens. It is a register maintained by the Government of India containing names and certain relevant information for the identification of Indian citizens in the state of Assam.
- The purpose of the NRC is to create a list of genuine Indian citizens residing in Assam and identify individuals who are not legal residents of the state.
- The NRC process in Assam has its origins in the Assam Accord of 1985, which aimed to address the issue of illegal immigration from Bangladesh and determine the citizenship status of individuals living in Assam.
- The NRC process requires individuals to provide documentary evidence to prove their citizenship based on criteria set by the government.
- The NRC process involves extensive documentation and verification to establish citizenship status, and it has been a contentious issue due to its impact on individuals' rights and concerns about exclusion and discrimination.
- The implementation of the NRC in Assam has led to debates, legal challenges, and social tensions regarding citizenship and immigration issues in India.
8. What is NPR?
- NPR stands for the National Population Register. It is a register of usual residents of India, which includes both citizens and non-citizens who have resided in a local area for at least six months or intend to stay for the next six months or more.
- The NPR is prepared at the local, sub-district, district, state, and national levels under the provisions of the Citizenship Act, 1955, and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.
- The main purpose of the NPR is to create a comprehensive identity database of residents in India. It collects demographic and biometric information to establish the identity of individuals and households.
- The data collected in the NPR includes details such as name, age, gender, marital status, occupation, educational qualification, address, and other relevant information.
- The NPR process involves house-to-house enumeration and collection of data by government officials or designated enumerators. The data collected is used for various purposes, including government planning, policy formulation, and social welfare schemes.
- It's important to note that the NPR is distinct from the National Register of Citizens (NRC). While the NPR focuses on creating a comprehensive database of residents, the NRC specifically deals with determining the citizenship status of individuals, particularly in the state of Assam, based on documentary evidence.
- The NPR has been a topic of discussion and debate in India, with concerns raised about privacy, data security, and potential misuse of information.
9. The difference between the NRC, NPR and CAA
Term | Description | Purpose | Focus |
NRC (National Register of Citizens) | Register of Indian citizens in Assam | Identify legal residents and non-citizens | Citizenship status in Assam |
NPR (National Population Register) | Register of usual residents (citizens and non-citizens) | Create a comprehensive identity database | Residents of India for planning purposes |
CAA (Citizenship Amendment Act) | Law providing path to citizenship for religious minorities | Grant citizenship based on religion and persecution |
Specific religious minorities facing persecution |
10. Is NPR connected to NRC?
11. Who are ‘Citizens’?
In general terms, citizens are individuals who hold citizenship in a particular country. Citizenship is a legal status that grants individuals certain rights, privileges, and responsibilities within the nation-state to which they belong. The concept of citizenship varies across different countries, but some common characteristics of citizenship include.
- Legal Recognition: Citizens are legally recognized members of a country or state. They are entitled to the protection of the state and have access to its legal system.
- Rights and Privileges: Citizens typically enjoy certain rights and privileges that non-citizens may not have, such as the right to vote, the right to work and reside in the country, access to social services, and the right to participate in the political process.
- Responsibilities: Along with rights and privileges, citizenship also entails certain responsibilities, such as obeying the laws of the country, paying taxes, serving on juries if called upon, and sometimes participating in military service.
- National Identity: Citizenship often involves a sense of national identity and belonging to a particular community or nation. This can include shared cultural, historical, and linguistic ties that bind citizens together.
- Acquisition and Loss: Citizenship can be acquired through birth (jus soli or jus sanguinis), naturalization, or descent from a citizen parent. It can also be lost or renounced voluntarily or involuntarily, depending on the laws of the country.
For Prelims: Citizenship Amendment Act, Minorities, Secularism, NPR, NRC,
For Mains:
1. The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) of 2019 has sparked significant controversy in India. Critically examine the Act's provisions, highlighting the key concerns and potential implications. In your opinion, does the CAA violate the secular principles enshrined in the Indian Constitution? (250 words)
2. Considering the debates surrounding the CAA, critically analyze the concept of citizenship in India. How has the concept evolved, and what are the challenges in defining and managing citizenship in a diverse democracy like India? (250 words)
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Previous Year Questions
Consider the following statements: (2018) 1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, the Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (UPSC 2021) (a) Legal right available to citizens only
(b) Legal right available to any person
(c) Fundamental Rights available to citizens only
(d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
3. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2012)
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
4. Barak Valley in Assam is famous for which among the following? (MSTET 2019)
A. Bamboo Industry
B. Petroleum Production
C. Cottage Industries
D. Tea Cultivation
5. Which one of the following is an important crop of the Barak Valley? (Karnataka Civil Police Constable 2019)
A. Sugarcane B. Jute C. Tea D. Cotton
6. Under Assam Accord of 1985, foreigners who had entered Assam before March 25, _____ were to be given citizenship. (DSSSB JE & Section Officer 2022)
A. 1954 B. 1971 C. 1981 D. 1966
Answers: 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-B, 6-B
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NISAR
1. Context
The launch of the NASA ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) satellite has been delayed as a key component of the satellite has been sent back to the United States of America.
The satellite was scheduled to be launched in the first quarter of 2024. However, now the launch readiness date will be determined at the end of April.
2. About NISAR
- NISAR has been built by space agencies of the US and India under a partnership agreement signed in 2014.
- The 2, 800 kilograms satellite consists of both L-band and S-band synthetic aperture radar (SAR) instruments, making it a dual-frequency imaging radar satellite.
- While NASA has provided the L-band radar, GPS, a high-capacity solid-state recorder to store data and a payload data subsystem, ISRO has provided the S-band radar, the GSLV launch system and spacecraft.
Another important component of the satellite is its large 39-foot stationary antenna reflector.
Made of a gold-plated wire mesh, the reflector will be used to focus " the radar signals emitted and received by the upward-facing feed on the instrument structure".
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3. The Mission
- Once launched into space, NISAR will observe subtle changes in Earth's surfaces, helping researchers better understand the causes and consequences of such phenomena.
- It will spot warning signs of natural disasters, such as volcanic eruptions, earthquakes and landslides.
- The satellite will also measure groundwater levels, track flow rates of glaciers and ice sheets and monitor the planet's forest and agricultural regions, which can improve our understanding of carbon exchange.
By using synthetic aperture radar (SAR), NISAR will produce high-resolution images.
SAR is capable of penetrating clouds and can collect data day and night regardless of the weather conditions. The instrument's imaging Swath the width of the strip of data collected along the length of the orbit track is greater than 150 miles (240 kilometres), which allows it to image the entire Earth in 12 days. |
- NISAR is expected to be launched in January 2024 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre into a near-polar orbit.
- The satellite will operate for a minimum of three years.
- NASA requires the L-band radar for its global science operations for at least three years.
- Meanwhile, ISRO will utilise the S-band radar for a minimum of five years.
For Prelims & Mains
For Prelims: NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar), Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Earth-observation satellite, Jet Propulsion Laboratory, L-band and S-band synthetic aperture radar, GPS, GSLV launch system and spacecraft,
For Mains:
1. What is NISAR and Explain its benefits (250 Words)
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CORAL BLEACH
- The primary cause of coral bleaching is the rising sea temperatures associated with climate change.
- When the water becomes too warm, corals become stressed, and as a survival mechanism, they expel the algae, which leads to the loss of their main source of food.
- Without the colourful algae, the corals appear bleached and are more vulnerable to disease and death
- Other factors can contribute to coral bleaching as well, including ocean acidification, pollution, and extreme weather events.
- All of these stressors can weaken the corals and make them more susceptible to bleaching.
- Coral bleaching is a significant concern for the health and survival of coral reefs around the world.
- Repeated or prolonged bleaching events can lead to mass coral die-offs, causing the loss of biodiversity and the degradation of entire reef ecosystems
- Coral reefs are hot spots of biodiversity. They are often referred to as the rainforests of the sea because they are home to the highest concentrations of species in the ocean.
- Healthy reefs are vibrant ecosystems that support fish and fisheries, which in turn support economies and food for millions of people
- Additionally, they provide billions of dollars in economic activity every year through tourism, particularly in places like the Florida Keys, where people go to scuba dive, snorkel, fish and experience the natural beauty of coral reefs
- If that isn’t enough, reefs also protect shorelines, beaches and billions of dollars in coastal infrastructure by buffering wave energy, particularly during storms and hurricanes.
- They host a microscopic symbiotic algae called zooxanthella that photosynthesizes just like plants, providing food to the coral
Coral reefs are in danger, and there are many things that can be done to protect them. Here are some of the most important actions that individuals, businesses, and governments can take:
- Reduce your carbon footprint. The main threat to coral reefs is climate change, so reducing your carbon emissions is one of the most important things you can do to help. This means driving less, using less energy at home, and eating less meat.
- Support sustainable fishing practices. Overfishing is another major threat to coral reefs. When fish populations are depleted, it can lead to algae blooms that smother coral reefs. Choose to eat seafood that is sustainably caught, and support businesses that practice sustainable fishing methods.
- Use reef-friendly sunscreen. Some sunscreen ingredients can be harmful to coral reefs. Choose a reef-friendly sunscreen that does not contain oxybenzone or octinoxate.
- Support marine protected areas. Marine protected areas (MPAs) are areas of the ocean where fishing and other human activities are restricted. MPAs can help to protect coral reefs by reducing the amount of pollution and fishing pressure they face.
- Volunteer your time to coral reef conservation efforts. There are many organizations that are working to protect coral reefs. You can volunteer your time to help with beach cleanups, coral reef monitoring, or other conservation efforts.
- Establish Marine Protected Areas (MPAs): Designating and effectively managing marine protected areas can help protect coral reefs and the surrounding marine life from destructive activities such as overfishing, pollution, and habitat destruction.
- Encourage Responsible Tourism: Sustainable tourism practices can minimize the negative impacts on coral reefs. This includes promoting responsible diving and snorkeling practices, limiting physical contact with corals, and avoiding the use of harmful chemicals like sunscreen that can harm marine life
For Prelims: Corals, Coral reefs, polyps, zooxanthellae
For Mains: 1.Examine the major human-induced threats to coral reefs, including pollution, overfishing, and coastal development. What measures can be taken to address these threats and conserve coral reef ecosystems?
2.Assess the role of Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) in safeguarding coral reefs. Discuss the challenges in establishing and effectively managing MPAs for coral reef conservation. |
Previous Year Questions
1. Consider the following Statements
1. Most of the coral reefs are in tropical waters
2. More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in territories of Australia, Indonesia, and Phillippines
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests
Which of the statements above given is/ are correct
A. 1 and 2 B. 3 Only C. 1 and 3 D.1, 2, 3
Answer- D
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ELEPHANT (TRANSFER OR TRANSPORT) RULES, 2024
- Under the Wildlife Protection Act, elephants are classified as Schedule 1 species, prohibiting their capture or trade in any circumstance, whether they are wild or captive.
- However, Section 12 of the Act permits the translocation of Schedule I animals for specific reasons like education, scientific research, wildlife population management, and procurement of specimens for accredited zoos or museums.
- Captive elephants, due to their historical roles in forest management, timber transportation, presence in former royal estates, and religious functions in temples, are afforded special status and can be owned.
- Nevertheless, stringent regulations govern the transfer of such elephants, as outlined in Section 40(2) of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which mandates obtaining written permission from the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State for acquisition, possession, or transfer.
- Until 2021, these laws explicitly prohibited commercial transactions involving captive elephants. However, an amendment introduced by the Environment Ministry in 2021 allowed the transfer of elephants for religious or other purposes, raising concerns among activists and researchers about the potential for increased trafficking and illegal commercial dealings.
- Despite opposition from a standing committee, led by former Environment Minister Jairam Ramesh, this amendment was enacted into law
- These regulations introduce new provisions allowing for the transfer or change of ownership of captive elephants under certain relaxed conditions.
- These conditions include scenarios such as when the current owner is unable to adequately care for the elephant or when the Chief Wildlife Warden of a state deems it necessary to transfer the elephant for its better maintenance.
- Prior to any transfer within a state, the elephant's health must be verified by a veterinarian, and the suitability of both its current and potential habitats must be assessed by the Deputy Conservator of Forests. The Chief Wildlife Warden may then decide to approve or reject the transfer based on these documents.
- Similarly, if the transfer involves moving the elephant across state borders, similar criteria apply. Before such a transfer can occur, the elephant's genetic profile must be registered with the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- Previously, regulations stipulated that transferring an elephant from one state to another, such as from Assam to Gujarat, required permissions from the Chief Wildlife Wardens of all the states the elephant would pass through during transportation by road.
- However, the updated rules now only necessitate permissions from the originating and recipient state
VOTE FROM HOME
2. Eligibility for Postal Ballot-Home Voting
Efforts to ensure inclusive participation in elections have traditionally focused on providing accessibility at polling sites, including ramps, separate queues, wheelchairs, and parking facilities. However, the recent extension of the postal ballot-home voting facility allows certain eligible individuals to cast their votes from their residences.
The eligibility criteria for postal ballot-home voting include:
- Senior Citizens: Individuals aged 85 and above are eligible to opt for the postal ballot-home voting facility.
- Persons with Disabilities: Those with a benchmark disability of not less than 40%, certified by the relevant authority, are eligible for postal ballot-home voting.
Chief Election Commissioner Rajiv Kumar emphasized that while many senior citizens prefer to vote in person at polling stations, this option provides them with the convenience of voting from home. It is important to note that individuals who choose this option will not be eligible to vote directly at the polling station on polling day.
This initiative is particularly beneficial during periods of extreme weather conditions, such as heatwaves during the scheduled Lok Sabha elections between April 19 and June 1. Senior voters, especially, may prefer to avoid outdoor exposure during such conditions, making the postal ballot-home voting scheme a practical and inclusive alternative.
The concept of vote-from-home has been previously trialled during Assembly elections in specific regions, targeting individuals with disabilities, senior citizens, and those affected by COVID-19, allowing them to avail of this facility. However, for the upcoming Lok Sabha elections, the Election Commission of India (ECI) has introduced several enhancements and expansions to the eligibility criteria for postal voting.
- The ECI has increased the upper age limit for elderly voters eligible for postal voting from 80 to 85 years, reflecting a broader inclusion of senior citizens in the electoral process.
- In addition to seniors and individuals with disabilities, the postal ballot option is now extended to media personnel covering polling activities with authorized letters from the Election Commission. It also encompasses essential service providers such as metro, railway, and healthcare personnel.
- Furthermore, service voters, including armed forces personnel stationed away from their hometowns, Central Armed Police Forces personnel on deployment, central and state police personnel on election duty, polling personnel, and embassy staff on postings, are eligible for postal voting.
These expansions aim to make the electoral process more inclusive and accessible to a wider range of eligible voters, ensuring their participation even in challenging circumstances such as mobility constraints, professional duties, or health concerns.
To avail of the vote-from-home facility, voters need to follow a specific process facilitated through Form 12D, which serves as a letter to the Assistant Returning Officer (ARO) indicating the inability to visit the polling station on election day.
- Voters can download Form 12D from the Election Commission of India (ECI) website or obtain it from the office of the representative district officer of their parliamentary constituency. The completed form must be submitted within five days of the notification of the polling date.
- The process may need adjustments for better awareness and accessibility. Currently, electors are required to deposit the form to the Booth Level Officers (BLO) or the ARO, which can be problematic for people with disabilities and online submission options to improve accessibility.
- Once the form is filed, a team of two polling officials, accompanied by a videographer and a security person, will visit the elector's home to oversee the postal ballot voting process. The voter will receive notification of the visit date and approximate time via SMS or post. If the elector is not available during the first visit, a second visit will be scheduled.
- Conduct of Elections: During the home visit, the polling team must adhere to the protocol outlined in the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961. This includes issuing postal ballots, briefing the elector on the voting procedure, ensuring the secrecy of voting, and preventing any external influence on the voter's choice.
- Individuals with blindness or physical infirmity are permitted to nominate a companion to assist them during the home voting process, ensuring that all voters have equal access to exercise their franchise.
5. Challenges in Implementing the Vote-from-Home Facility
The extension of the vote-from-home facility poses several challenges to its effective implementation and utilization.
- Coordinating requests, scheduling home visits, and managing the necessary equipment and personnel pose logistical challenges. Moving paraphernalia such as ballot materials, polling officials, videographers, and security personnel to voters' homes requires efficient planning and coordination.
- Resource Availability Whether the electoral machinery can handle the increased workload associated with facilitating home voting for eligible individuals. This includes ensuring an adequate number of polling teams, equipment, and resources to conduct the voting process smoothly.
- The success of the vote-from-home scheme hinges on creating awareness among both voters and polling officers. Voters need to be informed about their eligibility and the process to avail of the facility while polling officials must be trained to handle home visits and adhere to the prescribed protocols during the voting process.
- Polling officers and staff need to be educated and trained on the specific needs and accommodations required for individuals with disabilities and senior citizens. This includes understanding how to facilitate voting assistance, maintain voter privacy and secrecy, and ensure a fair and accessible voting environment.
- The scheme also requires mechanisms to provide necessary assistance to voters with disabilities or those who may require additional support during the home voting process. This could involve providing information in accessible formats, offering assistance for completing forms, and addressing any accessibility barriers.
The Election Commission has launched initiatives such as the Voter's Guide to educate and inform voters, particularly persons with disabilities and senior citizens, about the provisions and procedural details related to the vote-from-home facility. However, ongoing efforts are needed to address these challenges comprehensively and ensure that all eligible voters can exercise their democratic rights effectively.
6. The Way Forward
By implementing the strategies, the Election Commission and relevant stakeholders can overcome challenges, enhance accessibility, and facilitate the smooth conduct of the vote-from-home facility, thereby ensuring that all eligible voters can exercise their democratic rights effectively and inclusively.
For Prelims: Election Commission, Voter's Guide, vote-from-home, Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961 For Mains:
1. Discuss the logistical challenges associated with the implementation of the vote-from-home facility, including coordination, resource allocation, and awareness generation. Suggest measures to address these challenges effectively. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions 1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017) 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 3 only
2. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021) 1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the- existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 3
Answers: 1-D, 2-B Mains 1. In the light of recent controversy regarding the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVM), what are the challenges before the Election Commission of India to ensure the trustworthiness of elections in India? (UPSC 2018) |
Source: The Hindu
MUMPS
Mumps is a viral infection caused by the mumps virus, which belongs to the Paramyxovirus family. It primarily affects the salivary glands, causing swelling and pain around the cheeks and jaw. Mumps is highly contagious and spreads through respiratory droplets or saliva from an infected person.
Transmission and Contagiousness
- Mumps spreads through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. It can also spread through direct contact with saliva or mucus from an infected person.
- The virus can survive on surfaces and objects for several hours, increasing the risk of transmission in close-contact settings like schools, daycares, and crowded areas.
- People infected with mumps are most contagious from a few days before symptoms appear to about five days after the onset of swollen glands.
Symptoms of Mumps
- The hallmark symptom of mumps is swelling and tenderness of the salivary glands, especially the parotid glands located below and in front of the ears. This swelling gives the characteristic "chipmunk cheeks" appearance.
- Other common symptoms include fever, headache, muscle aches, fatigue, loss of appetite, and pain while chewing or swallowing.
- In some cases, mumps can lead to complications such as inflammation of the testicles (orchitis) in males, inflammation of the ovaries (oophoritis) in females, meningitis, encephalitis, and deafness.
Diagnosis and Treatment
- Diagnosis of mumps is usually based on clinical symptoms such as parotid gland swelling and a history of exposure to the virus.
- Laboratory tests, including viral culture, polymerase chain reaction (PCR), and blood tests to detect mumps-specific antibodies, may be conducted to confirm the diagnosis.
- There is no specific antiviral treatment for mumps. Treatment focuses on relieving symptoms through rest, pain relievers (not aspirin for children due to the risk of Reye's syndrome), and staying hydrated.
- Most people recover from mumps without complications within a few weeks.
- The absence of the mumps vaccine from the National Immunization Programme (NIP) in India is a topic of discussion among healthcare experts and policymakers. Despite being a preventable disease through vaccination, several factors contribute to its exclusion.
- One primary reason for mumps not being included in the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) is its historically low mortality rates and the perception that it has limited public health impact compared to other vaccine-preventable diseases like measles and polio.
- The Indian Academy of Paediatrics (IAP) has emphasised that the true public health significance of mumps may be underestimated due to inadequate documentation of clinical cases, complications, and long-term follow-up data. The lack of nationally representative data on mumps incidence and its morbidity profile further complicates decision-making regarding vaccine inclusion.
- While mumps is generally considered a self-limiting disease with short-term symptoms, there is limited information on its long-term morbidity, especially regarding its impact on reproductive organs. More comprehensive studies and data are needed to understand the full spectrum of mumps-related complications and risks.
- The Indian Academy of Paediatrics (IAP) advocates for a reevaluation of mumps' public health significance, emphasizing the need for better documentation, research studies, and data collection to inform decision-making regarding vaccine inclusion in national immunization schedules. Raising awareness about the potential long-term impact of mumps and its complications, particularly on reproductive health, can also play a role in advocating for its inclusion in vaccination programs.
5. Strategies for Controlling Mumps Outbreaks
To effectively control the ongoing mumps outbreaks and prevent further transmission, health officials are implementing targeted strategies aimed at public awareness and immunization coverage.
- Creating public awareness about mumps, its symptoms, and the necessity of isolation is crucial in reducing disease transmission. Individuals with mumps should be isolated for a full three weeks to prevent spreading the virus, considering that transmission can occur before symptoms appear.
- Since mumps cases are primarily affecting unvaccinated children and adolescents, enhancing general immunization coverage is vital. Encouraging parents to ensure their children receive timely vaccinations can significantly reduce the risk of mumps outbreaks.
- Health officials have observed a high number of school-based outbreaks in Kerala, partly due to children returning to school before completing the necessary isolation period. Implementing strict guidelines to ensure symptomatic individuals stay isolated for the required duration can prevent school-based transmissions. Officials anticipate a decrease in new cases during the summer break when schools are closed, providing a temporary break in transmission.
- Continuous monitoring of mumps cases, tracking outbreaks, and responding promptly with isolation measures and public health campaigns are essential for controlling the current outbreaks and preventing future spikes in infections.
6. Future Strategies for Mumps Control and Vaccination
Moving forward, strategic planning and policy adjustments are necessary to effectively control mumps outbreaks and improve vaccination coverage.
- The World Health Organization (WHO) emphasizes the integration of mumps vaccination strategies with existing efforts for measles elimination and rubella control. This integrated approach can optimize resources and enhance overall vaccine coverage.
- The Indian Academy of Paediatrics (IAP) has consistently advocated for the inclusion of the MMR (Mumps-Measles-Rubella) vaccine in the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP). While the MMR vaccine has been available in the private sector, its incorporation into the national immunization schedule can significantly improve mumps control. Global data suggest that two doses of the MMR vaccine offer protection ranging from 70% to 95% with high coverage rates.
- In 2014, Kerala took the initiative to protect children from Rubella by replacing the second dose of the measles vaccine in UIP with the MMR vaccine. However, in 2017, the introduction of the MR vaccine (Measles-Rubella) by the Centre led to Kerala following suit and using MR instead of MMR. Given the current mumps resurgence and the vaccine's effectiveness, Kerala has urged the Centre to reconsider and switch back to the MMR vaccine in the UIP.
- While there are no specific studies on the effectiveness of the mumps vaccine in India, global data supports its efficacy. Continued research and data collection on vaccine effectiveness, coverage rates, and disease burden are essential to inform vaccination policies and strategies.
By integrating vaccination efforts, emphasising the MMR vaccine, and reviewing vaccination policies based on scientific evidence and local disease patterns, health authorities can develop a comprehensive strategy to address mumps outbreaks and enhance overall immunisation coverage in the population.
For Prelims: Mumps, MMR vaccine, World Health Organization, Indian Academy of Paediatrics, Universal Immunization Programme, National Immunization Programme, For Mains:
1. Explain the reasons behind the exclusion of the mumps vaccine from India's National Immunization Programme (NIP). Evaluate the arguments presented by the Indian Academy of Paediatrics (IAP) regarding the necessity of including the mumps vaccine in national immunization schedules. (250 Words)
2. Critically examine the challenges and opportunities in implementing comprehensive vaccination policies to address mumps outbreaks in India. Propose measures for enhancing long-term monitoring, data collection, and research on mumps vaccination effectiveness and disease burden. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant Vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2010) 1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines.
2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Chikungunya is transmitted by: (MPPEB Group 2 2021)
A. Aedes mosquitoes B. Female Anopheles C. Cockroach D. Rat
3. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
4. Covid-19 is which of the following? (Rajasthan Police Constable 2020)
A. An under study vaccine for the corona virus.
B. Drug used to treat corona virus.
C. Another name for the corona virus that created the epidemic in 2019.
D. All diseases in 2019.
5. Which of the following facts about Covid - 19 virus is / are wrong? (TNPSC Group 1 2021)
(a) People who have been infected by the virus but do not have symptoms do not spread virus. (b) Reinfection is not possible.
(c) Anosmia (loss of smell) is a symptom.
(d) Babies do not get infected by Corona virus.
A. (a) and (b) only B. (a), (b), and (d) C. (c) only D. (d) only E. Answer not known
6. As per the World Health Organisation (WHO) recommendation of a balanced diet, to avoid unhealthy weight gain, total fat should NOT exceed _______ of total energy intake. (UPSSSC Mandi Inspector 2019)
A. 20% B. 30% C. 10% D. 40%
7. Dengue is caused by- (MP Police Constable 2022)
A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Fungus D. Pollution
8. Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing? (2013)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
9. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.
2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answers:1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C, 5-B, 6-B, 7-B, 8-B, 9- C
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