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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 21 MARCH 2024

COMPETITION COMMISSION OF INDIA

 
 
 
1. Context
Fair trade regulator Competition Commission of India (CCI) on Wednesday dismissed four petitions of Indian app companies filed against Google’s new Play Store billing policy to levy an 11% to 26% charge on in-app payments.
 
 
2. Competition Commission of India
  • The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is a regulatory authority established in India to promote and protect fair competition in the marketplace.
  • It was established under the Competition Act, 2002, and became fully functional in 2009.
  • The primary objective of the CCI is to prevent anti-competitive practices, ensure a level playing field for businesses, and promote consumer welfare
  • The Competition Commission of India (within the Ministry of Corporate Affairs) has been established to enforce the competition law under the Competition Act, 2002.
  • It should be noted that on the recommendations of Raghavan committee, the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 (MRTP Act) was repealed and replaced by the Competition Act, 2002
  • The Commission consists of a Chairperson and not more than 6 Members appointed by the Central Government
  • It is the statutory duty of the Commission to eliminate practices having an adverse effect on competition, promote and sustain competition, protect the interests of consumers and ensure freedom of trade carried on by other participants, in markets in India as provided in the Preamble as well as Section 18 of the Act.
  • The Commission is also mandated to give its opinion on competition issues to government or statutory authority and to undertake competition advocacy for creating awareness of competition law.
  • Advocacy is at the core of effective competition regulation. Competition Commission of India (CCI), which has been entrusted with implementation of law, has always believed in complementing robust enforcement with facilitative advocacy. It is a quasi-judicial body.
 
3. Key functions and responsibilities 

Here are some key functions and responsibilities of the Competition Commission of India:

  1. Competition Advocacy: The CCI engages in advocacy and education activities to promote competition awareness among businesses, government agencies, and the public.

  2. Antitrust Enforcement: The CCI investigates and takes action against anti-competitive agreements, abuse of dominance by companies, and anti-competitive mergers and acquisitions. It can impose penalties and remedies on entities found to be in violation of competition laws.

  3. Merger Control: The CCI reviews and approves or disapproves mergers, acquisitions, and combinations that may have an adverse impact on competition in the Indian market. It assesses whether these transactions are likely to cause a substantial lessening of competition.

  4. Market Studies and Research: The CCI conducts studies and research to understand market dynamics, competition issues, and emerging trends. This information helps in formulating policies and recommendations to improve competition.

  5. Competition Advocacy: The commission engages in advocacy efforts to promote competition principles and practices among businesses, government agencies, and the public.

  6. Consumer Protection: While primarily focused on promoting competition, the CCI also indirectly promotes consumer welfare by ensuring that markets remain competitive and that consumers have choices and access to fair prices.

  7. Regulation of Anti-Competitive Practices: The CCI addresses practices such as price-fixing, bid rigging, and abuse of market power that can harm competition and consumers.

  8. Legal Proceedings: The CCI has the authority to conduct investigations, hold hearings, and pass orders. Its decisions can be appealed to higher courts in India.

4. What is the Competition Act?
 
  • The Competition Act, 2002, as amended by the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007, follows the philosophy of modern competition laws.
  • The Act prohibits anti-competitive agreements, and abuse of dominant position by enterprises and regulates combinations (acquisition, acquiring of control and M&A), which causes or likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within India
  • In accordance with the provisions of the Amendment Act, the Competition Commission of India and the Competition Appellate Tribunal have been established
  • The government of India replaced Competition Appellate Tribunal (COMPAT) with the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) in 2017
  • The provisions of the Competition Act relating to anti-competitive agreements and abuse of dominant position were notified on May 20, 2009
Competition is the best means of ensuring that the ‘Common Man’ or ‘Aam Aadmi’ has access to the broadest range of goods and services at the most competitive prices. With increased competition, producers will have maximum incentive to innovate and specialize. This would result in reduced costs and wider choice to consumers. A fair competition in market is essential to achieve this objective. Our goal is to create and sustain fair competition in the economy that will provide a ‘level playing field’ to the producers and make the markets work for the welfare of the consumers
 
5. What is Cartelisation?
Cartels can be difficult to define. According to CCI, a “Cartel includes an association of producers, sellers, distributors, traders or service providers who, by agreement amongst themselves, limit, control or attempt to control the production, distribution, sale or price of, or, trade in goods or provision of services”

The International Competition Network, which is a global body dedicated to enforcing competition law, has a simpler definition. The three common components of a cartel are:

  • an agreement;
  • between competitors;
  • to restrict competition.
6. Way forward
CCI needs to revisit its definition of ‘relevant market’. In the age of digital world, defining relevant market has been a tough task for regulators world-wide. Technological developments like Web 3.0, AI, IoT, Blockchain and issues like data protection and privacy, search bias, platform neutrality, confidentiality, etc, have created a need for a robust competition law. Such a law should meet the demands of the technological era we live in.
 
 
For Prelims: Statutory board, Constitutional body
For Mains: 1.Discuss the role and functions of the Competition Commission of India (CCI) in promoting and ensuring fair competition in the Indian market
2.Examine the challenges and limitations faced by the Competition Commission of India (CCI) in effectively regulating and promoting competition in the digital economy
 
Previous year Questions
 1. Competition Commission of India is which kind of body? (RSMSSB Sanganak 2018)
A. Statutory body
B. Constitutional.
C. Single Member
D. Private
Answer (A)
 
Source: indianexpress
 

WTO Ministerial Conference

 

1.Context

India is strongly pursuing its proposal for lowering the cost of cross-border remittances, which it made last month at the largely inconclusive WTO’s 13th Ministerial Conference in Abu Dhabi, and has now asked the multilateral body’s general council (GC) to initiate a work programme to make recommendations for the same
 

2.What is the WTO's Ministerial Conference?

  • The MC is at the very top of WTO's organisational chart.
  • It meets once every two years and can take decisions on all matters under any multilateral trade agreement.
  • Unlike other organisations, such as the International Monetary Fund or World Bank, WTO does not delegate power to a board of directors or an organisational chief.
  • All decisions at the WTO are made collectively and through consensus among member countries at varied councils and committees.
  • This year's conference took place in Geneva, Switzerland, it is co-hosted by Khazikisthan.
 

3.Key Takeaways

  • The ministers made several decisions, including reaffirming their commitment to establish a fully operational dispute settlement system by 2024 and enhancing the utilization of special and differential treatment (S&DT) provisions for developing and least developed countries (LDCs).
  • The multilateral trading order faces significant challenges from a growing movement, particularly in developed economies, advocating for a shift towards isolationism and a departure from a globally unified tariff approach to international trade.
  • This trend is occurring amidst ongoing conflicts worldwide and the imposition of sanctions by certain states, posing threats to global supply chains and the seamless flow of goods and services.
  • Additionally, the differing levels of development between wealthier nations and LDCs have underscored the importance of avoiding a uniform 'one-size-fits-all' approach in establishing norms
 

4.Debates around the agriculture 

  • As far as agricultural, trade and food security are concerned, the challenge is to figure out the most appropriate trading rules in dire situations or natural disasters.
  • Many countries become inward-looking in such times and impose outright export bans citing domestic food security needs.
  • Recent examples include Russia's export ban on wheat and sunflower oil, Ukraine's ban on exports of food staples, Indonesia's ban on Palm oil exports (It was lifted last month), Argentina's ban on beef exports, Turkey, Kyrgyzstan and Kazakhstan's ban on a variety of grain products and India's wheat export ban.

5.Significant debates on India

  • The agreements on the subject are of particular significance to India.
  • India has a significant contribution to the World Food Programme (WEP).
  • It stated that it had never imposed export restrictions for procurement under the programme.
  • It put forth that a blanket exemption could constrain its work in ensuring food security back home.
  • Negotiators agreed that member countries would not impose export prohibitions or restrictions on foodstuffs purchased for humanitarian purposes of the WFP.
  • The decision would not prevent member countries from adopting measures for ensuring domestic food security.
  •  
  • Negotiators could not reach agreements on issues such as permissible public stockholding of domestic food security, domestic support for agriculture, cotton and market access.
  • The central premise agreement was to ensure the availability, accessibility and affordability of food in humanitarian emergencies.
  • Member countries were encouraged with available surplus to release them on international markets in compliance with WTO regulations.
  • It helps LDCs (least-developed countries) and NFIDCs (Not Food Importing Developing Countries) through work programmes to enhance their domestic food security and support agricultural production.
 

6.India's major imports 

  • Indian edible oil bill in 2021-22 crossed $19 billion. India imports 55 to 60 per cent of its oil requirements.
  • India's Agri-exports in FY22 touched $50.3 billion against its agri-imports of $32.4 billion.
  • Indian agriculture is largely globally competitive but its biggest agri-import item, edible oil, accounts for 59 per cent of the agri-import basket.
  • Despite high import duties that have generally been imposed on edible oil imports are followed by fresh fruits and vegetables, pulses, spices and cashew among others.
  • The excessive dependence on imports has raised the pitch for Atamanibharta in edible oil.
  • The Prime Minister launched the National Edible Oil Mission-Oil Palm (NEOM-OP) in 2021.
  • Achieving atmanirbhata in edible oils through traditional oilseeds such as mustard, groundnuts and soya would be required an additional area of about 39 million hectares under oilseeds.
  • Such land will not be available without cutting down the area under key cereals.
  • This could endanger the country's food security even more.
  • A rational policy option to reduce import dependence on edible oils is to develop oil palm at home to ensure that it gives productivity comparable to that in Indonesia and Malaysia about four tonnes of oil per hectare.
  • It is 10 times what mustard can give at existing yields.
    India has identified 2.8 million hectares of the area where oil palm can be grown suitably.
  • The objective of NEOM-OP is to bring in at least 1 million hectares under oil palm by 2025-26.
  • The problem with oil palm is that it is a long gestation period crop. It takes four to six years to come to maturity. 
  • During this period, smallholders need to be fully supported.
  • The support (subsidy) could be the opportunity cost of their lands, say profits from paddy cultivation, which is largely the crop oil palm will replace in coastal and upland areas of Andhra, Telangana and Northeast India.
  • The pricing formula of fresh fruit bunches for farmers has to be dovetailed with a likely long-run average landed price of crude palm oil with due flexibility.
  • The other option is to declare oil palm as a plantation crop and allows the corporate players to own or lease land on a long-term basis to develop their plantations and processing units. it is not plausible in the current socio-political context.
  • India thinks holistically and adopts a long-term vision to reduce its imports from 14MMT in FY22 to 7MMT by FY 27 look bleak.
 

7.Fisheries-related agreements

  • India is successfully managed to carve out an agreement on eliminating subsidies to those engaged in illegal, unreported and unregulated fishing.
  • Overfishing exploits fishes at a pace faster than they could replenish themselves.
  • Currently standing at 34 per cent as per the UN Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
  • Declining fish stocks threaten to worsen poverty and endanger communities that rely on aquatic creatures for their livelihood and food security.
  • According to the agreements, there would be no limitation on subsidies granted or maintained by developing or least-developed countries for fishing within their exclusive economic zones (EEZ).
 

8.Moratoriums on electronic transmissions

  • Member countries agreed to extend the current moratorium on not imposing customs duties on electronic transmission until MC13 ( scheduled to take place in December 2023. India and South Africa opposed it.
  • ETs consist of online deliveries such as music, e-books, films, software and video games.
  • They differ from other cross-border e-commerce since they are ordered online but not delivered physically.
  • The moratorium would help maintain certainly and predictability for businesses and consumers, particularly in the context of the pandemic.
  • India and South Africa citing data from the UN Conference on Trade and Development submitted that extending duty-free market access due to the moratorium resulted in a loss of $10 billion per annum globally 95 per cent of which was borne by developing countries.
  • Customs duties have been traditionally used to avert an undesired surge in imports, allowing nascent domestic industries to remain competitive.
  • Developing countries need to import sizeable equipment and services for upscaling their digital capabilities.
  • Customs duties provide the necessary capital infusion for capacity building and in turn, attempt to address the digital divide particularly high in low-income and developing countries worsen by the covid-19 pandemic.
  • India and South Africa had sought to preserve policy space for the digital advancement of developing countries by letting them generate more revenues from customs and thereby facilitating more investment.

 

9.Patent relaxations

  • Member countries agreed on authorising the use of the subject matter of a patent for producing Covid-19 vaccines by a member country, without the consent of the rights holder.
  • It asks member countries to waive requirements, including export restrictions set forth by WTO regulations to supply domestic markets and member countries with any number of vaccines.
  • The agreement is too late for economically poorer countries.
  • Several LDCs have suffered in their efforts to combat the pandemic, owing to factors stressed balance of payments situation, different levels of development, financial capabilities and varying degrees of import dependence on those products.
  • Within the next six months, members are expected to decide on increasing the scope of the agreement to cover the production and supply of Covid-19 diagnostics and therapeutics as well.
10.How did India approach the deliberations?
  • The primary focus of the Indian delegation, led by Union Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal, was to address a crucial issue concerning India and several other developing economies, specifically regarding the public stockholding (PSH) program.
  • This program plays a crucial role in ensuring food security in these nations. In India, the PSH serves as a vital policy tool, allowing the government to purchase crops like rice and wheat from farmers at a minimum support price (MSP).
  • Subsequently, the government stores and distributes these foodgrains to the less privileged. The MSP is typically higher than market rates, and the government provides cereals at a reduced price to secure food security for over 800 million beneficiaries in the country.
  • However, according to WTO norms, a member nation's food subsidy bill should not exceed 10% of the production value, based on the 1986-88 reference price. Developed nations argue that such programs distort global trade in foodgrains, potentially affecting global grain prices.
  • Additional concerns include issues related to the fisheries sector and a moratorium on customs duties for e-commerce trade. India, being a low subsidizer of the fisheries sector, proposed that developing countries should be permitted to provide subsidies to their impoverished fishermen within the nation's exclusive economic zones (EEZs) or up to 200 nautical miles from the shore.
  • It also suggested that affluent countries should refrain from subsidizing fishing activities carried out by their industrialized vessels beyond the EEZs, at least for the next 25 years.
  • Regarding e-commerce, India, along with several other developing nations, has consistently advocated for ending the moratorium, in effect since 1998, on their ability to impose customs duties on cross-border e-commerce. India contends that this practice undermines its capacity to generate revenue from this rapidly expanding segment of global trade
11.Way Forward
On the agriculture front, as the WTO’s Director General Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala acknowledged in her closing speech, this was the first time that there has been a text. “This has been in the works for the past two decades plus. At MC12 we couldn’t even agree on a text. Even though there are challenges, for the first time we have a text,” she observed. Also, on the fisheries front, a consensus accord now appears close to reaching fruition by mid-year.

However, disappointingly for India, the exemption from customs duties for e-commerce will now carry on for at least two more years

Source: The Hindu
 
 

AIR QUALITY INDEX (AQI)

1. Context

Delhi was the most polluted capital city in the world last year, and the third most polluted city in India in terms of PM (Particulate Matter) 2.5 levels, according to the World Air Quality Report for 2023
 

2. The Air Quality Index (AQI)

The AQI is a colour-coded index launched under the Swachh Bharat campaign to simplify the understanding of pollution levels. It helps convey the condition of the air and guides appropriate measures based on the severity of pollution. The AQI consists of six categories, each with a corresponding colour code: 'Good' (0-50), 'Satisfactory' (51-100), 'Moderately Polluted' (101-200), 'Poor' (201-300), 'Very Poor' (301-400) and 'Severe' (401-500).

3. Calculation of AQI

  • To calculate the AQI, a technical study was conducted by an expert group, including medical professionals, air quality experts, and academics.
  • Various pollutants, such as PM10, PM2.5, Nitrogen Dioxide, Ozone, Carbon, and others, are measured.
  • Each pollutant is assigned a weight based on its impact on human health.
  • The composite air quality index is determined by combining these weights, simplifying multiple data points into a single number and colour to represent overall air quality.
  • Monitoring stations across the country assess these pollutant levels.

4. Impact of Pollutants on Health

  • Among the most harmful pollutants are fine particulate matter, such as PM2.5, which has a diameter smaller than 2.5 micrometres.
  • PM2.5 particles can easily enter the circulatory system, bypassing the nose and throat.
  • They are associated with respiratory problems and reduced visibility, posing health risks such as asthma, heart attacks, bronchitis, and other respiratory issues.

5. Influence on Government Policy

  • Governments, especially in areas like Delhi, use the AQI to announce measures to combat air pollution.
  • When the AQI in the National Capital Region (NCR) reaches the 'severe' category, Stage 4 of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is implemented.
  • GRAP is designed for emergency measures to prevent further deterioration of air quality.
  • Specific actions may include prohibiting the use of non-BS-VI-compliant diesel four-wheelers and restricting the entry of trucks into the city while allowing petrol cars to continue operating as usual.

6. Conclusion

The Air Quality Index is an essential tool that simplifies the understanding of air pollution, assesses its health impacts, and influences government policies and actions to combat deteriorating air quality. As Mumbai braces for worsening air quality, the AQI will continue to be a critical resource for both the government and the public.

 
For Prelims: Air Pollution, Air Quality Index, PM 2.5, PM 10, BS-VI Vehicles, Graded Response Action Plan, National Capital Region, Nitrogen Dioxide, Ozone, Carbon, 
For Mains: 
1. With the onset of worsening air quality in Mumbai, discuss the importance of the AQI as a critical resource for both the government and the public. How can the AQI assist in addressing air pollution-related challenges in the upcoming winter months? (250 Words)

 

Previous Year Questions

1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (UPSC 2016)
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nitrogen dioxide
  4. Sulfur dioxide
  5. Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only      B. 2, 3 and 4 only   C. 1, 4 and 5 only     D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: B

2. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (UPSC 2020)

  1. Automobile exhaust
  2. Tobacco smoke
  3. Wood burning
  4. Using varnished wooden furniture
  5. Using products made of polyurethane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only  B. 2 and 4 only   C. 1, 3 and 4 only     D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

AnswerA

3. What is the ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? (UPSC 2016)

(a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions

(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies.

(c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022

(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank

Answer: A

4. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among (UPSC 2013)

(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

(c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature

(d) high concentration of NO2 O3 and CO in the evening

Answer: A

 

5. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment (UPSC 2013, 2022)

(a) Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen

(b) Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide

(c) Ozone and Carbon Dioxide

(d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide

 Answer: D

 

6. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (UPSC 2017)

(a) Measuring oxygen level in blood

(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems

(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem

(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions

Answer: C

7. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently published the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, in 2020. Which of the following statements is correct about EIA? (Punjab Civil Service 2020)
1. It predicts the effect of a proposed industrial/infrastructural project on the environment.
2. It prevents the proposed activity/project from being approved without proper oversight or taking adverse consequences into account.
3. It compares various alternatives for a project and seeks to identify the one which represents the best combination of economic and environmental costs and benefits.
4. As per the new notification, Coal and non-Coal mineral prospecting and solar photovoltaic projects do not need prior environmental clearance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 1, 2 and 4
Answer: D
 
8.  Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in (NDA 2017)
A. Washington        B. Geneva         C. Moscow         D.  London
 
Answer: B
 
 
9. With reference to the 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2017)
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only            B. 3 only           C. 2 and 3 only              D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
 
10. The IPCC is the United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change. IPCC stands for: (RRB NTPC CBT 2 2022)
A. Intergovernmental Provision on Climate Change
B. International Panel on Climate Change
C. International Provision on Climate Change
D. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
 
Answer: D
 
 
11. Comprehension (SSC CHSL 2020)
 
Direction: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Forest fire always (1) ______ by one of two reasons-naturally caused or human-caused. Natural fire is generally (2) ______ by lightning, with a very small percentage (3) ______ by spontaneous combustion of dry fuel such as sawdust and leaves. (4) ______, human-caused fire can happen (5) ______ any number of reasons.
Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1.
A. takes up    B. happens    C. causes    D. creates
 
Answer: B
 
12. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the (UPSC 2020) 
A. long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emission in a given year.
B. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.
C. efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
D. contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.
 
Answer: A
 
13. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (UPSC 2012)
A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
C. all the solar radiations
D. the infrared part of the solar radiation
 
Answer: D
 
14. As per the World Health Organisation (WHO) recommendation of a balanced diet, to avoid unhealthy weight gain, total fat should NOT exceed _______ of total energy intake. (UPSSSC Mandi Inspector 2019)
A. 20%         B.  30%        C. 10%          D. 40%
 
Answer: B
 
15. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems? (UPSC 2012)
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only        B. 2 and 3 only          C. 1 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: A
 
16. Which of the following ultraviolet rays is more dangerous? (UPTET 2017)
A. UV-A        B. UV-B          C.  UV-C          D.  None of the above
 
Answer: C
 
17. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019) 
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only         B. 2 and 3 only          C. 2 only          D.  1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: D
 
18. Which of the following is a VOC? (MP Vyapam 2022) 
A. Toulene          B. Water            C. Carbon dioxide          D. Carbon monoxide
 
Answer: A
 
19. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are of great concern because (UGC NET  Environmental Science  2020)
A. Once such compounds are in the vapour state, they are difficult to control in the environment.
B. Most of them are ozone depleting substances
C. They contribute to a general increase in reactive hydrocarbons in the atmosphere.
D. They are less soluble in water.
 
Answer: C

 Source: The Indian Express

STATE OF THE CLIMATE REPORT 2023

 
 
1. Context
 
The World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) has made it official: 2023 was the warmest year on record, while the past decade (2014-23) was the warmest ever, the WMO said in its latest
 
2.State of the Climate Report
 
  • In its annual State of the Climate Report, the WMO has stated that the global average surface temperature in 2023 was 1.45 degrees Celsius higher than the average during the pre-industrial period of 1850-1900. This increase significantly surpasses the 1.29 degrees Celsius rise from pre-industrial levels recorded in 2016.
  • Over the period from 2014 to 2023, the average global surface temperature was 1.2 degrees Celsius higher than the pre-industrial average, marking it as the warmest 10-year period on record.
  • The report by WMO highlighted that concentrations of the three main greenhouse gases — carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide — reached new records in 2022, the latest year for which comprehensive global data were available.
  • Carbon dioxide concentrations in 2022 reached 417.9 parts per million, representing 150 percent of pre-industrial levels. Methane concentrations stood at 1,923 parts per billion, equivalent to 264 percent of pre-industrial levels. Nitrous oxide concentrations in 2022 were measured at 335.8 parts per billion, accounting for 124 percent of pre-industrial levels, as per the report.
  • Much of this information had been previously released in November of the previous year, utilizing data until October, in a provisional report published by WMO to coincide with the annual climate change conference. The data up to October was sufficiently robust, leading to expectations that none of the trends would change during the final two months of the year.
  • With 70 percent of Earth's surface covered by water, rising greenhouse gases result in excess energy, which is stored in the form of heat and absorbed by oceans.
  • Alongside this heat, oceans absorb carbon dioxide, contributing to ocean acidification, rising sea levels, and other impacts.
  • The ocean heat content in 2023 surpassed the 2022 value, reaching a 65-year high record, according to WMO.
  • Unusually warm conditions persisted in the Mediterranean Sea and Atlantic Ocean, while the Pacific Ocean warmed due to El Niño conditions that began in June of the previous year.
  • Similar to heatwaves and cold waves on land, the oceans experience marine heatwaves and marine cold waves.
  • With 2023 being an El Niño year, characterized by higher than normal sea surface temperatures in the equatorial Pacific Ocean, marine heatwaves persisted in the North Atlantic Ocean.
  • WMO reported that at least 32 percent of the total global ocean area experienced marine heatwaves daily last year, compared to 23 percent during the 2016 El Niño episode. Conversely, just under 4 percent of the oceanic area experienced marine cold waves, indicating the extent of ocean warming in 2023
3. What is the meaning of ocean heat content?
 
  • Ocean heat content (OHC) refers to the total amount of heat energy stored in the ocean at a given time, typically measured in joules per square meter (J/m²) or in units of energy per unit area. It represents the cumulative heat absorbed by the ocean from various sources, including solar radiation, atmospheric heat exchange, and heat transferred from the Earth's interior.
  • Ocean heat content is an important indicator of climate change and global warming because the ocean acts as a massive heat sink, absorbing and storing excess heat from the atmosphere. Changes in OHC can influence sea surface temperatures, ocean circulation patterns, and marine ecosystems.
  • Monitoring ocean heat content over time provides valuable information about the Earth's energy balance and the rate of heat uptake by the ocean, which in turn affects weather patterns, sea level rise, and the frequency and intensity of extreme weather events. Rising ocean heat content is a key indicator of global warming and its impacts on the marine environment and coastal communities
4. What is the Kyoto Protocol?
 

The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty aimed at combating global climate change by reducing greenhouse gas emissions. It was adopted on December 11, 1997, in Kyoto, Japan, and entered into force on February 16, 2005. The protocol is an extension of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), which was established in 1992.

Key features of the Kyoto Protocol include:

  • Greenhouse Gas Reduction Targets: The protocol sets legally binding emission reduction targets for developed countries, known as Annex I parties, for the period 2008-2012. These targets are aimed at reducing emissions of six greenhouse gases: carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O), hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and sulfur hexafluoride (SF6).

  • Emissions Trading: The Kyoto Protocol introduces emissions trading mechanisms, allowing countries to buy and sell emissions credits to meet their reduction targets more cost-effectively. This includes the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), which allows developed countries to invest in emission reduction projects in developing countries and receive credits for the emissions reductions achieved.

  • Flexible Mechanisms: The protocol includes other flexible mechanisms such as Joint Implementation (JI) and International Emissions Trading (IET), which provide additional avenues for countries to achieve their emission reduction targets.

  • Compliance and Monitoring: The Kyoto Protocol establishes a compliance system to ensure that countries meet their obligations under the treaty. This includes regular reporting of emissions data and compliance reviews by an international body.

  • Adaptation and Finance: The protocol recognizes the need for adaptation to the impacts of climate change, particularly in vulnerable developing countries. It also calls for financial and technological assistance from developed countries to support adaptation and mitigation efforts in developing countries

5. What is the Paris Agreement and its purpose?
 

The Paris Agreement is an international treaty on climate change that was adopted on December 12, 2015, at the 21st Conference of the Parties (COP21) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) held in Paris, France. It entered into force on November 4, 2016, and as of my last update in January 2022, it has been ratified by 196 parties, including 195 UNFCCC member states and the European Union.

The purpose of the Paris Agreement is to strengthen the global response to climate change by keeping the increase in global average temperature well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels, and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5 degrees Celsius. Additionally, the agreement aims to enhance the ability of countries to adapt to the impacts of climate change and to make financial flows consistent with a pathway towards low greenhouse gas emissions and climate-resilient development.

Key features of the Paris Agreement include:

  • Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs): Each participating country is required to submit its own nationally determined contribution, outlining its climate action plans and targets for reducing greenhouse gas emissions. These contributions are not legally binding, but countries are encouraged to regularly update and enhance their NDCs over time.

  • Global Stocktake: The agreement establishes a process for conducting a global stocktake every five years to assess collective progress towards achieving the agreement's long-term goals. This includes assessing countries' emission reduction efforts, adaptation measures, and support provided to developing countries.

  • Transparency and Accountability: The Paris Agreement includes provisions for transparency and accountability, requiring countries to regularly report on their emissions and progress towards their climate goals. There are also mechanisms for review and assessment to ensure that countries are meeting their commitments.

  • Climate Finance: Developed countries are expected to provide financial support to developing countries to assist them in mitigating and adapting to climate change. The agreement sets a goal of mobilizing $100 billion per year in climate finance by 2020, with a commitment to further financial support beyond that.

  • Technology Transfer and Capacity Building: The Paris Agreement emphasizes the importance of technology transfer and capacity building to support climate action in developing countries, particularly those with limited resources and expertise

6.Way Forward
 
The Kyoto Protocol represents a significant milestone in international efforts to address climate change. While it has faced challenges and criticism, including the withdrawal of some key countries, it has helped to raise awareness of the need for global action on climate change and has paved the way for subsequent agreements such as the Paris Agreement
Paris Agreement represents a landmark global effort to address climate change and transition towards a low-carbon, climate-resilient future. It provides a framework for international cooperation and collective action to tackle one of the greatest challenges facing humanity
 
 
For Prelims: General issues on Environmental ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Change – that do not require subject specialization
For Mains: General Studies III: Conservation, environmental pollution and degradation, environmental impact assessment
 
Previous year Question
Consider the following pairs: (UPSC 2016)
Terms have sometimes been seen in the news       Their origin
1. Annex-I Countries                                            Cartagena Protocol
2. Certified Emissions                                          Reductions Nagoya Protocol
3. Clean Development                                           Mechanism Kyoto Protocol
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer C
2. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2016)

1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017.

2. The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.

3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility for global warming and committed to donate $1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries cope with climate change.
 
Select the correct answer using the code given below
A. 1 and 3 only
B.  2 only
C.  2 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
 
3. The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of ( UPSC 2016)

A. pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East

B. plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change

C. capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

D. plan of action outlined by the countries of the world regarding Sustainable Development Goals

Answer: B

Source: Indianexpress

WORLD AIR QUALITY REPORT 2023

 
 
 
1. Context
Delhi was the most polluted capital city in the world last year, and the third most polluted city in India in terms of PM (Particulate Matter) 2.5 levels, according to the World Air Quality Report for 2023
 
2.World air quality Report 2023-know Key takeaways
 
  • In 2023, India ranked as the third most polluted country, trailing behind Pakistan and Bangladesh, as per findings from the World Air Quality Report utilizing data from IQAir, a Swiss company.
  • India recorded an annual PM 2.5 concentration of 54.4µg/m3, while Pakistan and Bangladesh reported higher levels at 73.7µg/m3 and 79.9µg/m3 respectively. Notably, India's PM 2.5 average was 53.3µg/m3 in 2022, when it held the eighth position in terms of pollution, and 58.1µg/m3 in 2021.
  • The report, released recently and drawing data from over 30,000 air quality monitoring stations in 7,812 locations across 134 countries, highlighted that 42 of the world's most polluted 50 cities are in India.
  • Among these, New Delhi recorded the highest pollution levels globally at 92.7µg/m3, with Begusarai (118.9µg/m3) and Guwahati (105.4µg/m3) leading within India.
  • Delhi's Union Territory registered an average PM 2.5 concentration of 102.1µg/m3, ranking it third in global pollution levels, while New Delhi itself stood at sixth with 92.7µg/m3.
  • Mullanpur in Punjab (100.4µg/m3) and Lahore in Pakistan (99.5µg/m3) were identified as the fourth and fifth most polluted areas respectively.
  • Greater Noida emerged as the most polluted area within the National Capital Region, ranking 11th overall, followed by Gurugram at 17th with concentrations of 88.6µg/m3 and 84µg/m3 respectively.
  • The report also revealed that only seven out of 134 countries—Australia, Estonia, Finland, Grenada, Iceland, Mauritius, and New Zealand—met the World Health Organization's annual PM 2.5 average standard of 5µg/m3 or lower.
3. What are the other reasons for Air pollution in Delhi?
 

Air pollution in Delhi can be attributed to various factors, including:

  • Vehicular Emissions: The high number of vehicles on the roads in Delhi contributes significantly to air pollution. Diesel vehicles, in particular, emit pollutants such as particulate matter (PM), nitrogen oxides (NOx), and sulfur dioxide (SO2).

  • Industrial Emissions: Delhi's industrial areas release pollutants into the air, including particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, and volatile organic compounds (VOCs). Industries such as power plants, factories, and manufacturing units contribute to air pollution.

  • Construction Activities: Construction activities generate dust and pollutants, contributing to particulate matter in the air. Unpaved roads and construction sites are significant sources of dust emissions.

  • Agricultural Practices: The burning of crop residues in neighboring states during the winter months, known as stubble burning, releases large amounts of smoke and pollutants into the atmosphere, affecting air quality in Delhi and its surrounding regions.

  • Household and Cooking Fuels: The use of solid fuels such as wood, coal, and biomass for cooking and heating in households, particularly in rural areas and slums, releases pollutants such as PM, carbon monoxide (CO), and volatile organic compounds (VOCs).

  • Waste Burning: Open burning of waste, including plastics and organic matter, releases harmful pollutants into the air, contributing to air pollution in Delhi.

  • Dust and Road Dust: Unpaved roads, construction activities, and vehicular movement generate dust particles that contribute to particulate matter in the air.

  • Geographic Factors: Delhi's geographical location and climate patterns, such as temperature inversions during winter months, can exacerbate air pollution by trapping pollutants close to the ground.

4.Significance of Geographical location of Delhi regarding Pollution
 

The geographical location of D elhi plays a significant role in the city's pollution levels due to several factors:

  • Topography: Delhi is located in a landlocked plain, which can trap pollutants and prevent their dispersion. During certain weather conditions, such as temperature inversions, the surrounding hills can act as a barrier, trapping pollutants within the city.

  • Wind Patterns: Delhi's pollution levels are influenced by prevailing wind patterns. During certain seasons, winds from agricultural regions where stubble burning occurs can carry pollutants into the city, contributing to high levels of particulate matter and other pollutants.

  • Climate Conditions: Delhi experiences extreme weather conditions, with hot summers and cold winters. During the winter months, temperature inversions occur when cold air near the ground is trapped under a layer of warmer air, preventing pollutants from dispersing and leading to the buildup of smog and haze.

  • Proximity to Agricultural Areas: Delhi is surrounded by agricultural regions where practices such as stubble burning are common. Winds can carry smoke and pollutants from these areas into the city, further exacerbating air pollution levels.

  • Urban Heat Island Effect: Delhi experiences the urban heat island effect, where urban areas are significantly warmer than surrounding rural areas due to human activities and infrastructure. This effect can worsen air pollution by promoting the formation of secondary pollutants such as ozone.

  • Population Density: Delhi is one of the most densely populated cities in the world, with a high concentration of vehicles, industries, and residential areas. The dense population contributes to increased emissions of pollutants such as particulate matter, nitrogen oxides, and volatile organic compounds

5. What is Particulate Matter (PM)?
 

Particulate Matter (PM) refers to a mixture of solid particles and liquid droplets found in the air. These particles vary in size, composition, and origin, and they can have significant impacts on human health and the environment. PM is categorized based on its size, with finer particles generally considered more harmful as they can penetrate deeper into the respiratory system.

Here's a table summarizing different categories of particulate matter along with their descriptions:

PM Category Size Range (micrometers) Description
PM10 10 micrometers or smaller Particles with a diameter of 10 micrometers or smaller, including dust, pollen, mold spores, and fine particles from combustion processes. PM10 can irritate the eyes, nose, and throat and exacerbate respiratory conditions.
PM2.5 2.5 micrometers or smaller Fine particles with a diameter of 2.5 micrometers or smaller, primarily emitted from vehicle exhaust, industrial processes, and burning of fuels. PM2.5 can penetrate deep into the lungs and enter the bloodstream, leading to various health problems, including respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.
PM1 1 micrometer or smaller Ultrafine particles with a diameter of 1 micrometer or smaller, generated from combustion processes, industrial activities, and vehicle emissions. PM1 can penetrate deeply into the lungs and may have more severe health impacts than larger particles.
PM0.1 0.1 micrometer or smaller Nanoparticles with a diameter of 0.1 micrometer or smaller, often produced from combustion engines, industrial processes, and certain chemical reactions. PM0.1 can penetrate the respiratory system deeply and may reach other organs, potentially causing systemic health effects.
 
 
5. What is a Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP)?
 

The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is a comprehensive action plan implemented in the National Capital Region (NCR) of India, particularly in Delhi, to combat air pollution and improve air quality. GRAP was first introduced by the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) in Delhi in 2017 and has since been revised and updated to address changing pollution levels and emerging challenges.

GRAP consists of a series of measures categorized into different levels based on the severity of air pollution. These measures are implemented when air quality deteriorates beyond certain thresholds, as determined by key indicators such as concentrations of particulate matter (PM2.5 and PM10), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), sulfur dioxide (SO2), and ozone (O3).

The key components of GRAP include:

  • Emergency Response: During periods of severe air pollution, emergency measures such as the implementation of the odd-even vehicle scheme (restricting vehicles based on license plate numbers), closure of schools and construction activities, and intensification of enforcement actions against polluting activities are implemented to reduce emissions and protect public health.

  • Stringent Pollution Control Measures: GRAP mandates the strict enforcement of pollution control measures, including the closure of polluting industries, enforcement of dust control measures at construction sites, and restrictions on the operation of diesel generators.

  • Public Awareness and Health Advisory: GRAP includes initiatives to raise public awareness about air pollution and its health impacts, as well as providing health advisories and guidance on mitigating exposure to polluted air.

  • Coordination and Monitoring: GRAP requires coordination between various government agencies, including the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs), municipal corporations, and law enforcement authorities, to ensure effective implementation and monitoring of pollution control measures.

6. What is the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)?
 

The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) is a specialized regulatory body established by the Government of India to address air pollution and improve air quality in the National Capital Region (NCR) and adjoining areas. It was formed in October 2020 through an ordinance issued by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

The primary objectives of the Commission for Air Quality Management are:

  • Comprehensive Management of Air Quality: CAQM is tasked with formulating and implementing comprehensive strategies, action plans, and policies to control air pollution and improve air quality in the NCR and surrounding regions.

  • Coordination and Cooperation: The commission facilitates coordination and cooperation among various stakeholders, including central and state government agencies, local authorities, industry representatives, and civil society organizations, to address air pollution effectively.

  • Enforcement and Compliance: CAQM has the authority to enforce compliance with air quality standards, emission norms, and pollution control measures by regulating industries, vehicles, construction activities, and other sources of pollution.

  • Research and Innovation: The commission promotes research, innovation, and the adoption of advanced technologies to monitor air quality, analyze pollution sources, and develop effective mitigation measures.

  • Public Awareness and Participation: CAQM engages in public awareness campaigns and encourages public participation in efforts to combat air pollution, emphasizing the importance of individual and collective actions to improve air quality

 
For Prelims: Current events of national and international importance.
For Mains: General Studies III: Conservation, environmental pollution and degradation, environmental impact assessment
 
 

Previous Year Questions

1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (UPSC 2016)
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nitrogen dioxide
  4. Sulfur dioxide
  5. Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only      B. 2, 3 and 4 only   C. 1, 4 and 5 only     D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: B

2. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (UPSC 2020)

  1. Automobile exhaust
  2. Tobacco smoke
  3. Wood burning
  4. Using varnished wooden furniture
  5. Using products made of polyurethane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only  B. 2 and 4 only   C. 1, 3 and 4 only     D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

AnswerA

3. What is the ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? (UPSC 2016)

(a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions

(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies.

(c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022

(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank

Answer: A

4. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among (UPSC 2013)

(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

(c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature

(d) high concentration of NO2 O3 and CO in the evening

Answer: A

 

5. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment (UPSC 2013, 2022)

(a) Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen

(b) Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide

(c) Ozone and Carbon Dioxide

(d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide

 Answer: D

 

6. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (UPSC 2017)

(a) Measuring oxygen level in blood

(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems

(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem

(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions

Answer: C

7. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently published the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, in 2020. Which of the following statements is correct about EIA? (Punjab Civil Service 2020)
1. It predicts the effect of a proposed industrial/infrastructural project on the environment.
2. It prevents the proposed activity/project from being approved without proper oversight or taking adverse consequences into account.
3. It compares various alternatives for a project and seeks to identify the one which represents the best combination of economic and environmental costs and benefits.
4. As per the new notification, Coal and non-Coal mineral prospecting and solar photovoltaic projects do not need prior environmental clearance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 1, 2 and 4
Answer: D
 
8.  Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in (NDA 2017)
A. Washington        B. Geneva         C. Moscow         D.  London
 
Answer: B
 
 
9. With reference to the 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2017)
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only            B. 3 only           C. 2 and 3 only              D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
 
10. The IPCC is the United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change. IPCC stands for: (RRB NTPC CBT 2 2022)
A. Intergovernmental Provision on Climate Change
B. International Panel on Climate Change
C. International Provision on Climate Change
D. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
 
Answer: D
 
 
11. Comprehension (SSC CHSL 2020)
 
Direction: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Forest fire always (1) ______ by one of two reasons-naturally caused or human-caused. Natural fire is generally (2) ______ by lightning, with a very small percentage (3) ______ by spontaneous combustion of dry fuel such as sawdust and leaves. (4) ______, human-caused fire can happen (5) ______ any number of reasons.
Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1.
A. takes up    B. happens    C. causes    D. creates
 
Answer: B
 
12. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the (UPSC 2020) 
A. long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emission in a given year.
B. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.
C. efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
D. contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.
 
Answer: A
 
13. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (UPSC 2012)
A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
C. all the solar radiations
D. the infrared part of the solar radiation
 
Answer: D
 
14. As per the World Health Organisation (WHO) recommendation of a balanced diet, to avoid unhealthy weight gain, total fat should NOT exceed _______ of total energy intake. (UPSSSC Mandi Inspector 2019)
A. 20%         B.  30%        C. 10%          D. 40%
 
Answer: B
 
15. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems? (UPSC 2012)
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only        B. 2 and 3 only          C. 1 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: A
 
16. Which of the following ultraviolet rays is more dangerous? (UPTET 2017)
A. UV-A        B. UV-B          C.  UV-C          D.  None of the above
 
Answer: C
 
17. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019) 
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only         B. 2 and 3 only          C. 2 only          D.  1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: D
 
18. Which of the following is a VOC? (MP Vyapam 2022) 
A. Toulene          B. Water            C. Carbon dioxide          D. Carbon monoxide
 
Answer: A
 
19. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are of great concern because (UGC NET  Environmental Science  2020)
A. Once such compounds are in the vapour state, they are difficult to control in the environment.
B. Most of them are ozone depleting substances
C. They contribute to a general increase in reactive hydrocarbons in the atmosphere.
D. They are less soluble in water.
 
Answer: C

 Source: The Indian Express

DARK RESERVE

 
 
 
1. Context
 
In October 2022, 24 ambassadors from Hanle, including 18 women, were handpicked as astronomy ambassadors and trained in basic astronomy to boost India’s first-ever astronomy tourism promotion in Ladakh. Each of the ambassadors has been equipped with an 8-inch telescope. Astronomy tourism is a joint initiative by the Ladakh union territory administration and Bengaluru-based Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA). 
 

2. What is dark reserve?

  • It is public or private land with a distinguished nocturnal environment and starry nights that have been developed responsibly to prevent light pollution.
  • These reserves consist of a core area meeting minimum criteria for sky quality and natural darkness and a peripheral area that supports dark sky preservation in the core.
  • These reserves are formed through a" partnership of multiple land managers who have recognized the value of the natural nighttime environment through regulations and long-term planning.

 

3. Criteria to a become a ‘Dark Sky Reserve’

A "Dark Sky Reserve" is an area designated to have exceptionally low levels of light pollution, making it an ideal location for stargazing and astronomical observation. 

  • Criteria Assessment: The first step is to assess the area based on specific criteria set by organizations such as the International Dark-Sky Association (IDA). These criteria typically include factors like sky brightness, natural darkness conditions, visibility of celestial objects, and the presence of artificial light sources.
  • Light Pollution Measurement: Experts use specialized equipment to measure the levels of light pollution in the area. This involves quantifying skyglow (brightening of the night sky due to artificial light), glare (excessive brightness that impairs vision), and light trespass (light spilling into areas where it is not intended or needed).
  • Community Engagement: Local communities, government bodies, conservation groups, and stakeholders are engaged in the process. This includes raising awareness about the importance of preserving natural darkness, promoting responsible lighting practices, and garnering support for the Dark Sky Reserve designation.
  • Lighting Guidelines: Implementing lighting guidelines and regulations is crucial to reducing light pollution. This may involve adopting lighting ordinances, encouraging use of shielded and energy-efficient lighting fixtures, and minimizing unnecessary outdoor lighting during nighttime hours.
  • Public Outreach and Education: Educational programs, public events, and outreach activities are conducted to educate residents, businesses, and visitors about the value of dark skies, astronomy, nocturnal wildlife, and the environmental benefits of reducing light pollution.
  • Application and Evaluation: Once the area meets the criteria and fulfills the necessary requirements, an official application is submitted to the relevant authority or organization, such as the IDA. The application undergoes rigorous evaluation and review by experts in the field of astronomy, environmental conservation, and lighting design.
  • Designation and Management: If the application is successful, the area is officially designated as a Dark Sky Reserve. Management plans are then implemented to ensure ongoing protection of the night sky, monitoring of light pollution levels, periodic reviews, and collaborative efforts to maintain the reserve's dark sky status.

 

4. India’s first Dark Sky Reserve

  • The Ladakh Union Territory administration is leading the efforts in establishing the country's first Dark Sky Reserve
  • The formal decision to set up this reserve was made through an MOU signed between officials from the IIA, the Ladakh UT, and the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council
  • It is situated at a height of 4500 meters above sea level; the Hanle Dark Sky Reserve will come up within the Changthang wildlife sanctuary.
  • The Department of Science and Technology and experts from the India Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) Bengaluru are providing scientific and technological support in developing this first-of-its-kind facility. The IIA already manages the Indian Astronomical Observatory ((IAO) complex at Hanle.
 

5. Reasons for Selecting Ladakh for the project

Ladakh was chosen for the project to develop India's first Dark Sky Reserve due to several key factors that make it an ideal location for preserving natural darkness and promoting astronomical observation. 

  • Low Light Pollution: Ladakh is known for its minimal light pollution compared to urban areas. The region has fewer artificial light sources, leading to darker skies and better visibility of celestial objects such as stars, planets, and galaxies.
  • High Altitude and Clear Skies: The high-altitude terrain of Ladakh, with its clear skies and dry climate, provides excellent atmospheric conditions for stargazing and astronomical observations. The absence of significant light pollution enhances the visibility of faint celestial phenomena.
  • Remote Location: Ladakh's remote location away from major cities and industrial zones contributes to its natural darkness. The lack of large-scale human activity and infrastructure helps maintain the darkness of the night sky.
  • Astronomical Interest: Ladakh has gained recognition among astronomers, astrophotographers, and sky enthusiasts due to its favorable astronomical conditions. The region's appeal for astronomical research and tourism has led to initiatives to preserve its dark skies and promote astrotourism.
  • Environmental Conservation: Developing a Dark Sky Reserve in Ladakh aligns with efforts to conserve natural ecosystems and protect nocturnal wildlife. By reducing light pollution, the project contributes to maintaining the ecological balance and biodiversity of the region.
  • Tourism and Education: Establishing a Dark Sky Reserve in Ladakh can attract tourists interested in astronomy and provide educational opportunities for schools, colleges, and research institutions. It promotes scientific awareness, environmental stewardship, and sustainable tourism practices.

 

6. Will this help boost tourism in Ladakh?

 Establishing a Dark Sky Reserve in Ladakh has strong potential to boost tourism in the region, here's why:
  • Appeal to Niche Market: The reserve caters to a specific audience - astronomy enthusiasts and stargazers seeking a unique experience under exceptionally dark skies. This attracts a new segment of tourists to Ladakh, potentially extending the tourist season and offering an alternative to traditional sightseeing options.
  • Enhanced Reputation: The "Dark Sky Reserve" designation positions Ladakh as a premier destination for astronomical observations. This recognition can attract astro-tourism companies and researchers, further boosting its reputation as a hub for stargazing.
  • Unique Activities and Experiences: The reserve can offer unique tourist experiences like stargazing tours with telescopes led by trained guides, astrophotography workshops, and educational programs about astronomy. These activities can diversify the tourism offerings in Ladakh.
  • Economic Benefits: Increased tourist arrivals lead to economic benefits for the region. This can include increased revenue for hotels, homestays, restaurants, and local guides specializing in astronomy tours.
  • Infrastructure Development: The growth of astro-tourism might encourage investments in infrastructure related to tourism, such as specialized accommodation, transportation options for night travel, and astronomy-related visitor centers.
Challenges and Considerations
  • Balancing Development with Darkness: Responsible management is crucial to ensure development for tourism doesn't lead to increased light pollution that could compromise the darkness of the reserve.
  • Accessibility and Seasonality: Ladakh's high altitude and harsh climate might limit accessibility for some tourists, especially during the colder months.
  • Infrastructure Readiness: Ensuring adequate infrastructure and facilities to cater to astro-tourism needs is important.
 
7. The Way Forward
 
By implementing the strategies, stakeholders can ensure the Hanle Dark Sky Reserve thrives as a center for astronomical research, education, and responsible astro-tourism. This will not only contribute to scientific advancement and environmental conservation but also create a unique tourism destination that attracts visitors seeking a connection with the wonders of the night sky.
 
 
For Prelims: Dark Sky Reserve, Indian Institute of Astrophysics, Indian Astronomical Observatory
For Mains: 
1. Evaluate the socio-economic impact of astro-tourism on the Changthang region of Ladakh. How can a balance be achieved between promoting tourism and protecting the ecological and cultural heritage of the region? (250 words)
 
Previous Year Questions

1. Consider the following phenomena: (UPSC CSE 2018)

  1. Light is affected by gravity.
  2. The Universe is constantly expanding.
  3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.

Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Source: The Hindu

COLOURING AGENTS

 
 
 
1. Context
 
Karnataka has become the third state in South India to prohibit the use of specific coloring agents in cotton candy and gobi manchurian due to their harmful effects. This decision mirrors actions taken in Tamil Nadu and Goa. The move follows a survey conducted by the Public Health Department, which revealed the presence of hazardous chemicals in food samples, rendering them unsafe for consumption. The government has emphasized that making cotton candy is still allowed as long as these coloring agents are not utilized.
 

2. Survey Findings on Harmful Chemicals in Food Samples

During the survey conducted in the state, samples were collected between February 12 and subjected to laboratory tests. The results indicated the presence of harmful chemicals in numerous samples:

  • Out of 25 cotton candy samples, 15 were labeled as unsafe due to the presence of added colors, while the remaining were deemed safe as they were prepared without the use of such colors.
  • Among the 171 gobi manchurian samples tested, 107 were categorized as unsafe due to the inclusion of added colors, while the remaining 64 were considered safe as they did not contain any added colors.

3. Identification of Harmful Chemicals in Unsafe Samples

The unsafe samples containing added colors were found to contain specific harmful chemicals:

  • Cotton candy samples showed traces of sunset yellow, tartrazine, and rhodamine-b.
  • Gobi manchurian samples also had tartrazine, sunset yellow, and carmoisine.

Of particular concern is the use of rhodamine-b, which is already banned due to its status as a suspected carcinogen. Regarding tartrazine, Health Minister Dinesh Gundu Rao explained that while it is an approved artificial food color, there are restrictions on its usage. These restrictions include specific food items where it can be used and prescribed amounts, primarily for packed food items and not for freshly prepared food items.

The Food Safety Commissioner highlighted that the prolonged consumption of snacks containing artificial colors can lead to severe health consequences, including the risk of deadly diseases such as cancer.


4. Penalties for Violating Food Safety Regulations

According to Rule 16 of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (Food Products Standards and Food Additives Regulation 2011), the use of artificial colors in the preparation of gobi manchurian is strictly prohibited. Similarly, certain food colors are allowed within approved limits, while banned colors such as rhodamine-b are prohibited in the preparation of cotton candy.

Offenders who violate these regulations face severe penalties, including:

  1. Cancellation of their commercial license.
  2. Hefty fines imposed as per the Food Safety and Standards Act, which stipulates a minimum fine of ₹10 lakh.
  3. Potential jail terms ranging from a minimum of seven years to life imprisonment for those found guilty of using banned chemical substances in food products.

These penalties serve as strong deterrents to ensure compliance with food safety regulations and protect consumers from the harmful effects of unauthorized food additives.

 

5. Immediate Implementation

Health safety officials have confirmed the immediate implementation of the ban on harmful chemicals. The Government's strategy includes raising awareness among manufacturers while encouraging consumers to be mindful of their consumption choices.

The public notification advises against the use of food items containing artificial colors or recommends minimal usage. To ensure compliance, random checks will be conducted to verify adherence to legal provisions.

Apart from gobi manchurian, other popular food products like kebabs, which may also use coloring agents, are likely to undergo scrutiny and may come under regulatory review in the future.

 

6. The Way Forward

By implementing these strategies, the government can work towards a safer and healthier food environment, protecting consumers from the adverse effects of harmful coloring agents in food products.

For Prelims: artificial colors,  coloring agents, Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
For Mains: 
1. As a public health official, how would you approach the challenge of raising awareness about food safety among street food vendors and consumers? (250 words)
Source: The Hindu

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