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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 20 DECEMBER 2025

 

GREAT INDIAN BUSTARD

 

1.Context

The Supreme Court on Friday interpreted ‘corporate social responsibility’ or CSR to inherently include environmental responsibility, holding that the legal person of a corporation has a fundamental duty to protect the environment as a key organ of society.

2.About Great Indian Bustard

  • The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) is a critically endangered bird species native to the Indian subcontinent. It is one of the heaviest flying birds in the world and is characterized by its large size, long legs, and brownish-grey plumage with black markings. The male GIB is distinguished by its distinctive black crown and long, drooping feathers on the neck.
  • Historically, the GIB inhabited grasslands and semi-arid regions across India, Pakistan, and Nepal. However, due to habitat loss, hunting, and other human activities, its population has declined dramatically. Today, the species is primarily found in isolated pockets in the states of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh in India.
  • Conservation efforts aimed at protecting the Great Indian Bustard include habitat restoration, anti-poaching measures, captive breeding programs, and community engagement initiatives. Despite these efforts, the GIB remains at risk of extinction, and urgent action is needed to ensure its survival.
  • The Great Indian Bustard is not only a symbol of India's rich biodiversity but also an indicator of the health of its grassland ecosystems. Efforts to conserve this iconic species are therefore crucial for preserving India's natural heritage and biodiversity

International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) status – critically endangered.

Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)-Appendix 1

Convention on Migratory Species (CMS)-Appendix 1

Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972-Schedule 1

3.What are the Article 21 and 14 of the Indian Constitution?

 

Article 21 and Article 14 of the Indian Constitution are fundamental rights that guarantee certain protections to citizens of India.

Article 21: Right to Life and Personal Liberty

Article 21 of the Indian Constitution states that "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law." This article provides individuals with the fundamental right to life and personal liberty. It ensures that no person can be deprived of their life or personal liberty except through the due process of law. Over the years, the Supreme Court of India has interpreted Article 21 expansively to encompass various rights and freedoms, including the right to privacy, dignity, shelter, and a clean environment.

Article 14: Right to Equality

Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to equality before the law and equal protection of the laws to all persons within the territory of India. It states that "The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India." Article 14 ensures that the government cannot discriminate against individuals based on factors such as religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. It mandates that all individuals are entitled to equal treatment and opportunities under the law. The principle of equality enshrined in Article 14 is fundamental to the Indian legal system and is upheld by the judiciary to prevent arbitrary or discriminatory actions by the state

4.Habitat

  • The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) primarily inhabits grasslands and semi-arid regions across the Indian subcontinent. Historically, it was found in various states of India, including Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh, as well as in parts of Pakistan and Nepal.
  • These grasslands provide the GIB with suitable habitat for foraging, nesting, and mating. They typically consist of open, flat terrain with sparse vegetation, including grasses, shrubs, and scattered trees. The bird's large size and long legs make it well-adapted to traversing these open landscapes.
  • However, due to extensive habitat loss and degradation resulting from factors such as agricultural expansion, development projects, and human encroachment, the natural habitat of the Great Indian Bustard has been significantly reduced. Today, the remaining populations are primarily confined to fragmented patches of grassland habitat, often in protected areas and wildlife reserves.
  • Conservation efforts aimed at preserving the GIB's habitat include initiatives such as habitat restoration, land management practices to promote grassland health, and the establishment of conservation reserves and corridors to connect fragmented habitats. Protecting and restoring these grassland ecosystems is crucial for the survival of the Great Indian Bustard and the countless other species that depend on them for their existence

5.Threats

  • Power Transmission Lines –among the greatest threat to the Great Indian Bustard are overhead transmission lines. 
  • Due to their poor frontal vision, the birds cannot spot the power lines from a distance and are too heavy to change course when close. Thus they collide with the cables and die.
  • Hunting
  • Attack by feral dogs and wild pigs
  • The natural habitat of Bustards is also an ideal space for setting up wind turbines and solar panels.
  • Habitat loss due to widespread agriculture.
  • According to the Wildlife Institute of India (WII), in Rajasthan, 18GIBs die every year after colliding with power lines.

6.Steps Taken

The Supreme Court ordered all overhead power transmission lines in core and potential Great Indian Bustard habitats in Rajasthan and Gujarat be made underground.

The court sought reports from the chief secretaries of the two states in six weeks on the installation of bird diverters (reflector–like structures strung on power cables) in priority areas.SC asked them to assess the length of transmission lines that need to go underground.

The captive breeding programme of the Great Indian Bustard was spearheaded by the wildlife institute of India, Dehradun

 

 

For Prelims :Flagship species, WII, Bustard status, Indian Polity and Governance

For Mains :GS II – Constitution of India

1.What are the major threats to Great Indian Bustard? Suggest measures to save them.

 
Source: Indianexpress
 
 

FREE TRADE AGREEMENT 

1. Context

India Thursday signed a free trade agreement (FTA) with Oman, the second trade deal with a Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) country after the UAE, in an effort to expand market access for its exporters in the West Asian market at a time when steep tariffs in the US market are hurting trade and investments.
 

2. About the Free Trade Agreement

  • A Free Trade Agreement (FTA) is an agreement between two or more countries to reduce or eliminate barriers to trade, such as tariffs, quotas, and subsidies.
  • FTAs can also include provisions on other issues, such as investment, intellectual property, and labour standards.
  • The goal of an FTA is to promote trade and economic growth between the signatory countries.
  • By reducing or eliminating trade barriers, FTAs can make it easier for businesses to export their goods and services to other countries, which can lead to increased production, employment, and innovation.

3. Types of Free Trade Agreement

  • Bilateral Free Trade Agreement (BFTA) involves two countries, aiming to promote trade and eliminate tariffs on goods and services between them.  It establishes a direct trade relationship, allowing for a more focused and tailored agreement between the two nations.
  • Multilateral Free Trade Agreement (MFTA) Involving three or more countries, an MFTA seeks to create a comprehensive trade bloc, promoting economic integration on a larger scale. It requires coordination among multiple parties, addressing diverse economic interests and fostering a broader regional economic landscape.
  • Regional Free Trade Agreement (RFTA) involves countries within a specific geographic region, aiming to enhance economic cooperation and integration within that particular area. It focuses on addressing regional economic challenges and fostering collaboration among neighbouring nations.
  • Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) involves a reciprocal reduction of tariffs and trade barriers between participating countries, granting preferential treatment to each other's goods and services. It allows countries to enjoy trading advantages with specific partners while maintaining autonomy in their trade policies with non-participating nations.
  • Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is a broad and advanced form of FTA that goes beyond traditional trade barriers, encompassing various economic aspects such as investment, intellectual property, and services. It aims for a more comprehensive economic partnership, encouraging deeper integration and collaboration between participating countries.
  • Customs Union While not strictly an FTA, a Customs Union involves the elimination of tariffs among member countries and the establishment of a common external tariff against non-member nations. It goes beyond standard FTAs by harmonizing external trade policies, creating a unified approach to trade with the rest of the world.
  • Free Trade Area (FTA) with Trade in Goods (TIG) and Trade in Services (TIS): Some FTAs specifically emphasize either trade in goods or trade in services, tailoring the agreement to the specific economic strengths and priorities of the participating countries. This approach allows nations to focus on areas where they have a comparative advantage, fostering specialization and efficiency.

4. India's Free Trade Agreements

India is a member of several free trade agreements (FTAs) and is currently negotiating others.  India's FTAs have helped to reduce trade barriers and promote trade and economic growth. They have also helped to attract foreign investment and create jobs. 

  • The South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was signed in 1995 by the seven countries of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). SAFTA aims to reduce or eliminate tariffs on trade between the member countries.
  • The India-Bangladesh FTA was signed in 2010 and came into force in 2011. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Sri Lanka FTA was signed in 1999 and came into force in 2000. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-ASEAN Free Trade Agreement was signed in 2002 and came into force in 2010. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Korea Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) was signed in 2010 and came into force in 2011. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement(CEPA) was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2023. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-UAE Comprehensive Partnership Agreement (CEPA) was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2022. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2022. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Malaysia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) was signed in 2010 and aims to enhance economic ties by addressing trade in goods and services, as well as investment and other areas of economic cooperation.
  • The India-Thailand Free Trade Agreement was signed in 2003 and focuses on reducing tariffs and promoting trade in goods and services between India and Thailand.
  • The India-Singapore Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) has been operational since 2005, this agreement covers trade in goods and services, as well as investment and intellectual property.
  • The India-Nepal Trade Treaty While not a comprehensive FTA, India and Nepal have a trade treaty that facilitates the exchange of goods between the two countries.
  • The India-Chile Preferential Trade Agreement was signed in 2006 and aims to enhance economic cooperation and reduce tariffs on certain products traded between India and Chile.

5India - UK Free Trade Agreement

5.1. Background

  • Both countries have agreed to avoid sensitive issues in the negotiations.
  • The interim (early harvest agreement) aims to achieve up to 65 per cent coverage for goods and up to 40 per cent coverage for services.
  • By the time the final agreement is inked, the coverage for goods is expected to go up to "90 plus a percentage" of goods.
  • India is also negotiating a similar early harvest agreement with Australia, which is supposed to set the stage for a long-pending Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement that both countries have been pursuing for nearly a decade.
  • While the commencement of negotiations does mark a step forward in the otherwise rigid stance adopted and when it comes to trade liberalisation, experts point to impediments and the potential for legal challenges going ahead.

5.2. GATT (General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs)

  • The exception to the rule is full-scale FTAs, subject to some conditions.
  • One rider, incorporated in Article XXIV.8 (b) of GATT, stipulates that a deal should aim to eliminate customs duties and other trade barriers on "Substantially all the trade" between the WTO member countries that are signatories to an FTA.
  • For this Agreement, a free-trade area shall be understood to mean a group of two or more customs territories in which the duties and other restrictive regulations of commerce are eliminated on substantially all the trade between the constituent territories in products originating in such territories.
  • It is often beneficial to negotiate the entire deal together, as an early harvest deal may reduce the incentive for one side to work towards a full FTA.
  • These agreements are not just about goods and services but also issues like investment.
  • If you are trying to weigh the costs and benefits, it is always better to have the larger picture in front of you.
  • In the case of the early harvest agreement inked with Thailand, automobile industry associations had complained that relaxations extended to Bangkok in the early harvest had reduced the incentive for Thailand to work towards a full FTA.
  • Early harvest agreements may serve the function of keeping trading partners interested as they promise some benefits without long delays, as India becomes known for long-drawn negotiations for FTAs.
  • Government emphasis on interim agreements may be tactical so that a deal may be achieved with minimum commitments and would allow for contentious issues to be resolved later.
 
For Prelims: Free Trade Agreement, India-U.K, Bilateral Free Trade Agreement, G-20 Summit, Agenda 2030, Covid-19 Pandemic, SAARC, General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs, Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement, Multilateral Free Trade Agreement, Regional Free Trade Agreement, Preferential Trade Agreement, Customs Union, 
For Mains: 
1. Evaluate the potential impact of the India-UK FTA on the Indian economy, considering both positive and negative aspects (250 Words)
2. Critically evaluate the significance of Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) in promoting trade and economic growth, considering their potential benefits and drawbacks. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. Consider the following countries:
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Which of the above are among the free-trade partners' of ASEAN? (UPSC 2018)
A. 1, 2, 4 and 5          B.  3, 4, 5 and 6      C.  1, 3, 4 and 5       D.  2, 3, 4 and 6
 
Answer: C
 

2. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if (UPSC 2018)

(a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
(b) Agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
(c) Poverty and unemployment increase.
(d) Imports grow faster than exports.

Answer: C

3. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following: (2010)

  1. Development of infrastructure facilities.
  2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources.
  3. Promotion of exports of services only.

Which of the above are the objectives of this Act?

(a) 1 and 2 only     (b) 3 only         (c) 2 and 3 only           (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

4. A “closed economy” is an economy in which (UPSC 2011)

(a) the money supply is fully controlled
(b) deficit financing takes place
(c) only exports take place
(d) neither exports nor imports take place

Answer: D

5. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only            (c) Both 1 and 2          (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
 
 Source: The Hindu
 
 

MAHATMA GANDHI NATIONAL RURAL EMPLOYMENT GUARANTEE ACT (MGNREGA)

1. Context

Amid protests from Opposition members who tore papers in the well of the House, the Lok Sabha on Thursday passed the Viksit Bharat-Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Bill, 2025 (VB-G RAM G), which seeks to repeal MGNREGA, by a voice vote. The House was adjourned for the day after the Bill’s passage.
 

2. About the National Level Monitoring (NLM) report

  • The National Level Monitoring (NLM) report is a study conducted by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) to assess the implementation of various rural development programs in India.
  • The report is based on field visits and interviews with stakeholders at the grassroots level.
  • The NLM report is an important tool for the government to identify areas where improvement is needed and track rural development programs' progress.
  • The report also provides valuable insights into the challenges faced by rural communities and the impact of government interventions.

The NLM report typically identifies the following areas:

  • The coverage of rural development programs
  • The quality of implementation of rural development programs
  • The impact of rural development programs on the lives of rural people

The NLM report also provides recommendations to the government on improving the implementation of rural development programs and making them more effective.

 

3. The findings of the NLM report

  • In 2017-18, the NLM report found that the quality of construction of 87% of the verified works under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) was satisfactory. However, the report also found that only 139 out of 301 districts had seven registers maintained satisfactorily.
  • In 2018-19, the NLM report found that the job cards, an important document that records entitlements received under MGNREGA, were not regularly updated in many districts. The report also found that there were significant delays in payments to workers.
  • In 2019-20, the NLM report found that the Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana - Gramin (PMAY-G) program was facing challenges due to a shortage of construction materials and skilled labour. The report also found that there were delays in the processing of applications and the release of funds.
  • The NLM report for 2020-21 found that the coverage of rural development programs had improved significantly in recent years. However, the report also found that there was still a need to improve the quality of implementation of these programs.
  • The NLM report for 2021-22 found that the impact of rural development programs on the lives of rural people had been positive overall. However, the report also found that there were still some disparities in the impact of these programs across different regions and social groups.
 

4. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) is a social welfare program that guarantees 100 days of unskilled manual wage employment in a financial year to a rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. The Act was enacted by the Government of India in 2005 and came into force on February 2, 2006.

4.1. Mandate and Goals

  • The mandate of MGNREGA is to provide employment and ensure food security for rural households.
  • The scheme also aims to strengthen natural resource management, create durable assets, improve rural infrastructure, and promote social equity.
  • The goals of MGNREGA are to Reduce rural poverty, Increase employment opportunities, Improve food security, Create durable assets, Improve rural infrastructure and Promote social equity. 

4.2. Core Objectives 

  •  The primary goal of MGNREGA is to provide at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
  • The program aims to reduce poverty and distress by offering employment opportunities, especially during seasons of agricultural unemployment.
  • MGNREGA encourages the creation of productive and durable assets such as water conservation structures, rural infrastructure, and land development. These assets not only improve rural livelihoods but also contribute to sustainable development.
  • The Act promotes gender equality by ensuring that at least one-third of the beneficiaries are women and that their participation in the workforce is actively encouraged.

4.3. Key Stakeholders 

  • Rural households are the primary beneficiaries and participants in the MGNREGA scheme.
  • Gram Panchayats play a pivotal role in implementing the program at the grassroots level. They are responsible for planning, execution, and monitoring of MGNREGA projects within their jurisdiction.
  • The central government provides the funds and sets the broad guidelines, while the state governments are responsible for the program's effective implementation.
  • The DPC is responsible for the overall coordination and monitoring of MGNREGA activities within a district.
  • Rural labourers, both skilled and unskilled, participate in MGNREGA projects and directly benefit from the program.

4.4. Role of Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat

  • The Gram Sabha is the village assembly consisting of all registered voters in a village. Its role in MGNREGA includes discussing and approving the annual development plan, ensuring transparency in project selection, and conducting social audits to monitor program implementation.
  • The Gram Panchayat is responsible for planning, approving, executing, and monitoring MGNREGA projects within its jurisdiction. It also maintains records of employment provided, ensures timely wage payments, and conducts social audits. The Panchayat is accountable for the effective utilization of MGNREGA funds.

4.5. Issues with MGNREGA

  •  Delayed wage payments to labourers have been a persistent issue, affecting the livelihoods of beneficiaries.
  •  There have been cases of corruption and leakages in the implementation of MGNREGA projects, leading to suboptimal outcomes.
  • Administrative inefficiencies, complex procedures, and bureaucratic hurdles have hampered program delivery.
  • Some argue that the quality and effectiveness of assets created under MGNREGA projects have been variable and not always aligned with the intended goals.
  • Not all eligible rural households are provided 100 days of guaranteed employment, which can limit the program's impact.
  • Adequate budget allocation to meet the program's demands and inflation-adjusted wages remains a concern.

5. Conclusion

MGNREGA has made a positive impact on the lives of rural people, particularly in terms of employment opportunities and the creation of durable assets. It remains a crucial tool in India's efforts to promote rural development, reduce poverty, and achieve social equity. Addressing the identified issues will be critical in ensuring the continued success and effectiveness of the program in the years to come.

 

For Prelims: MGNREGA, National Level Monitoring (NLM) report, Ministry of Rural Development, rural development, Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana - Gramin (PMAY-G), 
For Mains: 
1. Evaluate the importance of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act in the context of rural development and food security in India. How does MGNREGA contribute to sustainable development and rural infrastructure improvement? (250 Words)
 
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
Prelims

1. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”? (UPSC 2011)

(a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
(b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households
(c) Adult members of households of all backward communities
(d) Adult members of any household

Answer: D

2. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following? (UPSC 2012)

  1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level
  2. Purchasing power parity at national level
  3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only             (b) 2 and 3 only         (c) 1 and 3 only             (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

3. Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households? (UPSC 2013)

  1. Regional Rural Banks
  2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
  3. Land Development Banks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only         (b) 2 only                     (c) 1 and 3 only                (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

4. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor? (UPSC 2012)

  1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas
  2. By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing skill development
  3. By supplying seeds, fertilisers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only          (b) 2 only                        (c) 1 and 3 only              (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B 

5. Under the Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G), the ratio of the cost of unit assistance to be shared between the Central and State Governments is: (MP Patwari 2017)

A. 60:40 in plain areas and 90:10 for North Eastern and the Himalayan States
B. 70:30 in plain areas and 80:20 for North Eastern and the Himalayan States
C. 50:50 in plain areas and 70:30 for North Eastern and the Himalayan States
D. 75:25 in Plain areas and 85:15 for North Eastern and the Himalayan States
 
Answer: A
 
Mains
 
1. The basis of providing urban amenities in rural areas (PURA) is rooted in establishing connectivity. Comment (UPSC 2013)
 
Source: indianexpress
 
 

MAJOR DEFENCE AGREEMENTS

 
 
1. Context
 
Days after his two-day official visit to New Delhi on December 4-5, Russia President Vladimir Putin has signed into federal law a major military cooperation agreement with India.
 
 
2. Major defence agreements of India
 

India–Russia Relations:

  • India’s air defence capabilities were put to the test during Pakistani aerial strikes on multiple military installations and cities, during which the Integrated Counter-UAS Grid and key surface-to-air missile systems like the S-400 Triumf (procured from Russia), Barak 8 MRSAM, and Akash were deployed.
  • These systems form the backbone of India’s defence shield. In addition to these, India and Russia have established a strong defence partnership through agreements involving the acquisition of MiG-29 jets, Kamov helicopters, and licensed production of military platforms such as T-90 tanks, Su-30MKI fighter aircraft, AK-203 rifles, and the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile. Notably, the Indian Navy's aircraft carrier, INS Vikramaditya, was formerly Russia's Admiral Gorshkov.

India–UK Relations:

  • India and the United Kingdom recently concluded a Free Trade Agreement (FTA), marking a milestone in their bilateral ties. In early 2025, the two nations formalised their defence collaboration under Defence Partnership-I (DP-I) at the Aero India event.
  • Notable developments include a contract between Thales UK and Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) for the delivery of Laser Beam Riding MANPADS (LBRM), particularly the STARStreak missile systems, and a joint effort with MBDA UK to establish a facility in Hyderabad for advanced air-to-air missile assembly and testing. These initiatives aim to bolster India’s air combat capabilities and expand defence exports.

India–France Relations:


  • In a recent intergovernmental deal, India agreed to acquire 26 Rafale-M aircraft — 22 single-seaters and 4 dual-seaters — for its navy, along with related simulators, equipment, weaponry, and logistics support.
  • France, like Russia, has remained a dependable defence partner, notably refraining from imposing sanctions after India's 1998 nuclear tests. Over the years, India and France have collaborated extensively in international platforms.
  • Following the Ukraine conflict, France emerged as one of the top three destinations for Indian defence exports in 2023–24. Both countries have committed to a Defence Industrial Roadmap that includes joint projects such as the Scorpene submarines, additional Rafale and helicopter procurement, and efforts toward domestic manufacturing.

India–Thailand Relations:

  • During the 6th BIMSTEC summit held in Thailand, India and Thailand elevated their bilateral ties to a strategic partnership, emphasizing defence cooperation.
  • The two sides agreed to create formal mechanisms for high-level consultations, including a strategic dialogue between their National Security Councils. Defence collaboration is to be strengthened through technology transfer, joint training programs, and industrial partnerships.

India–United States Relations:


  • India and the United States launched the US–India COMPACT initiative to promote deep strategic cooperation in defence, technology, and commerce. During Defence Minister Rajnath Singh’s visit to the US, both nations signed a Security of Supply Arrangement (SOSA) and a Memorandum of Agreement on Liaison Officers.
  • SOSA will ensure mutual priority support for defence-related goods and services. India’s inventory now includes several US-origin defence platforms such as the C-130J Super Hercules, C-17 Globemaster III, P-8I Poseidon, Chinook and Seahawk helicopters, Apache attack helicopters, Harpoon missiles, M777 howitzers, and MQ-9B drones. Talks continue on acquiring F-35 Lightning-II fighter jets.

India–New Zealand Relations:


  • In March 2025, India signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on defence cooperation with New Zealand, a member of the Five Eyes intelligence alliance. The agreement aims to facilitate regular military engagement and deeper bilateral defence cooperation, signed during the New Zealand Prime Minister's visit to India.

India–Indonesia Relations:


  • Reflecting deep-rooted cultural and strategic ties, Indonesia’s President Prabowo Subianto was the Chief Guest at India’s Republic Day celebrations. Both nations reiterated their commitment to enhancing cooperation in maritime security, cybersecurity, counter-terrorism, and de-radicalisation.
  • They celebrated the ratification of the Defence Cooperation Agreement (DCA) signed in 2018 and emphasized ongoing joint initiatives such as the India–Indonesia Coordinated Patrol and regular military exercises involving the army and navy
 
3. Joint Military Exercise
 

India actively participates in a wide range of joint military exercises across the three branches of its armed forces—Army, Navy, and Air Force—to strengthen defence cooperation, enhance interoperability, and share strategic and tactical knowledge with partner countries.

  • With the United Kingdom:

    • Exercise Ajeya Warrior involves the Indian Army and the British Army, focusing on counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism operations in semi-urban environments.

    • Exercise Konkan is a bilateral naval exercise between the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy, designed to boost maritime collaboration and operational synergy.

    • Exercise Indradhanush-IV is an Air Force-level drill, where the Indian Air Force and the Royal Air Force engage in joint air combat maneuvers, including aerial refueling and close-combat simulations.

  • With Thailand:

    • Exercise Maitree is a joint Army exercise conducted between the Indian Army and the Royal Thai Army, focusing on counter-terrorism and jungle warfare.

    • The India–Thailand Coordinated Patrol (Indo-Thai CORPAT) is a naval exercise aimed at enhancing maritime security through coordinated patrols in the Andaman Sea.

  • With the United States:

    • Exercise Yudh Abhyas is a bilateral Army exercise focusing on joint military operations in counter-insurgency and humanitarian assistance scenarios.

    • Exercise Vajra Prahar is a special forces training program between the Indian and U.S. Armies to enhance joint tactical cooperation.

    • Exercise Malabar is a high-end naval exercise involving India, the U.S., and other Indo-Pacific allies, focusing on naval interoperability, anti-submarine warfare, and maritime security.

    • Red Flag 16-1 is a prestigious multinational air combat exercise hosted by the United States Air Force, in which the Indian Air Force has participated to enhance aerial combat readiness and coordination with allied forces.

  • With Indonesia:

    • Exercise Garuda Shakti is an Army-level joint drill with the Indonesian Army, aimed at improving tactical-level operations in counter-insurgency environments.

    • Exercise Samudra Shakti is a naval exercise with the Indonesian Navy, designed to improve interoperability in maritime security operations and joint navigation tactics

 
Five Eyes intelligence alliance
 
“Five Eyes” refers to an intelligence-sharing alliance of the United States, United Kingdom, Australia, Canada and New Zealand. It was formed during World War II. The history of the ‘Five Eyes’ alliance dates back to an intelligence-sharing agreement signed between Washington and London
 
 
4. Precision-guided missiles of India
 

India has not officially disclosed the specific weapons used during Operation Sindoor, conducted in the early hours of May 7. The Indian Armed Forces, however, confirmed that precision strikes were executed against terrorist infrastructure located deep within Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK). While the details of the armaments remain classified, India possesses several advanced long-range precision-guided weapons and drones that are likely candidates for such operations. These include:

  • HAMMER (Highly Agile and Manoeuvrable Munition Extended Range): Designed for the Rafale jets, HAMMER is an air-to-ground precision weapon capable of striking targets up to 70 km away. It is adaptable and can be integrated with different bomb configurations and guided munitions.

  • SCALP (Système de Croisière Autonome à Longue Portée – Emploi Général): Known as Storm Shadow in the UK, SCALP is a stealthy, air-launched cruise missile optimized for deep-penetration strikes. It functions effectively under all weather conditions and at night, making it a formidable tool for long-range precision targeting.

  • BRAHMOS: This supersonic cruise missile is jointly developed by India’s DRDO and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya under the BrahMos Aerospace partnership. Capable of being launched from land, sea, and air platforms, BrahMos follows the "fire-and-forget" model and can maneuver along various flight trajectories to accurately strike its target.

  • METEOR: The Meteor is an advanced Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM) equipped to handle high-threat environments, including those with dense electronic warfare activity. It enhances an aircraft’s capability to neutralize aerial threats from a significant distance

 
For Prelims:Brahmos missile, Five Eyes intelligence alliance
 
For Mains: GS III - Defence Acquisition
 
Previous Year Questions
 

1.Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE Prelims 2023)

  1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.
  2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Source: Indianexpress
 
 

ILLEGAL IMMIGRANTS

 
 
 
1. Context
 
 
The National Democratic Alliance government will “detect, delete and deport” illegal immigrants from the country, Union Home Minister Amit Shah said on Wednesday, as the Lok Sabha witnessed a face-off during a discussion on electoral reforms, leading to an Opposition walkout.
 
 
2. About Illegal Immigrant
 
  • An illegal immigrant is a person who enters or resides in a country without fulfilling the legal requirements for immigration.
  • This can involve entering a country without proper documentation, staying beyond the permitted period of a visa, or working without authorization.
  • However, it's important to note that the term "illegal immigrant" is often considered controversial and dehumanizing.
  • It can contribute to negative stereotypes and discrimination against immigrants, regardless of their legal status.
  • Instead, it's preferred to use terms like undocumented immigrant, irregular migrant, or unauthorized migrant.
  • These terms are more neutral and focus on the individual's legal status rather than their character or potential threat.
 

3. Who is a Citizen?

 
A citizen is a legally recognized member of a sovereign state or country. Citizenship implies a set of rights, privileges, and responsibilities granted to individuals by the government of the country to which they belong. These rights and obligations may include the right to vote, the right to work and live in the country, access to social services, and the duty to obey laws and pay taxes.
 
 

4. Legal Challenge to Assam Accord's Citizenship Criteria

 

The ongoing hearings before a Constitutional bench, led by Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud, are centred on a legal challenge to Section 6A of the Citizenship Act. This provision, introduced following the signing of the Assam Accord in 1985, has become a focal point for determining who is considered a foreigner in the state. The Accord's criteria, including the cutoff date and regularization provisions, also formed the basis for the final National Register of Citizens in Assam, released in 2019.

Key Elements of the Challenge

  • Clause 5 of the Assam Accord designates January 1, 1966, as the base cutoff date for identifying and removing "foreigners" in the state. This clause also incorporates provisions for the regularization of individuals who arrived in Assam after that date but before March 24, 1971.
  • Section 6A of the Citizenship Act was added as an amendment to accommodate the provisions of the Assam Accord. It establishes March 24, 1971, as the definitive cutoff date for entry into the state. Anyone entering Assam after this date is considered an "illegal immigrant."

Implications for Those Arriving Between 1966 and 1971

  • Individuals arriving in Assam on or after January 1, 1966, but before March 25, 1971, from Bangladesh would be identified as "foreigners."
  • They are granted the opportunity to register themselves based on rules established by the Central Government.
  • While excluded from electoral rolls, they are afforded the same rights and obligations as Indian citizens for 10 years from the date of being identified as foreigners.
  • After these ten years, they are to be recognized as citizens.

 

5. Legal Challenge to Section 6A

 

The challenge to Section 6A of the Citizenship Act revolves around its constitutional validity, primarily brought forth by the Assam Sanmilita Mahasangha (ASM), an organization championing the rights of "indigenous" communities in Assam. The central contention is that the establishment of a different cutoff date for Indian citizenship in Assam (1971) compared to the rest of India (July 1948) is deemed "discriminatory, arbitrary, and illegal." The petition argues that this provision violates the rights of indigenous Assamese people.

Key Arguments and Concerns

  • The plea calls for the establishment of 1951 as the cutoff date for inclusion in the National Register of Citizens (NRC) instead of 1971, aligning it with the rest of India. This move aims for uniformity in citizenship criteria.
  • ASM asserts that the application of Section 6A exclusively to Assam has resulted in a significant demographic shift, reducing the indigenous people of Assam to a minority in their own state. This demographic change is perceived as detrimental to the economic, political, and cultural well-being of the state.
  • ASM contends that the NRC process, guided by the cutoff date of Bangladesh's independence in 1971, has favoured a large number of Hindu and Muslim Bengalis and Nepalis who migrated from East Pakistan. This has allegedly resulted in the illegal occupation of lands belonging to indigenous tribes, impacting their cultural survival, political control, and employment opportunities.

 

6. Constitutional Issues Surrounding Section 6A of the Citizenship Act

 

The challenge to Section 6A raises several significant constitutional issues, which will be explored by the five-judge bench of the Supreme Court. These issues touch upon various fundamental rights and principles enshrined in the Indian Constitution.

  • Whether Section 6A, by establishing a different cut-off date for Assam than stipulated in Article 6 of the Constitution, violates Articles 10 and 11, which deal with the right to move freely and reside in any part of India.
  • This raises questions about whether this deviation requires a formal "variation" of Article 6 itself, or if it can be justified under existing legal provisions.
  • Does Section 6A dilute the political rights of the Assamese people by potentially altering the demographic balance through the naturalization of migrants? This involves interpreting Articles 325 and 326, which guarantee the right to vote and reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, respectively.
  • Does Section 6A violate the fundamental right of indigenous communities to conserve their culture, as enshrined in Article 29(1)? This brings up the scope of this fundamental right and its application in the context of a changing demographic landscape.
  • Does an influx of illegal immigration constitute "external aggression" or "internal disturbance" as defined in Article 355, which empowers the Union to protect states from such threats? This question delves into the interpretation of Article 355 and its relevance to the Assam situation.
  • Does Section 6A unfairly single out Assam by applying a different cut-off date than other border states, thereby violating the right to equality under Article 14? This necessitates evaluating the justification for such a distinction and its potential discriminatory effects.
  • Does the influx of immigrants, as facilitated by Section 6A, adversely affect the lives and personal liberty of Assamese citizens under Article 21? This examines the potential negative impact of immigration on various aspects of life and liberty in the state.
  • In granting relief under Article 32, should the court consider the delay in challenging Section 6A? This involves weighing the principle of timely justice against the complexity of the legal issues and potential consequences of delayed action.
  • After decades of migrant presence and naturalization, can any meaningful relief be granted without causing undue prejudice to individuals already integrated into society This raises questions about balancing legal principles with the realities of human lives and the potential for disruption caused by retroactive changes.
  • Does Section 6A violate the basic premise of the Citizenship Act by potentially allowing individuals to retain their citizenship in Bangladesh while becoming Indian citizens? This relates to the interpretation of Section 5 of the Act and its requirement for full renunciation of foreign citizenship.
  • Does Section 6A contravene the provisions of Section 5 by granting citizenship without requiring an oath of allegiance or ensuring reciprocity from Bangladesh? This involves evaluating the legal basis for these requirements and their potential application in the case of Section 6A.
  • Does the specific nature of the Immigrants (Expulsion from Assam) Act exclude the General Foreigners Act and its associated tribunals from dealing with migrant issues in Assam? This question focuses on the legal framework applicable to immigration within the state and its consistency with national laws.
  • Does Section 6A undermine the rule of law by prioritizing political considerations over legal principles? This raises concerns about the potential for political pressure to influence lawmaking and its impact on the balance of legal authority.
  • Does Section 6A violate Article 14 by failing to establish a clear and transparent mechanism for determining individuals' eligibility for citizenship based on their residency in Assam? This centres on the potential for arbitrary decision-making and its impact on the fundamental right to equality.
 
 

Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance.

Mains Examination: General Studies II- Polity

 

Previous Year Questions

1.  With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2012)
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only             B. 2 only           C. Both 1 and 2               D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
 
2. Barak Valley in Assam is famous for which among the following? (MSTET 2019)
A.  Bamboo Industry
B. Petroleum Production
C. Cottage Industries
D. Tea Cultivation
 
 
3. Which one of the following is an important crop of the Barak Valley? (Karnataka Civil Police Constable 2019)
A. Sugarcane           B.  Jute            C. Tea                    D. Cotton
 
 
4. Under Assam Accord of 1985, foreigners who had entered Assam before March 25, _____ were to be given citizenship.  (DSSSB JE & Section Officer 2022)
A. 1954           B. 1971         C.  1981           D. 1966
 
Answers: 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-B
 
 Source: The Indian Express
 
 

SPECIAL INTENSIVE REVISION (SIR)

 
 
1. Context
 
The Supreme Court on Tuesday remonstrated with the Election Commission of India (EC) for giving “mechanical and cyclostyled” answers every time a human problem is presented in court by anxious voters about the ongoing special intensive revision (SIR) of electoral rolls.
 
2. What is the Special Intensive Revision?
 
 
  • The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of the Electoral Rolls is an important exercise undertaken by the Election Commission of India (ECI) to ensure that the voter lists (electoral rolls) are accurate, updated, and inclusive before any major election or as part of the annual revision cycle.
  • In simpler terms, the SIR is a comprehensive verification and correction process of the electoral rolls — aimed at including eligible voters, removing ineligible ones, and rectifying errors in the existing list.
  • It is called “special” because it involves an intensified, house-to-house verification and greater public participation compared to the routine annual summary revision
  • The purpose of the Special Intensive Revision is to maintain the purity, accuracy, and inclusiveness of India’s democratic process. Clean and updated voter rolls are essential for free, fair, and credible elections, as they prevent issues like bogus voting, disenfranchisement, and duplication.
  • In summary, the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) is a focused, large-scale voter verification campaign conducted by the Election Commission to ensure that the electoral rolls are error-free, inclusive, and reflective of the current eligible voting population. It plays a crucial role in strengthening the integrity and transparency of India’s electoral system

During the Special Intensive Revision, Booth Level Officers (BLOs) visit households to verify voter details such as name, address, age, and photo identity. This exercise helps identify:

  • Citizens who have turned 18 years or older and are eligible to vote,

  • Entries that need to be corrected or deleted due to death, migration, or duplication, and

  • Any discrepancies in the voter’s details such as gender, address, or photo mismatch

 
 
3. Election Commission of India, its powers and functions
 
  • Article 324(1) of the Indian Constitution empowers the Election Commission of India (ECI) with the authority to oversee, guide, and manage the preparation of electoral rolls as well as the conduct of elections for both Parliament and the State Legislatures.
  • As per Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, the ECI holds the right to order a special revision of the electoral roll for any constituency, or part of it, at any time and in a manner it considers appropriate.
  • According to the Registration of Electors’ Rules, 1960, the revision of electoral rolls may be carried out intensively, summarily, or through a combination of both methods, as directed by the ECI.
  • An intensive revision involves preparing an entirely new roll, while a summary revision deals with updating or modifying the existing one
 
4. How is SIR different from the National Register of Citizens (NRC)?
 
 
 
 
Aspect  Special Intensive Revision (SIR) National Register of Citizens (NRC)
Purpose To verify, update, and correct the electoral rolls so that all eligible voters are included and ineligible names are removed To identify legal citizens of India and detect illegal immigrants
Authority / Governing Body Conducted by the Election Commission of India (ECI) Conducted under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
Legal Basis Based on Article 324(1) of the Constitution, Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, and the Registration of Electors' Rules, 1960. Governed by the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003
Scope Focuses only on Indian citizens aged 18 years and above who are eligible to vote Covers all residents of India (or a particular state) to determine their citizenship status
Nature of the Exercise A regular, recurring administrative exercise carried out to maintain accurate voter lists A special, large-scale verification exercise conducted under specific legal or political mandates.
Relation to Citizenship Does not determine citizenship — only eligibility to vote Directly determines citizenship status
 
 
5. What are the concerns related to SIR?
 

One of the major concerns is the erroneous deletion of eligible voters from the rolls.

  • Mistakes during house-to-house verification or data entry may lead to legitimate voters—especially migrants, daily-wage workers, and marginalized communities—being left out.

  • Such exclusions can directly affect voter participation and undermine the democratic process.

Despite the intensive verification, fake or duplicate names often remain due to poor coordination or outdated records.

  • Deaths, migrations, or multiple registrations in different constituencies are not always updated accurately.

  • This raises questions about the accuracy and credibility of the electoral rolls.

The SIR is a large-scale field operation requiring trained personnel, coordination among departments, and robust data systems.

  • Booth Level Officers (BLOs) are often overburdened with multiple duties and may not have sufficient time or training for thorough verification.

  • Limited digital infrastructure in rural areas can also hamper real-time data updates.

Electoral roll revisions, especially when conducted close to elections, can spark political allegations of bias or manipulation.

  • Parties may accuse each other or the Election Commission of targeting specific communities or constituencies.

  • Even unintentional errors can lead to trust deficits in the electoral process.

 
6. Way Forward
 
 
While the Special Intensive Revision is essential for ensuring clean and updated electoral rolls, its effectiveness depends on transparent procedures, proper training, digital accuracy, and public awareness.
Addressing these concerns is vital to maintain trust in the Election Commission and uphold the credibility of India’s democratic system
 
 
For Prelims: Special Intensive Revision (SIR), National Register of Citizens (NRC), Election Commission of India (ECI)
For Mains: GS II - Indian Polity
 
 

Previous year Question

1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Answer: D
 
2. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021)
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the- existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3
Answer: B
 
Mains
 
1.To enhance the quality of democracy in India the Election Commission of India has proposed electoral reforms in 2016. What are the suggested reforms and how far are they significant to make democracy successful? (UPSC CSE 2017)
Source: Indianexpress
 
 

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