RETAIL INFLATION
1. Context
2. What is Inflation?
- It is the rise in prices of goods and services within a particular economy wherein consumers' purchasing power decreases, and the value of the cash holdings erodes.
- In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) measures inflation.
- Some causes that lead to inflation are demand increases, reduction in supply, demand-supply gap, excess circulation of money, increase in input costs, devaluation of the currency, and rise in wages, among others.
3. Retail Inflation
4. How Inflation is measured?
- In India, inflation is primarily measured by two main indices- WPI (Wholesale Price Index) and CPI (Consumer Price Index), Which measures Wholesale and retail-level price changes, respectively.
- The CPI calculates the difference in the price of commodities and services such as food, medical care, education, electronics, etc, which Indian consumers buy for use.
- On the other hand, the goods or services sold by businesses to smaller businesses for selling further are captured by the WPI.
- Both WPI (Wholesale Price Index) and CPI (Consumer Price Index) are used to measure inflation in India.
5. What is the Inflation Target?
- Under Section 45ZA, in consultation with the RBI Act, the Central Government determines the inflation target in terms of the Consumer Price Index (CPI), once in five years and notifies it in the Official Gazette.
- Accordingly, on August 5, 2016, the Central Government notified in the Official Gazette 4 percent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from August 5, 2016, to March 31, 2021, with the upper tolerance limit of 6 percent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 percent.
- On March 31, 2021, the Central Government retained the inflation target and the tolerance band for the next 5-year period-April 1, 2021 to March 31, 2026.
- Section 45ZB of the RBI Act provides for the constitution of a six-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) to determine the policy rate required to achieve the inflation target.
6. Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)
- The MPC is a statutory and institutionalized framework under the RBI Act, of 1934, for maintaining price stability, keeping in mind the objective of growth. It was created in 2016.
- It was created to bring transparency and accountability in deciding monetary policy.
- MPC determines the policy interest rate required to achieve the inflation target.
- The committee comprises six members and Governor RBI acts as an ex-officio chairman. Three members are from RBI and three are selected by the government. The inflation target is to be set once every five years. It is set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India.
- The current inflation target is pegged at 4% with -2/+2 tolerance till March 31, 2021.
7. What Caused the drop in Inflation?
- Retail Inflation or price gains based on the Consumer Price Index, slowed to 6.77 % last month, from September's 7.41%, aided by an appreciable deceleration in food price inflation.
- The year-on-year inflation based on the Consumer Food Price Index eased by almost 160 basis points in October, to 7.01%, from the preceding month's 8.60%, helped by a 'decline in prices of vegetables, fruits, pulses and oils, and fats', the Government said.
- With the food and beverages sub-index representing almost 46% of the CPI's weight, the slowdown in food price gains understandably steered overall inflation lower even as price gains in three other essential categories, namely clothing, and footwear, housing, and health remained either little changed from September or quickened.
- Inflation at the Wholesale Prices Level also continued to decelerate, with the headline reading easing into single digits for the first time in 19 months. A favorable base effect along with a distinct cooling in international prices of commodities including crude oil and steel amid gathering uncertainty in advanced economies was largely instrumental in tempering wholesale price gains.
8. Recent Measures by the Government
For Prelims & Mains
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For Prelims: Inflation, MPC, CPI, WPI, food Inflation, RBI, Headline inflation, Core inflation For Mains:
1. Explain the concept of inflation and its impact on an economy. Discuss the various causes of inflation and the measures that can be taken to control it, with specific reference to India. (250 Words)
2. What are the challenges and opportunities associated with managing inflation in India? Evaluate the effectiveness of recent policy measures in addressing inflationary pressures and maintaining price stability. Suggest strategies for sustainable economic growth while managing inflation risks. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2021)
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his natural power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
2. Concerning the Indian economy, consider the following: (UPSC 2015)
Which of the above is/are component(s) of Monetary Policy? (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 3 and 4
3. An increase in Bank Rate generally indicates: (UPSC 2013) (a) Market rate of interest is likely to fall.
(b) Central bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks.
(c) Central bank is following an easy money policy.
(d) Central bank is following a tight money policy.
4. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? (UPSC 2017) 1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 3 only D. 2 and 3 only 5. Read the following passage and answer the question that follows. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Policymakers and media have placed the blame for skyrocketing food prices on a variety of factors, including high fuel prices, bad weather in key food producing countries, and the diversion of land to non-food production. Increased emphasis, however, has been placed on a surge in demand for food from the most populous emerging economics. It seems highly probable that mass consumption in these countries could be well poised to create a food crisis.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: (UPSC 2021)
1. Oil producing countries are one of the reasons for high food prices.
2. If there is a food crisis in the world in the near future, it will be in the emerging economies. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
6. India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons? (UPSC 2011)
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30.
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
7. With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct? (UPSC 2015)
A. Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only
B. The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
C. Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
D. Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
8. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2016)
1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017
2. The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.
3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $ 1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answers: 1-C, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A, 5-D, 6-B, 6-C, 7-B
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Euthanasia
2. About Euthanasia
- Euthanasia is the act of deliberately ending a person's life to relieve suffering.
- Euthanasia, which comes from the Greek words meaning “a good death”, refers to
- the practice under which an individual intentionally ends their life. Euthanasia
- falls under the category of assisted dying, which also includes assisted suicide.
- Assisted suicide is illegal under the terms of the Suicide Act (1961) and is punishable by up to 14 years imprisonment. Trying to kill yourself is not a criminal act.
- Depending on the circumstances, euthanasia is regarded as either manslaughter or murder. The maximum penalty is life imprisonment.
3. Types of euthanasia
Euthanasia can be classified as:
- voluntary euthanasia – where a person makes a conscious decision to die and asks for help to do so
- non-voluntary euthanasia – where a person is unable to give their consent (for example, because they're in a coma) and another person takes the decision on their behalf, perhaps because the ill person previously expressed a wish for their life to be ended in such circumstances
4. Historical context of Euthanasia
- Euthanasia was practised in both ancient Greece and Rome, wherein hemlock was employed as a means of hastening death.
- The term itself was used for the first time by philosopher Francis Bacon and expanded upon later by Karl Marx.
- Suicide and euthanasia become acceptable practices during the Age of Enlightenment in Europe and countries like Japan where suicide was used as a means to preserve a person’s honour and therefore not considered to be a sin.
- In Dying with Dignity (2015), Giza Lopes writes that in the mid-19th century, doctors regularly used morphine or chloroform to induce the death of patients who were terminally ill with no hope for recovery.
- The first attempt to legalise euthanasia took place in the United States in 1906, but the campaign was ultimately unsuccessful.
- In 1935, the movement regained steam in England with the formation of the Voluntary Euthanasia Legalisation Society.
- In 1936, King George V of England was given a fatal dose of morphine and cocaine to hasten his death, although this event was kept secret for another 50 years.
- In one of the more controversial examples of historic euthanasia, in 1939, Nazi Germany conducted the mass killing of mentally and physically impaired people and more than 300,000 died in the process.
- Later, during World War Two, British and American soldiers kept lethal pills on themselves to be used if they were captured or compromised.
- In a landmark announcement in 1957, the Vatican proclaimed that passive euthanasia was permissible under the church’s doctrine.
- This led to an increasing number of countries legalising either passive or active euthanasia over some time.
5. Legality of Euthanasia
- Active euthanasia is legal in only a handful of countries and necessitates
- deliberately using substances or forces to end the life of another person.
- Today, a handful of countries have legalised assisted dying in its various forms.
- In Switzerland, where assisted suicide is legal, around 1.5 per cent of Swiss deaths are the result of the practice.
- People also travel to Switzerland for assisted suicide, with statistics from 2018 indicating that around 221 people visited the country for it.
- Both euthanasia and assisted suicide are legal in the Netherlands, Luxembourg, and Belgium in cases where someone is experiencing unbearable suffering with no chance of improvement.
- There is no requirement to be terminally ill and the law even allows for people with mental illness to undergo the practice. In March 2021,
- Spain made it legal for people to end their lives in some circumstances and the same year, Canada expanded its law on assisted dying.
- Colombia is the first, and so far, only, Latin American country to decriminalize euthanasia.
- Several states in Australia also allow euthanasia with similar legislation
- enacted in New Zealand. Several states in America allow assisted dying with Oregon and Washington being the two most prominent. In India, passive euthanasia was legalised by the Supreme Court in 2018, as long as a person has a “living will” that specifies what actions should be taken if they are unable to make their own medical decisions in the future.
- If the person does not have a living will, their relatives are allowed to petition the high courts for permission to allow passive euthanasia.
- The moral debate surrounding assisted dying falls under the realm of bioethics.
6. Legality around Euthanasia
- Article 21 includes the right to die or not first came into consideration in the case State of Maharashtra v. Maruti Shripati Dubai.
- It was held in this case by the Bombay High Court that ‘right to life also includes ‘right to die’ and Section 309 was struck down.
- The court clearly said in this case that the right to die is not unnatural; it is just uncommon and abnormal. Also, the court mentioned many instances in which a person may want to end his life.
- This was upheld by the Supreme Court in the case P. Rathinam v. Union of India. However, in the case Gian Kaur v. the State of Punjab it was held by the five-judge bench of the Supreme Court that the “right to life” guaranteed by Article 21 of the Constitution does not include the “right to die”.
- The court mentioned in this case that Article 21 only guarantees the right to life and personal liberty and in no case can the right to die be included in it. In India, like almost in other countries, euthanasia has no legal aspect.
- Every act of aiding and abetting the commission of suicide is punished under section 306 of the I.P.C.
- Distinguishing euthanasia from suicide, Justice Lodha in Naresh Maratra Sakhee vs Union of India, observed that “suicide by its nature is an act of self-killing or self-destruction, an act of terminating one’s act and without the aid or assistance of any other human agency.
- “Mercy killing is nothing but homicide, whatever the circumstances in which it is affected. Unless it is specifically accepted it cannot be an offence. Indian Penal Code further punishes not only abetment of homicide but also abetment of suicide”.
7. The reasons encouraging Euthanasia
- End of Pain: Euthanasia provides a way to relieve the intolerably extreme pain and suffering of an individual. It relieves terminally ill people from a lingering death.
- Respecting Person's Choice: The essence of human life is to live a dignified life and to force the person to live in an undignified way is against the person’s choice. Thus, it expresses the choice of a person which is a fundamental principle.
- Treatment for others: In many developing and underdeveloped countries like India, there is a lack of funds. There is a shortage of hospital space. So, the energy of doctors and hospital beds can be used for those people whose lives can be saved instead of continuing the life of those who want to die.
- Dignified Death: Article 21 of the Indian Constitution provides for living with dignity. A person has a right to live a life with at least minimum dignity and if that standard is falling below that minimum level then a person should be given a right to end his life.
- Addressing Mental Agony: The motive behind this is to help rather than harm. It not only relieves the unbearable pain of a patient but also relieves the relatives of a patient from mental agony.
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For Prelims: Indian Polity and Governance-Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.
For Mains: GS-II, GS-IV: Government Policies and Interventions; Rights issue, Ethics and Human Interface: Essence, determinants and consequences of Ethics in-human actions; dimensions of ethics; ethics – in private and public relationships.
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ILLEGAL IMMIGRANTS
- An illegal immigrant is a person who enters or resides in a country without fulfilling the legal requirements for immigration.
- This can involve entering a country without proper documentation, staying beyond the permitted period of a visa, or working without authorization.
- However, it's important to note that the term "illegal immigrant" is often considered controversial and dehumanizing.
- It can contribute to negative stereotypes and discrimination against immigrants, regardless of their legal status.
- Instead, it's preferred to use terms like undocumented immigrant, irregular migrant, or unauthorized migrant.
- These terms are more neutral and focus on the individual's legal status rather than their character or potential threat.
3. Who is a Citizen?
4. Legal Challenge to Assam Accord's Citizenship Criteria
The ongoing hearings before a Constitutional bench, led by Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud, are centred on a legal challenge to Section 6A of the Citizenship Act. This provision, introduced following the signing of the Assam Accord in 1985, has become a focal point for determining who is considered a foreigner in the state. The Accord's criteria, including the cutoff date and regularization provisions, also formed the basis for the final National Register of Citizens in Assam, released in 2019.
Key Elements of the Challenge
- Clause 5 of the Assam Accord designates January 1, 1966, as the base cutoff date for identifying and removing "foreigners" in the state. This clause also incorporates provisions for the regularization of individuals who arrived in Assam after that date but before March 24, 1971.
- Section 6A of the Citizenship Act was added as an amendment to accommodate the provisions of the Assam Accord. It establishes March 24, 1971, as the definitive cutoff date for entry into the state. Anyone entering Assam after this date is considered an "illegal immigrant."
Implications for Those Arriving Between 1966 and 1971
- Individuals arriving in Assam on or after January 1, 1966, but before March 25, 1971, from Bangladesh would be identified as "foreigners."
- They are granted the opportunity to register themselves based on rules established by the Central Government.
- While excluded from electoral rolls, they are afforded the same rights and obligations as Indian citizens for 10 years from the date of being identified as foreigners.
- After these ten years, they are to be recognized as citizens.
5. Legal Challenge to Section 6A
The challenge to Section 6A of the Citizenship Act revolves around its constitutional validity, primarily brought forth by the Assam Sanmilita Mahasangha (ASM), an organization championing the rights of "indigenous" communities in Assam. The central contention is that the establishment of a different cutoff date for Indian citizenship in Assam (1971) compared to the rest of India (July 1948) is deemed "discriminatory, arbitrary, and illegal." The petition argues that this provision violates the rights of indigenous Assamese people.
Key Arguments and Concerns
- The plea calls for the establishment of 1951 as the cutoff date for inclusion in the National Register of Citizens (NRC) instead of 1971, aligning it with the rest of India. This move aims for uniformity in citizenship criteria.
- ASM asserts that the application of Section 6A exclusively to Assam has resulted in a significant demographic shift, reducing the indigenous people of Assam to a minority in their own state. This demographic change is perceived as detrimental to the economic, political, and cultural well-being of the state.
- ASM contends that the NRC process, guided by the cutoff date of Bangladesh's independence in 1971, has favoured a large number of Hindu and Muslim Bengalis and Nepalis who migrated from East Pakistan. This has allegedly resulted in the illegal occupation of lands belonging to indigenous tribes, impacting their cultural survival, political control, and employment opportunities.
The challenge to Section 6A raises several significant constitutional issues, which will be explored by the five-judge bench of the Supreme Court. These issues touch upon various fundamental rights and principles enshrined in the Indian Constitution.
- Whether Section 6A, by establishing a different cut-off date for Assam than stipulated in Article 6 of the Constitution, violates Articles 10 and 11, which deal with the right to move freely and reside in any part of India.
- This raises questions about whether this deviation requires a formal "variation" of Article 6 itself, or if it can be justified under existing legal provisions.
- Does Section 6A dilute the political rights of the Assamese people by potentially altering the demographic balance through the naturalization of migrants? This involves interpreting Articles 325 and 326, which guarantee the right to vote and reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, respectively.
- Does Section 6A violate the fundamental right of indigenous communities to conserve their culture, as enshrined in Article 29(1)? This brings up the scope of this fundamental right and its application in the context of a changing demographic landscape.
- Does an influx of illegal immigration constitute "external aggression" or "internal disturbance" as defined in Article 355, which empowers the Union to protect states from such threats? This question delves into the interpretation of Article 355 and its relevance to the Assam situation.
- Does Section 6A unfairly single out Assam by applying a different cut-off date than other border states, thereby violating the right to equality under Article 14? This necessitates evaluating the justification for such a distinction and its potential discriminatory effects.
- Does the influx of immigrants, as facilitated by Section 6A, adversely affect the lives and personal liberty of Assamese citizens under Article 21? This examines the potential negative impact of immigration on various aspects of life and liberty in the state.
- In granting relief under Article 32, should the court consider the delay in challenging Section 6A? This involves weighing the principle of timely justice against the complexity of the legal issues and potential consequences of delayed action.
- After decades of migrant presence and naturalization, can any meaningful relief be granted without causing undue prejudice to individuals already integrated into society This raises questions about balancing legal principles with the realities of human lives and the potential for disruption caused by retroactive changes.
- Does Section 6A violate the basic premise of the Citizenship Act by potentially allowing individuals to retain their citizenship in Bangladesh while becoming Indian citizens? This relates to the interpretation of Section 5 of the Act and its requirement for full renunciation of foreign citizenship.
- Does Section 6A contravene the provisions of Section 5 by granting citizenship without requiring an oath of allegiance or ensuring reciprocity from Bangladesh? This involves evaluating the legal basis for these requirements and their potential application in the case of Section 6A.
- Does the specific nature of the Immigrants (Expulsion from Assam) Act exclude the General Foreigners Act and its associated tribunals from dealing with migrant issues in Assam? This question focuses on the legal framework applicable to immigration within the state and its consistency with national laws.
- Does Section 6A undermine the rule of law by prioritizing political considerations over legal principles? This raises concerns about the potential for political pressure to influence lawmaking and its impact on the balance of legal authority.
- Does Section 6A violate Article 14 by failing to establish a clear and transparent mechanism for determining individuals' eligibility for citizenship based on their residency in Assam? This centres on the potential for arbitrary decision-making and its impact on the fundamental right to equality.
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Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance. Mains Examination: General Studies II- Polity |
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Previous Year Questions 1. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2012)
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
2. Barak Valley in Assam is famous for which among the following? (MSTET 2019)
A. Bamboo Industry
B. Petroleum Production
C. Cottage Industries
D. Tea Cultivation
3. Which one of the following is an important crop of the Barak Valley? (Karnataka Civil Police Constable 2019)
A. Sugarcane B. Jute C. Tea D. Cotton
4. Under Assam Accord of 1985, foreigners who had entered Assam before March 25, _____ were to be given citizenship. (DSSSB JE & Section Officer 2022)
A. 1954 B. 1971 C. 1981 D. 1966
Answers: 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-B
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COMMISSION FOR AIR QUALITY MANAGEMENT (CAQM)
The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) has told the Supreme Court that lack of tough action by authorities and a top court order allow end-of-life vehicles to still ply in the national capital.
- The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in the National Capital Region (NCR) and nearby areas was initially established through an ordinance in 2020, which was subsequently replaced by an Act of Parliament in 2021.
- Its primary mandate is to enhance coordination, conduct research, identify issues, and address challenges related to air quality and associated concerns.
- At its inception, the CAQM comprised 15 members, including current and former officials from the Ministry of Environment and other Union government departments, along with representatives from various State governments, NGOs, and other organizations. Currently, the commission, led by Rajesh Verma, has expanded to 27 members.
- The CAQM succeeded the Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA), which was created by the Supreme Court in 1998. Unlike the CAQM, the EPCA lacked statutory authority, which experts criticized as limiting its ability to enforce compliance among defiant agencies.
- Nevertheless, several initiatives now overseen by the CAQM, such as the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP)—a framework of temporary emergency measures to combat air pollution—were originally implemented under the EPCA's guidance
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Powers of CAQM
The Commission for Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021, empowers the CAQM to undertake any necessary measures, issue directives, and address grievances aimed at safeguarding and enhancing air quality in the NCR and surrounding regions. According to Section 14 of the Act, the commission is authorized to take strict action against officials who fail to comply with its directives
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- The Supreme Court recently criticized the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) for delays in enforcing stricter anti-pollution measures as Delhi's air quality worsened.
- Despite the Air Quality Index (AQI) reaching hazardous levels, the CAQM postponed the implementation of Stage 4 measures under the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP), prompting the Court to question the lack of urgency in addressing the crisis.
- The justices emphasized that such measures should be triggered as soon as AQI levels indicate severe pollution to prevent further deterioration.
- The Court also highlighted systemic failures, including inadequate action against stubble burning in Punjab and Haryana, and criticized the CAQM for focusing on meetings without concrete enforcement of rules.
- It warned against scaling down measures prematurely and stressed the need for stricter penalties and immediate action to curb pollution sources effectively
- Although the CAQM formulates strategies and coordinates with various agencies, the actual implementation of these measures rests with the respective agencies.
- A CAQM official noted that the commission has significantly improved coordination and planning efforts.
- For instance, while paddy stubble burning—a major contributor to severe air pollution—occurs primarily in October and November, discussions with State officials begin as early as February and continue throughout the season.
- In 2022, the CAQM collaborated with Punjab and Haryana to develop action plans for managing stubble burning, which are reviewed and updated annually.
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For Prelims: Graded Response Action Plan, National Capital Region (NCR),Environmental pollution(prevention control)Authority (EPCA).
For Mains:
1. What is GRAP? What is the Delhi-NCR action plan as air pollution increases? (250 words).
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MINIMUM SUPPORT PRICE
1. Context
Every year, Government fixes Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) for 22 mandated agricultural crops based on the recommendations of Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP), after considering the views of State Governments and Central Ministries/Departments concerned
2. What is the Minimum Support Price (MSP)?
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- MSP is the minimum price a farmer must pay for their food grains as guaranteed by the government. They are recommended by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
- The CACP submits its recommendations to the government in the form of Price Policy Reports every year.
- After considering the report and views of the state governments and also keeping in view the overall demand and supply situation in the country, the central government takes the final decision.
- The Food Corporation of India (FCI) is the nodal agency for procurement along with State agencies, at the beginning of the sowing season.
- 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, bajra, jowar, ragi, and barley)
- 5 pulses (chana, tur/arhar, moong, urad, and Masur)
- 7 oilseeds (rapeseed-mustard, groundnut, soya bean, sunflower, sesamum, safflower, and Enigerseed) and
- 4 commercial crops (sugarcane, cotton, copra, and raw jute).
3. How MSP is Calculated?
- MSP, presently, is based on a formula of 1.5 times the production costs.
- The CACP projects three kinds of production costs for every crop, both at state and all-India average levels.
- A2 covers all paid-out costs directly incurred by the farmer — in cash and kind — on seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, hired labour, leased-in land, fuel, irrigation, etc.
- A2+FL includes A2 plus an imputed value of unpaid family labour.
- C2: Estimated land rent and the cost of interest on the money taken for farming are added to A2 and FL.
- Farm unions are demanding that a comprehensive cost calculation (C2) must also include capital assets and the rentals and interest forgone on owned land, as recommended by the National Commission for Farmers.
4. The issue with the calculation of MSP
- To calculate MSP, the government uses A2+FL cost. The criticism of A2+FL is that it doesn’t cover all costs and that a more representative measure, C2, needs to be used.
- For example, in the 2017-18 rabi season, CACP data shows that C2 for wheat was 54% higher than A2+FL.
- The Swaminathan Commission also stated that the MSP should be based on the comprehensive cost of production, which is the C2 method.
5. Key Points about the Farmer's Demand
- After the recent decision to repeal three contentious farm laws, protesting farmer unions are now pressing for their demand of the legalization of the Minimum Support Price (MSP).
- They want a legal guarantee for the MSP, which at present is just an indicative or a desired price.
- Legalising MSPs would put the government under a legal obligation to buy every grain of the crops for which MSPs have been announced.
- At present, the PM has announced the formation of a committee to make MSP more transparent, as well as to change crop patterns and to promote zero-budget agriculture which would reduce the cost of production.
- The entire issue of enforcing MSP legally is a tricky, complicated, and multidimensional one, involving lots of factors.
- Core demand: MSP based on a C2+50% formula should be made a legal entitlement for all agricultural produce. This would mean a 34% increase in the latest MSP for paddy and a 13% increase for wheat. MSP should also be extended to fruit and vegetable farmers who have been excluded from benefits so far.
6. The rationale behind the demand for legislation of MSP
- Farmers receive less than MSP: In most crops grown across much of India, the prices received by farmers, especially during harvest time, are well below the officially declared MSPs. And since MSPs have no statutory backing, they cannot demand these as a matter of right.
- Limited procurement by the Govt: Also, the actual procurement at MSP by the Govt. is confined to only about a third of wheat and rice crops (of which half is bought in Punjab and Haryana alone), and 10%-20% of select pulses and oilseeds. According to the Shanta Kumar Committee’s 2015 report, only 6% of the farm households sell wheat and rice to the government at the MSP rates.
7. Challenges associated with MSP
- Protest by Farmers: Farm unions have been protesting for more than six months on Delhi's outskirts, demanding legislation to guarantee MSP for all farmers for all crops and a repeal of three contentious farm reform laws.
- MSP and Inflation: When announcing the MSP, inflation should be taken into account. But often the price is not increased up to the mark. For example, this time MSP for Maize has not even considered inflation then how it will benefit farmers! Also, frequent increases in the MSPs can lead to inflation too.
- High Input Costs: The input costs have been rising faster than sale prices, squeezing the meagre income of the small farmers and driving them into debt.
- Lack of Mechanism: No mechanism guarantees that every farmer can get at least the MSP as the floor price in the market. So proper mechanisms need to be fixed for all times to come.
- Restriction in Europe: Even after producing surplus grains, every year a huge portion of these grains gets rotten. This is due to the restrictions under WTO norms, that grain stocks with the FCI (being heavily subsidized due to MSP) cannot be exported.
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For Prelims: Minimum Support Price, Rabi Crops, WTO, Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, Food Corporation of India
For Mains:
1. Explain the concept of Minimum Support Price (MSP) in India. How is MSP determined, and what is its role in ensuring fair prices for agricultural produce? (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2020)
1. In the case of all cereals, pulses, and oil seeds, the procurement at Minimum Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any State/UT of India.
2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
2. Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past? (UPSC CSE, 2020)
(1) Minimum Support Price (2) Government’s trading (3) Government’s stockpiling (4) Consumer subsidies Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: D
3. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? (UPSC GS1, 2020)
(1) Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops (2) Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (3) Social Capital development (4) Free electricity supply to farmers (5) Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system (6) Setting up of cold storage facilities by the governments. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 2, 3 and 6 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Answer: C
4. The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the (UPSC CSE, 2015)
(a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (c) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture (d) Agricultural Produce Market Committee Answer: A
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PRADHAN MANTRI FASAL BIMA YOJANA
1. Context
UnionCabinet has approved the continuation of Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana and Restructured Weather Based Crop Insurance Scheme till 2025-26 with a total budget of ₹69,515.71 crore
2. Key takeaways
- Insurance is a tool to protect you against a small probability of a large unexpected loss.
- It is a technique of providing people with a means to transfer and share risk where losses suffered by few are met from the funds accumulated through small contributions made by many who are exposed to similar risks.
- Insurance is not a tool to make money but a tool to help compensate an individual or business for unexpected losses that might otherwise cause a financial disaster.
- Crop insurance is a means of protecting the agriculturist against financial losses due to uncertainties that may arise from crop failures/losses arising from named or all unforeseen perils beyond their control.
- Weather-Based Crop Insurance aims to mitigate the hardship of the insured farmers against the likelihood of financial loss on account of anticipated crop loss resulting from incidence of adverse conditions of weather parameters like rainfall, temperature, frost, humidity etc.
3. Objective of PMFBY
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) aims at supporting sustainable production in the agriculture sector by way of
4. Recent developments
- THE UNION Agriculture Ministry announced on Tuesday that Andhra Pradesh has decided to rejoin the crop insurance scheme Pradhan Mantri FasalBimaYojana (PMFBY) from the ongoing Kharif season. Andhra Pradesh Was one among six states that had stopped the implementation of the scheme over the last four years.
- The other five, which remain out, are Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Jharkhand, and Telangana
6. Reasoning for opting out by this states-OPTING OUT/OPTING IN
- ANDHRA PRADESH: The state left the PMFBY from the rabi season 2019-20. Sources said the state had mentioned several reasons: that the scheme should be voluntary; that states should be given the option of choosing the risks covered; that the schemes should be universal; that the cut-off date for enrolment should be flexible; and that Andhra Pradesh should be given the option of using its database of Europe, an application used by the state government collect information about crops. “All these issues have been resolved now,”.
- BIHAR: Sources say there were three main reasons for the state's decision. First, Andhra Pradesh wanted universal coverage under the scheme. Second, the state government wanted zero premium for farmers (meaning the entire premium should be paid by the government).UnderthePMFBY, a farmer is required to pay as premium2%of the sum insured or actuarial rate, whichever is less, for all Kharif foodgrain and oilseed crops;1.5%of sum insured or actuarial rate, whichever is less, for all rabi food grain and oilseed crops; and 5% for horticultural crops. Sources said the Centre Cannot Make farmers' premium zero. However, states such as Haryana, Goa and Puducherry are paying the farmers’ share from their budgets for selected crops. The third reason was thattherateofpremiumwasveryhighforBiharbecauseofthe history of claims under earlier schemes.
- JHARKHAND: Jharkhand stopped implementing the scheme soon after the Centre revamped it in 2020, effective from Kharif 2020. Under the revised guidelines, “The Non-payment of the State Share Of premium subsidy within the prescribed timelines as defined in the seasonality discipline will lead to the disqualification of the State Government to implement the scheme the next season.” Sources said Jharkhand’s share of premium subsidy was overdue for 2018-19 and 2019-20.
- WEST BENGAL: Sourcessaidthereason for West Bengal not implementing the PMFBY is purely “political”. The state wants to implement the scheme without mentioning Pradhan Mantri in the scheme’s name, which is not possible, sources said. West Bengal implemented the scheme for threeyearsfrom2016-17 to2018-19,covering 41.3lakhfarmers in2016-17,40.4lakh in2017-18, and51.3lakhin2018-19.
- GUJARAT: Gujarat implemented the PMFBY from 2016-17 to 2019-20, covering 19.8 lakh farmers in 2016-17, 17.6 lakh in 2017-18, 21.7 lakh in 2018-19, and 24.8 lakh in2019-20.Sources say that after the scheme was revamped, Gujarat invited tenders for three years in 2020 but insurance companies quoted a very high premium, and hence the state opted out.
- TELANGANA: In successive years before stopping in 2020- 21. Telangana’s share of premium was overdue for 2018-19 and 2019-20, the main reason why it didn't notify the scheme for 2020-21.
- The Agriculture Ministry is in talks with the state government to bring it back on board.
7.Structure of the scheme
- The government launched PMFBY from Kharif in 2016. Under The Scheme, all farmers including sharecroppers and tenant farmers growing “notified crops” in the “notified areas” are eligible for coverage. Initially, the scheme was compulsory for loanee farmers
- In 2020, the centre revised it to make it optional for all farmers.
- In the initial scheme, the difference between the actuarial premium rate and the rate of the insurance premium payable by farmers, which is called the rate of normal premium subsidy, was to be shared equally between the Center and states.
- However, states and Union Territories are free to extend additional subsidies over and above the normal subsidy from their budgets.
- Center decided to restrict its premium subsidy to 30% for unirrigated areas and 25% for irrigated areas (from the existing unlimited).
- Earlier, there was no upper limit for the central subsidy.
- Food crops (cereals, millets and pulses); oilseeds; and annual commercial/annual horticultural crops are covered under the scheme.
- In addition, pilots for coverage can be taken for those perennial horticultural/ commercial crops for which standard methodology for yield estimation is available, state the scheme guidelines.
NATIONAL MAKHANA BOARD
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The newly established National Makhana Board aims to assist Makhana farmers in Bihar and other parts of India by boosting production, fostering innovation through new technologies, improving post-harvest handling, enhancing value addition, and streamlining processing and marketing. These efforts are expected to make Makhana more accessible in domestic markets, expand its export potential, and help create a strong brand identity.
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Bihar is the leading producer of Makhana, contributing nearly 90% of India’s total output. Cultivation is concentrated in nine districts of northern and eastern Bihar—Darbhanga, Madhubani, Purnea, Katihar, Saharsa, Supaul, Araria, Kishanganj, and Sitamarhi—collectively forming the Mithilanchal region. Of these, Darbhanga, Madhubani, Purnea, and Katihar account for roughly 80% of the state’s production.
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Besides Bihar, smaller-scale cultivation of Makhana is seen in Assam, Manipur, West Bengal, Tripura, and Odisha, and it is also grown in countries such as Nepal, Bangladesh, China, Japan, and Korea
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The creation of the National Makhana Board in Bihar marks a crucial step for farmers engaged in Makhana cultivation. The state government had long urged the Centre to implement policies that would support and promote this sector.
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Even though Bihar contributes nearly 90% of India’s total Makhana production, it has struggled to benefit from the growing national and international demand. Interestingly, the largest exporters of Makhana in the country are Punjab and Assam, with Punjab exporting the crop despite not cultivating it at all.
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This disparity is largely due to Bihar’s underdeveloped food processing industry and weak export infrastructure. The absence of cargo facilities at the state’s airports further restricts direct exports. Additionally, productivity remains low as Makhana cultivation is highly labor-intensive, which raises input costs significantly.
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Another challenge is the slow adoption of high-yield seed varieties such as Swarna Vaidehi and Sabour Makhana-1, developed by agricultural research institutes, which could otherwise boost production efficiency.
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The establishment of the Makhana Board is expected to transform the sector by giving a strong push to production in Bihar and across India, positioning the state prominently on the global Makhana map.
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The Board’s initiatives are likely to include farmer training programs to make them more export-oriented, the development of an ecosystem to attract investments in food processing, and the creation of the necessary export infrastructure
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Makhana, known in English as fox nut, is the dried edible seed of the prickly water lily or gorgon plant (Euryale ferox). This aquatic plant thrives in freshwater ponds across South and East Asia and is easily identified by its purple and white blossoms and its large, spiny, circular leaves, which can grow over a meter wide.
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The edible portion consists of small, round seeds with a black to dark brown outer covering, which has earned Makhana the nickname “Black Diamond.”
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Once processed, these seeds are often roasted or puffed into light snacks called ‘lava.’ Makhana is highly nutritious, offering a rich source of carbohydrates, proteins, and essential minerals. Owing to its health benefits and medicinal properties, it is consumed in multiple forms for dietary, therapeutic, and culinary purposes.
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In 2022, Mithila Makhana received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag, which certifies that the product originates from a specific region and possesses unique qualities or a reputation linked to that area. This GI tag remains valid for 10 years and can be renewed thereafter.
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Climatic Conditions for Cultivation:
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Makhana is an aquatic crop grown mainly in tropical and subtropical climates.
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It is cultivated in stagnant water bodies such as ponds, wetlands, lakes, land depressions, and ditches with water depths of 4–6 feet.
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Ideal growth conditions include a temperature range of 20–35°C, relative humidity between 50–90%, and annual rainfall of 100–250 cm
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On 29th June, Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation Amit Shah inaugurated the newly established headquarters of the National Turmeric Board in Nizamabad, Telangana.
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The National Turmeric Board was set up by the Central Government in January this year, with a target of reaching USD 1 billion in turmeric exports by 2030.
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The Board has been tasked with boosting the turmeric sector nationwide, with a special focus on Telangana. It will serve as a nodal body for addressing issues related to turmeric cultivation and trade, coordinate with the Spices Board and other agencies, and support initiatives to strengthen production, processing, and marketing of turmeric.
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India holds the distinction of being the world’s largest producer, consumer, and exporter of turmeric, with major production concentrated in Telangana, Maharashtra, and Meghalaya. The country commands over 62% of the global turmeric trade. In FY 2023–24, India exported 1.62 lakh tonnes of turmeric and turmeric-based products worth USD 226.5 million

- Makhana, also known as fox nut or gorgon nut, is the dried edible seed of the prickly water lily (Euryale ferox), an aquatic plant commonly found in freshwater ponds across South and East Asia.
- The plant is easily identifiable by its large, prickly circular leaves, which can exceed a meter in diameter, and its violet and white flowers. The edible seeds have a blackish-brown outer coating, earning them the nickname “Black Diamond.”
- After processing, the seeds are roasted or popped to make a light snack called ‘lava,’ which is widely consumed.
- Makhana is valued for its nutritional richness, being a good source of carbohydrates, protein, and minerals, and has wide applications in food, healthcare, and traditional medicine.
- Bihar is the leading producer of Makhana, accounting for nearly 90% of India’s production. Cultivation is concentrated in nine districts of the Mithilanchal region, including Darbhanga, Madhubani, Purnea, Katihar, Saharsa, Supaul, Araria, Kishanganj, and Sitamarhi, with the first four contributing almost 80% of the state’s output.
- In addition to Bihar, Makhana is cultivated in smaller quantities in Assam, Manipur, West Bengal, Tripura, and Odisha, as well as in countries like Nepal, Bangladesh, China, Japan, and Korea.
- Recognizing its unique regional identity, Mithila Makhana was granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2022, which is valid for ten years and can be renewed.
- Makhana is typically grown in tropical and subtropical climates and thrives in stagnant water bodies such as ponds, wetlands, ditches, and lakes with water depths of about 4–6 feet.
- The ideal temperature range for cultivation is 20–35°C, with relative humidity between 50–90% and annual rainfall ranging from 100 to 250 cm. Despite being the largest producer, Bihar has faced several challenges in leveraging its dominant position in the global Makhana market.
- The state lacks a robust food processing industry and export infrastructure, as none of its airports have cargo facilities.
- Cultivation remains highly labor-intensive, resulting in high input costs, and farmers have been slow to adopt high-yield varieties such as Swarna Vaidehi and Sabour Makhana-1 developed by agricultural research institutions
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For Prelims: Makhana, Makhana Board, Geographical Indication (GI) tag
For Mains: GS II - Governance
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CENSUS
1. Context
2. Key Takeaways
- India had conducted the Census every 10 years since 1881, but in 2020, the decennial exercise for Census 2021 had to be postponed due to the pandemic.
- Though the government has not announced fresh dates for the Census, the groundwork is being laid and details are emerging about some of the features.
- It will be the first digital Census allowing citizens to "self-enumerate". The NPR (National Population Register) has been made compulsory for citizens who want to exercise the right to fill out the Census form on their own rather than through government enumerators.
- For this, the Office of the Registrar General of India (RGI) has designed a "self-enumeration, Aadhaar or mobile number will be mandatorily collected.
3. Status of the Census exercise
- A January 2 notification extending the deadline for freezing administrative boundaries in States until June 30 has ruled out the exercise at least till September.
- As preparation and training take at least three months, the Census will have to be pushed to next year.
- Around 30 lakh government officials will be assigned as enumerators and each will have the task to collect the details of 650-800 people through both online and offline modes, covering an estimated population of 135 crore people.
- The Lok Sabha election is due in April-May 2024 and it is unlikely that the Census will be carried out before that since the same workforce will be dedicated to the elections.
- The completion of both phases of the Census will take at least 11 months, even if done at an accelerated pace from October 1.
4. Holding up the Census
- One reason which is holding up the exercise is the amendments proposed to the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, of 1969.
- The government wants to have a centralised register of births and deaths that can be used to update the population register, electoral register, Aadhaar, ration card, passport and driving license databases.
- The centrally stored data will be updated in real-time without a human interface leading to addition and deletion from electoral rolls when an individual turns 18 and after an individual's death respectively.
- A Bill to link the births and deaths registered with the population register and others are expected to be tabled in the next session of Parliament.
5. NPR
- The NPR, unlike the Census, is a comprehensive identity database of every "usual resident" in the country and the data proposed to be collected at the family level can be shared with States and other government departments.
- Though Census also collects similar information, the Census Act of 1948 bars sharing any individual's data with the State or Centre and only aggregate data at the administrative level can be released.
- According to Citizenship Rules 2003 under the Citizenship Act, 1955, NPR is the first step towards a compilation of the National Register of Indian Citizens (NRIC/NRC).
- Assam is the only State where an NRC has been compiled based on the directions of the Supreme Court, with the final draft of Assam's NRC excluding 19 lakhs of the 3.29 crores applicants.
- Assam Government has rejected the NRC in its current form and demanded re-verification of 30 per cent of names included in the NRC in areas bordering Bangladesh and 10 per cent in the remaining State.
- In 2020, the NPR was opposed by several State governments such as West Bengal, Kerala, Rajasthan, Odisha, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Punjab and Chhattisgarh and Civil Society Organisations due to its link with the proposed NRC as it might leave many people stateless for want of legacy documents.
- There are apprehensions that the Citizenship Amendment Act 9 (CAA), 2019 allows citizenship based on religion to six undocumented religious communities from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh who entered India on or before December 31, 2014, will benefit non-Muslims excluded from the proposed citizens' register, while excluded.
- Muslims will have to prove their citizenship. The government has denied that the CAA and NRC are linked and there are currently any plans to compile a countrywide NRC.
5.1. The current status of NPR
- The NPR was first collected in 2010 when the Congres government was in power at the Centre.
- It was updated in 2015 and already has details of 119 crore residents.
- In March 2020, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) amended the Census Rules framed in 1990 to capture and store the Census data in an electronic form and enabled self-enumeration by respondents.
- The NPR is scheduled to be updated with the first phase of Census 2021.
- For this phase (house listing and household phase), 31 questions have been notified, while for the population enumeration, the second and main phase 28 questions have been finalised but are yet to be notified.
- The NPR is expected to collect details on 21 parameters of all family members, up from 14 questions in 2010 and 2015.
- The Sub-heads include passport number, relationship to head of the family, whether divorced/ widowed or separated, mother tongue if non-worker, cultivator, labourer, government employee, daily wage earner among others.
- The form also has a column on Aadhar, mobile phone, Voter ID and driver's licence.
- Though the government has claimed that the NPR form has not been finalised yet, the sample form is part of the Census of India 2021 Handbook for Principal/District Census Officers and Charge Officers in 2021.
- The NPR has retained contentious questions such as "mother tongue, place of birth of father and mother and last place of residence", possible indicators to determine inclusion in the Citizenship register.
- The questions were opposed by the State governments of West Bengal, Kerala, Rajasthan and Odisha in 2020.
- The final set of questions of both the phases and NPR was asked during a pre-test exercise in 2019 in 76 districts in 36 States and Union Territories covering a population of more than 26 lakhs.
6. Expected expenditure for Census
- The initial draft was prepared by the office of the Registrar General of India and circulated to key Ministries and the Prime Minister's Office called for the conduct of Census 2021 at a cost of ₹9, 275 crores and not the NPR.
- The draft Expenditure Finance Committee (EFC) not was then revised and a financial provision of ₹4, 442.15 crores for updating the NPR was added on the directions of the MHA "subsequently".
- The proposal was cleared on August 16, 2019, and it received the Union Cabinet's nod on December 24, 2019.
- It was decided that the enumerator engaged for Census would also collect details for NPR.
- The Covid-19 pandemic struck in March 2020 and since then both exercises are on hold.
- Now, the NPR has been made compulsory if citizens want to exercise the right to fill out the Census form on their own.
- The deleted Handbook said that it is "mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR".
- Census is also mandatory and giving false information is a punishable offence.
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For Prelims: NPR, CAA, Census, Covid-19, Expenditure Finance Committee, Registrar General of India, Registration of Births and Deaths Act, of 1969, The Treatise on Indian Censuses Since 1981, Assam,
For Mains:
1. How can citizens file Census details online? Explain the norms being laid down and discuss the reasons for National Population Register being made compulsory for those who want to fill out the form digitally. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
Prelims:
1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2009)
1. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the density of the population of India has increased more than three times.
2. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the annual growth rate (exponential) of the population of India has doubled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
2. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
3. Sinovac given for Covid-19 is a (UPPSC Combined State Exam 2022)
A. Protein sub-unit
B. Non-replicating viral vector
C. Whole virus vaccine
D. mRNA vaccine
Answer: C
4. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which Include "The Macro Economic Framework Statement". The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by (UPSC 2020)
A. Long-standing parliamentary convention
B. Article 112 and Article 110 (1) of the Constitution of India
C. Article 113 of the Constitution of India
D. Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
Answer: D
5. Who is the Census Commissioner of India in 2021? (ICAR Technician 2022)
A. Dr Vivek Joshi
B. Dr C Chandramouli
C. Shri Sailesh
D. DK Sikri
Answer: A
6. The Registration of Birth and Death Act came into force in the year _____. (UPSSSC Junior Assistant 2020)
A. 1964 B. 1969 C. 1972 D.1981
Answer: B
7. Consider the following States: (UPSC 2022)
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Tripura
How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?
A. Only one State
B. Only two States
C. Only three States
D. All four States
Answer: C
8. Consider the following rivers (UPSC 2014)
1. Barak
2. Lohit
3. Subansiri
Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal Pradesh?
A. 1 only B.2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Mains:
1. Two parallel run schemes of the Government, viz the Adhaar Card and NPR, one as voluntary and the other as compulsory, have led to debates at national levels and also litigations. On merits, discuss whether or not both schemes need run concurrently. Analyse the potential of the schemes to achieve developmental benefits and equitable growth. (UPSC 2014)
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