STUBBLE BURNING
1. Context
Stubble burning incidents in Delhi-NCR, Punjab and Haryana have reduced this year due to government support for farm machinery and other measures, Agriculture Secretary Devesh Chaturvedi said
2. What is Stubble?
Stubble refers to the leftover plant material, mainly crop residues, that remains in the field after the primary crop has been harvested. This includes the stems, leaves, and other organic material that is left behind.
Stubble burning is a common agricultural practice where farmers set fire to crop residues, such as straw and stubble, that remain in the field after the main crop (usually paddy or wheat) has been harvested. This practice is typically used as a quick and cost-effective method to clear the field for the next planting season. Stubble burning is particularly prevalent in regions with mechanized farming, where machines like combine harvesters leave behind a significant amount of crop residues.
3. Stubble burning contributes to air pollution
When stubble is burned, it releases a variety of pollutants into the air, including particulate matter, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, and sulfur dioxide. These pollutants can cause several health problems, including respiratory problems, heart disease, and cancer.
Stubble burning is a major contributor to air pollution in many parts of the world. In India, for example, stubble burning is responsible for up to 30% of the air pollution in Delhi during the winter months.
- Stubble burning generates fine particulate matter (PM2.5 and PM10) that can penetrate deep into the respiratory system, leading to respiratory problems and reduced air quality.
- The combustion of stubble releases carbon monoxide, which can have adverse health effects when inhaled, particularly in enclosed spaces.
- Stubble burning produces Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs), which can react with other pollutants in the atmosphere, contributing to the formation of ground-level ozone, a major air pollutant.
- Burning stubble emits greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4), contributing to climate change.
- The combustion of crop residues can release various hazardous chemicals and pollutants, further deteriorating air quality.
4. About the Central Scheme for the Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue
The Central Scheme on Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue (AMICMR) is a scheme launched by the Government of India to promote the use of in-situ techniques for managing crop residue. In-situ techniques are those that are used to manage crop residue on the field, rather than burning it. Examples of in-situ techniques include:
- Mulching is the practice of covering the soil with a layer of organic material, such as straw or leaves. This can help to suppress weeds, retain moisture, and improve soil health.
- Zero tillage is the practice of planting crops without tilling the soil. This can help to prevent soil erosion and retain moisture in the soil.
- Direct seeding is the practice of planting seeds directly into the soil, rather than transplanting seedlings. This can help to reduce soil disturbance and prevent the spread of weeds.
The AMICMR scheme provides financial assistance to farmers to purchase machinery that can be used for in-situ management of crop residue. The scheme also provides training and extension services to farmers on how to use these techniques.
The AMICMR scheme is a promising initiative that could help to reduce air pollution caused by stubble burning. However, the scheme needs to be scaled up and made more widely available to farmers to have a significant impact.
5. Conclusion
Stubble burning is a major contributor to air pollution in many parts of the world. However, there are several alternatives to stubble burning, such as in-situ management of crop residue. In-situ management of crop residue is a more sustainable way to manage stubble, as it does not release pollutants into the air and has several benefits for soil health and crop yields.
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For Prelims: Stubble burning, air pollution, particulate matter, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, sulfur dioxide, PM2.5, PM10, Volatile Organic Compounds, ozone, carbon dioxide, methane, Climate Change, The Central Scheme on Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue,
For Mains:
1. Critically evaluate the effectiveness of the Central Scheme on Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue (AMICMR) in addressing the issue of stubble burning in India. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions 1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? ( UPSC 2016)
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Answer: B 2. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment (UPSC 2013, 2022) (a) Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen (b) Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide (c) Ozone and Carbon Dioxide (d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide Answer:D 3. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (UPSC 2017) (a) Measuring oxygen level in blood (b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem (d) Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions Answer: C 4. Consider the following: (UPSC 2019) 1. Carbon monooxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: D 5. What is Particulate matter? (BPSC 2016) A. Solid residue B. Air pollutant C. Water pollutant D. Soil pollutant E. None of the above/More than one of the above Answer: B 6. Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas because it: (OPSC OAS 2021) A. Binds to digestive hormones
B. Damages lungs
C. Destroys RBCs
D. Binds to haemoglobin
Answer: D 7. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019) 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: D 8. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022) 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 μg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 μg/m³.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1, 3 and 4 B. 1 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 D.1 and 2 only Answer: B 9. Which of the following is a VOC? (MP Vyapam Sub Engineer Mechanical 2022) A. Toulene B. Water C. Carbon dioxide D. Carbon monoxide Answer: A 10. Which of the following Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are emitted from anthropogenic sources only? (UGC NET 2023) A. Isoprene
B. Benzene
C. Terpene
D. Methane
E. Toluene
1. A, B and C Only 2. B and E Only 3. A and C Only 4. C, D and E Only Answer: 2 11. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substance? (UPSC 2015) A. Bretton Woods Conference B. Montreal Protocol C. Kyoto Porotocol D. Nagoya Protocol Answer: B 12. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (UPSC 2012) A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
C. all the solar radiations
D. the infrared part of the solar radiation
Answer: D 13. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth? (UPSC 2014) 1. Volcanic action
2. Respiration
3. Photosynthesis
4. The decay of organic matter
Select the correct answer using the code given below A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: C 14. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'? (UPSC 2019) 1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: D 15. With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called 'coalbed methane' and 'shale gas' consider the following statements: (UPSC 2014) 1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks. 2. In India, abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: D Mains
1. Describe the key points of the revised Global Air Quality Guidelines (AQGs) recently released by the World Health Organisation (WHO). How are these different from its last update in 2005? What changes in India’s National Clean Air Programme are required to achieve revised standards? ( UPSC 2021)
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Source: Indianexpress
NATIONAL CLEAN AIR PROGRAM (NCAP)
1. Context
Road dust mainly comprises PM₁₀ and coarse particles and forms a large share of the air we breathe. With the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) aiming for a 40% reduction in PM₁₀ by 2025-2026, reducing road dust is an urgent priority
2. Abour National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was initiated by the Indian government to address the alarming levels of atmospheric pollution, particularly the concentration of Particulate Matter (PM). Under NCAP, cities in India exceeding annual PM levels are required to develop and execute Clean Air Action Plans (CAAPs) annually. To support this initiative, the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change has allocated ₹10,422.73 crore.
Challenges in NCAP Implementation
Despite the proactive submission of CAAPs by most cities, the implementation of NCAP has faced inconsistencies. According to the Ministry, only 60% of the allocated funds have been utilized on average, with 27% of cities spending less than 30% of their designated budgets. Notably, cities like Visakhapatnam and Bengaluru have spent minimal percentages of their NCAP funds, hindering progress.
Barriers to Implementation
- Delays in implementation primarily stem from bureaucratic hurdles and a lack of standard operating procedures.
- Approval delays from competent authorities, such as technical specifications for tendering processes and procurement of necessary equipment like mechanical sweepers and electric buses, have been significant impediments.
- Additionally, the absence of well-defined timelines and time-consuming tasks further exacerbate delays.
- Overcoming these challenges requires a systematic approach integrating Emissions Inventory (EI), Air Quality (AQ) modelling, and Source Apportionment (SA).
- Recent findings questioning the efficacy of outdoor smog towers have also fueled doubts among decision-makers, necessitating a comprehensive reevaluation of proposed mitigation measures.
3. Role of Scientific Tools in Pollution Management
Scientific tools play a crucial role in addressing air pollution challenges, particularly in identifying and understanding its origins.
- EI studies provide valuable insights into local pollution sources and their contributions, enabling experts to forecast future emissions and shape targeted pollution control strategies.
- Despite their usefulness, EI studies have limitations, especially in assessing the impact of transboundary pollution sources, such as stubble burning outside Delhi, on local air quality.
- SA studies offer detailed analyses of contributions from various pollution sources, including distant ones.
- However, they lack predictive capabilities and require substantial resources for chemical analysis.
- Additionally, SA studies struggle to differentiate between pollution origins with similar chemical signatures, such as emissions from diesel trucks nearby versus those further away.
- AQ modelling bridges gaps left by EI and SA studies by informing our understanding of pollution dispersion, including from distant sources.
- By simulating the movement of pollutants in the atmosphere, AQ modelling enhances our ability to assess and mitigate air pollution's impacts.
4. Utilization of Scientific Data in Air Pollution Management
- Cities ideally utilize Emissions Inventory (EI) and Source Apportionment (SA) data to identify air pollutants and devise targeted mitigation measures for each polluting activity.
- However, according to the Portal for Regulation of Air Pollution in Non-Attainment Cities, only 37% of cities have completed EI and SA studies, leaving 63% without a clear understanding of their air pollution sources.
- This lack of data raises concerns about the effectiveness of Clean Air Action Plans (CAAPs), as cities may not accurately gauge the emission reduction potential of proposed measures.
- To address this, cities must establish proper yearly targets based on their potential and infrastructure capabilities.
Challenges and Considerations
- The reliance of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) on concentration data, which measures population exposure to pollution, adds complexity.
- Pollution from high-emitting industries and sources beyond city limits, transported into urban areas by wind, complicates urban air quality management.
- Additionally, many existing control measures primarily target primary PM emissions, overlooking their secondary precursors.
- There's a need for a shift towards comprehensive strategies addressing both primary and secondary pollutants.
- Furthermore, while NCAP aims to establish infrastructure for air quality forecasting, only a few cities like Delhi, Pune, Mumbai, and Ahmedabad have implemented decision-support systems.
- Implementing such systems across cities is crucial for timely and effective pollution management.
5. Key Factors for NCAP Success
The success of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) relies on several critical elements beyond just data and models.
- Efficient implementation on the ground is paramount. To achieve this, implementation agencies must streamline bureaucratic processes by adopting shared, standardized technical evaluations. This will expedite the execution of NCAP initiatives and ensure timely action on pollution reduction measures.
- Given that NCAP funding is tied to cities' performance in reducing annual average PM concentrations, proactive budgeting and meticulous time management are essential. Initial plans should encompass thorough assessments of technical feasibility, budget requirements, and timeframes to facilitate successful execution.
- NCAP's vision for cleaner air in India necessitates a multifaceted approach. Success requires integrating rigorous scientific studies, strategic allocation of funds, and prompt, efficient implementation of mitigation measures.
6. The Way Forward
The successful implementation of the NCAP requires concerted efforts to address challenges, utilize scientific data effectively, and adopt a comprehensive approach towards pollution management. By addressing these key factors, India can make significant progress towards achieving cleaner air for its citizens.
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For Prelims: National Clean Air Programme, Air Pollution, Particulate Matter, Clean Air Action Plans For Mains:
1. What are the challenges and opportunities presented by the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) for improving air quality in Indian cities? Discuss the measures required to overcome implementation hurdles and ensure the effective management of air pollution. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (UPSC 2016)
Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 4 and 5 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 2. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (UPSC 2020)
Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2 and 4 only C. 1, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. What is the ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? (UPSC 2016) (a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions
(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies.
(c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022
(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank
4. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among (UPSC 2013) (a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature
(d) high concentration of NO2 O3 and CO in the evening
5. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment (UPSC 2013, 2022) (a) Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen
(b) Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide
(c) Ozone and Carbon Dioxide
(d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide
6. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (UPSC 2017) (a) Measuring oxygen level in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions
7. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently published the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, in 2020. Which of the following statements is correct about EIA? (Punjab Civil Service 2020)
1. It predicts the effect of a proposed industrial/infrastructural project on the environment.
2. It prevents the proposed activity/project from being approved without proper oversight or taking adverse consequences into account.
3. It compares various alternatives for a project and seeks to identify the one which represents the best combination of economic and environmental costs and benefits.
4. As per the new notification, Coal and non-Coal mineral prospecting and solar photovoltaic projects do not need prior environmental clearance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 1, 2 and 4
8. Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in (NDA 2017)
A. Washington B. Geneva C. Moscow D. London
9. With reference to the 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2017)
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
10. The IPCC is the United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change. IPCC stands for: (RRB NTPC CBT 2 2022)
A. Intergovernmental Provision on Climate Change
B. International Panel on Climate Change
C. International Provision on Climate Change
D. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
11. Comprehension (SSC CHSL 2020)
Direction: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Forest fire always (1) ______ by one of two reasons-naturally caused or human-caused. Natural fire is generally (2) ______ by lightning, with a very small percentage (3) ______ by spontaneous combustion of dry fuel such as sawdust and leaves. (4) ______, human-caused fire can happen (5) ______ any number of reasons.
Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1.
A. takes up B. happens C. causes D. creates
12. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the (UPSC 2020)
A. long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emission in a given year.
B. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.
C. efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
D. contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.
13. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (UPSC 2012)
A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
C. all the solar radiations
D. the infrared part of the solar radiation
14. As per the World Health Organisation (WHO) recommendation of a balanced diet, to avoid unhealthy weight gain, total fat should NOT exceed _______ of total energy intake. (UPSSSC Mandi Inspector 2019)
A. 20% B. 30% C. 10% D. 40%
15. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems? (UPSC 2012)
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
16. Which of the following ultraviolet rays is more dangerous? (UPTET 2017)
A. UV-A B. UV-B C. UV-C D. None of the above
17. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019)
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3
18. Which of the following is a VOC? (MP Vyapam 2022)
A. Toulene B. Water C. Carbon dioxide D. Carbon monoxide
19. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are of great concern because (UGC NET Environmental Science 2020)
A. Once such compounds are in the vapour state, they are difficult to control in the environment.
B. Most of them are ozone-depleting substances
C. They contribute to a general increase in reactive hydrocarbons in the atmosphere.
D. They are less soluble in water.
Answers: 1-B, 2-A, 3-A, 4-A, 5-D, 6-C, 7-D, 8-B, 9-A, 10-D, 11-B, 12-A, 13-D, 14-B, 15-A, 16-C, 17-D, 18-A, 19-C
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Source: The Hindu
INFANT MORTALITY RATE (IMR)
1. Context
The Bombay High Court, on November 12, pulled up the Maharashtra and Union governments for an “extremely casual” approach to the disturbing number of infant deaths due to malnutrition in the tribal-dominated region of Melghat in Amravati. During the hearing, a petitioner claimed that from June 2025, 65 infants aged between zero and six months had died due to malnutrition in Melghat, while more than 220 children were in the Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM) category, out of which 50% may die if no help is provided.
2. What is the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)?
- The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is a key demographic and public health indicator that measures the number of deaths of infants under one year of age per 1,000 live births in a given year and population.
- In simple terms, it tells us how many babies do not survive their first year of life out of every 1,000 babies born alive.
- IMR reflects the overall health status, socio-economic conditions, and quality of healthcare services in a country. High IMR usually indicates issues such as malnutrition, poor maternal health, inadequate healthcare facilities, and lack of sanitation.
- Conversely, a low IMR shows improvements in medical care, immunization, maternal nutrition, and public health policies.
- For India, reducing IMR has been a central goal under various initiatives like the National Health Mission, Janani Suraksha Yojana, and Poshan Abhiyaan, as it is directly linked to the country’s progress on Sustainable Development Goals (SDG 3 – Good Health and Well-being)
3. What are the trends in India’s IMR in the last decade as per the SRS, 2023?
- Over the past decade, Delhi, Himachal Pradesh, and Karnataka have managed to cut their Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) by more than half, marking the most significant improvements on this key child health indicator.
- According to the 2023 Sample Registration Survey (SRS), India’s IMR has fallen by over 37% in ten years—from 40 infant deaths per 1,000 live births in 2013 to 25 in 2023.
- The country’s IMR dropped below the global average around 2021, and its pace of decline has been faster than worldwide trends. However, India still lags behind the Asian average of 17.4 deaths per 1,000 births.
- In the most recent data, the national IMR showed a one-point decline from the previous year, while the average improvement during the last five years has been 1.4 points annually.
- Among the larger states, Kerala stands out with a single-digit IMR—just five deaths per 1,000 live births—a level comparable with developed nations. Yet, Kerala also records the widest gender gap, with IMRs of nine for boys and two for girls.
- Smaller states like Manipur, Sikkim, and Goa, along with nearly all Union Territories, also report single-digit IMRs.
- At the other end of the spectrum, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh have the highest IMRs in the country, each at 37, followed by Odisha and Assam, both at 30
- A report published earlier this week notes that the national average infant mortality rate (IMR) stands at 25 deaths per 1,000 live births. Referring to the findings, Kerala’s Health Minister Veena George highlighted that the State’s IMR is even lower than that of the United States, which recorded 5.6 deaths per 1,000 live births in 2022, and reaffirmed that Kerala has the lowest IMR in India.
- Kerala’s success is the outcome of consistent improvements in the health sector over the years. Data from the State’s Department of Economics and Statistics shows that the IMR stood at 7.42 in 2010, briefly rose to 8.2 in 2012, but has steadily declined since then.
- Further, the 2023 State Vital Statistics Report points out that institutional deliveries dominate childbirth practices in Kerala. In rural areas, 96.16% of deliveries took place in healthcare institutions, while in urban areas the figure reached 99.88%, reflecting strong access to maternal and child healthcare facilities
4. What are the factors behind the reduction in infant mortality in India?
The reduction in Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) in India over the past few decades is the outcome of a combination of healthcare interventions, socio-economic progress, and policy focus. Here’s an explanatory account:
- Improved antenatal, intranatal, and postnatal care has been central. Schemes like the Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) and Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK) incentivized institutional deliveries and provided free maternal care, reducing risks during childbirth
- A large majority of births now take place in healthcare institutions, supported by programs under the National Health Mission (NHM) and better rural health infrastructure. Institutional births reduce complications, ensure trained attendance, and provide immediate neonatal care
- Expansion of the Universal Immunization Programme and the introduction of Mission Indradhanush helped protect children from life-threatening diseases such as measles, diphtheria, and pneumonia, thereby reducing infant deaths
- The setting up of Special Newborn Care Units (SNCUs), Nutrition Rehabilitation Centres (NRCs), and improved access to pediatric services has strengthened survival chances for vulnerable infants
- Government schemes like the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS), Poshan Abhiyaan, and mid-day meals have improved maternal and child nutrition. Better maternal health directly lowers the risk of premature or underweight babies, a major contributor to infant deaths
- Education of women has led to greater awareness about hygiene, healthcare, and nutrition, resulting in healthier pregnancies and better childcare practices. States with higher female literacy, like Kerala, consistently show lower IMRs
- Flagship initiatives under the National Health Mission, such as the India Newborn Action Plan (2014), set specific targets for reducing neonatal and infant mortality. Regular monitoring through the Sample Registration Survey (SRS) has kept the issue at the forefront of policy action
5. Why are there interstate differences in IMR in India?
- The Sample Registration System (SRS) Statistical Report 2023 makes it clear that while India has achieved significant progress in reducing its Infant Mortality Rate (IMR), there are still striking differences between states. These interstate disparities arise from a complex interplay of health infrastructure, socio-economic development, governance, and social practices.
- One of the foremost reasons is the variation in healthcare access and quality across states. States such as Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Himachal Pradesh have built strong public health systems, ensuring trained medical personnel, institutional deliveries, and neonatal care facilities are widely available.
- In contrast, states like Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh still struggle with underfunded health services, shortages of doctors and nurses, and poor rural health outreach, which contributes to persistently high infant deaths.
- Maternal and child nutrition also plays a decisive role. In states with high rates of malnutrition and anaemia among mothers, babies are more likely to be born underweight or premature, making them vulnerable to infections and early death. This is particularly evident in central and eastern states where poverty, food insecurity, and weaker implementation of nutrition schemes have kept IMR higher.
- Education and awareness further shape these differences. States with high levels of female literacy, such as Kerala and Tamil Nadu, tend to have mothers who are more aware of hygiene, breastfeeding, vaccination, and healthcare needs, directly lowering infant mortality. On the other hand, low female literacy in poorer states often limits health-seeking behaviour, leading to preventable deaths.
- Another factor is infrastructure beyond health services, including sanitation, drinking water, electricity, and transport. Kerala, with nearly universal institutional deliveries, has also ensured that roads and ambulances connect rural households to hospitals.
- In contrast, hilly, tribal, and remote areas in states like Odisha and Madhya Pradesh face access barriers that delay or prevent timely medical intervention.
- Social and cultural practices also shape the gap. In some regions, deep-rooted gender biases lead to differential care for male and female infants.
- The SRS 2023 highlights Kerala as having the lowest IMR overall, but also shows a sharp gender disparity—IMR for boys being higher than for girls. Such gendered patterns differ from state to state, contributing to uneven outcomes.
- Finally, governance and policy prioritisation explain a large part of the difference. States that have consistently invested in health and social welfare—through schemes for maternal care, immunisation drives, and nutrition—show sustained improvements. States where such programs remain weakly implemented or irregularly continue to report higher infant deaths despite overall national progress
6. Why are there interstate differences in IMR in India?
- Interstate differences in Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) in India arise because health outcomes are shaped by a mix of healthcare access, socio-economic development, nutrition, education, and governance, all of which vary widely across states.
- In states such as Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Himachal Pradesh, IMR has dropped to single digits because of strong public health systems, high female literacy, widespread institutional deliveries, and effective implementation of maternal and child health schemes.
- These states have invested consistently in healthcare infrastructure, ensured better nutrition through schemes like ICDS and Poshan Abhiyaan, and created social awareness around immunisation, breastfeeding, and hygiene. Kerala, for instance, combines near-universal institutional deliveries with high maternal education levels, giving it one of the lowest IMRs in the country.
- By contrast, states such as Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha continue to record high IMRs. The reasons include weak health infrastructure, shortage of trained medical staff, poor access to emergency neonatal care, and low coverage of institutional deliveries, especially in rural and tribal belts.
- Malnutrition and maternal anaemia are also more prevalent in these regions, leading to low birth weight and greater vulnerability to infections. Poor sanitation and lack of safe drinking water worsen child health outcomes, while low female literacy and limited awareness about healthcare practices restrict preventive care.
- Differences in policy implementation and governance also explain the gaps. States that have prioritised maternal and child health through effective rollout of schemes like Janani Suraksha Yojana, Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram, and Mission Indradhanush have seen sharper declines in IMR. Others lag because of weaker monitoring, limited resources, and uneven outreach
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For Prelims: Infant Mortality Rate (IMR), Sample Registration System (SRS), Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR)
For Mains: GS II - Issues relating to development and management of Social Sector/Services relating to Health, Education, Human Resources.
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Previous Year Questions
1. Consider the following statements (UPSC 2016)
1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the 'Club of Rome
2. Sustainable Development goals has to be achieved by the year 2030
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct
A. 1 Only B. 2 Only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 Nor 2
2. Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) of India is released by which of the following office?
(NCL Staff Nurse 2020)
A. Office of Registrar General of India
B. Office of CAG
C. Office of Union Health Minister
D. Office of Statistical computation of India
Answers: 1-B, 2- A
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Source: Indianexpress
INDIA-BANGLADESH
1. Context
Bangladesh’s ousted prime minister Sheikh Hasina was sentenced to death on November 17 for crimes against humanity during the unprecedented protests in July-August 2024. Hasina, 78, has been living in India since August 5, when she fled the country ahead of the imminent collapse of her 16-year-old government.
2. The Evolution of India-Bangladesh Ties
- The genesis of India's relationship with Bangladesh traces back to the 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War when India played a crucial role in providing military and material support for Bangladesh's fight for independence from Pakistan.
- However, in the aftermath, relations faced challenges as military regimes took control, leading to a rise in anti-India sentiment in the mid-1970s.
- Issues such as boundary disputes, insurgency, and water-sharing disputes contributed to the strained ties.
- The situation persisted for several decades until Sheikh Hasina assumed power in 1996, ushering in a new era in bilateral relations.
- Under her leadership, a significant milestone was reached with the signing of a treaty on the sharing of Ganga waters.
- Since then, India and Bangladesh have successfully fostered cooperation in various areas, including trade, energy, infrastructure, connectivity, and defence.
3. India-Bangladesh Economic Ties
- Over the past decade, bilateral trade between India and Bangladesh has demonstrated consistent growth.
- Bangladesh has emerged as India's largest trade partner in South Asia, with bilateral trade surging from $10.8 billion in 2020-21 to $18 billion in 2021-2022.
- However, a slight dip occurred in 2022-23 due to the impact of the pandemic and the Russia-Ukraine war.
- In return, India stands as Bangladesh's second-largest trade partner, with exports amounting to $2 billion in the Indian markets.
- In 2022, both countries successfully concluded a joint feasibility study on a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA).
- This agreement, designed to reduce or eliminate customs duties on traded goods and streamline trade norms, is expected to unlock broader social and economic opportunities.
- The CEPA gains added significance as Bangladesh is poised to lose its Least Developed Country (LDC) status after 2026, thereby forfeiting its duty-free and quota-free market access in India.
- Dhaka is keen to finalize a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with New Delhi and simultaneously pursue the China-backed Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP). This dual-track approach raises concerns for India.
4. India's Infrastructural Investments in Bangladesh
- As a significant development partner for Bangladesh, India has been actively contributing to various infrastructure and connectivity projects.
- Since 2010, India has provided Lines of Credit totalling over $7 billion. A milestone in this collaboration was achieved last year when Prime Minister Modi and Sheikh Hasina inaugurated the Akhaura-Agartala rail link, connecting Bangladesh and the northeast through Tripura.
- This link grants India access to Chattogram and Mongla ports in Bangladesh, facilitating cargo movement and poised to stimulate small-scale industries while fostering the development of Assam and Tripura.
- In the energy sector, Bangladesh imports nearly 2,000 megawatts of electricity from India.
- The BIMSTEC Master Plan for Transport Connectivity is instrumental in connecting major transport projects in India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, and Thailand, thereby establishing a comprehensive shipping network.
- India's focus is likely to be on the Matarbari Port, situated approximately 100 km from Tripura, being developed by Bangladesh.
- This port will play a pivotal role in establishing a crucial industrial corridor, connecting Dhaka with the northeastern part of India.
5. Navigating Challenges in the India-Bangladesh Relationship
- Several points of tension mark the diplomatic landscape between India and Bangladesh.
- Foremost among them is the impending Teesta dispute, which holds a central position in the agenda of the Hasina-led government.
- This dispute revolves around the equitable sharing of Teesta's waters, with Bangladesh seeking a fair distribution.
- Another source of contention is the Rohingya issue. The Hasina government aims for the peaceful repatriation of Rohingyas to Myanmar, but talks with the military junta have proven unsuccessful thus far.
- Bangladesh seeks India's cooperation to influence Myanmar, but the Modi government, with ties to the junta, asserts its intention to deport Rohingyas from its mainland.
- Cross-border terrorism and infiltration pose additional threats to internal security. The rise of majoritarian forces adds complexity to the already intricate landscape.
- While violence against Muslims has increased in India in recent years, Prime Minister Hasina has consistently condemned these attacks and expressed dissatisfaction with comments by Indian leaders concerning "illegal" immigrants.
6. Global Influences on the India-Bangladesh Relationship
- The Awami League government under Sheikh Hasina has faced vocal criticism from the U.S., particularly concerning "democratic backsliding."
- In 2021, the Biden administration imposed sanctions on a Bangladeshi anti-crime and anti-terrorism task force, citing human rights violations.
- Tensions escalated further as the U.S. announced a policy to restrict visas for Bangladeshis deemed responsible for undermining the election process in the country. This external pressure has implications for the global ties of Bangladesh.
- Adding to India's concerns is the deepening relationship between Bangladesh and China, marked by substantial Chinese investments in infrastructure in recent years.
- According to the Chinese Ambassador to Bangladesh, China has undertaken the construction of 12 highways, 21 bridges, and 27 power and energy projects in Bangladesh.
- However, Prime Minister Hasina has asserted that her government is "very much careful" about its partnership with China.
7. The Way Forward
Despite challenges, the India-Bangladesh relationship boasts strong potential for further growth. Open communication, constructive dialogue, and focus on shared interests are crucial for navigating the complexities and ensuring a prosperous future for both nations.
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For Prelims: India-Bangladesh, Free Trade Agreement, Rohingyas, Teesta River, BIMSTEC, Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement
For Mains:
1. Assess the role of China's growing influence in Bangladesh and its implications for the India-Bangladesh relationship. How can India navigate this complex geopolitical landscape? (250 Words)
2. Discuss the potential benefits of the BIMSTEC Master Plan for Transport Connectivity for India, Bangladesh, and the broader region. What are the key considerations for effective implementation and ensuring equitable benefits? (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Consider the following countries: (UPSC 2018)
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Which of the above are among the free-trade partners' of ASEAN?
A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 B. 3 , 4, 5 and 6 C. 1, 3, 4 and 5 D. 2, 3, 4 and 6
3. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if (UPSC 2018) (a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output. 4. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following: (UPSC 2010)
Which of the above are the objectives of this Act? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
5. A “closed economy” is an economy in which (UPSC 2011) (a) the money supply is fully controlled
6. Consider the following pairs:(UPSC 2016)
Community is sometimes mentioned in the news In the affairs of
1. Kurd Bangladesh
2. Madhesi Nepal
3. Rohingya Myanmar
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 D. 3 only
7. With reference to the BIMSTEC, which of the following statements is/are true? (UPPSC 2022)
1. P. M. Narendra Modi addressed the 5th BIMSTEC Summit on 30th March 2022.
2. 5th Summit of BIMSTEC had been chaired by India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
A. Neither 1 nor 2
B. Both 1 and 2
C. Only 2
D. Only 1
8. Which of the following statement/s is/are true about the three-day international Seminar on 'Climate Smart Farming System' for BIMSTEC countries held during December 11-13, 2019? (UPPSC 2020)
1. It was held at Katmandu, Nepal.
2. It was aimed to have experience sharing for more resilience to climate change through an ecological approach to enable the improvement of tropical small-holding farming systems.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
9. The term 'Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership; often appears in the news in the context of the affairs of a group of countries known as (UPSC 2016)
A. G20 B. ASEAN C. SCO D. SAARC
10. Recently, with which one of the following countries did India sign the 'Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement' ? (UPSC CAPF 2022)
A. Egypt B. Israel C. South Africa D. United Arab Emirates
Answers: 1-B, 2-C, 3-C, 4-A, 5- D, 6-C, 7-D, 8-B, 9-B, 10- D
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Source: The Hindu
AIR POLLUTION
1. Context
Like clockwork, the NCR has slipped into the same cycle of neglect, retreating indoors, wearing masks infrequently, and hoping the pollution disappears. But air pollution is not a seasonal inconvenience. It is a year-round health problem that refuses to become a public-health priority
2. Air Pollution and its severity
According to the International Energy Associates, road transport accounts for 12% of India’s CO2 emissions, with heavy vehicles being the primary source of Particulate Matter (PM) 2.5 emissions. PM2.5 consists of tiny particles that can penetrate deeply into the lungs and enter the bloodstream, leading to various respiratory and cardiovascular issues. Heavy vehicles also play a major role in emitting Nitrogen Oxide (NOx), which has similar health effects. NOx contributes to the formation of ground-level ozone, which degrades air quality and increases heat, exacerbating air pollution in urban areas. Research shows that heavy vehicles are responsible for approximately 60-70% of vehicular PM emissions and about 40-50% of NOx emissions in cities
3. Measures to Control Air Pollution
- With the transport sector expanding at a rate of 9.1% annually, the Bureau of Energy Efficiency’s (BEE) effort to develop draft Corporate Average Fuel Economy (CAFE) standards for cars in India is both timely and commendable.
- The planned implementation timelines for CAFE III (2027-2032) and CAFE IV (2032-2037) are practical. Transitioning from the Modified India Driving Cycle (MIDC) to the World Light Duty Vehicle Testing Procedure (WLTP) starting March 31, 2027, is a positive move, as the WLTP provides a more accurate and globally standardized assessment of a vehicle's fuel consumption and CO2 emissions.
- The proposed emissions targets under CAFE III at 91.7g CO2/km and CAFE IV at 70g CO2/km are achievable. These stringent CO2 targets are crucial for fostering innovation and promoting the adoption of cleaner technologies.
- For the benefit of both the environment and public health, these targets should remain firm.
- However, it is important to note that the CAFE norms do not cover emissions from heavy vehicles such as trucks and lorries
4. Government Initiatives to Control air pollution
- In 2022, the government launched a vehicle scrappage policy aimed at retiring old and polluting vehicles, including heavy-duty ones. The policy requires passenger vehicles older than 20 years and commercial vehicles older than 15 years to pass a “fitness and emissions test.”
- Vehicles that fail these tests are deemed end-of-life, lose their registration certificates, and are recommended for scrapping.
- However, the policy has not yet been effectively implemented in Karnataka due to the limited number of scrapyards (only two in the entire state) and its voluntary nature.
- In Bangalore, many older vehicles are not four-wheelers but include older BMTC buses, private vans, and heavy vehicles.
- Maharashtra, among 21 states, has introduced incentives like road tax discounts or new vehicle purchase reductions to promote scrapping, but these measures have yet to significantly impact air pollution. It is crucial for policymakers to ensure that these guidelines are not just theoretically sound but practically enforced.
- Current government measures to address air pollution—such as regular vehicle emissions testing, banning open garbage burning, and monitoring industrial emissions—must be strictly enforced.
- While the government's efforts to reduce air pollution are commendable, it is important to emphasize that expanding mass transit is essential for a sustainable approach to tackling air pollution in India
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For Prelims: National Clean Air Programme, Air Pollution, Particulate Matter, Clean Air Action Plans For Mains:
1. What are the challenges and opportunities presented by the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) for improving air quality in Indian cities? Discuss the measures required to overcome implementation hurdles and ensure the effective management of air pollution. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (UPSC 2016)
Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 4 and 5 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 2. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (UPSC 2020)
Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2 and 4 only C. 1, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. What is the ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? (UPSC 2016) (a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions
(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies.
(c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022
(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank
4. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among (UPSC 2013) (a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature
(d) high concentration of NO2 O3 and CO in the evening
5. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment (UPSC 2013, 2022) (a) Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen
(b) Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide
(c) Ozone and Carbon Dioxide
(d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide
6. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (UPSC 2017) (a) Measuring oxygen level in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions
7. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently published the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, in 2020. Which of the following statements is correct about EIA? (Punjab Civil Service 2020)
1. It predicts the effect of a proposed industrial/infrastructural project on the environment.
2. It prevents the proposed activity/project from being approved without proper oversight or taking adverse consequences into account.
3. It compares various alternatives for a project and seeks to identify the one which represents the best combination of economic and environmental costs and benefits.
4. As per the new notification, Coal and non-Coal mineral prospecting and solar photovoltaic projects do not need prior environmental clearance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 1, 2 and 4
8. Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in (NDA 2017)
A. Washington B. Geneva C. Moscow D. London
9. With reference to the 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2017)
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
10. The IPCC is the United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change. IPCC stands for: (RRB NTPC CBT 2 2022)
A. Intergovernmental Provision on Climate Change
B. International Panel on Climate Change
C. International Provision on Climate Change
D. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
11. Comprehension (SSC CHSL 2020)
Direction: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Forest fire always (1) ______ by one of two reasons-naturally caused or human-caused. Natural fire is generally (2) ______ by lightning, with a very small percentage (3) ______ by spontaneous combustion of dry fuel such as sawdust and leaves. (4) ______, human-caused fire can happen (5) ______ any number of reasons.
Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1.
A. takes up B. happens C. causes D. creates
12. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the (UPSC 2020)
A. long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emission in a given year.
B. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.
C. efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
D. contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.
13. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (UPSC 2012)
A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
C. all the solar radiations
D. the infrared part of the solar radiation
14. As per the World Health Organisation (WHO) recommendation of a balanced diet, to avoid unhealthy weight gain, total fat should NOT exceed _______ of total energy intake. (UPSSSC Mandi Inspector 2019)
A. 20% B. 30% C. 10% D. 40%
15. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems? (UPSC 2012)
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
16. Which of the following ultraviolet rays is more dangerous? (UPTET 2017)
A. UV-A B. UV-B C. UV-C D. None of the above
17. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019)
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3
18. Which of the following is a VOC? (MP Vyapam 2022)
A. Toulene B. Water C. Carbon dioxide D. Carbon monoxide
19. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are of great concern because (UGC NET Environmental Science 2020)
A. Once such compounds are in the vapour state, they are difficult to control in the environment.
B. Most of them are ozone-depleting substances
C. They contribute to a general increase in reactive hydrocarbons in the atmosphere.
D. They are less soluble in water.
Answers: 1-B, 2-A, 3-A, 4-A, 5-D, 6-C, 7-D, 8-B, 9-A, 10-D, 11-B, 12-A, 13-D, 14-B, 15-A, 16-C, 17-D, 18-A, 19-C
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Source: The Hindu
PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION (PSC)
1. Context
The 2025 national conference of chairpersons of the State Public Service Commissions (PSCs) is being hosted by the Telangana State Public Service Commission on December 19 and 20. Every year, whenever State PSCs conduct examinations for recruitment, they are mired in one controversy or the other.
2. What is the history of PSCs?
- The origin of Public Service Commissions in India goes back to the British era, when the need for a merit-based and impartial civil service was increasingly recognised. Before formal commissions were established, civil services appointments were largely controlled by the British administration without a clear, independent recruitment mechanism.
- The first major step towards an independent recruitment body came in 1926, when the Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the creation of the first Public Service Commission at the national level..
- This body, known simply as the Public Service Commission, was tasked with advising the government on service-related matters and conducting examinations for certain posts, although its powers were still quite limited.
- A more robust framework emerged with the Government of India Act, 1935, which laid the foundation for a Federal Public Service Commission and also allowed for the establishment of Provincial Public Service Commissions. This was the beginning of what we now recognize as the Union and State Public Service Commissions.
- After independence, the Constitution of India (1950) strengthened and formalized the system.
- The old Federal PSC became the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), and each state was empowered to set up its own State Public Service Commission (SPSC). These commissions were granted constitutional status under Articles 315 to 323, ensuring independence and protection from political interference.
- Over time, PSCs evolved into key institutions responsible for recruiting civil servants through competitive examinations, maintaining merit-based selection, and advising governments on disciplinary matters, promotions, and appointments
3. How are Public Service Commissions Structured?
- The UPSC operates within an environment that is largely insulated from political influence. Its members are chosen for their competence and extensive experience in public administration, with care taken to ensure representation from all regions of the country.
- Although the Constitution does not specify minimum age or qualifications, most UPSC members tend to be over 55 years old and are known for maintaining a non-partisan stance.
- In contrast, State Public Service Commissions function in settings where political influence is more pronounced, and appointments often reflect elements of a patronage system. As a result, traditional expectations such as minimum age, qualifications, and administrative experience are frequently overlooked.
- The Union government, with its large administrative structure, has significant staffing requirements and the financial capacity to manage pension commitments and new recruitments.
- To streamline personnel matters, it set up the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions in 1985, which oversees policies related to human resource management.
- This institutional framework ensures that vacancies are declared on time, allowing the UPSC to issue notifications, hold examinations, and announce results consistently and efficiently.
- On the other hand, the staffing needs of State governments are smaller and often irregular. Many States face budgetary constraints that make it difficult to fulfil retirement and hiring obligations, resulting in raising the retirement age or postponing fresh recruitment.
- Most States also lack a dedicated personnel ministry. Consequently, vacancies are not announced in a timely manner, which means that State PSCs do not conduct examinations with the same regularity as the UPSC
4. How do they Work?
- The UPSC periodically sets up expert committees that include not just academics but also civil servants, social workers, and other specialists to review and update the examination syllabus.
- This helps maintain a balance between academic knowledge and current developments. Because it can draw on talent from across the country, the UPSC is able to design and evaluate question papers with high quality and reliability.
- It also uses a well-established system of inter-se moderation at various stages of the exam to reduce subjective differences in marking.
- Moreover, the UPSC manages to uphold both transparency and confidentiality by promptly addressing any errors and making necessary systemic improvements, which reduces the need for candidates to approach the courts with complaints.
- In comparison, most State PSCs do not regularly constitute committees to revise their syllabi. They also have limited access to subject experts, often relying only on local academic resources.
- As a result, achieving uniform moderation during evaluation becomes difficult. In addition, State PSCs must handle complicated calculations involving both vertical and horizontal reservations, and in some cases, regional or zonal quotas, which increases the complexity of the recruitment process. These challenges frequently lead to legal disputes, causing significant delays in finalizing selections.
- Such issues are among the major factors affecting the effectiveness and public trust in State PSCs.
- Many frustrated candidates express that they no longer have confidence in their State Commissions and would prefer the UPSC to conduct these examinations. To rebuild credibility, timely structural and procedural reforms are essential
5. Constitutional Provisions
- Article 315 establishes that India must have a UPSC for the Union and separate Public Service Commissions for each State. Two or more States may also form a Joint PSC if their legislatures agree. The UPSC can assist any State if the Governor requests and the President approves.
- Article 316 states that the President appoints members of the UPSC and Joint PSCs, while Governors appoint members of State PSCs. About half of the members must have at least ten years of government service. Members serve for six years or until they reach the age limit—65 for UPSC and 62 for State PSCs—and cannot be reappointed after their term ends.
- Article 317 provides that UPSC or State PSC members can be removed only by the President, based on a Supreme Court inquiry, except in cases like insolvency, outside paid employment, or physical/mental incapacity. The President or Governor may suspend a member while the inquiry is ongoing.
- Article 318 empowers the President or a Governor to determine the number of members and staff of the Commission and their service conditions, which cannot be altered to their disadvantage after appointment.
- Article 319 restricts former members from taking up further government jobs. The UPSC Chairperson cannot hold any future government office, while State PSC chairpersons or members may move to UPSC or another State PSC but not to other government posts.
- Article 320 outlines the functions of the Commissions, mainly conducting recruitment exams and advising on recruitment, promotions, transfers, disciplinary matters, and claims related to costs or pensions. Governments may make rules specifying matters where consultation with the PSC is not required.
- Article 321 allows Parliament or State Legislatures to assign additional duties to the PSCs.
- Article 322 states that PSC expenses are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India or the respective State, ensuring financial independence.
- Article 323 requires UPSC and State PSCs to submit annual reports on their work. These reports must be placed before Parliament or the State Legislature along with explanations wherever the PSC’s advice was not accepted
6. Roles and Functions of PSC
- The Constitution requires governments to consult the Public Service Commission on appointments and other matters listed under Article 320. The Commission’s responsibilities include holding examinations for State civil service posts and advising the government on recruitment methods, principles for appointments, promotions, inter-service transfers, suitability of candidates, and disciplinary cases involving State civil servants.
- Articles 229 and 234 further mandate consultation with the Commission for appointments to specific posts in the High Court establishment and the State Judicial Service. Several statutory bodies also follow similar requirements for certain categories of posts.
- Article 321 additionally empowers the State Legislature to assign extra functions to the Commission in relation to State services or local bodies, although no such legislation has been enacted so far.
- The State Government seeks the Commission’s advice for most civil service recruitments, but some posts are excluded through regulations framed under the proviso to Article 320(3). In West Bengal, for example, these exclusions are listed in the West Bengal Public Service Commission (Exemption from Consultation) Regulations, 2008
7. Way Forward
Reforms are also needed in the examination processes. The syllabus must be revised regularly, reflecting academic changes and aligning with UPSC standards. Any proposed revision should be made public, inviting feedback before implementation. State-specific topics—such as regional history, economy, or geography—can be evaluated through objective-type questions to reduce subjective bias. While the preliminary exam may remain fully objective, the mains should include both objective and descriptive papers. Translation of question papers should combine technology with human oversight to avoid errors. Frequent changes in question patterns can prevent overreliance on AI-generated answers
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For Prelims: Union Public Service Commission, Lord Thomas Macaulay, Haileybury College, Satyendranath Tagore, Indian Constitutional Reforms, Government of India Act, 1919, Public Service Commission, Public Service Commission (Functions) Rules, 1926, Government of India Act, of 1935, Article 378 of the Constitution, Consolidated Fund of India,
For Mains: 1. What is Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)? Discuss its evolution and Explain the functions of UPSC. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the Article ______ (MP Patwari 2017)
A. 315 B. 234 C. 421 D. 56
Answer: A
2. T.B. Macaulay has penned his 'Minute on Education' in the year (AP SET 2016)
A.1735 B. 1753 C. 1853 D.1835
Answer: D
3. Which of the following is NOT true about Mill's History of British India? (UGC NET 2019)
A. It founded the traditional institutions of India static and retrogressive
B. The analysis made by Mill suited the needs of imperial government.
C. It became a textbook on India for the British officers of the Indian Civil Services at Haileybury College
D. It was not informed by the English utilitarian philosophy
Answer: D
4. Who among the following was the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Service? (NDA 2019)
1. Satyendranath Tagore
2. Surendranath Banerjee
3. R.C. Dutt
4. Subhas Chandra Bose
Answer: A
5. Which among the following events happened earliest? (UPSC 2018)
A. Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.
B. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neel Darpan
C. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
D. Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.
Answer: B
6. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved" and "Transferred" subjects. Which of the following were treated as "Reserved" subjects? (UPSC 2022)
1. Administration of Justice
2. Local Self-Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4
Answer: A
7. Features of the Government of India Act 1935 are: (Rajasthan Police SI 2016)
(a) The provincial autonomy
(b) The establishment of Federal Court
(c) The establishment of All India Federation at the Centre
1. a and b 2. b and c 3. a and c 4. a, b and c
Answer: 4
8. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2015)
1. The Department of Revenue responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
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Source: The Hindu
