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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 01 AUGUST 2025

ANTI-DEFECTION LAW

 
 
 
 
1. Context
 
The Supreme Court said on Thursday that it was about time Parliament reviewed its expectation that Assembly Speakers and Chairpersons would live up to the dignity of their high office and crush the “evil of political defection” by deciding disqualification proceedings against legislators in time and without favour.
 

2. About anti-defection law

The anti-defection law in India refers to the provisions laid down in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which was inserted by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985. The primary purpose of the anti-defection law is to curb "political defections" by legislators for personal gains or due to extraneous considerations, thereby promoting stability and integrity in the political system.

Key features and purposes of the anti-defection law include

  • The law provides for the disqualification of elected legislators if they voluntarily give up the membership of their political party or disobey the directives issued by their party leadership on voting in legislative matters.
  • By penalizing defections, the law aims to preserve stability and discipline within political parties. It discourages legislators from switching parties solely for opportunistic reasons, thereby promoting a more principled approach to politics.
  • Preventing defections helps in maintaining stable governments by reducing the likelihood of frequent changes in government formation due to opportunistic alliances or individual defections. This stability is essential for effective governance and policy implementation.
  • The law seeks to protect the mandate given by voters to a particular political party during elections. Defections can undermine the trust placed by voters in a party's policies and candidates, and the anti-defection law aims to safeguard the integrity of the electoral process.
  • By discouraging defections and ensuring that legislators adhere to the party's stance on legislative matters, the law contributes to the smooth functioning of legislatures. It reduces disruptions caused by political uncertainties and promotes a more focused approach to lawmaking and governance.
  • The anti-defection law upholds democratic principles by emphasizing the importance of party discipline and accountability. It encourages elected representatives to remain committed to the party's ideology and manifesto, thereby fostering a more transparent and accountable political system.
 

3. Has the anti-defection law ensured the stability of governments?

The effectiveness of the anti-defection law in ensuring the stability of governments in India is a subject of debate. While the law has certainly had some impact on curbing defections and promoting party discipline, its efficacy in maintaining government stability is not absolute.

Several factors contribute to this nuanced perspective

  • The anti-defection law has succeeded in reducing blatant opportunistic defections where legislators switch parties solely for personal gains or political expediency. This has helped in preventing frequent changes in government formation and instability arising from such defections.
  • In a multi-party democracy like India, coalition governments are common, and the anti-defection law has played a role in preserving these coalitions by deterring individual legislators from defecting and causing the collapse of the government.
  • By discouraging defections and ensuring party discipline, the law has contributed to the smooth functioning of legislatures, which is essential for passing legislation and conducting parliamentary business. This has indirectly supported government stability by facilitating the enactment of policies and laws.
  • Despite its provisions, the anti-defection law has faced challenges and criticisms. Some critics argue that the law has not entirely prevented defections, as legislators often find loopholes or exploit exceptions in the law to switch parties without facing disqualification.
  • Government stability is influenced by various factors beyond the anti-defection law, including political dynamics, coalition dynamics, public opinion, and socio-economic factors. The law alone cannot guarantee government stability in the face of broader political uncertainties and challenges.
  • While promoting stability, the anti-defection law has also raised concerns about its impact on democratic values such as freedom of speech and dissent within political parties. Critics argue that the law may stifle legitimate dissent and independent decision-making among legislators.

 

4. What constitutes defection? Who is the deciding authority?

Defection refers to the act of an elected representative or member of a political party abandoning their original party affiliation and joining another political party or forming a separate group, either independently or in association with others, without following the procedures laid down by their party or the law.

In the context of the anti-defection law in India, defection is specifically defined as:

  • If a member of a political party voluntarily gives up their membership of that party.
  • If an elected member votes or abstains from voting against the directives issued by their party leadership (whip) on a particular legislative matter, without obtaining prior permission.
  • If a member of a political party joins another political party after being elected as a representative.
  • If a member of a political party forms or joins a new group or political party, and such group consists of at least one-third of the members of the original political party in the legislature.

The deciding authority regarding defection cases is typically the Speaker or Chairman of the concerned legislative body (e.g., Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assembly, or State Legislative Council). Upon receiving a complaint or petition regarding a defection case, the Speaker or Chairman examines the matter and makes a decision based on the provisions of the anti-defection law.

The Speaker or Chairman is responsible for determining whether the actions of the member(s) constitute defection as per the law and, if so, for issuing appropriate orders, including disqualification of the defectors from membership of the legislature. The decision of the Speaker or Chairman can be challenged in the courts through legal recourse if it is perceived to be arbitrary or in violation of constitutional principles.

 

5. Kihoto Hollohan case (1993)

The Kihoto Hollohan vs. Zachillhu and Others case, decided by the Supreme Court of India in 1992, is a landmark case related to defection and the role of the Speaker in Indian politics.

  • The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, introduced through the 52nd Amendment in 1985, laid down provisions to curb defection by elected representatives. This case challenged the constitutionality of the Tenth Schedule, particularly the broad powers it granted to the Speaker in deciding defection cases.
  • The petitioners argued that giving the Speaker such extensive power violated the doctrine of basic structure and potentially infringed on the freedom of speech, dissent, and conscience of elected representatives.
  • The Supreme Court, in a majority judgment, upheld the Tenth Schedule and the Speaker's broad powers. The court reasoned that:
    • The Speaker occupies a crucial position in the parliamentary system and is expected to handle sensitive matters.
    • Granting the Speaker broad discretion is necessary for the efficient and effective functioning of the anti-defection law.
    • The court acknowledged the potential for bias but believed it was minimized by the Speaker's constitutional position and the requirement to act in good faith.

Significance: The Kihoto Hollohan case remains a pivotal judgment shaping Indian politics. It

  • Established the Speaker's authority in deciding defection cases.
  • affirmed the constitutionality of the anti-defection law.
  • However, the case also sparked discussions about the balance between stability and individual rights in the context of defection. It continues to be debated whether the broad powers granted to the Speaker are truly necessary or pose a risk to democratic principles.

 

6. SR Bommai case (1994)

The SR Bommai case, officially known as S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India, is a landmark judgment delivered by the Supreme Court of India in 1994. This case dealt with issues related to the dismissal of state governments under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, popularly known as the President's Rule.

The case was prompted by the dismissal of the government in the state of Karnataka in 1989 under Article 356 by the then-central government led by Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi. This dismissal led to legal challenges, including petitions filed by S.R. Bommai, who was the Chief Minister of Karnataka at the time of dismissal.

Key Issues

  1. Whether the decision of the President to impose President's Rule in a state under Article 356 was immune from judicial review.
  2. Whether the power of the President to dismiss a state government was absolute or whether there were limitations on this power.
  3. Whether there were grounds for judicial intervention in cases of misuse or abuse of Article 356 by the Central government.

Key Judgments

  • The Supreme Court held that the imposition of the President's Rule in a state is subject to judicial review. The Court ruled that the exercise of power under Article 356 is justiciable, and the President's satisfaction with imposing the President's Rule can be questioned in a court of law.
  • The Court laid down guidelines and limitations on the exercise of power under Article 356. It held that the President's Rule can only be imposed in exceptional circumstances where the constitutional machinery in a state has completely broken down, and the Governor's report justifying the imposition of the President's Rule must be based on relevant material.
  • The Court ruled that a floor test in the legislative assembly is the most effective way to determine the strength of the government and resolve political uncertainties. It held that the majority enjoyed by a government in the assembly should be tested on the floor of the House.

Significance: The SR Bommai case is significant as it established judicial guidelines and limitations on the use of Article 356 and provided clarity on the scope of judicial review in matters related to the dismissal of state governments. It reinforced the principles of federalism and democracy by limiting the Central government's power to dismiss state governments arbitrarily and ensuring accountability in the exercise of such powers.

 

7. The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 and the 10th Schedule of the Constitution

The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 was a significant amendment to the Constitution of India. It introduced the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, commonly known as the anti-defection law. The primary objective of this amendment was to curb the practice of political defections by legislators, which often led to instability in governments and undermined the democratic process.

Key provisions of the 52nd Amendment Act and the Tenth Schedule include

  1. The Tenth Schedule defines defection and provides criteria for disqualification of legislators who defect from their political party.
  2. Legislators can be disqualified if they voluntarily give up their party membership or violate the directives issued by their party leadership on voting in legislative matters.
  3. The Tenth Schedule empowers the Speaker or Chairman of the legislative body to decide on defection cases. The decision of the Speaker or Chairman regarding disqualification is final and cannot be questioned in a court of law except on certain grounds such as mala fide or violation of principles of natural justice.
  4. The Tenth Schedule provides certain exceptions to disqualification, such as when a political party merges with another party, and two-thirds of its members agree to the merger.
  5. While the decision of the Speaker or Chairman is generally final, it is subject to judicial review on certain grounds, such as violation of constitutional provisions or principles of natural justice.

The 52nd Amendment Act and the Tenth Schedule were introduced to promote stability and integrity in the political system by discouraging defections and preserving party discipline. However, over the years, there have been debates and discussions about the effectiveness of the anti-defection law and its impact on democratic principles such as freedom of speech and dissent within political parties. Nevertheless, the introduction of the Tenth Schedule remains a significant milestone in the constitutional history of India aimed at strengthening the democratic framework of the country.

 

8. 91st Amendment Act of 2003

The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 is an important amendment to the Constitution of India. This amendment introduced changes to Article 75 and Article 164, which deal with the appointment of Ministers in the Union Council of Ministers and State Council of Ministers, respectively. The primary objective of the 91st Amendment Act was to prevent the practice of "office of profit" by Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of the State Legislature (MLAs).

Key provisions of the 91st Amendment Act include

  1. The amendment clarified the definition of "office of profit" held by MPs and MLAs. An office of profit refers to any position held by a person which brings them some financial gain, advantage, or benefit.
  2.  The amendment exempted certain offices from being considered as offices of profit. These include offices held by MPs or MLAs as Ministers, or positions that the Parliament or State Legislature has specifically declared as not being offices of profit.
  3. The amendment specified that a person shall be disqualified from being a member of Parliament or State Legislature if they hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any state, other than offices exempted by law.
  4. The amendment allowed for the Parliament or State Legislature to make laws specifying the offices that are exempted from disqualification. It also provided for the interpretation of the term "office of profit" by the Parliament or State Legislature.

The 91st Amendment Act aimed to ensure that legislators do not hold positions that could potentially compromise their independence and impartiality in discharging their duties as elected representatives. By preventing MPs and MLAs from holding offices of profit, the amendment sought to uphold the principles of transparency, accountability, and integrity in the functioning of the legislative bodies in India.

 

8.1. What is that ‘exception’?

  • The exception mentioned in the context of the 91st Amendment Act of 2003 refers to certain offices that are exempted from being considered as "office of profit" and, therefore, do not lead to disqualification of MPs or MLAs holding such positions.
  • The amendment provides that certain offices can be specifically exempted by law from being considered as offices of profit. This means that the Parliament or State Legislature can pass laws to declare certain positions or offices as not falling under the definition of office of profit, thereby allowing MPs or MLAs to hold these positions without facing disqualification.
  • The purpose of this exception is to provide clarity and flexibility in determining which positions should be considered as offices of profit and which should be exempted. It allows for a case-by-case examination of positions held by legislators to ensure that they do not hold any office that could potentially compromise their independence or impartiality in discharging their duties as elected representatives.
  • Examples of offices that may be exempted from being considered as offices of profit include positions held by legislators as Ministers or positions that are honorary or ceremonial, without any substantial remuneration or executive authority attached to them. However, the specific exemptions may vary depending on the laws passed by the Parliament or State Legislature.

 

9. The Way Forward

The anti-defection law remains a significant milestone in India's constitutional history, aimed at strengthening democratic principles and promoting a more transparent and accountable political system. There is a need to review and strengthen the implementation of the law, enhance transparency in defection cases, promote intra-party democracy, and encourage public awareness to uphold the integrity of the electoral process and ensure the stability of governments.

 

 

For Prelims: Anti-Defection Law, 91st Amendment Act of 2003, 52nd Amendment Act of 1985, the 10th Schedule of the Constitution, Kihoto Hollohan case, SR Bommai case, Article 356 

For Mains: 
1. Discuss the significance of the anti-defection law in India's political landscape, highlighting its objectives and key features. Also, analyze the effectiveness of the law in curbing political defections and promoting stability within political parties. (250 Words)
2. Discuss the significance of intra-party democracy in strengthening the anti-defection law and promoting a more accountable political system in India. Highlight the importance of transparency and public awareness in upholding the integrity of the electoral process. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. Regarding anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only      B. 2 only       C. Both 1 and 2        D.  Neither 1 nor 2
 
 
2. Consider the following statements in respect of Anti-defection Law in India? (OPSC OAS 2022)
(i) Political Parties got Constitutional recognition by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment.
(ii) Anti-defection Law came into effect on March 18, 1985.
(iii) The decision of the Speaker in disqualifying an elected member is subject to judicial review.
(iv) Anti-defection law comes into action if there is a split in the Political Party.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
A. (ii), (iii) and (iv)      B. (i), (iii) and (iv)     C.  (i), (ii) and (iii)       D.  (i), (ii) and (iv)
 

3. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection? (UPSC 2014)

(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule

4. The 91st Amendment Act (2003), was made so that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed ___ percent of total number of members of the House of the People (or Assembly, in the case of the States). (DSSSB JE CE 2019) (DSSSB Junior Steno 2021)

A. 16      B. 20      C. 15      D. 18

5. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government: (UPSC 2017)

(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

Answers: 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-C, 5-C

Mains

1. The role of individual MPs (Members of Parliament) has diminished over the years and as a result healthy constructive debates on policy issues are not usually witnessed. How far can this be attributed to the anti-defection law which was legislated but with a different intention? (UPSC 2013)
2. ‘Once a Speaker, Always a Speaker’! Do you think this practice should be adopted to impart objectivity to the office of the Speaker of Lok Sabha? What could be its implications for the robust functioning of parliamentary business in India? (UPSC 2020)

Source: The Indian Express

 

MALARIA

 
 
1. Context
 
India has reduced its malaria burden by over 80% between 2015 and 2023 — but last year, tribal districts such as Lawngtlai (Mizoram) and Narayanpur (Chhattisgarh) still recorded malaria rates of over 56 and 22 cases per 1,000 people, respectively as per the National Centre for Vector Borne Diseases Control — reminders that the parasite continues to thrive in several pockets long after national averages have improved.
 
2. What is malaria?
 
Malaria is a life-threatening disease caused by parasites that are transmitted to people through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. There are five species of Plasmodium parasites that cause malaria in humans, with Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax being the most prevalent
Malaria is primarily transmitted through the bites of Anopheles mosquitoes, which are most active during dawn and dusk. The parasites enter the human bloodstream during the mosquito bite, travel to the liver, and mature. Once matured, they re-enter the bloodstream and infect red blood cells, leading to the symptoms of malaria

Symptoms of malaria typically appear 10-15 days after the infective mosquito bite and include:

  • Fever
  • Chills
  • Headache
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Muscle pain and fatigue
  • Sweating
  • Anemia (due to the destruction of red blood cells)
  • Jaundice (yellowing of the skin and eyes due to liver damage)

In severe cases, malaria can cause complications such as:

  • Cerebral malaria (affecting the brain)
  • Severe anemia
  • Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
  • Organ failure
 
3. What are the major types of malaria?
 
Type of Malaria Prevalence Severity Characteristics
Plasmodium falciparum Sub-Saharan Africa, South Asia, Southeast Asia Most severe, causes majority of malaria-related deaths Severe anemia, cerebral malaria, multi-organ failure, irregular fever patterns
Plasmodium vivax Asia, Latin America, parts of Africa Less severe than P. falciparum but causes significant illness Relapsing malaria due to dormant liver stages (hypnozoites), tertian fever patterns (every 48 hours)
Plasmodium ovale West Africa, other parts of Africa, western Pacific islands, Southeast Asia Less severe than P. falciparum, similar to P. vivax Causes relapses due to hypnozoites, tertian fever patterns (every 48 hours)
Plasmodium malariae Worldwide, less common than P. falciparum and P. vivax Milder form of malaria, chronic infections can persist for years Quartan fever pattern (every 72 hours), chronic infections can lead to nephrotic syndrome (a serious kidney condition)
Plasmodium knowlesi Southeast Asia, particularly Malaysia Can cause severe, rapidly progressing infections similar to P. falciparum Originally a parasite of macaques, can be transmitted to humans, daily fever patterns (every 24 hours)
 
 
4. Vaccination for Malaria

Vaccination for malaria has been a significant focus of research and development due to the global impact of the disease. Here is an overview of the current status and progress in malaria vaccines:

RTS,S/AS01 (Mosquirix)

  • Developer: GlaxoSmithKline (GSK) in partnership with the PATH Malaria Vaccine Initiative and supported by the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation.
  • Target Parasite: Plasmodium falciparum.
  • Mechanism: The RTS,S/AS01 vaccine targets the circumsporozoite protein (CSP) of the malaria parasite, which is crucial for the parasite's ability to infect liver cells.
  • Efficacy: Provides partial protection, with efficacy varying by age and number of doses. In clinical trials, it reduced malaria cases by about 30-50% in young children.
  • Implementation: Approved by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 2021. Pilot programs have been launched in several African countries, including Ghana, Kenya, and Malawi, to assess real-world effectiveness and feasibility.

R21/Matrix-M

  • Developer: University of Oxford in collaboration with the Serum Institute of India and Novavax.
  • Target Parasite: Plasmodium falciparum.
  • Mechanism: Similar to RTS,S, this vaccine also targets the CSP of the malaria parasite but includes a different adjuvant (Matrix-M) to enhance immune response.
  • Efficacy: Preliminary studies have shown higher efficacy rates compared to RTS,S, with up to 77% efficacy in initial trials.
  • Status: Undergoing further clinical trials to confirm efficacy and safety before broader implementation.

Other Candidates

  • SPf66: An earlier vaccine candidate developed in Colombia, showed variable efficacy in trials and is no longer pursued.
  • PfSPZ Vaccine: Developed by Sanaria Inc., it uses live, attenuated sporozoites to induce immunity. It has shown promise in early-phase trials but requires more extensive testing.

Challenges and Future Directions

  • Efficacy: While current vaccines like RTS,S and R21 show partial efficacy, there is a need for vaccines with higher and more durable protection.
  • Multiple Strains: Plasmodium falciparum's genetic diversity poses a challenge for creating a universally effective vaccine.
  • Combination Approaches: Research is ongoing into combining vaccines with other malaria control measures such as bed nets, antimalarial drugs, and vector control strategies.
  • Long-term Immunity: Efforts are focused on developing vaccines that provide long-lasting immunity, potentially reducing the need for frequent booster doses.
 
5. What is adjuvant technology?
 

Adjuvant technology refers to the use of substances in vaccines that enhance the body's immune response to the provided antigen. These substances, called adjuvants, are crucial for improving the efficacy of vaccines, especially those that rely on weaker antigens or aim to induce a stronger and longer-lasting immunity. Here's a detailed overview of adjuvant technology:

Purpose of Adjuvants

  • Enhance Immune Response: Adjuvants help to boost the magnitude and duration of the immune response to an antigen.
  • Dose Sparing: By enhancing the immune response, adjuvants can reduce the amount of antigen needed in each vaccine dose.
  • Broadening Immunity: They can help generate a more comprehensive immune response, including both humoral (antibody-mediated) and cellular immunity.
  • Improving Efficacy in Diverse Populations: Adjuvants can enhance vaccine efficacy in populations with weaker immune responses, such as the elderly or immunocompromised individuals.

Types of Adjuvants

Several types of adjuvants are used in vaccines, each with different mechanisms of action. Some common adjuvants include:

  • Aluminum Salts (Alum):

    • Description: One of the oldest and most widely used adjuvants.
    • Mechanism: Enhances antigen uptake by antigen-presenting cells and stimulates a strong antibody response.
    • Use: Found in vaccines for diseases like hepatitis B and diphtheria-tetanus.
  • Oil-in-Water Emulsions:

    • Examples: MF59, AS03.
    • Mechanism: Enhance the recruitment and activation of immune cells at the injection site.
    • Use: Found in influenza vaccines.
  • Saponin-Based Adjuvants:

    • Examples: QS-21.
    • Mechanism: Enhance both antibody and cell-mediated immune responses.
    • Use: Found in vaccines for malaria (RTS,S) and herpes zoster (Shingrix).
  • Toll-like Receptor (TLR) Agonists:

    • Examples: CpG 1018, MPL (Monophosphoryl lipid A).
    • Mechanism: Mimic microbial components to activate innate immune responses.
    • Use: Found in hepatitis B vaccines (Heplisav-B) and HPV vaccines (Cervarix).
  • Liposomes:

    • Description: Spherical vesicles that can encapsulate antigens and adjuvants.
    • Mechanism: Enhance antigen delivery and stimulate strong immune responses.
    • Use: Under research for various vaccines.

Role in Malaria Vaccines

In malaria vaccines, adjuvants are essential for inducing a robust immune response against the malaria parasite, which has a complex life cycle and various evasion strategies.

  • RTS,S/AS01:

    • Adjuvant: AS01, which includes MPL and QS-21.
    • Mechanism: Enhances both antibody and cell-mediated responses, crucial for targeting the liver stage of Plasmodium falciparum.
  • R21/Matrix-M:

    • Adjuvant: Matrix-M, a saponin-based adjuvant.
    • Mechanism: Stimulates strong immune responses, potentially offering higher efficacy than RTS,S.
6. Way Forward

The recently released World Malaria Report shows that the number of cases and deaths due to the mosquito-borne infection in India has continued to decline.India’s downward trend was reflected in the larger WHO South East Asian region that remained on track to achieving the 2030 target of reducing cases and deaths by 90 percent, the report said.

 

For Prelims:  General Science, Current Events of National and International Importance

For Mains: GS-II, III: Social Justice and International Relations; Achievements of Indians in Science & Technology, Developments and their Applications and Effects in Everyday Life

 
Previous Year Questions
1.Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine? (UPSC CSE 2010)

(a) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium
(b) Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection
(c) Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria
(d) Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host

Answer (b)

The answer is (b) Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection.

Here's why the other options are incorrect:

(a) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium - While this is true, it doesn't directly explain the difficulty in developing a vaccine. A vaccine can target multiple strains as needed.

(c) Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria - This is not true. We have vaccines for many viral diseases as well.

(d) Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host - This is a fact about the parasite's life cycle, but it doesn't impact vaccine development.

 
Source: Indianexpress
 
 

PRESIDENTIAL REFERENCE

 
 
 
1. Context
 
 The nation trusts the sagacity of the highest court to configure a just constitutional equilibrium of power so that the country’s democratic order is not held hostage to the unfettered impulses of any single branch of the Indian state
 
2. Historical context of presidential reference
 

The Supreme Court's advisory role, as outlined in Article 143, traces its origins to the Government of India Act of 1935. This act granted the Governor-General the authority to seek the opinion of the federal court on significant legal matters.

A comparable feature exists in the Canadian Constitution, where the Supreme Court of Canada is empowered to give advisory opinions on legal issues referred by either the federal or provincial governments. In contrast, the U.S. Supreme Court has consistently refused to issue advisory opinions to the executive branch, adhering strictly to the principle of separation of powers embedded in the American Constitution

Under Article 143 of the Constitution, the President has the authority to seek the Supreme Court’s opinion on any legal or factual issue deemed to be of public significance. This referral is made based on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers. According to Article 145, such matters must be examined by a bench comprising at least five judges of the Supreme Court.

Following the hearing, the Court may deliver its opinion as it deems appropriate. While the opinion is not legally binding on the President and does not set a judicial precedent, it holds considerable persuasive value. Consequently, it is generally respected and adhered to by both the executive and the judiciary

3. Past instances

 

  • Since 1950, approximately fifteen presidential references have been made to the Supreme Court, excluding the most recent one. Below are brief summaries of some notable opinions delivered by the Court in response to these references.
  • The first such reference came in the Delhi Laws Act case (1951), where the Court outlined the concept of delegated legislation, allowing the legislature to delegate certain law-making powers to the executive for efficient law implementation.
  • In the Kerala Education Bill case (1958), the Court established the principle of harmonious interpretation between Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy, while also clarifying the constitutional safeguards for minority-run educational institutions under Article 30.
  • In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Court held that any transfer or acquisition of Indian territory requires a constitutional amendment as per Article 368. The Keshav Singh case (1965) addressed the scope of legislative powers and privileges.
  • In the Presidential Election case (1974), the Court ruled that elections for the President must proceed even if there are vacancies in the electoral college due to the dissolution of state assemblies.
  • The Special Courts Bill reference (1978) was particularly important, as the Court clarified that it can choose not to respond to a reference, that the questions posed must be clear and precise, and that the judiciary must not intrude into Parliament's domain when giving its opinion.
  • The Third Judges case (1998) resulted in a comprehensive set of guidelines shaping the collegium system for appointing judges to the higher judiciary.
  • Although the Supreme Court is not bound to respond to every reference, it has declined to provide an opinion on only one occasion — in 1993, concerning the Ram Janmabhoomi dispute

 

 4. Current reference

 

  • The current presidential reference stems from a recent Supreme Court ruling that established specific timelines for the President and State Governors to act on Bills passed by State legislatures.
  • In that judgment, the Court also asserted that the decisions made by the President and Governors regarding such Bills are open to judicial scrutiny. This reference has posed 14 key questions, mainly focusing on the interpretation of Articles 200 and 201 of the Constitution.
  • The central government has raised concerns about whether courts can impose timelines when the Constitution itself does not prescribe any. It also questions whether the actions of the President and Governors, taken before a Bill becomes law, can be subjected to judicial review. Additionally, the reference seeks clarity on the scope of the Supreme Court’s powers under Article 142.
  • This legal dispute has largely been driven by political tensions between the Union government and Opposition-led State governments. In its judgment, the Supreme Court had referred to the timelines mentioned in a Ministry of Home Affairs Office Memorandum concerning the President's assent to Bills.
  • Notably, in the Cauvery dispute reference (1992), the Court had stated that, in an advisory capacity, it does not have the authority to review its previous rulings.
  • Nevertheless, a definitive opinion in the present case is expected to bring clarity to important constitutional questions, thereby aiding in the effective functioning of federalism and democratic governance
 
5. Way Forward
 
The advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 143 plays a vital role in clarifying complex constitutional questions and ensuring the smooth functioning of India's democratic framework. While not binding, the Court’s opinions carry significant persuasive authority and are generally respected by both the executive and judiciary. Historical references, from the Delhi Laws Act case to the Third Judges case, have helped shape important legal doctrines on delegated legislation, federalism, judicial appointments, and legislative privileges
 
For Prelims: Article 143, Supreme Court's advisory jurisdiction
 
For Mains: General Studies II - Indian Polity & Governance
 
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
Prelims

1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only          B. 2 only              C. 2 and 3 only                D. 3 only

Answer: D

2. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? (UPSC CSE 2019)
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
(c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare a Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the Union Legislature.

Answer: B

3. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021)

1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the- existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only         B. 2 only           C. 1 and 3             D. 2 and 3
 
4. Consider the following statements about Electoral Bond Scheme 2018: (RPSC RAS Prelims 2018)
(A) The aim of this scheme is to bring about transparency in the funding process of political parties.
(B) Only the political parties recognized by the Election Commission which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of People or the Legislative Assembly of the State shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.
(C) Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue.
(D) The Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible political party in its account shall be credited on the same day.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1.  Only (A) and (B)     
2.  (A), (B), (C) and (D)
3. Only (B), (C) and (D)
4. Only (A), (C) and (D)
Answer: 2
 
5. With reference to the PM CARES Fund, consider the following statements: (AFCAT 27 2022)
I. The amount collected by it directly goes to the Consolidated Fund of India.
II. It can avail donations from the foreign contribution and donations to fund can also avail 100% tax exemption.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. I only            B. II only           C. Both I and II        D. Neither I nor II
 
Answer: B
 
6. The Prime Minister's National Relief Fund is operated by which one of the following bodies?  (CDS 2019)
A. The Prime Minister's Office (PMO)
B. The National Disaster Management Authority
C. The Ministry of Finance
D. The National Development Council (NDC)
Answer: A

Mains

1. In the light of recent controversy regarding the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVM), what are the challenges before the Election Commission of India to ensure the trustworthiness of elections in India? (UPSC 2018)

2. Discuss the role of the Election Commission of India in the light of the evolution of the Model Code of Conduct. ( UPSC 2022)

 
Source: The Hindu
 

NATIONAL EDUCATION POLICY

1. Context

It is five years since the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 — the country’s third such policy since Independence — was cleared by the Union Cabinet. The NEP promised a sweeping reset of both school and higher education.

2. About NEP 2020

The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 is a comprehensive policy document that aims to transform the Indian education system into a world-class system that is aligned with the 21st-century needs of the country. It was released by the Government of India in July 2020.
  • The NEP provides a broad direction and is not mandatory. Education is a concurrent subject, requiring collaboration between the central and state governments. The target for full implementation is set for 2040.
  • Subject-wise committees, comprising members from relevant ministries at both levels, will develop implementation plans, outlining actions for various bodies, including the HRD Ministry, state Education Departments, and others. Progress will be jointly reviewed annually.

3. Impact on Mother Tongue/Regional Language Instruction

  • While the NEP emphasizes teaching in the mother tongue or regional language "wherever possible," it is not mandatory for states.
  • Private schools are unlikely to be forced to change their medium of instruction.
  • The policy acknowledges multilingual families and encourages a bilingual approach for students whose home language differs from the medium of instruction.
  • Single-stream institutions like IITs are already diversifying their offerings, including humanities and social sciences departments.
  • This multidisciplinary approach aligns with global trends, ensuring graduates are well-rounded and equipped to address complex challenges.

4. NEP 2020 and Sustainable Development Goals

  • Both the NEP 2020 and SDG 4 aim to provide inclusive and equitable quality education for all.
  • They emphasize improving the quality of education, enhancing learning outcomes, and ensuring access to education at all levels.
  • SDG 4.5 focuses on eliminating disparities in access to education and promoting inclusive education.
  • The NEP 2020 also emphasizes inclusive education by addressing the needs of diverse groups, including marginalized communities, children with disabilities, and those in remote areas.
  • Both the NEP 2020 and SDGs prioritize gender equality in education.
  • They aim to eliminate gender-based discrimination in education and promote equal opportunities for girls and boys in schools and higher education.
  • SDG 4.2 emphasizes the importance of early childhood education and care.
  • The NEP 2020 incorporates a similar focus by introducing a 5+3+3+4 structure that includes early childhood education, aligning with the SDG's goal of ensuring that all children have access to quality pre-primary education.
  • Both the NEP 2020 and SDG 4. c emphasize the importance of adequately trained and qualified teachers.
  • They promote continuous professional development for educators to improve the quality of teaching and learning.
  • SDG 4.6 promotes lifelong learning opportunities for all. The NEP 2020 recognizes the need for lifelong learning by introducing a four-year multidisciplinary undergraduate program with multiple exit options, encouraging continuous skill development.
  • SDG 4.7 encourages global citizenship education and values for sustainability.
  • While the NEP 2020 does not explicitly mention this goal, its emphasis on critical thinking, experiential learning, and holistic development aligns with the idea of nurturing responsible global citizens.
  • SDG 17 calls for global partnerships to achieve the SDGs. The NEP 2020 acknowledges the importance of collaboration between various stakeholders, including governments, civil society, and international organizations, to implement education reforms effectively.
  • Although the primary focus of the NEP is on education, it indirectly contributes to SDG 13 (Climate Action) and other environmental goals by promoting environmental awareness, sustainability education, and holistic development that includes a sense of responsibility towards the environment.

5. The salient features of NEP 2020

The salient features of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 include:

  • The NEP 2020 proposes a new school curriculum that is more holistic and multidisciplinary. It also emphasizes the importance of early childhood education and foundational literacy and numeracy.
  • The NEP 2020 proposes to open up the Indian higher education sector to foreign universities. This will allow students to access world-class education without having to leave India.
  • The NEP 2020 proposes to discontinue the M Phil programme. This is in line with the global trend of moving towards a four-year undergraduate degree followed by a direct PhD programme.
  • The NEP 2020 proposes to introduce multiple entry and exit options in undergraduate and postgraduate programmes. This will give students more flexibility and allow them to tailor their education to their needs.
  • The NEP 2020 emphasizes the importance of research and innovation in higher education. It proposes to increase funding for research and to create a more supportive environment for researchers.
  • The NEP 2020 aims to internationalize the Indian education system. It proposes to increase student and faculty mobility and to collaborate with foreign universities.

6. Education policies in India and its fundamental objectives

  • The primary objective of the first education policy was to promote social justice and reduce disparities in access to education.
  • It aimed to provide free and compulsory education for all children up to the age of 14 (universalization of elementary education).
  • The second education policy aimed to modernize and expand the education system while maintaining a focus on access and equity.
  • It introduced the 10+2 structure of school education and emphasized vocational education and adult literacy.
  • This revision of the 1986 policy focused on restructuring the curriculum and examination systems.
  • It aimed to promote greater flexibility in course choices and reduce the emphasis on board exams.
  • The NPE 2020 aims to transform the Indian education system to meet the demands of the 21st century.
  • It emphasizes the universalization of early childhood education, a flexible and multidisciplinary approach to education, and the use of technology for learning.
  • It also focuses on improving the quality of education, promoting research and innovation, and ensuring inclusivity and equity in education.
  • India has also had various other policies and initiatives related to specific aspects of education, such as the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) for elementary education, the Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) for secondary education, and the Skill India initiative to promote vocational education and skill development.

7. Kothari Commission (1964–1966) recommendations to formulate a coherent education policy

  • The Kothari Commission, officially known as the "Indian Education Commission" or the "Education Commission 1964-66," was a high-level commission appointed by the Government of India to review the state of education in the country and make recommendations for the development of education policies.
  • The commission was chaired by Dr Daulat Singh Kothari, who was the Chairman of the University Grants Commission (UGC) at the time.
  • The commission's recommendations played a significant role in shaping India's education policies in the decades that followed.

The key recommendations made by the Kothari Commission

  • The commission emphasized the need to provide free and compulsory education for all children up to the age of 14.
  • This recommendation laid the foundation for the goal of universalizing elementary education in India.
  • The commission stressed the importance of improving the quality of education at all levels.
  • It recommended measures to enhance the qualifications and training of teachers, revise curricula, and promote innovative teaching methods.
  • The Kothari Commission recommended a flexible and broad-based curriculum that would cater to the diverse needs and interests of students.
  • It emphasized the importance of holistic education and the inclusion of vocational education.
  • The commission recognized the importance of teaching in the mother tongue or regional languages, especially at the primary level, to ensure better comprehension and retention among students. It recommended bilingual education where necessary.
  • The commission called for a comprehensive and long-term educational plan to guide the development of education in India.
  • It recommended the establishment of educational planning bodies at the national, state, and district levels.
  • The Kothari Commission proposed the expansion and improvement of higher education in India.
  • It recommended the establishment of new universities, including regional universities, and the development of research and postgraduate education.
  •  The commission highlighted the need for quality teacher education programs and recommended the establishment of teacher training institutes to ensure a continuous supply of well-trained educators.
  • Recognizing the importance of technical and vocational education for economic development, the commission recommended the expansion of such programs and the establishment of polytechnics and industrial training institutes.
  • The commission suggested changes in the examination system to reduce the emphasis on rote learning and encourage critical thinking and problem-solving skills.
  • The Kothari Commission emphasized the importance of addressing educational disparities among different social and economic groups.
  • It recommended affirmative action policies to promote social justice in education.

8. NPE 1986 and NEP 2020 Compare and Contrast

The National Policy on Education (NPE) 1986 and the New Education Policy (NEP) 2020 are two important policy documents that have shaped the Indian education system. While both policies have some common goals, there are also some key differences between them.

Similarities

  • Both policies aim to provide access to quality education for all children.
  • Both policies emphasize the importance of equity and inclusion in education.
  • Both policies stress the need for reforms in the examination system.
  • Both policies recognize the importance of teacher training and professional development.

 

The key differences between the National Policy on Education (NPE) 1986 and the New Education Policy (NEP) 2020:

Aspect NPE 1986 NEP 2020
Structural Changes Introduced the 10+2 structure of school education Restructured into a 5+3+3+4 format, with an emphasis on early childhood education and curriculum flexibility
Medium of Instruction Recommended a three-language formula but did not specify the medium of instruction
Recommends teaching in the mother tongue or regional language until at least Grade 5, emphasizing multilingualism
Higher Education Focused on expansion and establishment of new universities and colleges Emphasizes a multidisciplinary approach, research, and innovation in higher education
Examination System Emphasized the need for examination system reforms and reduced emphasis on board exams Recommends changes to reduce high-stakes board exams and promote competency-based evaluations
Teacher Training Highlighted the need for improving teacher training programs Stresses the importance of teacher training and professional development
Technology Integration Did not extensively address technology integration Recognizes the importance of technology in education and promotes the use of digital resources and e-learning
Quality and Access Aims to improve access and enhance quality in education Focuses on improving the quality of education, promoting research and innovation, and ensuring inclusivity and equity
Gender Inclusivity Emphasized the importance of gender equality in education Continues to prioritize gender inclusivity and recommends measures for equitable access to education
Globalization Did not extensively address globalization and internationalization of education Seeks to promote global collaboration by allowing foreign universities to set up campuses in India
Environmental Education Did not specifically address environmental education Emphasizes environmental education, sustainability, and awareness

9. The National Curriculum Framework

The National Curriculum Framework (NCF) is a document in India that outlines the philosophy and guidelines for the development of curriculum and teaching practices in schools. It serves as a foundational document that informs the design, content, and implementation of school education in the country. 

  • The NCF provides the philosophical and pedagogical foundation for education in India.
  • It articulates the educational goals, values, and principles that should guide the curriculum and teaching practices.
  •  The NCF encourages flexibility in curriculum development to accommodate diverse learners' needs and the evolving educational landscape.
  • It recognizes that a one-size-fits-all approach may not be suitable for India's diverse student population.
  • The framework emphasizes holistic development, aiming to nurture not only cognitive skills but also social, emotional, and ethical aspects of a child's growth.
  • It promotes a well-rounded education that goes beyond rote memorization.
  • The NCF underscores the importance of inclusive education.
  • It addresses the needs of students from various socio-economic backgrounds, genders, and abilities. It advocates for equal access to quality education for all.
  • It encourages the integration of knowledge across subjects and promotes interdisciplinary learning.
  • The framework encourages teachers to connect various subjects and topics to provide a more comprehensive educational experience.
  • The NCF places the learner at the centre of the educational process. It emphasizes the importance of understanding students' interests, motivations, and individual learning styles.
  • The framework recognizes the critical role of teachers in implementing curriculum effectively.
  • It emphasizes the need for teacher professional development and continuous support.
  • The NCF suggests assessment practices that move beyond traditional examinations and focus on formative assessments, encouraging a more comprehensive evaluation of a student's progress and capabilities.
  • It promotes the inclusion of cultural and ethical values in education. The NCF encourages schools to foster an appreciation for India's diverse cultural heritage and ethical values.
  •  The NCF is periodically reviewed and updated to ensure its continued relevance in the changing educational landscape.
  • It takes into account advancements in education research and global best practices.

10. The Way Forward

The NEP 2020 is a unique opportunity to transform the Indian education system into a world-class system that is aligned with the needs of the 21st century. By working together, the government, educational institutions, and society as a whole can make this vision a reality.
 
For Prelims: NEP 2020, National Curriculum Framework, Sustainable Development Goals, University Grants Commission, Kothari Commission, Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan, 
For Mains: 
1. Discuss the key provisions and objectives of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. How does it aim to transform the Indian education system, and what are its implications for inclusive development? (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2018)
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the State Council of Teacher Education concerned.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2         (b) 2 only            (c) 1 and 3            (d) 3 only
Answer: B

 

2. Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2016)
1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the 'Club of Rome'.
2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1 only       B. 2 only          C.  Both 1 and 2            D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer: B
 
3. The objective(s) of Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyaan is/are: (UKSSSC Forest Guard 2021) 
A. To provide quality based education to all children from 14 to 18 years
B. Universal standstill till the year 2020
C. To provide residential school for the students of remote areas
D. All of the above
 
Answer: D
 
Source: The Indian Express
 
 

RURAL DISTRESS IN INDIA

 
 
 
1. Context
 
The Government has recently imposed a cap of 60 per cent on the spending under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) for the first half of the financial year 2025-26. Until now, the scheme has operated as a demand-driven programme with no such spending limit. 
 
 
2. Demand for Work and Supply of Work(Availability)
 
 
  • The year 2025 marks 20 years since the launch of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS), introduced to ensure a minimum of 100 days of wage employment annually to at least one member of every rural household in India.
  • The scheme was launched in response to falling real agricultural wages in the aftermath of the 1991 economic liberalisation.
  • Rooted in the MGNREGA Act of 2005, the initiative also reflected a broader vision of rural development focused on poverty alleviation and capital asset creation.
  • Over the years, MGNREGS has remained relevant, playing a critical role during the Covid-19 lockdown by offering employment to a large number of returning migrants.
  • Yet, in recent times, the programme has faced multiple challenges, such as insufficient funding and delays in wage payments.
  • By 2018–19, only 7.4% of rural households, on average, completed the full 100 days of work. In 2023–24, the average number of days worked per household under the scheme dropped to just 52.
  • Since the pandemic, there has been a noticeable increase in demand for MGNREGS work, reflecting deeper rural distress. The widening gap between the demand for jobs and the limited availability under the scheme points to ongoing employment challenges in rural India.

Data from the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE) underscores this distress through indicators such as:

  • Falling rural wages

  • Persistently high rural inflation

  • Surge in demand for MGNREGS employment

  • Weak rural consumption trends

 
 
3. Agriculture and rural development
 
  • Agriculture continues to be the largest source of employment in India, engaging around 46% of the workforce in 2023–24, yet contributing only 16% to the national GDP. Over the past eight years, the sector’s real Gross Value Added (GVA) has grown at an average rate of 4.9%.
  • For FY 2025, agricultural growth is projected at 4.6%, an improvement over the 2.7% growth in FY 2024. This optimistic outlook stems from expectations of a strong Kharif crop, though it remains dependent on favorable Rabi (winter) harvests, which in turn rely heavily on climatic factors.
  • India’s agricultural labour force comprises two primary groups:
    🔸 Cultivators – those who own or manage land through leases or agreements
    🔸 Agricultural labourers – those who work on land owned by others in exchange for wages (in cash or kind)
  • Despite positive growth trends, real wages for agricultural workers have shown minimal improvement. Additionally, the rise in agriculture’s share of total employment—from 42.5% in 2018–19 to 46.1% in 2023–24—signals deeper structural concerns both within the sector and the broader economy.
  • The fallback role of agriculture was especially visible during the Covid-19 pandemic, when rural households and returning migrant workers turned to farming as a last resort in the absence of other livelihood opportunities.
  • These trends highlight that while agriculture remains a critical safety net for rural labour, sustained growth and improved farmer incomes will require significant public investment and comprehensive structural reform
 
4. Effect of the Green Revolution on the Rural economy 
 
  • As per the All India Rural Financial Inclusion Survey (2021–22) conducted by NABARD, the average monthly income of agricultural households stood at ₹13,661, slightly higher than ₹11,438 earned by non-agricultural households. For those engaged in agriculture, cultivation contributes about one-third of their total earnings, making it their primary income source.
  • Agricultural households have also exhibited greater income diversification, tapping into multiple sources compared to their non-agricultural counterparts. The rise in non-farm employment opportunities among rural families is closely tied to the evolution of India’s rural economy, particularly after the Green Revolution.
  • India’s economic growth from the 1960s to the 1980s was modest, with the late economist Raj Krishna describing it as the "Hindu rate of growth," typically around 4% per annum. In the 1960s, agriculture grew at about 1% annually, which slightly improved to 2.2% between 1968–69 and 1975–76.
  • The Green Revolution in the early 1970s helped India attain self-sufficiency in foodgrains, especially rice and wheat. However, the benefits were not evenly distributed, as it led to:
  • Increased regional imbalances

  • Neglect of rainfed regions

  • Decline in cultivation of nutritional crops like millets and other non-food grains

  • Marginalization of small and resource-poor farmers

 
5. Non-agricultural employment
 
 
  • An ongoing discussion around India’s Green Revolution focuses on its connection to the rise of the rural non-farm sector. The commonly accepted view suggests that increased agricultural productivity and farmer incomes—driven by Green Revolution technologies—help stimulate consumption-led demand for goods and services, particularly those provided by small-scale, labour-intensive rural enterprises.
  • This upward demand cycle also encourages backward linkages, fueling growth in agro-processing industries. States such as Punjab, Haryana, and West Bengal are often cited as examples where such positive economic patterns emerged.
  • On the other hand, an alternate viewpoint argues that due to high input costs and unequal distribution of gains, many rural households were compelled to seek non-farm employment out of necessity rather than opportunity. In this context, rural non-farm employment is often seen as a distress-driven shift rather than a result of prosperity.
  • There is growing evidence that rising cultivation costs—including expenses related to labour, fertilizers, and machinery—are forcing many farmers to rely heavily on loans to sustain their agricultural operations.
  • The broader concern is that, despite growth within the agricultural sector, rural workers continue to face significant employment challenges. While supply-side reforms—such as easier access to credit, lower corporate taxes, and improved ease of doing business—are important, they do not sufficiently tackle the core issues of job creation and employment quality for the rural population.
  • Schemes like MGNREGS, which are legally mandated to provide employment, are constrained by budgetary limits, undermining their demand-based framework. In addition, there is a pressing need to enhance public investment in agriculture, particularly in areas such as irrigation infrastructure, storage facilities, and climate-resilient practices.
  • Both agriculture and MGNREGA served as fallback options for rural labour during the COVID-19 lockdown, a reality that should inform future policy design and investment priorities
 
6. MGNREGS Scheme and Employment generation
 
 
  • The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS), launched in 2006 under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005, represents one of India's most ambitious social security initiatives aimed at promoting livelihood security and rural development.
  • The core objective of the scheme is to provide at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
  • MGNREGS plays a dual role. On one hand, it offers employment support to the rural poor, especially during times of economic hardship or seasonal unemployment.
  • On the other, it contributes to the creation of durable community assets such as rural roads, water conservation systems, and soil health improvements. This not only enhances the productivity of rural areas but also fosters inclusive and sustainable development.
  • The scheme is designed to be demand-driven, meaning that employment must be provided to anyone who seeks work under the Act. If work is not provided within 15 days of application, the applicant is entitled to receive an unemployment allowance.
  • This legal guarantee distinguishes MGNREGS from other welfare programs by making employment a right for rural citizens.
  • In terms of employment generation, MGNREGS has been a lifeline for millions of rural households, particularly in times of crisis. During the COVID-19 pandemic, for instance, the scheme played a crucial role in absorbing a large number of migrant workers who had returned to their villages after losing jobs in urban centers.
  • The scheme’s flexibility, local orientation, and scale enabled it to respond to rural distress more quickly than many other programs.
  • Despite its potential, MGNREGS has faced challenges in fulfilling its employment-generation promise. Over the years, budget allocations have been inconsistent, often failing to match the growing demand for work. Wage payments have frequently been delayed, undermining the scheme’s reliability.
  • Moreover, while the Act promises 100 days of work per household, data show that on average, most households receive far fewer days — often around 40 to 50 days — due to fund shortages or administrative bottlenecks.
  • Nevertheless, the employment-centric nature of MGNREGS, especially in a context of slow rural job growth and limited non-farm opportunities, remains crucial. The scheme not only supports rural livelihoods but also enhances workers’ bargaining power, improves local infrastructure, and contributes to the broader goal of rural poverty alleviation.
  • In many states, it has also contributed to the empowerment of women, as a significant proportion of the workforce under MGNREGS comprises female workers
 
7. Way Forward
 
While MGNREGS is not without flaws, it remains a cornerstone of India’s rural employment strategy. Its future success will depend on timely funding, efficient implementation, and a renewed commitment to its rights-based framework. Strengthening the scheme could be a vital step toward addressing the persistent challenges of underemployment, rural distress, and income inequality in the Indian economy
 
 
For Prelims: MGNREGS Scheme, Green Revolution, Gross Value Added (GVA), Kharif crop
 
For Mains: GS III - Rural Economy
 
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
Prelims

1. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”? (UPSC 2011)

(a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
(b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households
(c) Adult members of households of all backward communities
(d) Adult members of any household

Answer: D

2. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following? (UPSC 2012)

  1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level
  2. Purchasing power parity at national level
  3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only             (b) 2 and 3 only         (c) 1 and 3 only             (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

3. Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households? (UPSC 2013)

  1. Regional Rural Banks
  2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
  3. Land Development Banks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only         (b) 2 only                     (c) 1 and 3 only                (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

4. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor? (UPSC 2012)

  1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas
  2. By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing skill development
  3. By supplying seeds, fertilisers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only          (b) 2 only                        (c) 1 and 3 only              (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B 

5. Under the Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G), the ratio of the cost of unit assistance to be shared between the Central and State Governments is: (MP Patwari 2017)

A. 60:40 in plain areas and 90:10 for North Eastern and the Himalayan States
B. 70:30 in plain areas and 80:20 for North Eastern and the Himalayan States
C. 50:50 in plain areas and 70:30 for North Eastern and the Himalayan States
D. 75:25 in Plain areas and 85:15 for North Eastern and the Himalayan States
 
Answer: A
 
Mains
 
1. The basis of providing urban amenities in rural areas (PURA) is rooted in establishing connectivity. Comment (UPSC 2013)
 
Source: indianexpress
 

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