INTERNATIONAL BIG CAT ALLIANCE(IBCA)
- In March 2024, the Indian government, through the National Tiger Conservation Authority under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, launched the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA). The alliance is focused on conserving seven major big cat species: Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, and Puma.
- The initiative seeks to promote cooperation and coordination among various stakeholders, aiming to pool successful conservation strategies and apply them across the countries where these species are naturally found. For this initiative, the central government has earmarked ₹150 crore for the period from 2023–24 to 2027–28.
- There are 95 range countries—nations that lie within the natural habitats of at least one of the big cats. These include countries such as Canada, China, Brazil, Congo, Ghana, Iran, Nepal, Pakistan, Russia, and the United States. By September 2024, 25 nations had agreed to become part of the IBCA, including Bangladesh, Nigeria, Kenya, Egypt, Suriname, Ecuador, Peru, and Rwanda.
- Membership is open to all United Nations member states, provided they sign the framework agreement and notify their participation through a diplomatic Note Verbale, a formal method of communication used in international relations
- In 2023, Prime Minister Narendra Modi introduced the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) during an event in Mysuru, marking 50 years since the launch of Project Tiger. This original conservation program was initiated in response to the alarming decline in India’s tiger population.
- Although there were an estimated 40,000 tigers in the country at the time of Independence, their numbers had dropped drastically to about 1,800 by 1970, largely due to extensive poaching and hunting.
- The decline of top predators like tigers has a cascading effect on ecosystems. According to an IBCA report, these big cats play a vital role in keeping prey populations in check, which helps maintain ecological balance and prevents overgrazing—a factor that can trigger wildfires, disease outbreaks, and other environmental threats.
- Safeguarding big cats also means protecting their habitats, which are often biodiversity hotspots. As a result, big cat conservation has far-reaching benefits such as reducing disaster risks, preserving soil quality, limiting the spread of infectious diseases, enhancing climate resilience, and aiding in climate change mitigation by capturing and storing carbon.
- Project Tiger played a foundational role in establishing dedicated tiger reserves across India. It began with nine protected areas in states such as Assam, Bihar, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal. Notable among these were the Kanha Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh, Jim Corbett in Uttarakhand, and Bandipur in Karnataka
According to the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA), "Big Cats" refer to a group of seven principal species:
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Tiger (Panthera tigris)
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Lion (Panthera leo)
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Leopard (Panthera pardus)
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Snow Leopard (Panthera uncia)
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Jaguar (Panthera onca)
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Puma (Puma concolor, also known as cougar or mountain lion)
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Cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus)
a) Project Tiger (1973)
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Launched to halt the declining tiger population.
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Led to the creation of 53 Tiger Reserves under the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
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Introduced measures like core-buffer strategy, strict anti-poaching protocols, and use of technology for monitoring (e.g., M-STrIPES, camera traps).
b) Project Lion
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Aims to ensure the long-term conservation of Asiatic Lions, found only in the Gir Forest of Gujarat.
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Focuses on expanding lion habitats beyond Gir, improving prey base, and reducing human-animal conflict.
c) Project Snow Leopard (2009)
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Focuses on community-based conservation in the high-altitude Himalayan region.
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Covers Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and Jammu & Kashmir/Ladakh.
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Includes habitat protection and integrating local livelihoods with conservation goals.
d) Cheetah Reintroduction Project (2022)
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Aims to reintroduce the cheetah, extinct in India since 1952.
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African cheetahs brought to Kuno National Park, Madhya Pradesh, under a long-term plan to establish a free-ranging population.
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Emphasizes adaptive management and intercontinental collaboration.
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For Prelims: Kuno National Park, Project Tiger, National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA)
For Mains: GS III - Conservation
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NUCLEAR NON-PROLIFERATION TREATY
- Established in 1968 and coming into effect in 1970, this global agreement was designed to curb the spread of nuclear arms and technologies, encourage collaboration on the peaceful application of nuclear energy, and advance nuclear disarmament.
- After World War II concluded in 1945 with the U.S. detonating atomic bombs over Japan, major powers began developing nuclear arsenals, even as parallel initiatives sought to control the dissemination of nuclear know-how.
- One such effort emerged in 1953 with the U.S. launching the Atoms for Peace program under President Dwight D. Eisenhower. This initiative paved the way for the creation of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).
- In a landmark address, Eisenhower emphasized that America’s goal went beyond merely limiting nuclear weapons. He advocated for repurposing atomic energy for constructive, peaceful purposes, rather than just eliminating its military applications.
- In a 1981 article, international affairs scholar Joseph Nye highlighted that the initiative’s most impactful legacy was the establishment of a safeguards regime. This system required non-nuclear-armed states to submit detailed reports on their civilian nuclear programs and allowed for international inspections to verify that nuclear material was not diverted for weaponization.
- According to the treaty, nuclear-weapon states are defined as those that had detonated a nuclear device before January 1, 1967—specifically the U.S., U.K., France, the Soviet Union (now Russia), and China.
- Currently, 191 countries are parties to the treaty. India, which conducted its first nuclear test in 1974, has not signed it and instead emphasizes the need for universal and non-discriminatory approaches to nuclear non-proliferation.
- Critics argue that the treaty is biased in favor of the five permanent UN Security Council members, given the arbitrary cut-off date that grants them nuclear status.
- Pakistan has also declined to join the treaty. Israel, though widely believed to possess nuclear arms, has neither confirmed this nor become a signatory. North Korea joined in 1985 but withdrew in 2003 after revelations about its uranium enrichment program and the subsequent expulsion of IAEA inspectors
- Among the 11 provisions of the treaty, one outlines the process for a country to exit. Article 10 specifically allows for withdrawal, stating that any member, while exercising its sovereign rights, may leave the treaty if it determines that extraordinary circumstances related to the treaty’s subject matter have endangered its core national interests.
- The withdrawing nation must give three months' advance notice to all treaty parties and the United Nations Security Council (UNSC), including an explanation of the exceptional events prompting its decision.
- Iran became a party to the treaty in 1970, almost a decade before it transitioned into a theocratic state following the Islamic Revolution. Recently, for the first time in nearly two decades, the International Atomic Energy Agency’s (IAEA) 35-member Board of Governors—which includes countries like the P5, India, Japan, Ukraine, and Bangladesh—accused Iran of violating its non-proliferation commitments.
- The resolution passed by the board pointed to Iran’s repeated failure since 2019 to provide adequate and timely cooperation with the IAEA, particularly regarding nuclear materials and activities at undeclared sites. Iran, however, insisted that it has consistently fulfilled its safeguards obligations.
- Leaving the treaty presents two major risks: first, Iran would no longer be subject to the IAEA’s routine inspections and oversight; second, its exit could embolden other nations to abandon the treaty as well, undermining global efforts to control nuclear proliferation.
- According to Bloomberg’s analysis of IAEA data, agency inspectors visited Iranian nuclear sites at a rate of 1.4 times per day on average last year—an access level that would cease if Iran withdrew.
- Nonetheless, staying within the NPT does not automatically indicate a country has no interest in developing nuclear arms, as cases like North Korea have shown. Although Iranian leaders have repeatedly stated they do not intend to pursue nuclear weapons, shifting geopolitical realities in the Middle East leave room for uncertainty.
- Despite its limitations, scholars such as Joseph Nye argue that the treaty has played a valuable role in at least slowing the global spread of nuclear weapons
The IAEA plays a critical role in enforcing the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) by monitoring compliance through regular inspections, especially in non-nuclear-weapon states that agree to open their civilian nuclear programs to scrutiny.
The IAEA is governed by a Board of Governors (35 member states) and a General Conference, and its reports are influential in shaping global nuclear policy
Notable contributions:
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Verification missions in Iran, North Korea, and Iraq.
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Coordination of global nuclear safety after incidents like Chernobyl (1986) and Fukushima (2011).
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Promotion of nuclear medicine and radiation therapies in developing countries.
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The NPT recognizes only five countries as nuclear-weapon states (the U.S., Russia, China, the U.K., and France) — those that tested nuclear weapons before January 1, 1967.
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India conducted its first nuclear test in 1974 (Smiling Buddha) and was thus excluded from this group.
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This arbitrary cut-off date effectively created two classes of states: nuclear "haves" and "have-nots." India argues that this undermines the principle of equality in international law
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While the NPT obliges non-nuclear weapon states to not acquire nuclear weapons, it only vaguely commits the nuclear powers to pursue disarmament.
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India criticizes the treaty for lacking a concrete timeline for global nuclear disarmament, making it imbalanced.
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India sees possession of nuclear weapons as essential for strategic autonomy and national security, especially given its geopolitical environment (with nuclear-armed neighbors like China and Pakistan).
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Signing the NPT as a non-nuclear state would have required India to give up its nuclear weapons capability, which it sees as unacceptable for its national security
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In 2008, India secured a civil nuclear deal with the U.S. and a waiver from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG), despite not signing the NPT.
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This demonstrated growing global acceptance of India's nuclear status and its responsible record on non-proliferation
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For Prelims: Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT), International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
For Mains: GS II - Non Proliferation treaty
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GLOBAL LIVEABILITY INDEX 2025
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The Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) has published the Global Liveability Index 2025, which evaluates cities worldwide based on how suitable and livable they are for residents.
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The assessment spans 173 cities and uses 30 different indicators grouped under five key categories:
- Political and social stability
- Quality of healthcare
- Cultural environment and ecological conditions
- Access to education
- Infrastructure and public services
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Each of these indicators is graded on a scale ranging from acceptable to intolerable. These individual scores are then weighted to produce a final rating on a scale of 1 to 100. Cities receive both an overall liveability score and category-specific scores, along with a rank among all 173 evaluated locations
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The average global liveability score in the 2025 index remained unchanged from the previous year, holding steady at 76.1 out of 100.
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While cities showed progress in areas such as education, healthcare, and infrastructure, the average global stability score dropped slightly by 0.2 points, largely due to escalating geopolitical tensions, civil disturbances, and a deepening global housing crisis.
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Copenhagen emerged as the world’s most liveable city in 2025, ending Vienna’s three-year reign. The Danish capital earned perfect marks in stability, education, and infrastructure. Vienna, although outperforming Copenhagen in healthcare, saw its stability rating fall significantly due to heightened terror threats.
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Western Europe continued to lead the global rankings, followed by strong contenders from the Asia-Pacific region. Vancouver, representing North America, secured a spot in the top ten.
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In contrast, cities in the Middle East and Africa continued to occupy the lower end of the index, though minor gains were observed in their healthcare, education, and infrastructure scores.
Top 10 Most Liveable Cities in 2025
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Copenhagen, Denmark – Overall Score: 98 (Perfect scores in stability, education, and infrastructure)
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Vienna, Austria – Score: 97.1
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Zurich, Switzerland – Score: 97.1
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Melbourne, Australia – Score: 97
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Geneva, Switzerland – Score: 96.8
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Sydney, Australia – Score: 96.6
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Osaka, Japan – Score: 96
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Auckland, New Zealand – Score: 96
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Adelaide, Australia – Score: 95.9
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Vancouver, Canada – Score: 95.8
- On the opposite end, cities grappling with conflict or inadequate public infrastructure continued to rank among the least liveable.
- Damascus once again ranked last, with a score of just 30.7. Other low-ranking cities included Tripoli, Dhaka, and Karachi.
- Stability ratings also declined in regions such as Tehran, Taiwan, and India, reflecting growing unrest and the possibility of armed conflict
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Urbanisation
Urbanisation refers to the shift in a society from being mainly rural to becoming largely urban. It signifies a rising share of the population living in cities and towns, resulting in their expansion and development. This process goes beyond just the physical growth of urban areas—it also includes changes in the social structure, economic patterns, and cultural dynamics of these regions
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The Smart Cities Mission was initiated on June 25, 2015, with the objective of developing 100 smart cities across India. The selection process for these cities occurred in phases between January 2016 and June 2018. Once selected, each city was given a five-year window—ranging from 2021 to 2023—to complete its proposed projects.
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A core aspect of the mission was the concept of ‘area-based development,’ which focused on three approaches: retrofitting existing areas, redeveloping older parts of the city, and developing entirely new zones (greenfield projects). Additionally, the mission included pan-city initiatives aimed at implementing smart technologies across broader urban areas.
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In 2021, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs extended the completion deadline for all 100 smart cities to June 2023. This was later revised to June 30, 2024, and then further extended to March 31, 2025.
Urban Area Classifications According to the Indian Census
The Census of India classifies urban areas into two main types:
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Statutory towns – These are regions with formal urban local bodies such as municipal corporations, municipalities, or municipal councils.
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Census towns – These are areas that meet all the following conditions:
a) A minimum population of 5,000
b) A population density of at least 400 individuals per square kilometer
c) At least 75% of the male working population engaged in non-agricultural occupations
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For Prelims: Smart Cities Mission, Integrated Command and Control Centres (ICCCs), Greenfield development, Ease of Living Index, Municipal Performance Index, City GDP framework, Climate-smart Cities assessment framework, CCTNS (Crime and Criminal Tracking Networks and Systems), and NITI Aayog.
For Mains: 1. What are Smart Cities? Examine their relevance in the urban development of India.(250 Words)
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Previous year Question1. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017? (UPSC 2017)
1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade.
2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.
3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: B
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GREEN INDIAN MISSION
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The Green India Mission (GIM), launched in 2014, is one of the eight key missions under India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). It primarily aims to address climate change by expanding forest and tree cover, and by restoring degraded forests and ecosystems.
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The mission also focuses on enhancing the livelihoods of communities that depend on forest resources. A major goal of GIM is to bring 5 million hectares under new forest and tree cover and to enhance the quality of forest cover on another 5 million hectares.
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GIM activities are prioritized in states based on factors such as ecological vulnerability, carbon sequestration potential (the ability of vegetation to capture and store carbon through photosynthesis), and the extent of land and forest degradation.
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Under the revised plan, the mission emphasizes restoring vulnerable landscapes using region-specific sustainable practices. This includes targeted ecological restoration in significant mountain regions like the Aravalli hills, the Western Ghats, and the Himalayan range, as well as critical mangrove areas. For instance, GIM efforts will align with the Aravalli Green Wall initiative recently launched by the central government.
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The updated mission document, using projections from the Forest Survey of India (FSI), estimates that India could create a carbon sink of approximately 3.39 billion tonnes by carrying out these restoration activities. Achieving this would involve increasing forest and tree cover across around 24.7 million hectares
As highlighted by the Convention on Combating Desertification, both natural phenomena and human activities contribute to the degradation of land, turning fertile areas into desert-like regions. Rapid population growth has escalated the need for food, water, livestock feed, and various ecosystem services. In response, humans have resorted to deforestation, excessive use of agrochemicals, intensive farming, and overextraction of groundwater. These practices have significantly harmed the land’s health and productivity.
Natural factors, such as rising global temperatures, have led to more frequent and intense droughts, while erratic weather patterns continue to place additional stress on land resources.
Primary Drivers of Land Degradation and Desertification:
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Unsustainable Farming Methods
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Continuous cropping without allowing land to recover
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Shifting cultivation with insufficient fallow periods
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Heavy reliance on chemical fertilizers
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Land Conversion for Human Use
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Deforestation to clear land for agriculture or development
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Unregulated urban expansion
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Loss of Vegetation and Forest Cover
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Overgrazing by livestock
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Excessive harvesting of fuelwood
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Poor forest management practices
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Incidence of forest fires
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Impact of Drought on Land Quality
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Lack of vegetative cover worsens drought impacts and disrupts local water cycles
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Inefficient Water Use
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Ineffective irrigation methods
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Excessive withdrawal of groundwater resources
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Land forms a critical component of ecosystems, and maintaining its health and productivity is essential for preserving ecological stability. In this context, restoring degraded land plays a key role.
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As defined by the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), land restoration refers to the ecological process of bringing degraded landscapes back to a state that supports the well-being of humans, wildlife, and plant life.
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Reviving land ecosystems contributes to environmental protection, supports economic growth, reduces the risk of disasters like floods, enhances soil fertility, and boosts food production. In essence, restoring land is fundamental for sustaining the planet, adapting to drought conditions, and ensuring food security for an expanding global population
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The 18th edition of the India State of Forest Report (ISFR-2023) was unveiled by Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav in December at the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun. Published every two years, the ISFR uses satellite imagery to assess the country’s forest cover.
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India has now crossed the 25% green cover benchmark, with 8,27,357 sq km (25.17%) of its total area covered by forests (21.76%) and trees (3.41%). Of this, 4,10,175 sq km is categorized as dense forest.
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Between 2021 and 2023, forest cover expanded by 156.41 sq km, bringing the total forested area to 21.76% of the country's geographical area—an increase of just 0.05% since the last report. The overall forested land now stands at 7,15,342.61 sq km.
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Notably, tree cover saw the most significant growth, rising from 2.91% in 2021 to 3.41% in 2023—an addition of 1,285.4 sq km.
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For the first time, forest cover in the Western Ghats was assessed. It revealed that the eco-sensitive zone designated by the central government has lost 58.22 sq km of forest since 2013. Additionally, mangrove cover saw a decline of 7.43 sq km compared to 2021.
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Chhattisgarh registered the highest increase in forest and tree cover (683.62 sq km), followed by Uttar Pradesh (559.19 sq km), Odisha (558.57 sq km), and Rajasthan (394.46 sq km). In contrast, the largest reductions were observed in Madhya Pradesh (612.41 sq km), Karnataka (459.36 sq km), Ladakh (159.26 sq km), and Nagaland (125.22 sq km).
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In terms of total forest and tree cover, Madhya Pradesh leads with 85,724 sq km, followed by Arunachal Pradesh with 67,083 sq km, and Maharashtra with 65,383 sq km
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For Prelims: Forest Survey of India (FSI), Indian State of Forest Report (ISFR)
For Mains: GS Paper III - Environment and Conservation, Climate Change
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Previous Year Questions
1.What is/are the importance of the ‘ United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification’ ? (UPSC CSE 2016) 1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive international partnerships. 2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the allocation of a major portion of financial resources to these regions. 3. It is committed to bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating the desertification. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (c)
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CERTIFICATION OF FILMS
- The Supreme Court has declared that the ban on the Tamil film Thug Life in Karnataka violates the filmmakers' constitutional right to freedom of speech and expression. The Court instructed the state authorities to uphold the “rule of law” and ensure the film’s unhindered release.
- On June 17, the apex court strongly criticized the “extra-judicial ban” imposed on the film, emphasizing that any movie approved by the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) must be allowed to be screened.
- Directed by Mani Ratnam, Thug Life was released nationwide on June 5, except in Karnataka, where its screening was halted due to backlash over a statement by lead actor Kamal Haasan, who claimed that the Kannada language originated from Tamil.
- In light of these events, it becomes important to explore the constitutional framework surrounding freedom of expression and the process of film certification in India
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Article 19(1)(a), found in Part III of the Indian Constitution, ensures the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression. This right is enforceable specifically against the state. While certain fundamental rights, such as the abolition of untouchability, prohibition of human trafficking, and bonded labour, apply to both the state and individuals, the right to free speech is directed primarily at government action.
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This right is exclusively granted to Indian citizens and does not extend to foreign nationals. Article 19(1) outlines the ‘Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.’ It affirms that every citizen has the right:
(a) to express their views freely;
(b) to gather peacefully without weapons;
(c) to form associations or unions;
(d) to move freely within the country;
(e) to live and settle in any part of India;
(f) [omitted];
(g) to practise any profession or to carry out any occupation, trade, or business. -
However, the rights under Article 19(1) are not unrestricted. Article 19(2) specifies circumstances under which the state can impose “reasonable restrictions” on free speech, including concerns related to:
→ National security,
→ International relations,
→ Maintenance of public order,
→ Standards of decency or morality,
→ Judicial integrity (Contempt of Court),
→ Protection of individual reputation (Defamation),
→ Prevention of incitement to crime, and
→ Sovereignty and integrity of India.
| Originally, the right to property was part of Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31, allowing citizens to own and dispose of property, subject to state acquisition for public purposes. However, this was removed as a fundamental right through the 44th Constitutional Amendment in 1978, which eliminated Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from the Constitution |
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In India, films intended for theatrical release, television broadcast, or any form of public exhibition must obtain certification from the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC).
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The CBFC classifies films into four main categories:
📌 U: Approved for viewing by all age groups
📌 U/A (UA 7+, UA 13+, UA 16+): Suitable for children with parental supervision, with specific age-based advisories
📌 A: Restricted to adult audiences (18 years and above)
📌 S: Limited to specific professional groups such as scientists, engineers, or doctors
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The certification process is governed by the Cinematograph Act, 1952, the Cinematograph (Certification) Rules, 1983, and additional guidelines issued by the central government under Section 5B of the Act.
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Film certification is conducted by an Examining Committee set up by the Regional Officer of the CBFC. The committee reviews the film and provides its recommendations.
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Certification decisions are made based on either a unanimous or majority opinion within the committee. If there’s a disagreement or a complex issue, it may be escalated to a Revising Committee or resolved by the CBFC Chairperson.
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The CBFC also has the authority to refuse certification to a film. When filmmakers or producers disagree with CBFC’s verdict—either a certification or a rejection—they have the right to appeal. Previously, such appeals were handled by the Film Certification Appellate Tribunal (FCAT), which often overturned CBFC decisions. However, with the FCAT being dissolved in 2021, appeals must now be made directly to the High Courts.
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Television programs and serials do not require CBFC certification. Instead, they must comply with the Content and Advertisement Codes outlined in the Cable Television Networks (Regulation) Act, 1995. As violations under this Act are non-cognizable, any legal action must be initiated through a formal complaint by a State Government–authorised officer
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The Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) operates as a statutory authority under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, overseeing the public screening of films in accordance with the Cinematograph Act of 1952.
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In India, films must receive CBFC certification before they can be released for public viewing.
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As per the CBFC's official website, the board is composed of a Chairperson and various non-official members, all of whom are appointed by the Central Government. Its main office is located in Mumbai.
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The CBFC maintains nine regional offices across the country, situated in Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore, Thiruvananthapuram, Hyderabad, New Delhi, Cuttack, and Guwahati. These offices are supported by Advisory Panels that assist in reviewing films. The Central Government nominates panel members from diverse professional backgrounds, and their tenure lasts for two years
Article 19(1) of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression to all citizens. However, this right is subject to reasonable limitations as outlined in Article 19(2), which allows for restrictions in specific circumstances.
Relevant laws governing media and content regulation include:
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The Cinematograph Act, 1952
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The Cinematograph (Certification) Rules, 2024
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Government-issued guidelines under Section 5B of the Cinematograph Act
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The Cable Television Networks (Regulation) Act, 1995, along with the Cable Television Network Rules, 1994, which include programming and advertising codes
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The Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products (Prohibition of Advertisement and Regulation of Trade and Commerce, Production, Supply and Distribution) Act (COTPA), 2003 and associated Rules, 2004
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The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act
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The Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act, 1950
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The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971
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The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act
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The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989
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The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986
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The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, among others
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The government has recently introduced a system of age-specific film certifications to encourage viewing that aligns with the viewer's age, especially for categories requiring parental supervision.
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Through a gazette notification, the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting amended the rules first issued in December 1991, which outline the criteria for approving films for public screening.
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The updated rules empower the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) to grant clearance for unrestricted public exhibition of films, while also indicating suitable age groups based on the film’s content.
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As per the notification, content deemed appropriate for children aged 7 and above—but still requiring parental guidance for those under 7—will be rated as ‘U/A 7+’. Similarly, content suitable for children 13 and older but needing supervision for those below that age will receive a ‘U/A 13+’ rating. For children 16 and above, with guidance for younger viewers, the classification will be ‘U/A 16+’
| For Prelims: Fundamental Rights, 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 86th Constitutional Amendment, Swaran Singh Committee, Article 51A, Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of the Citizens (1999). |
Previous year Questions1. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? (UPSC 2017)
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
2. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution? (UPSC 2012)
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer C
3. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty? (UPSC 2011)
A. To vote in public elections
B. To develop the scientific temper
C. To safeguard public property
D. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
Answer: A
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INTERNATIONAL ATOMIC ENERGY AGENCY (IAEA)
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The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) was founded in 1957 in response to growing global concerns and hopes regarding the expansion of nuclear technology. Its establishment was inspired by U.S. President Dwight D. Eisenhower’s landmark “Atoms for Peace” speech delivered to the United Nations General Assembly on December 8, 1953.
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In recognition of its significant contributions to global peace and safety, the IAEA and its Director General at the time, Mohamed ElBaradei, were awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2005. The award acknowledged their efforts to prevent the military use of nuclear energy while promoting its safe application for peaceful purposes.
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IAEA safeguards are rooted in binding international agreements, which countries voluntarily accept upon entering into treaties with the agency. These safeguards are crucial in ensuring states adhere to nuclear non-proliferation commitments through independent monitoring and verification.
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The IAEA categorizes its safeguards into three primary types, all of which can be supplemented by an Additional Protocol (AP):
(a) Comprehensive Safeguards Agreements, applicable to non-nuclear-weapon states under the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT);
(b) Voluntary Offer Agreements, involving nuclear-weapon states that are parties to the NPT;
(c) Item-Specific Safeguards Agreements, which are applied to countries outside the NPT framework. -
In 2014, India officially ratified the Additional Protocol, enhancing the IAEA’s ability to monitor its civilian nuclear facilities. India, along with Pakistan and Israel, has signed item-specific safeguard agreements with the IAEA. These nations, although nuclear-capable, are not part of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
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The IAEA created the Incident and Emergency Centre in 2009 to manage international cooperation and provide assistance in the event of nuclear or radiological emergencies, irrespective of their origin or magnitude
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After India conducted its nuclear tests in 1974, the United States advocated for the creation of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG), a coalition of 48 countries that establishes and enforces common guidelines for the export of nuclear technology and materials. The primary objective of this group is to prevent nuclear proliferation, and decisions on membership require unanimous agreement.
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Since 2008, India has actively sought membership in the NSG. Gaining entry would allow India to participate in shaping the rules of global nuclear trade and eventually enable it to engage in the sale of nuclear equipment.
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The NSG operates in alignment with the broader global nuclear non-proliferation framework, which is centered around the 1968 Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT). The NPT only recognizes countries that tested nuclear weapons before January 1, 1967, as nuclear-weapon states. As India conducted its tests later, it does not qualify under this definition and, like Pakistan and Israel, has not signed the treaty.
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Although nuclear energy was seen as a potential area for international collaboration, India's non-membership in the NPT meant it was excluded from access to nuclear technology. The signing of the US-India Civil Nuclear Agreement helped break this deadlock.
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Under this agreement, India committed to separating its military and civilian nuclear facilities, placing the latter under the oversight of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). India also aligned its export control policies with those of the NSG and three other major non-proliferation regimes — the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR), the Wassenaar Arrangement, and the Australia Group.
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In February 2025, both India and the United States reaffirmed their commitment to fully implement the US-India 123 Civil Nuclear Agreement. They also agreed to advance cooperation on the development of American-designed nuclear reactors in India, emphasizing large-scale domestic manufacturing and potential transfer of technology
- Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR): Formed in 1987, the MTCR is a voluntary association of countries committed to preventing the spread of missiles and related technologies capable of delivering weapons of mass destruction. It currently includes 35 member nations. India became a member in June 2016, while China remains outside the group.
- Australia Group: This is an informal coalition of countries working together to ensure that exports of chemical and biological materials do not aid in the development of weapons. By coordinating export control policies, the group seeks to prevent the misuse of these materials. India officially joined as the 43rd member on January 19, 2018.
- Wassenaar Arrangement (WA): Established in 1996, the Wassenaar Arrangement promotes openness and responsible behavior in the trade of conventional weapons and dual-use technologies to prevent excessive stockpiling and to keep such items out of the hands of terrorists. India became the 42nd member state of the WA in 2017
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For Prelims: Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT), Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG), Wassenaar Arrangement (WA)
For Mains: GS III -International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
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Previous Year Questions
1.In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under “IAEA safeguards” while others are not? (2020) (a) Some use uranium and others use thorium (b) Some use imported uranium and others use domestic supplies (c) Some are operated by foreign enterprises and others are operated by domestic enterprises (d) Some are State-owned and others are privately owned Answer (b) 2.In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (UPSC CSE 2018) (a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. (b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA. (c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). (d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG. Answer (a) |
RADIO FREQUENCY IDENTIFICATION (RFID)
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FASTag is a digital toll payment mechanism jointly overseen by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI). The FASTag is typically affixed to a vehicle's windshield and was initially introduced in 2014 as a test initiative. It became compulsory for toll collection across all national highways in 2021.
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The system operates using Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology, which enables interaction between the FASTag and electronic sensors at toll booths. As a vehicle passes through a toll gate, the toll fee is automatically debited from the associated bank account or digital wallet linked to the FASTag.
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RFID is a form of wireless identification that comprises tags and reading devices. It uses radio waves to relay details such as identification or status of an item or person to a nearby reader—either handheld or installed at fixed locations like structures or poles. These tags can include encrypted data, unique serial numbers, or brief descriptors. Some tags, particularly those used in the aviation sector, can store large volumes of data.
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RFID tags are categorized into three types: passive, semi-passive, and active. Active RFID tags have their own power source, typically a battery, allowing them to send signals periodically or when they detect a nearby reader. In contrast, passive RFID tags lack a power source and rely on the electromagnetic energy emitted by the reader to function. These passive tags are the type employed in the FASTag system. Semi-passive tags have internal circuitry and power, but still depend on the reader’s signal to respond.
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RFID systems function through an antenna and a microchip, which together communicate with a reader by emitting radio signals. These systems operate at various frequency bands including low (LF), high (HF), and ultra-high frequencies (UHF). The signals received from the tags are then decoded into usable information by a computer system
ANPR FASTag System (AFS) is an advanced toll collection mechanism that integrates Automated Number Plate Recognition (ANPR) technology with the existing FASTag infrastructure to enable seamless and contactless toll payment.
Unlike traditional FASTag systems, where RFID tags on a vehicle's windshield are scanned by sensors at toll plazas, AFS uses high-resolution cameras to automatically read vehicle registration numbers. These cameras are equipped with software that captures and processes images of license plates as vehicles approach toll booths or designated gantries.
The ANPR system cross-verifies the vehicle’s registration details with the FASTag database, which includes the vehicle’s number and linked payment account. Once a match is found, the toll amount is automatically deducted from the corresponding FASTag wallet or bank account—without requiring a physical RFID scan.
Key Features:
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Contactless Tolling: Vehicles don’t need to slow down or stop for RFID scanning.
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No Tag Dependency: Even if the FASTag is damaged or unreadable, the toll can still be collected using the vehicle’s number plate.
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Real-time Verification: AFS enhances enforcement by checking vehicle compliance (e.g., tag validity, blacklisted status) in real-time.
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Reduced Congestion: Faster vehicle movement through toll plazas due to camera-based number recognition.
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NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation), officially known as the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), is a satellite-based navigation network developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). It is designed to function independently and consists of seven satellites. Of these, three are positioned in geostationary orbit, while the remaining four occupy inclined geosynchronous orbits, catering to both civilian and military requirements.
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The concept of having India’s own satellite navigation system emerged after the 1999 Kargil conflict, during which India’s defence forces were denied access to the US-based GPS. In response, India launched its first satellite under this initiative, IRNSS-1A, on July 1, 2013.
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With the launch of IRNSS-1G on April 28, 2016, the seventh satellite in the series, ISRO declared the IRNSS constellation complete. However, from mid-2016 onward, several satellites experienced failures due to malfunctioning rubidium atomic clocks. Out of the 11 satellites launched under the ₹2,250 crore NavIC project (including replacements), only five are currently fully functional, according to ISRO.
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NavIC delivers two distinct services: the Standard Positioning Service (SPS) for general and commercial users, and the Restricted Service (RS), which is encrypted and intended solely for military and strategic applications. These services cover the Indian subcontinent and surrounding areas.
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Although global satellite systems such as GPS (USA), GLONASS (Russia), Galileo (EU), BeiDou (China), and QZSS (Japan) are available, India pursued its own navigation system to ensure uninterrupted and reliable service, especially for defence operations where strategic autonomy is crucial.
- RFID (Radio Frequency Identification) technology has become increasingly prevalent across numerous industries due to its ability to automatically identify and track objects, animals, and people using electromagnetic fields. Here are the key applications:
- RFID tags enable real-time inventory tracking, reducing stockouts and overstocking. Major retailers use RFID to monitor product movement from warehouses to store shelves, automatically updating inventory systems. This technology also powers anti-theft systems and enables faster checkout processes through bulk scanning
- The technology provides end-to-end visibility in supply chains, allowing companies to track shipments, monitor temperature-sensitive goods, and verify authenticity. RFID helps optimize warehouse operations through automated sorting and reduces manual scanning errors in distribution centers
- Hospitals use RFID for patient identification, medication tracking, and equipment management. The technology helps prevent medical errors by ensuring patients receive correct medications and dosages. It also tracks expensive medical equipment and monitors the location of patients, particularly those with conditions like dementia.
- RFID-enabled key cards and badges control building access, replacing traditional keys. The technology provides detailed audit trails of who accessed which areas and when, enhancing security in corporate buildings, government facilities, and residential complexes
- Electronic toll collection systems like E-ZPass use RFID to automatically charge vehicles passing through toll booths. Public transportation systems employ RFID in contactless payment cards for buses, trains, and subways.
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For Prelims: NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation), Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS)
For Mains: GS III - Science and Technology
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