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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 17 JUNE 2025

FINANCIAL ACTION TASK FORCE (FATF)

 

1. Context

The Financial Action Task Force (FATF), the apex inter-governmental anti-terror financing watchdog, has issued a statement condemning the Pahalgam terror attack, noting that it “could not occur without money and the means to move funds between terrorist supporters”

2. Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

  • The FATF is an inter-governmental body that sets international standards seeking to prevent international financial crimes that aid terrorism. The FATF  was established in July 1989 by a G-7 summit in Paris to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering.
  • The FATF currently comprises 37 member jurisdictions and two regional organizations European Commission and Gulf Cooperation Council, representing most major financial centers in all parts of the globe. India has been a member of the FATF since 2010. India is also a member of its regional partners, the Asia Pacific Group (APG) and the Eurasian Group (EAG).
  • Its secretariat is located at the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) headquarters in Paris.

3. Mandate of FATF

After the 9/11 attacks, the FATF in October 2001 expanded its mandate to incorporate efforts to combat terrorist financing. In April 2012, it added efforts to counter the financing of the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction. The FATF has developed the FATF recommendations, or FATF standards, which ensure a coordinated global response to prevent organized crime, corruption, and terrorism.

4. FATF Lists

4.1 Grey List
Countries that are considered safe heaven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put on the FATF Grey list. This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the Black list.
Recently Democratic Republic of Congo, Mozambique, and Tanzania are added to the Grey List.
4.2 Black List
Countries known as Non-cooperative countries or Territories are put on the Black list. These countries support Terror funding and Money Laundering activities. The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.
Currently, Iran and the Democratic people's Republic of Korea are under High-risk jurisdiction or Black list. Myanmar was added to the list.
Moved Myanmar is from the "grey list" taken by the military junta since they overthrew the government in a coup last February.

5. Why Pakistan is removed from the Grey List?

  • Deliberations of the FATF are made in complete secrecy, and decisions are meant to be made strictly on the basis of technicalities and procedure, so the greylisting of Pakisthan has to be seen in the totality of the process and measures it has undertaken.
  • Pakistan was also on the "grey list" from 2012-2015 when FATF mandated many steps. Since 2018, it has been handed two action plans, comprising 34 points (27+7), asking Islamabad to bring in laws on money laundering, and anti-terror laws in line with international requirements.
  • Pakistan also had to maintain a database of terror groups operating on its soil and the actions taken against them.

6. Benefits for Pakistan

  • If removed from the grey list Pakistan would essentially receive a reputational boost and get a clean bill of health from the international community on terror financing. 
  • There is research that suggests grey listing negatively impacts the relationship of the concerned countries with the international funders including Banks and financial institutions that take note of FATF rankings as well as existing potential overseas investors in those countries.

7. Indias Response

  • India is a member, and hence party to all FATF decisions that are made by consensus. As a result, it also agreed to the decision to take Pakistan off the list, conceding in a statement that due to the FATF, Pakistan had been "forced to take" some action against well-known terrorists", including those involved in the Mumbai 26/11 attacks.
  • The Narendra Modi Government is preparing for India's turn at FATF scrutiny or MER process, set to begin in early 2023, which it hopes will be a smooth process. In July this year while introducing the Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Amendment. 
  • External Minister S. Jaishankar told parliament that India had to take its international commitments on WMD seriously, both at the UN Security Council, and FATF recommendations which had "mandated provisions against financing in relation to WMDs.

For Prelims & Mains

For Prelims: FATF, Grey list, Black List, UN Security Council, Weapons of mass destruction, Asia Pacific Group (APG), Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), and the Eurasian Group (EAG).
For Mains: 1. Discuss the mandate of FAFT on Terror Financing and explain the benefits of Pakistan after removing it from the grey list. 
 
Source: The Hindu
 

WHOLESALE PRICE INDEX (WPI)

 
 
1. Context

Wholesale price inflation (WPI) declined to a 14-month low of 0.39% in May on easing prices of food articles and fuel, and experts said geopolitical tensions could push up prices

 

2. What is the Wholesale Price Index(WPI)?

The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is a measure of the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses or retailers. It is one of the key indicators used to measure inflation and economic performance in a country.

WPI tracks the average price changes of goods at the wholesale level, providing insights into inflationary pressures in the economy. It includes various categories of goods such as agricultural products, industrial raw materials, fuel and power, and manufactured goods.

Governments and policymakers use WPI data to monitor inflation trends, formulate monetary and fiscal policies, and assess the overall health of the economy. It serves as a crucial tool for businesses to adjust pricing strategies, forecast costs, and make informed decisions regarding production and investment

3. Importance of WPI

 

The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) holds several significant roles in economic analysis and policymaking:

  • WPI is a key indicator used to measure inflationary pressures in the economy. By tracking changes in the prices of goods at the wholesale level, it provides insights into the direction and magnitude of inflation. This data is crucial for policymakers in formulating monetary and fiscal policies to maintain price stability
  • WPI serves as a barometer of economic performance, reflecting changes in production costs, input prices, and overall market conditions. Fluctuations in WPI can indicate shifts in supply and demand dynamics, business confidence, and economic activity levels
  • Governments and central banks rely on WPI data to formulate and adjust monetary and fiscal policies. By assessing inflationary trends captured by WPI, policymakers can make informed decisions regarding interest rates, money supply, taxation, and government spending to achieve macroeconomic objectives such as price stability, economic growth, and employment generation
  • Businesses utilize WPI as a tool for forecasting production costs and adjusting pricing strategies. By monitoring changes in wholesale prices of goods, companies can anticipate future cost pressures, optimize supply chain management, and make pricing decisions to maintain profitability and competitiveness in the market
  • WPI data is also crucial for analyzing trends in international trade. Changes in wholesale prices can affect export competitiveness, import demand, and trade balances. Policymakers use WPI information to assess the impact of exchange rate fluctuations, trade policies, and global economic conditions on domestic industries and trade relations
4. What is the Consumer Price Index(CPI)?
 

The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure that examines the weighted average of prices of a basket of consumer goods and services, such as transportation, food, and medical care. It is one of the most widely used indicators for tracking inflation and assessing changes in the cost of living over time.

CPI is calculated by collecting price data for a representative sample of goods and services that are typically purchased by urban consumers. The prices of these items are then aggregated and weighted according to their relative importance in the average consumer's expenditure. The resulting index reflects the average price level experienced by consumers

CPI is used by governments, central banks, businesses, and households for various purposes:

  • CPI is primarily used to measure inflation, which is the rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services is rising. By tracking changes in the CPI over time, policymakers can gauge the extent of inflationary pressures in the economy and adjust monetary and fiscal policies accordingly
  • Many labour contracts, pension plans, and government benefits are indexed to CPI. This means that payments or wages are adjusted periodically based on changes in the CPI to maintain purchasing power and account for changes in the cost of living
  • Central banks often use CPI as a key input in their monetary policy decisions. By targeting a specific inflation rate, central banks aim to achieve price stability and support sustainable economic growth. CPI data helps policymakers assess whether monetary policy actions are effectively controlling inflation
  • Investors and financial analysts use CPI data to adjust their investment strategies and financial planning. Understanding inflation trends can help investors anticipate changes in interest rates, bond yields, and stock market performance, which in turn influence investment decisions
  • CPI data provides insights into consumer behavior and spending patterns. Changes in the prices of specific goods and services reflected in the CPI can affect consumer preferences, purchasing decisions, and overall economic activity
5.What is the distinction between WPI and CPI?
 
Subject Wholesale Price Index (WPI) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
Scope of Goods and Services Measures changes in prices of goods traded in bulk by wholesalers, including raw materials, intermediate goods, and finished goods. Tracks changes in prices of goods and services purchased by households for consumption, including food, housing, transportation, etc.
Target Audience Relevant to businesses, policymakers, and analysts involved in production, manufacturing, and trade. Important for individuals, households, labor unions, and policymakers involved in setting wages, pensions, and social security benefits.
Weighting and Composition Based on a fixed basket of goods and services weighted according to their relative importance in wholesale trade. Based on a basket of goods and services representative of urban consumer spending patterns.
Policy Implications Changes in WPI affect production costs, supply chain management, and business profitability. Used by policymakers to assess inflation trends and formulate industrial and trade policies. Changes in CPI directly impact the cost of living for households and influence consumer behavior, purchasing power, and welfare. Used by policymakers to adjust wages, social benefits, and taxation policies.
 
6. Way Forward
 
Both WPI and CPI are measures of price levels, they differ in their scope, target audience, composition, and policy implications. WPI focuses on wholesale trade and production costs, while CPI reflects consumer spending patterns and the cost of living for households
 
For Prelims: Consumer Price Index, Wholesale Price Index, Inflation,  retail inflation, Producer Pirce Index, National Statistical Office, OPEC+, Crude oil, Kharif season, Monsoon, 
For Mains: 
1. Analyse the factors contributing to high food inflation in India in recent months. Discuss the impact of high food inflation on the Indian economy and suggest measures to mitigate it. (250 words)
2. Explain the concept of sticky inflation. What are the various factors that contribute to sticky inflation? Discuss the implications of sticky inflation for the Indian economy. (250 words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct? (UPSC 2015)
A. Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only
B. The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
C. Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
D. Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
 
Answer: C
 
2. With reference to India, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2010)
1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis only.
2. As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI(IW)), the WPI gives less weight to food articles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only       B. 2 only       C. Both 1 and 2          D.  Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer: B
 
3. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2020)
1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 A. 1 and  2 only       B. 2 only       C. 3 only           D. 1, 2 and 3
 
4. India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons? (UPSC 2011)
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30.
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 
A. 1 and 2 only          B. 2 and 3 only        C. 1 and 3 only          D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: B
 
 
5. The Public Distribution System, which evolved as a system of management of food and distribution of food grains, was relaunched as _______ Public Distribution System in 1997. (SSC JE EE 2021) 
A. Evolved         B. Transformed      C. Tested            D. Targeted
 
Answer: D
 
6. Under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana, up to what quantity of rice and wheat can be purchased at a subsidised cost? (FCI AG III 2023) 
A. 35 kg          B. 40 kg          C. 30 kg           D. 25 kg           E. 50 kg
 
Answer: A
 
7. As per the the National Statistical Office (NSO) report released on 7 January 2022, India's Gross domestic product (GDP) is expected to grow at ___________ per cent (in first advance estimates) in the fiscal year 2021-22?  (ESIC UDC 2022) 
A. 17.6 per cent     B. 9.5 per cent     C. 11 per cent        D. 9.2 per cent   E. None of the above
 
Answer: D
 
8. The main emphasis of OPEC (Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries) is on which of the following? (UKPSC 2016)
A. The production of petroleum
B. Control over prices of petroleum
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
 
Answer: C
 
9. In the context of global oil prices, "Brent crude oil" is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply? (UPSC 2011)
1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
2. It is sourced from the North Sea.
3. It does not contain sulfur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only    B. 1 and 2 only        C. 1 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: B
 
10. The term 'West Texas Intermediate', sometimes found in news, refers to a grade of (UPSC 2020)
A. Crude oil   B. Bullion         C. Rare earth elements       D.  Uranium
 
Answer: C
 
11. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019)
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 
A. 1 and 3 only        B.  2, 3 and 4 only        C. 2 and 4 only         D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
 
Answer: A
 
Source: The Hindu
 

CENSUS

1. Context

Coming Census will be unique. Questions raised by caste count and delimitation will be answered in a particular political conjuncture

2. Key Points

  • India had conducted the Census every 10 years since 1881, but in 2020, the decennial exercise for Census 2021 had to be postponed due to the pandemic.
  • Though the government has not announced fresh dates for the Census, the groundwork is being laid and details are emerging about some of the features.
  • It will be the first digital Census allowing citizens to "self-enumerate". The NPR (National Population Register) has been made compulsory for citizens who want to exercise the right to fill out the Census form on their own rather than through government enumerators.
  • For this, the Office of the Registrar General of India (RGI) has designed a "self-enumeration, Aadhaar or mobile number will be mandatorily collected.

3. Status of the Census exercise

  • A January 2 notification extending the deadline for freezing administrative boundaries in States until June 30 has ruled out the exercise at least till September.
  • As preparation and training take at least three months, the Census will have to be pushed to next year.
  • Around 30 lakh government officials will be assigned as enumerators and each will have the task to collect the details of 650-800 people through both online and offline modes, covering an estimated population of 135 crore people.
  • The Lok Sabha election is due in April-May 2024 and it is unlikely that the Census will be carried out before that since the same workforce will be dedicated to the elections.
  • The completion of both phases of the Census will take at least 11 months, even if done at an accelerated pace from October 1.

4. Holding up the Census

  • One reason which is holding up the exercise is the amendments proposed to the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, of 1969.
  • The government wants to have a centralised register of births and deaths that can be used to update the population register, electoral register, Aadhaar, ration card, passport and driving license databases.
  • The centrally stored data will be updated in real-time without a human interface leading to addition and deletion from electoral rolls when an individual turns 18 and after an individual's death respectively.
  • A Bill to link the births and deaths registered with the population register and others are expected to be tabled in the next session of Parliament.

5.  NPR

  • The NPR, unlike the Census, is a comprehensive identity database of every "usual resident" in the country and the data proposed to be collected at the family level can be shared with States and other government departments.
  • Though Census also collects similar information, the Census Act of 1948 bars sharing any individual's data with the State or Centre and only aggregate data at the administrative level can be released.
  • According to Citizenship Rules 2003 under the Citizenship Act, 1955, NPR is the first step towards a compilation of the National Register of Indian Citizens (NRIC/NRC).
  • Assam is the only State where an NRC has been compiled based on the directions of the Supreme Court, with the final draft of Assam's NRC excluding 19 lakhs of the 3.29 crores applicants.
  •  Assam Government has rejected the NRC in its current form and demanded re-verification of 30 per cent of names included in the NRC in areas bordering Bangladesh and 10 per cent in the remaining State.
  • In 2020, the NPR was opposed by several State governments such as West Bengal, Kerala, Rajasthan, Odisha, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Punjab and Chhattisgarh and Civil Society Organisations due to its link with the proposed NRC as it might leave many people stateless for want of legacy documents.
  • There are apprehensions that the Citizenship Amendment Act 9 (CAA), 2019 allows citizenship based on religion to six undocumented religious communities from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh who entered India on or before December 31, 2014, will benefit non-Muslims excluded from the proposed citizens' register, while excluded.
  • Muslims will have to prove their citizenship. The government has denied that the CAA and NRC are linked and there are currently any plans to compile a countrywide NRC.

5.1. The current status of NPR

  • The NPR was first collected in 2010 when the Congres government was in power at the Centre.
  • It was updated in 2015 and already has details of 119 crore residents.
  • In March 2020, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) amended the Census Rules framed in 1990 to capture and store the Census data in an electronic form and enabled self-enumeration by respondents.
  • The NPR is scheduled to be updated with the first phase of Census 2021.
  • For this phase (house listing and household phase), 31 questions have been notified, while for the population enumeration, the second and main phase 28 questions have been finalised but are yet to be notified.
  • The NPR is expected to collect details on 21 parameters of all family members, up from 14 questions in 2010 and 2015.
  • The Sub-heads include passport number, relationship to head of the family, whether divorced/ widowed or separated, mother tongue if non-worker, cultivator, labourer, government employee, daily wage earner among others.
  • The form also has a column on Aadhar, mobile phone, Voter ID and driver's licence.
  • Though the government has claimed that the NPR form has not been finalised yet, the sample form is part of the Census of India 2021 Handbook for Principal/District Census Officers and Charge Officers in 2021.
  • The NPR has retained contentious questions such as "mother tongue, place of birth of father and mother and last place of residence", possible indicators to determine inclusion in the Citizenship register.
  • The questions were opposed by the State governments of West Bengal, Kerala, Rajasthan and Odisha in 2020.
  • The final set of questions of both the phases and NPR was asked during a pre-test exercise in 2019 in 76 districts in 36 States and Union Territories covering a population of more than 26 lakhs.

6. Expected expenditure for Census

  • The initial draft was prepared by the office of the Registrar General of India and circulated to key Ministries and the Prime Minister's Office called for the conduct of Census 2021 at a cost of ₹9, 275 crores and not the NPR.
  • The draft Expenditure Finance Committee (EFC) not was then revised and a financial provision of ₹4, 442.15 crores for updating the NPR was added on the directions of the MHA "subsequently".
  • The proposal was cleared on August 16, 2019, and it received the  Union Cabinet's nod on December 24, 2019.
  • It was decided that the enumerator engaged for Census would also collect details for NPR.
  • The Covid-19 pandemic struck in March 2020 and since then both exercises are on hold.
  • Now, the NPR has been made compulsory if citizens want to exercise the right to fill out the Census form on their own.
  • The deleted Handbook said that it is "mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR".
  • Census is also mandatory and giving false information is a punishable offence.
For Prelims: NPR, CAA, Census, Covid-19, Expenditure Finance Committee, Registrar General of India, Registration of Births and Deaths Act, of 1969, The Treatise on Indian Censuses Since 1981, Assam, 
For Mains:
1. How can citizens file Census details online? Explain the norms being laid down and discuss the reasons for National Population Register being made compulsory for those who want to fill out the form digitally. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
Prelims:
 
1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2009)
1. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the density of the population of India has increased more than three times.
2. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the annual growth rate (exponential) of the population of India has doubled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only          (b) 2 only                 (c) Both 1 and 2                 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer: D
 
2. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only            B. 2 and 3 only                   C. 1 and 3 only              D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: B
 
3. Sinovac given for Covid-19 is a  (UPPSC Combined State Exam 2022)
A. Protein sub-unit
B. Non-replicating viral vector
C. Whole virus vaccine
D. mRNA vaccine
 
Answer: C
 
4. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which Include "The Macro Economic Framework Statement". The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by (UPSC 2020) 
A. Long-standing parliamentary convention
B. Article 112 and Article 110 (1) of the Constitution of India
C. Article 113 of the Constitution of India
D. Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
Answer: D
 
5. Who is the Census Commissioner of India in 2021? (ICAR Technician 2022)
A. Dr Vivek Joshi
B. Dr C Chandramouli
C. Shri Sailesh
D. DK Sikri
 
Answer: A
 
6. The Registration of Birth and Death Act came into force in the year _____. (UPSSSC Junior Assistant 2020) 
A. 1964      B. 1969    C.  1972        D.1981
 
Answer: B
 
7. Consider the following States: (UPSC 2022)
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Tripura
How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?
A. Only one State
B. Only two States
C. Only three States
D. All four States
 
Answer: C
 
8. Consider the following rivers (UPSC 2014) 
1. Barak
2. Lohit
3. Subansiri
Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal Pradesh? 
A. 1 only    B.2 and 3 only     C. 1 and 3 only      D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
 
Mains:
1. Two parallel run schemes of the Government, viz the Adhaar Card and NPR, one as voluntary and the other as compulsory, have led to debates at national levels and also litigations. On merits, discuss whether or not both schemes need run concurrently. Analyse the potential of the schemes to achieve developmental benefits and equitable growth. (UPSC 2014)
 
Source: The Hindu
 
 

DEOXYRIBONUCLEIC ACID (DNA)

 

1. Context

After the Air India Boeing 787 Dreamliner crash in Ahmedabad, authorities are using DNA analysis to identify the remains of those killed in the accident. DNA samples from victims’ family members have already been collected, and few remains have already been identified.

2. Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)

  • Deoxyribonucleic acid (abbreviated DNA) is the molecule that carries genetic information for the development and functioning of an organism.
  • DNA is made of two linked strands that wind around each other to resemble a twisted ladder a shape known as a double helix.
  • Each strand has a backbone made of alternating sugar (deoxyribose) and phosphate groups.
  • Attached to each sugar is one of four bases: adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), or thymine (T).
  • The two strands are connected by chemical bonds between the bases: adenine bonds with thymine, and cytosine bonds with guanine.
  • The sequence of the bases along DNA’s backbone encodes biological information, such as the instructions for making a protein or RNA molecule. 
Image Source: National Human Genome Research Institute

3. DNA Structure and Function

  • DNA is the information molecule. It stores instructions for making other large molecules, called proteins.
  • These instructions are stored inside each of your cells, distributed among 46 long structures called chromosomes.
  • These chromosomes are made up of thousands of shorter segments of DNA, called genes. Each gene stores the directions for making protein fragments, whole proteins, or multiple specific proteins.
  • DNA is well-suited to perform this biological function because of its molecular structure, and because of the development of a series of high-performance enzymes that are fine-tuned to interact with this molecular structure in specific ways.
  • The match between DNA structure and the activities of these enzymes is so effective and well-refined that DNA has become, over evolutionary time, the universal information-storage molecule for all forms of life.
  • Nature has yet to find a better solution than DNA for storing, expressing, and passing along instructions for making proteins.

3.1 Molecular structure of DNA

  • In order to understand the biological function of DNA, you first need to understand its molecular structure.
  • This requires learning the vocabulary for talking about the building blocks of DNA, and how these building blocks are assembled to make DNA molecules.

3.2 DNA Molecules are Polymers

  • Polymers are large molecules that are built up by repeatedly linking together smaller molecules, called monomers.
  • Think of how a freight train is built by linking lots of individual boxcars together, or how this sentence is built by sticking together a specific sequence of individual letters (plus spaces and punctuation).
  • In all three cases, the large structure of a train, a sentence, and a DNA molecule is composed of smaller structures that are linked together in non-random sequences boxcars, letters, and, in the biological case, DNA monomers.

3.3 DNA Monomers are called Nucleotides

  • Just like the sentence “polymer” is composed of the letter “monomers,” a DNA polymer is composed of monomers called nucleotides.
  • A molecule of DNA is a bunch of nucleotide monomers, joined one after another into a very long chain.

4. Four Nucleotide Monomers

  • The English language has a 26-letter alphabet. In contrast, the DNA “alphabet” has only four “letters,” the four nucleotide monomers.
  • They have short and easy-to-remember names: A, C, T, G. Each nucleotide monomer is built from three simple molecular parts: a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nucleobase. (Don’t confuse this use of “base” with the other one, which refers to a molecule that raises the pH of a solution; they’re two different things.)

5. The sugar and acid in all four monomers are the same

  • All four nucleotides (A, T, G, and C) are made by sticking a phosphate group and a nucleobase to a sugar.
  • The sugar in all four nucleotides is called deoxyribose. It’s a cyclical molecule most of its atoms are arranged in a ring structure.
  • The ring contains one oxygen and four carbons. A fifth carbon atom is attached to the fourth carbon of the ring.
  • Deoxyribose also contains a hydroxyl group (-OH) attached to the third carbon in the ring.

6. Four Nucleotide Monomers are distinguished by their bases

Each type of nucleotide has a different nucleobase stuck to its deoxyribose sugar.
  • A nucleotide contains adenine
  • A nucleotide contains thymine
  • G nucleotide contains guanine
  • C nucleotide contains cytosine
All four of these nucleobases are relatively complex molecules, with the unifying feature that they all tend to have multiple nitrogen atoms in their structures. For this reason, nucleobases are often also called nitrogenous bases.

7. DNA Fingerprinting

  • It is known that every individual has unique fingerprints. These occur at the tips of the fingers and have been used for identification for a long time but these can be altered by surgery.
  • A sequence of bases on DNA is also unique for a person and information regarding this is called DNA fingerprinting. It is the same for every cell and cannot be altered by any known treatment.
  • DNA fingerprinting is now used (i) in forensic laboratories for the identification of criminals. (ii) to determine the paternity of an individual. (iii) to identify the dead bodies in any accident by comparing the DNAs of parents or children. (iv) to identify racial groups to rewrite biological evolution.

8. Recombinant DNA

  • Recombinant DNA (rDNA) molecules are DNA molecules formed by laboratory methods of genetic recombination (such as molecular cloning) to bring together genetic material from multiple sources, creating sequences that would not otherwise be found in the genome.
  • Recombinant DNA is possible because DNA molecules from all organisms share the same chemical structure. They differ only in the nucleotide sequence within that identical overall structure.
  • In most cases, organisms containing recombinant DNA have apparently normal phenotypes. That is, their appearance, behavior, and metabolism are usually unchanged.
For Prelims: Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), or thymine (T), RNA molecule, Polymers, Nucleotide, Nucleotide Monomers, DNA Fingerprinting and Recombinant DNA (rDNA).
For Mains: 1. What is Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)? Discuss the structure and function of the Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and explain how it is different from RNA.(250 Words)
 
Previous year Question
 
1. Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred (UPSC 2013)
1. across different species of plants
2. from animals to plants
3. from microorganisms to higher organisms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
 
2. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct? (UPSC 2019)
A. Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
B. Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.
C. A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
D. Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory Petri dishes.
Answer: A
 
3. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:
1. assess the age of a plant or animal.
2. distinguish among species that look alike.
3. identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2
D. 2 and 3
Answer: D
 
 
Source: Down to Earth
 

BONN CLIMATE MEET

 

1. Context

The annual Bonn Climate Change Conference began on Monday (June 16) as more than 5,000 government delegates and stakeholders gathered in Bonn, Germany. The meeting, which will wrap up on June 26, will witness discussion on a wide range of issues, including the mobilisation of finance to tackle climate change

2. Global Stocktake (GST) discussions at Bonn Climate Conference

  • The third and final round of technical discussions on Global Stocktake (GST) concluded at the Bonn Climate Change Conference.
  • GST is mandated by the 2015 Paris Agreement and assesses progress in the fight against climate change.
  • GST framework was established, outlining elements to be included in the stocktake exercise.
  • Disagreements between developed and developing countries persisted during the discussions, particularly concerning finance and 'historical responsibility'.
  • Developing countries were displeased with Australia's attempt to downplay the historical responsibility of developed nations in causing global warming.
  • Australia argued that historical emissions occurred when alternatives to fossil fuels were limited, and the harm caused by greenhouse gases was not well understood.
  • Developing countries consider historical responsibility as a basis for differentiated burden-sharing in the climate change framework.
  • The issue of historical responsibility is likely to resurface at COP 28 in Dubai and could lead to significant contention.
  • The United States also expressed a similar stance during the Bonn meeting, emphasizing that bridging the adequacy gap is not solely the responsibility of developed nations.
  • Developing countries view the erasure of historical responsibility as a sensitive red line that could lead to major conflicts.
Image Source: The Indian Express

3. Mitigation Work Programme (MWP)

  • MWP was established at COP 26 in Glasgow in 2021 as an emergency mechanism solely focused on increasing emission cuts.
  • The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) indicates that global emissions much decrease by 43% from 2019 levels by 2030 to meet the 1.5-degree target.
  • Emissions continue to rise, surpassing 2019 levels in 2021.

4. Challenges in MWP Discussions

  • Developing countries raised concerns during MWP discussions, stating that while they are asked to strengthen climate actions, developed countries have not provided sufficient financial and technological support.
  • Developing countries, including India, emphasize the need for international assistance in the form of funding and technology transfers to enhance their climate efforts.

5. Financing Challenges

  • Developed countries have an obligation to support developing countries climate action plans through financial and technology transfers.
  • Insufficient funds have been a persistent issue, with developing countries requiring up to US$6 trillion between now and 2030 to implement their climate action plans.
  • Loss and damage needs of developing countries are estimated to be around US$400 billion annually, with additional funds required for various purposes.
  • The committed goal of raising US$100 billion per year from 2020 by developed countries has not been fully realized.

6. Efforts for Financial Resources

  • A new initiative, the Summit for a New Global Financial Pact, is taking place in Paris, aimed at redirecting global financial flows and generating new funds to combat climate change, biodiversity loss, and poverty.
  • Several heads of state are expected to attend the two-day meeting.
For Prelims: BONN Climate Challenge, New Global Financial Pact, Climate Change, Paris Agreement, Biodiversity, Mitigation Work Programme (MWP), Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), COP 28, and Global Stocktake (GST).
For Mains: 1. What efforts are being made to address financial challenges and support climate action plans of developing countries? (250 words).
 
Previous year Questions
1. Consider the following pairs: (UPSC 2020)
International agreement/setup              Subject
1. Alma-Ata Declaration                     Healthcare of the people
2. Hague Convention                          Biological and chemical weapons
3. Talanoa Dialogue                            Global climate change
4. Under2 Coalition                            Child rights
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2, 3, and 4 only
Answer: C
 Source: The Indian Express
 
 

MAHATMA GANDHI NATIONAL RURAL EMPLOYMENT GUARANTEE ACT (MGNREGA)

1. Context

The Union Finance Ministry has capped spending under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) at 60% of its annual allocation for the first half of Financial Year (FY) 2025-26. There was no such spending limit until now.
 

2. About the National Level Monitoring (NLM) report

  • The National Level Monitoring (NLM) report is a study conducted by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) to assess the implementation of various rural development programs in India.
  • The report is based on field visits and interviews with stakeholders at the grassroots level.
  • The NLM report is an important tool for the government to identify areas where improvement is needed and track rural development programs' progress.
  • The report also provides valuable insights into the challenges faced by rural communities and the impact of government interventions.

The NLM report typically identifies the following areas:

  • The coverage of rural development programs
  • The quality of implementation of rural development programs
  • The impact of rural development programs on the lives of rural people

The NLM report also provides recommendations to the government on improving the implementation of rural development programs and making them more effective.

 

3. The findings of the NLM report

  • In 2017-18, the NLM report found that the quality of construction of 87% of the verified works under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) was satisfactory. However, the report also found that only 139 out of 301 districts had seven registers maintained satisfactorily.
  • In 2018-19, the NLM report found that the job cards, an important document that records entitlements received under MGNREGA, were not regularly updated in many districts. The report also found that there were significant delays in payments to workers.
  • In 2019-20, the NLM report found that the Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana - Gramin (PMAY-G) program was facing challenges due to a shortage of construction materials and skilled labour. The report also found that there were delays in the processing of applications and the release of funds.
  • The NLM report for 2020-21 found that the coverage of rural development programs had improved significantly in recent years. However, the report also found that there was still a need to improve the quality of implementation of these programs.
  • The NLM report for 2021-22 found that the impact of rural development programs on the lives of rural people had been positive overall. However, the report also found that there were still some disparities in the impact of these programs across different regions and social groups.
 

4. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) is a social welfare program that guarantees 100 days of unskilled manual wage employment in a financial year to a rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. The Act was enacted by the Government of India in 2005 and came into force on February 2, 2006.

4.1. Mandate and Goals

  • The mandate of MGNREGA is to provide employment and ensure food security for rural households.
  • The scheme also aims to strengthen natural resource management, create durable assets, improve rural infrastructure, and promote social equity.
  • The goals of MGNREGA are to Reduce rural poverty, Increase employment opportunities, Improve food security, Create durable assets, Improve rural infrastructure and Promote social equity. 

4.2. Core Objectives 

  •  The primary goal of MGNREGA is to provide at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
  • The program aims to reduce poverty and distress by offering employment opportunities, especially during seasons of agricultural unemployment.
  • MGNREGA encourages the creation of productive and durable assets such as water conservation structures, rural infrastructure, and land development. These assets not only improve rural livelihoods but also contribute to sustainable development.
  • The Act promotes gender equality by ensuring that at least one-third of the beneficiaries are women and that their participation in the workforce is actively encouraged.

4.3. Key Stakeholders 

  • Rural households are the primary beneficiaries and participants in the MGNREGA scheme.
  • Gram Panchayats play a pivotal role in implementing the program at the grassroots level. They are responsible for planning, execution, and monitoring of MGNREGA projects within their jurisdiction.
  • The central government provides the funds and sets the broad guidelines, while the state governments are responsible for the program's effective implementation.
  • The DPC is responsible for the overall coordination and monitoring of MGNREGA activities within a district.
  • Rural labourers, both skilled and unskilled, participate in MGNREGA projects and directly benefit from the program.

4.4. Role of Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat

  • The Gram Sabha is the village assembly consisting of all registered voters in a village. Its role in MGNREGA includes discussing and approving the annual development plan, ensuring transparency in project selection, and conducting social audits to monitor program implementation.
  • The Gram Panchayat is responsible for planning, approving, executing, and monitoring MGNREGA projects within its jurisdiction. It also maintains records of employment provided, ensures timely wage payments, and conducts social audits. The Panchayat is accountable for the effective utilization of MGNREGA funds.

4.5. Issues with MGNREGA

  •  Delayed wage payments to labourers have been a persistent issue, affecting the livelihoods of beneficiaries.
  •  There have been cases of corruption and leakages in the implementation of MGNREGA projects, leading to suboptimal outcomes.
  • Administrative inefficiencies, complex procedures, and bureaucratic hurdles have hampered program delivery.
  • Some argue that the quality and effectiveness of assets created under MGNREGA projects have been variable and not always aligned with the intended goals.
  • Not all eligible rural households are provided 100 days of guaranteed employment, which can limit the program's impact.
  • Adequate budget allocation to meet the program's demands and inflation-adjusted wages remains a concern.

5. Conclusion

MGNREGA has made a positive impact on the lives of rural people, particularly in terms of employment opportunities and the creation of durable assets. It remains a crucial tool in India's efforts to promote rural development, reduce poverty, and achieve social equity. Addressing the identified issues will be critical in ensuring the continued success and effectiveness of the program in the years to come.

 

For Prelims: MGNREGA, National Level Monitoring (NLM) report, Ministry of Rural Development, rural development, Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana - Gramin (PMAY-G), 
For Mains: 
1. Evaluate the importance of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act in the context of rural development and food security in India. How does MGNREGA contribute to sustainable development and rural infrastructure improvement? (250 Words)
 
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
Prelims

1. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”? (UPSC 2011)

(a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
(b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households
(c) Adult members of households of all backward communities
(d) Adult members of any household

Answer: D

2. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following? (UPSC 2012)

  1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level
  2. Purchasing power parity at national level
  3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only             (b) 2 and 3 only         (c) 1 and 3 only             (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

3. Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households? (UPSC 2013)

  1. Regional Rural Banks
  2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
  3. Land Development Banks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only         (b) 2 only                     (c) 1 and 3 only                (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

4. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor? (UPSC 2012)

  1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas
  2. By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing skill development
  3. By supplying seeds, fertilisers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only          (b) 2 only                        (c) 1 and 3 only              (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B 

5. Under the Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G), the ratio of the cost of unit assistance to be shared between the Central and State Governments is: (MP Patwari 2017)

A. 60:40 in plain areas and 90:10 for North Eastern and the Himalayan States
B. 70:30 in plain areas and 80:20 for North Eastern and the Himalayan States
C. 50:50 in plain areas and 70:30 for North Eastern and the Himalayan States
D. 75:25 in Plain areas and 85:15 for North Eastern and the Himalayan States
 
Answer: A
 
Mains
 
1. The basis of providing urban amenities in rural areas (PURA) is rooted in establishing connectivity. Comment (UPSC 2013)
 
Source: indianexpress
 
 

FUEL GAS DESULPHURISATION (FDG)

 
 
1. Context
 
On June 4, The Hindu reported that a committee of experts, chaired by Principal Scientific Advisor (PSA) Ajay Sood, has recommended that India do away with a decade-long policy of mandating Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) units in all coal-fired thermal power plants (TPPs)
 
2. What is Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD)?
 
  • Flue gas is produced as a result of burning fossil fuels and contains several harmful pollutants such as carbon dioxide (CO₂), sulphur dioxide (SO₂), nitrogen oxides, and particulate matter.
  • Among these, flue gas desulphurisation (FGD) systems are specifically designed to remove SO₂ emissions. Since SO₂ is acidic in nature, it is neutralised using a basic substance within the FGD process.
  • There are three main types of FGD technologies used globally: dry sorbent injection, wet limestone scrubbing, and seawater-based removal. In the dry sorbent method, a fine powdered material such as limestone is introduced into the flue gas stream, where it chemically reacts with SO₂. The resulting compounds are then extracted using equipment like electrostatic precipitators or fabric filters.
  • The wet limestone technique, which is widely adopted due to its high efficiency, uses a slurry of limestone instead of dry powder. When SO₂ comes into contact with this slurry, it forms gypsum—a stable byproduct that has commercial use, particularly in the construction sector.
  • For power plants located near coastlines, the seawater method is often employed. In this process, seawater captures the SO₂ from the flue gas. The used water is then treated adequately before being released back into the ocean, ensuring minimal environmental impact
3.Status of FDG units in India
 
  • In 2015, the Union Ministry of Environment introduced regulations requiring all 537 coal-based thermal power plants (TPPs) across India to install flue gas desulphurisation (FGD) systems in order to curb sulphur dioxide (SO₂) emissions. The initial deadline for compliance was set for 2018.
  • However, only a small number of power plants managed to meet this target. By April 2025, the timeline had been extended, with revised deadlines staggered between 2027 and 2029, based on the classification of each TPP. Notably, the installation of an FGD unit typically requires about two years.
  • As per a government update released on August 1, 2024, only 39 out of the 537 coal-fired TPPs had completed FGD installation. Subsequently, on December 30, 2024, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) issued another notification, postponing the compliance deadline by an additional three years, but without providing any justification for the delay.
  • In April 2025, a report commissioned by the Principal Scientific Adviser’s (PSA) office recommended that the Ministry consider withdrawing the 2015 directive that mandated FGD units across all coal-fired power plants in India
4. Why are SO2 emissions bad?
 
  • SO₂ emissions are dangerous due to their role in acid rain formation, air pollution, and public health hazards. That is why technologies like Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) are crucial in reducing SO₂ from industrial sources like power plants
  • Sulphur dioxide (SO₂) is a significant pollutant that contributes to global warming and poses serious respiratory health risks. In the atmosphere, SO₂ can transform into other sulphur compounds, which may then interact with various chemicals to generate particulate matter.
  • Research based on atmospheric modelling indicates that approximately 15% of India’s ambient PM2.5 levels are linked to coal combustion. Of that, around 80% results from secondary particulate matter created by SO₂ emissions from burning coal.
  • Therefore, implementing Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) systems is crucial to reducing this major source of PM2.5 pollution
 
5. FDG units are Contentious
 
 
  • Installing flue gas desulphurisation (FGD) systems involves substantial financial investment. According to estimates by the Central Electricity Authority, the installation cost is around ₹1.2 crore per megawatt (MW). As of April 2025, India’s coal-based power generation capacity was 2,19,338 MW—accounting for over 46% of the nation’s total installed power capacity—and this figure is projected to grow.
  • At a press briefing on June 10, Union Power Minister Manohar Lal Khattar noted that an additional 97,000 MW of capacity is planned, and incorporating FGD systems for this expansion would require an estimated ₹97,000 crore. He emphasized the need to weigh this carefully, ensuring public health isn't compromised, while also avoiding a sharp rise in electricity tariffs or increased emissions.
 
6. Way forward
 

The issue of installing Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) units in India’s thermal power plants lies at the intersection of environmental responsibility, public health, and economic feasibility. While FGDs are essential to control sulphur dioxide (SO₂) emissions—major contributors to air pollution and PM2.5 formation—implementation has been sluggish due to high installation costs, regulatory delays, and lack of political urgency. With India’s coal power capacity set to expand, the environmental costs of inaction could be significant, undermining the country’s clean air targets and affecting millions of lives.

At the same time, the power sector faces pressure to keep tariffs affordable and ensure energy security. Although installing FGDs will raise electricity costs modestly, experts argue that these represent necessary and predictable investments in public health and environmental sustainability. The way forward requires a balanced approach: one that internalizes the cost of pollution, streamlines implementation timelines, and ensures the power sector does not externalize its environmental burden onto the public

 

For Prelims: Flue Gas Desulphurisation, Pollutants removed by FGD (especially SO₂)
 
For Mains: GS III - India’s coal-based installed power capacity
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1.With reference to the “New York Declaration on Forests”, which of the following statements are correct? (UPSC CSE 2020)
  1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014.

  2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests.

  3. It is a legally binding international declaration.

  4. It is endorsed by governments, companies, and civil society organizations

Select the correct answer from the above given
 
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 3 and 5
C.3 and 4
D.2 and 5
Answer (A)
 
2.Consider the following: (UPSC CSE 2019)
  1. Carbon monoxide

  2. Methane

  3. Ozone

  4. Sulphur dioxide

Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
 
A.1 and 2 only
B.2, 3 and 4 only
C.1 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (D)
 
 
Source: The Hindu

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