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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 14 NOVEMBER 2024

OBC CREAMY LAYER

 
 
1. Context
Members of the Parliamentary Standing Committee on the Welfare of Other Backward Classes have raised questions on why the government has not revised the “creamy layer” ceiling for OBC candidates appearing for the UPSC exam for the past seven years. They said that every year, several candidates were blocked from joining the civil services despite clearing the exam
 
2.History of reservation
 
  • Articles 15 and 16 ensure that all citizens are treated equally under government policies and in public employment.
  • To promote social justice, these articles also allow for special provisions aimed at uplifting socially and educationally disadvantaged groups such as Other Backward Classes (OBC), Scheduled Castes (SC), and Scheduled Tribes (ST).
  • Specifically, SCs and STs are allocated reservations of 15% and 7.5% respectively in central government jobs, educational institutions, and public sector enterprises.
  • In 1990, during V. P. Singh's tenure as Prime Minister, a 27% reservation for OBCs was introduced in central government jobs based on the Mandal Commission's recommendations from 1980.
  • Later, in 2005, reservations for OBCs, SCs, and STs were extended to educational institutions, including private ones. Additionally, in 2019, a 10% reservation was introduced for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) within the general category
 
3. What is Creamy Layer?
 
  • In the Indra Sawhney case (1992), the Supreme Court affirmed the 27% reservation for OBCs, acknowledging that caste serves as a class determinant in the Indian context.
  • However, to maintain the fundamental principle of equality, the Court imposed a 50% cap on total reservations, allowing exceptions only under special circumstances. The Court also mandated the exclusion of the 'creamy layer' within the OBC category.
  • The criteria for identifying individuals as part of the creamy layer are based on the recommendations of the Justice Ram Nandan Prasad Committee (1993).
  • This determination relies solely on the income or position of an applicant’s parents. To be considered part of the creamy layer, an applicant's parental income, excluding salary and agricultural earnings, must exceed ₹8 lakh annually for each of the last three financial years.
  • Additionally, the creamy layer includes individuals whose parents: (a) entered government service as Group A/Class I officers or both entered as Group B/Class II officers, or if the father was promoted from a Group B/Class II post to Group A/Class I before the age of 40; (b) are employed in managerial roles in public sector undertakings (PSUs); or (c) hold constitutional positions
 
 
4. Challenges
  • Recent controversies have highlighted flaws in the reservation process. There are claims that some individuals secure Non-Creamy Layer (NCL) or Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) certificates through questionable methods.
  • Similar concerns are raised about disability certificates, which are used to claim the 4% reservation for people with disabilities in central government positions.
  • There are also allegations of individuals and their families circumventing the creamy layer exclusion by employing tactics such as transferring assets or opting for early retirement, since the income of the applicant’s spouse is not factored into the creamy layer criteria.
  • Another contentious point is the uneven distribution of reservation benefits. The Rohini Commission, tasked with recommending sub-categorization among OBC castes, reported that approximately 97% of reserved positions and seats in educational institutions are occupied by only 25% of OBC castes/sub-castes at the central level.
  • About 1,000 of the 2,600 OBC communities have no representation in jobs or educational institutions. A similar issue of uneven distribution exists within the SC and ST categories, which do not have a creamy layer exclusion.
  • Currently, the reservation percentage stands at 60%, including the EWS quota. Given the current societal dynamics, this higher percentage is deemed necessary. Government responses in Parliament reveal that 40-50% of seats reserved for OBC, SC, and ST categories in central government roles often remain unfilled
 
5. Way Forward
 
The primary focus should be on addressing the gaps in the issuance of Non-Creamy Layer (NCL), Economically Weaker Sections (EWS), and disability certificates. It is crucial to implement rigorous checks to ensure that only qualified individuals receive these benefits.
Efforts should be made to fill vacancies for reserved categories without any backlog. Additionally, sub-categorization within reservations might be necessary to correct the underrepresentation or lack of representation of various communities. Consideration could also be given to applying creamy layer exclusion within the SC and ST categories, at least for the children of Group I/Class A government officials. While these are complex and sensitive issues with arguments both for and against such proposals, initiating discussions with all relevant stakeholders is important. This approach would help ensure that reservation benefits more effectively reach the most marginalized groups across generations
 
 
For Prelims: Rohini Commission, OBC, National Commission for Backward Classes, Hukum Singh Committee, B.P. Mandal Commission,  Kaka Kalelkar Commission, 
For Mains: 
1. "Discuss the significance of caste enumeration and subcategorization of Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in the context of India's reservation policies. How does it impact social equity and representation?" (250 Words)
2.  Critically assess the role of the Mandal Commission and subsequent commissions in addressing the issue of OBC reservation and subcategorization. Discuss the challenges and opportunities in implementing subcategorization policies.  (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions

1. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: (UPSC 2023)

  1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
  2. The National Human Rights Commission
  3. The National Law Commission
  4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: A

2. The First Backward Classes Commission was chaired by: (Dehli Police Constable 2020) (TNPSC Group 1)

A. V.P. Singh     B. PG Shah        C. Kaka Kalelkar       D. Anup Singh

Answer: C

 
 
Source: The Hindu
 

RETAIL INFLATION

 

1. Context

Retail inflation rate surged to a 14-month high of 6.21 per cent in October with a sharp rise in prices of food items, especially fruits, vegetables, meat and fish, and oils and fats, data released by the National Statistical Office (NSO) on Tuesday showed. Food inflation, based on Combined Food Price Index (CFPI) shot up to a double-digit level of 10.87 per cent in October — a 15-month high — from 9.24 per cent in September and 6.61 per cent in the year-ago period.

2. What is Inflation?

  • It is the rise in prices of goods and services within a particular economy wherein consumers' purchasing power decreases, and the value of the cash holdings erodes.
  • In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) measures inflation.
  • Some causes that lead to inflation are demand increases, reduction in supply, demand-supply gap, excess circulation of money, increase in input costs, devaluation of the currency, and rise in wages, among others.

3. Retail Inflation

Consumers often directly buy from retailers. So, the inflation experienced at retail reflects the actual price rise in the country. It also shows the cost of living better. In India, the index that reflects the inflation rate at the retail level is known as Consumer Price Index (CPI). Unlike WPI, CPI includes both goods and services. CPI is used to calculate the Dearness Allowance (DA) for government employees.

4. How Inflation is measured?

  • In India, inflation is primarily measured by two main indices- WPI (Wholesale Price Index) and CPI (Consumer Price Index), Which measures Wholesale and retail-level price changes, respectively.
  • The CPI calculates the difference in the price of commodities and services such as food, medical care, education, electronics, etc, which Indian consumers buy for use.
  • On the other hand, the goods or services sold by businesses to smaller businesses for selling further are captured by the WPI.
  • Both WPI (Wholesale Price Index) and CPI (Consumer Price Index) are used to measure inflation in India. 

5. What is the Inflation Target?

  • Under Section 45ZA, in consultation with the RBI Act, the Central Government determines the inflation target in terms of the Consumer Price Index (CPI), once in five years and notifies it in the Official Gazette.
  • Accordingly, on August 5, 2016, the Central Government notified in the Official Gazette 4 percent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from August 5, 2016, to March 31, 2021, with the upper tolerance limit of 6 percent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 percent.
  • On March 31, 2021, the Central Government retained the inflation target and the tolerance band for the next 5-year period-April 1, 2021 to March 31, 2026.
  • Section 45ZB of the RBI Act provides for the constitution of a six-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) to determine the policy rate required to achieve the inflation target.

6. Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)

  • The MPC is a statutory and institutionalized framework under the RBI Act, of 1934, for maintaining price stability, keeping in mind the objective of growth. It was created in 2016.
  • It was created to bring transparency and accountability in deciding monetary policy.
  • MPC determines the policy interest rate required to achieve the inflation target.
  • The committee comprises six members and Governor RBI acts as an ex-officio chairman. Three members are from RBI and three are selected by the government. The inflation target is to be set once every five years. It is set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India.
  • The current inflation target is pegged at 4% with -2/+2 tolerance till March 31, 2021.

7. What Caused the drop in Inflation?

  • Retail Inflation or price gains based on the Consumer Price Index, slowed to 6.77 % last month, from September's 7.41%, aided by an appreciable deceleration in food price inflation.
  • The year-on-year inflation based on the Consumer Food Price Index eased by almost 160 basis points in October, to 7.01%, from the preceding month's 8.60%, helped by a 'decline in prices of vegetables, fruits, pulses and oils, and fats', the Government said.
  • With the food and beverages sub-index representing almost 46% of the CPI's weight, the slowdown in food price gains understandably steered overall inflation lower even as price gains in three other essential categories, namely clothing, and footwear, housing, and health remained either little changed from September or quickened.
  • Inflation at the Wholesale Prices Level also continued to decelerate, with the headline reading easing into single digits for the first time in 19 months. A favorable base effect along with a distinct cooling in international prices of commodities including crude oil and steel amid gathering uncertainty in advanced economies was largely instrumental in tempering wholesale price gains.

8. Recent Measures by the Government

To soften the prices of edible oils and pulses, tariffs on imported items have been rationalized from time to time. The stock limits on edible oils are also maintained, to avoid hoarding.
The Government has taken trade-related measures on wheat and rice to keep domestic supplies steady and curb the rise in prices.
The impact of these measures is expected to be felt more significantly in the coming months.

For Prelims & Mains

 

For Prelims: Inflation, MPC, CPI, WPI, food Inflation, RBI, Headline inflation, Core inflation

For Mains: 
 1. Explain the concept of inflation and its impact on an economy. Discuss the various causes of inflation and the measures that can be taken to control it, with specific reference to India. (250 Words)
2. What are the challenges and opportunities associated with managing inflation in India? Evaluate the effectiveness of recent policy measures in addressing inflationary pressures and maintaining price stability. Suggest strategies for sustainable economic growth while managing inflation risks. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. Consider the following statements:  (UPSC 2021)
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his natural power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
A. 1 and 2 only    B.  2 and 3 only     C. 1 and 3 only     D. 1, 2 and 3
 
 
2. Concerning the Indian economy, consider the following: (UPSC 2015)
  1. Bank rate
  2. Open Market Operations
  3. Public debt
  4. Public revenue

Which of the above is/are component(s) of Monetary Policy?

(a) 1 only   (b) 2, 3 and 4    (c) 1 and 2     (d) 1, 3 and 4

 

3. An increase in Bank Rate generally indicates: (UPSC 2013)

(a) Market rate of interest is likely to fall.
(b) Central bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks.
(c) Central bank is following an easy money policy.
(d) Central bank is following a tight money policy.
 

4. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? (UPSC 2017) 

1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only      B.  1 and 2 only      C. 3 only      D. 2 and 3 only

 
5. Read the following passage and answer the question that follows. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Policymakers and media have placed the blame for skyrocketing food prices on a variety of factors, including high fuel prices, bad weather in key food producing countries, and the diversion of land to non-food production. Increased emphasis, however, has been placed on a surge in demand for food from the most populous emerging economics. It seems highly probable that mass consumption in these countries could be well poised to create a food crisis.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: (UPSC 2021)
1. Oil producing countries are one of the reasons for high food prices.
2. If there is a food crisis in the world in the near future, it will be in the emerging economies. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
A. 1 only        B. 2 only           C. Both 1 and 2         D.  Neither 1 nor 2
 
 
6. India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons? (UPSC 2011)
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30.
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 
A. 1 and 2 only          B. 2 and 3 only        C. 1 and 3 only          D. 1, 2 and 3
 
 
7. With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct? (UPSC 2015) 
A. Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only
B. The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
C. Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
D. Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
 
 
8. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2016)
1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017
2. The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.
3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $ 1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 3 only     B.  2 only        C. 2 and 3 only        D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answers: 1-C, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A, 5-D, 6-B, 6-C, 7-B
 
 
Source: The Hindu
 

WATER (PREVENTION AND CONTROL OF POLLUTION) AMENDMENT ACT, 2024

 
 
 
 
1. Context
 
The Union Environment Ministry  notified new rules for holding inquiry and imposing penalties for violations of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act. The new Rules – Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) (Manner of Holding Inquiry and Imposition of Penalty) rules, 2024, will come into effect immediately, as per the government’s notification
 

2. Key Amendments of the Act

  • The Bill decriminalizes several violations under the Act and replaces imprisonment with penalties. Penalties for violations range between Rs 10,000 and Rs 15 lakh. Initially applicable to Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, and union territories, other states may extend its applicability through resolutions.
  • Certain categories of industrial plants may be exempted from obtaining consent from the SPCB, with consultation with the CPCB. The central government may issue guidelines for granting, refusing, or cancelling consent by the SPCB.
  • The central government will prescribe the manner of nomination and terms and conditions of service of the SPCB chairman.
  • Violations regarding polluting matters are penalized with fines between Rs 10,000 and Rs 15 lakh, removing imprisonment as a punishment.
  • Offences not explicitly specified are punishable with penalties between Rs 10,000 and Rs 15 lakh. Failure to pay may result in imprisonment for up to three years or a fine twice the penalty amount.
  • The central government may appoint adjudication officers to determine penalties, with appeals possible before the National Green Tribunal.
  • Cognizance may be taken if a complaint is made by the CPCB, SPCB, or adjudicating officer.
  • Heads of government departments are liable for penalties equal to one month of their basic salary if their departments violate any provision of the Act.
  • The amendments aim to modernize enforcement measures and ensure a balance between environmental protection and ease of doing business. However, concerns may arise regarding the effectiveness of penalties in deterring violations and the role of government departments in compliance.
 
 
3. About the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974

The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1974 stands as the pioneering legislation in independent India aimed at addressing water contamination issues. It recognized the imperative of establishing an institutional framework to tackle water pollution, leading to the establishment of the Central Pollution Control Boards (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCB) in September 1974. These bodies were entrusted with the responsibility of monitoring and preventing the contamination of public water resources by sewage and industrial effluents.

Key Provisions

  • Regulation of Industrial Activities: The Act mandates that industrial units obtain permission from their respective State boards before establishing factories. They are also subject to checks to ensure compliance with prescribed norms regarding manufacturing processes.
  • Role of CPCB and SPCB: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is tasked with collecting, collating, and disseminating technical and statistical data related to water pollution. It guides technical standards and conducts checks. Meanwhile, State Pollution Control Boards (SPCB) are responsible for enforcing compliance and filing cases against violators.
  • Enforcement Measures: Violating the provisions of the Water Act can lead to severe penalties, including the shutdown of industries, monetary fines, and imprisonment for up to six years.
  • Implementation and Challenges: Despite stringent provisions, there have been no reported instances of companies or individuals facing imprisonment for environmental violations under the Act. Implementation challenges and gaps in enforcement remain areas of concern.
 
 
4. Response to Amendments of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
  • The need to address outdated regulations that contributed to a "trust deficit." and imprisonment provisions for minor violations, often resulting from simple infringements without causing harm to humans or the environment, led to unnecessary "harassment" of businesses and citizens such provisions were not aligned with the principles of "ease of living and ease of doing business."
  • During discussions in the Lok Sabha, members of opposition parties expressed concerns that the amendments weakened laws protecting rivers and water bodies from industrial pollution. They argued that the fear of imprisonment served as an effective deterrent for industrial units reluctant to comply with stringent regulations.
  • The response to the amendments reflects a divergence of opinions, with proponents emphasizing the need for regulatory reforms to facilitate business operations, while critics express apprehension about potential environmental repercussions.
 
5. The Way Forward
 
The Act introduces significant changes, aiming to modernize enforcement and potentially improve compliance. Balancing environmental protection with ease of doing business requires careful implementation and clear guidelines. Monitoring the impact on compliance and water quality is crucial.
 
 
For Prelims: Central Pollution Control Board,  State Pollution Control Board, Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1974, Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Act 2024
For Mains: 
1. Discuss the key amendments introduced by the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Act, 2024, and analyze their implications for environmental protection and ease of doing business in India. (250 Words)
2. The government argues that the amendments will streamline enforcement measures and improve compliance. How can the government ensure that these objectives are achieved effectively? What role can stakeholders like civil society organizations and communities play in this process? (250 words)
 
Previous Year Questions

1. What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’? (UPSC 2014)

  1. Prevention of soil runoff
  2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers
  3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table
  4. Regeneration of natural vegetation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only         (b) 2, 3 and 4 only            (c) 1, 3 and 4 only          (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

2. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion (2013)

(a) is found in atmosphere as moisture and clouds
(b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
(c) exists as groundwater
(d) exists as soil moisture

3. With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021)
1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.
2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only        B. 2 only        C. Both 1 and 2              D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
 
4. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2020)
1. 36% of India's districts are classified as "overexploited" or "critical" by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only        B. 2 and 3 only      C. 2 only            D. 1 and 3 only
 
5. Consider the following statements: (upsc 2010)
1. On the planet Earth, the freshwater available for use amounts to less than 1% of the total water found.
2. Of the total freshwater found on the planet Earth 95% is bound up in polar ice caps and glaciers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only       B. 2 only           C. Both 1 and 2              D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
 
6. Consider the following statements: (MPSC 2017)
1. According to Article 262 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of interstate river water disputes.
2. Article 262 empowers the President of India to set up an interstate river water dispute tribunal.
Select the incorrect statements
A. 1 only           B. 2 only            C. Both 1 and 2          D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
 
7. Consider the following statements: (MPSC 2018)
(a) Article 262 (2) of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to enact provisions barring the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court or other courts relating to water disputes of inter-state rivers.
(b) The Supreme Court verdict on the Cauvery Water dispute of 16th February 2018 expanded the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (by giving a re-interpretation of Article 136).
Select the correct option
A. Both statements are correct
B. Only the statement (a) is correct
C. Both statements are false
D. Only the statement (b) is correct
 
Answer: 1-C, 2-C, 3-B, 4-B, 5- A, 6-B, 7-A

Mains

1. Enumerate the National Water Policy of India. Taking river Ganges as an example, discuss the strategies which may be adopted for river water pollution control and management. What are the legal provisions of management and handling of hazardous wastes in India? (UPSC 2013)
2. “The ideal solution of depleting ground water resources in India is water harvesting system”. How can it be made effective in urban areas? (UPSC 2018)
3. What is water stress? How and why does it differ regionally in India? (UPSC 2019)
 
 Source: The Hindu and The PRS India
 
 

WAQF ACT

 
 
1. Context
 
The Kerala High Court has held that prosecution cannot be initiated on charges of possessing a Waqf property without the sanction of the Waqf board if the property was in possession before fusing section 52A in the Waqf Act.
 
2. India's Waqf Law
 
  • In Islamic law, a waqf refers to property dedicated to God for religious or charitable purposes. This can include any type of property, either movable or immovable, that is set aside for the benefit of the public, serving as an act of piety that enables Muslims to continue their charitable contributions even after death.
  • A waqf can be created through a formal document, or property may be recognized as waqf if it has been consistently used for religious or charitable purposes over time. The income generated from such properties is usually directed towards the upkeep of mosques, funding educational institutions, or aiding the needy.
  • Once a property is designated as waqf, it cannot be inherited, sold, or given away. Non-Muslims are also permitted to establish a waqf, provided the purpose aligns with Islamic values.
  • In India, waqfs are governed by the 1995 Act. The identification and delineation of waqf properties are carried out by a survey conducted by the State government.
  • A survey commissioner, appointed under this Act, identifies these properties through local inquiries, witness statements, and examination of public records. Once identified, the properties are listed in the State’s official gazette, and a record is maintained by the State Waqf Board.
  • Each waqf is managed by a mutawalli (caretaker) responsible for its administration. While waqfs are similar to trusts under the Indian Trusts Act of 1882, unlike trusts, waqfs cannot be dissolved by a Board
3. Functions and role of Waqf board
 
  • The 1995 Act creates Waqf Boards in each State, responsible for overseeing the management of waqf properties within their respective areas. These Boards are legally recognized entities, enabling them to initiate or face legal action.
  • Each State Waqf Board is led by a chairperson and includes one or two representatives from the State government, Muslim legislators, acknowledged Islamic scholars, and mutawallis (caretakers) of the waqfs.
  • The Act also requires the appointment of a full-time Chief Executive Officer for each Board, who must be a practicing Muslim and hold a rank equivalent to at least a Deputy Secretary in the State government.
  • The Waqf Board is empowered to manage waqf properties and undertake actions to reclaim lost assets. It also has the authority to approve the transfer of immovable waqf properties through sale, gift, mortgage, exchange, or lease, but such transactions require the consent of at least two-thirds of the Board members.
  • The 2013 amendments to the 1995 Act further enhanced the Board's powers, making it almost impossible to sell waqf properties, as neither the mutawalli nor the Board is permitted to sell such property.
  • In addition to the State Waqf Boards, the legislation also establishes the Central Waqf Council, a national advisory body under the Ministry of Minority Affairs.
  • This Council ensures consistent administration of waqf properties across the country and is chaired by the Union Minister of Minority Affairs.
  • The Council also advises the Union government on waqf-related matters, including policy formulation, implementation of waqf laws, and the resolution of inter-state disputes
4. Proposed Changes in the bill
 
  • The definition of ‘waqf’ has been revised under the new Bill. Now, only lawful property owners who have practiced Islam for at least five years are permitted to establish waqf properties through formal deeds.
  • This change eliminates the concept of ‘waqf by use,’ which allowed a property to be considered waqf based on its usage, even if the original deed was contested. Historically, waqf properties were often designated orally until formal documentation became more common.
  • To prevent fraudulent claims of waqf status, the Bill stipulates that any government property identified or declared as waqf, either before or after the enactment of this Act, will not be recognized as waqf property. The law also allows widows, divorced women, and orphans to benefit from waqf proceeds.
  • The responsibility for surveying waqf properties, previously handled by survey commissioners under the 1995 Act, will now be transferred to district collectors or officers of equivalent rank under the new Bill.
  • To enhance the accuracy of waqf property records, the Bill proposes the establishment of a centralized registration system. All information regarding waqf properties must be uploaded to this portal within six months of the law’s enactment, and any new waqf property registrations must be submitted through this portal to the Waqf Boards.
  • Additionally, the Bill removes section 40, which previously allowed waqf tribunals to determine whether a property qualifies as waqf. Instead, the district collector is now designated as the final authority on such matters.
  • Once a decision is made, the collector must update the revenue records and report to the State government. Importantly, the Bill states that the disputed property cannot be treated as waqf property until the collector submits a final report, meaning the Waqf Board cannot take control of the land until the government resolves the issue.
  • One of the most debated provisions in the Bill is the proposal to include non-Muslims in key waqf institutions, such as the Central Waqf Council, State Waqf Boards, and waqf tribunals.
  • The Bill authorizes the Centre to appoint three Members of Parliament (two from the Lok Sabha and one from the Rajya Sabha) to the Central Waqf Council without requiring them to be Muslims. Previously, under the 1995 Act, these MPs had to be from the Muslim community.
  • The new Bill also mandates that State Waqf Boards must include two non-Muslims and two women as members. The composition of waqf tribunals has been altered from a three-member body to a two-member body, consisting of a district judge and an officer of joint secretary rank to the State government.
  • The proposed law requires tribunals to resolve disputes within six months, with a possible six-month extension.
  • Furthermore, the Bill gives the Centre the authority to “direct the audit of any waqf at any time by an auditor appointed by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, or by any officer designated by the Central Government for that purpose.”
  • The Waqf Boards are required to audit their accounts annually, selecting auditors from a panel formed by the State governments. Mutawallis who fail to maintain proper accounts will face penalties.
  • The proposed law also allows courts to intervene in waqf disputes by removing the finality of waqf tribunal decisions, enabling aggrieved parties to appeal directly to the relevant High Court. This measure aims to increase judicial oversight and reduce instances of arbitrary power exercised by Waqf Boards or tribunals
5. Way forward
 
Following its introduction in Parliament, the Bill was sent to a joint parliamentary committee for further examination after the Congress-led INDIA bloc opposed the proposed legislation in its current form.
In March of the previous year, the Union government informed the Delhi High Court that nearly 120 petitions challenging various provisions of the 1995 Act are currently pending in courts across the country
 
 
 
 
For Prelims: Waqf board, Amendment process in Parliament
 
For Mains: GS II - Indian Governance
 
 
Source: The Hindu
 

LABOUR FORCE PARTICIPATION RATE (LFPR)

1. Context

As economists struggle to explain the stagnation in women’s participation in wage work in India, conservative social norms have emerged as a handy target to explain why rising economic prosperity has not translated into greater employment for women. However, this assumption of social stagnation has little basis in reality

2. What is Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR)?

  • The labor force participation rate (LFPR) is a measure that refers to the percentage of the working-age population (typically defined as individuals aged 15 years and above) who are either employed or actively seeking employment.
  • It is a commonly used indicator to understand the level of engagement of a country's population in the labor market.
  • To calculate the LFPR, the number of individuals in the labor force (which includes both employed and unemployed individuals actively seeking work) is divided by the total working-age population and multiplied by 100 to express it as a percentage.
  • The labor force includes people who are currently employed, as well as those who are unemployed but actively looking for work.
  • It does not include individuals who are not in the labor force, such as students, retirees, homemakers, or individuals who are not actively seeking employment.
  • The LFPR provides insights into the proportion of the population that is economically active, which is important for assessing the level of labor market engagement, estimating potential labor supply, and evaluating changes in workforce dynamics over time.

3. LFPR and Unemployment Rate in India

  • Unemployment Rate: The percentage of people who are unemployed and actively seeking work.
  • LFPR (Labour Force Participation Rate): The percentage of the working-age population that is either employed or actively seeking employment.
  • Importance of Unemployment Rate: Commonly used to assess the stress in the job market.
  • India's Unique Situation:
  • Low LFPR: India's LFPR has been consistently lower than the global average.
  • Falling LFPR: India's LFPR has been declining over time.

4. Significance of LFPR

  • Developing Economy Concern: A low and falling LFPR is unfavorable for a developing economy like India.
  • Lack of Job Opportunities: Workers may opt out of the labor force due to prolonged unemployment and discouragement.
  • The unemployment rate alone is insufficient to gauge India's labor market situation.
  •  LFPR provides a more comprehensive understanding of labor market engagement and workforce dynamics.

5. Falling LFPR

  • India's LFPR has been continuously decreasing since 2016-17.
  • Reached its lowest level in 2022-23.
  • Despite fast economic growth (e.g., GDP growth of 7.2% in 2022-23), LFPR has been declining.

6. Low Female LFPR

  • Female LFPR in India has dropped to just 8.8% in FY23.
  • More than 90% of working-age women in India do not actively look for jobs.
  • Significantly lower LFPR among women indicates gender-related challenges in accessing and participating in the labor market.

7. Key Observations

  • The falling LFPR contradicts the country's economic growth rate.
  • Female LFPR is particularly concerning, with a vast majority of women not seeking employment.
  • Low LFPR and low female LFPR signify potential issues with job availability, gender inequality, and labor market participation in India.

8. Comparison of Labor Force Participation Rates in India and Other Countries

  • CMIE vs. ILO: CMIE's measure of assessing the Labor Force Participation Rate (LFPR) is more stringent than that of the International Labour Organization (ILO).
  • India's LFPR: CMIE estimated India's LFPR at 40% for 2022, while the ILO pegged it at 49%. Both measures indicate a low LFPR compared to other countries.
  • Higher LFPR in other countries: According to the ILO model, several Latin American and Asian economies have significantly higher LFPRs than India.
  • Indonesia had an LFPR of around 67% in 2022, while South Korea and Brazil had rates as high as 63-64%. Argentina, Bangladesh, and the Philippines recorded LFPRs in the range of 58-60%. Sri Lanka had over 51% of its population in the labor force.
  • In contrast, India had less than half of its working-age population either employed or actively seeking employment, according to the data.
For Prelims: Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE), Labour force participation rate (LFPR), Gross Domestic Product (GDP), International Labour Organisation (ILO), and Unemployment rate.
For Mains: 1. What is Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) and discuss the factors that have contributed to the Low LFPR in India? (250 Words)

Previous year Question

1. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). (UPPSC 2019)
Assertion (A): The labour force participation rate is falling sharply in recent years for females in India.
Reason (R): The decline in labour force participation rate is due to improved family income and an increase in education.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer: C
 
2. Which of the following statements about the employment situation in India according to the periodic Labour Force Survey 2017-18 is/are correct? (UPSC CAPF 2020)
1. Construction sector gave employment to nearly one-tenth of the urban male workforce in India
2. Nearly one-fourth of urban female workers in India were working in the manufacturing sector
3. One-fourth of rural female workers in India were engaged in the agriculture sector
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
 Source: The Indian Express
 

CYBERCRIME

 
 
1. Context
 
 
The Centre has frozen around 4.5 lakh “mule” bank accounts, typically used for laundering proceeds of cyber crimes, in the past year. While such accounts operate across the banking system, the most were found with the State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank, Kotak Mahindra Bank and Airtel Payments Bank
 

2. About cybercrime

 

Cybercrime is essentially any illegal activity that involves computers, networks, or digital devices. Criminals can use these tools to steal data, commit fraud, disrupt computer systems, or cause other harm. Some common types of cybercrime include:

  • Stealing someone's personal information like their name, Social Security number, or credit card details to impersonate them and commit fraud.
  • Tricking people into giving up their personal information or clicking on malicious links by disguising emails or websites as legitimate ones.
  • Malicious software that can be installed on a computer to steal data, damage files, or disrupt operations.
  • Gaining unauthorized access to a computer system or network to steal data, install malware, or cause damage.
 

3. What is NCRP?

 

The National Cybercrime Reporting Portal is an online platform established by the government of India to facilitate the reporting of cybercrimes by citizens. The portal allows individuals to report incidents of cybercrime in a streamlined and accessible manner.

Key features and functions of the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal include

  • Individuals can report various types of cybercrimes such as online harassment, financial fraud, ransomware attacks, and identity theft. The portal provides specific categories for different types of cyber incidents to ensure proper documentation and handling.
  • The portal places a special emphasis on crimes related to women and children, providing a dedicated section to report cases of online harassment, child pornography, and other related offences.
  • The portal allows users to report crimes anonymously if they choose, ensuring the confidentiality and privacy of the complainant.
  • Once a complaint is filed, the portal provides a tracking number which can be used to follow up on the status of the complaint.
  • The portal offers resources and guidelines on how to protect oneself from cybercrime, as well as information on legal recourse and support available for victims.
 
4. What is the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C)?
 

The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C), established by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), is essentially India's central command centre for combating cybercrime.

Functions

  • The I4C serves as a focal point for coordinating efforts between various Law Enforcement Agencies (LEAs) across the country to tackle cybercrime effectively.
  • It facilitates the exchange of information on cybercrime investigations, cyber threat intelligence, and best practices among LEAs. This allows for a more unified approach to combating cyber threats.
  • The I4C is citizen-centric. It played a role in launching the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal (NCRP) which allows people to report cybercrime complaints online. There's also a National Cybercrime Helpline (1930) to report incidents and get assistance.
  • The I4C identifies the need for adapting cyber laws to keep pace with evolving technology. They recommend amendments to existing laws and suggest the creation of new ones if necessary.
  • The I4C works with academia and research institutes to develop new technologies and forensic tools to aid in cybercrime investigations.
  • They promote collaboration between the government, industry, and academia to raise awareness about cybercrime and develop standard operating procedures (SOPs) for containing and responding to cyberattacks.

5. What is the Budapest Convention?

 

The Budapest Convention, also known as the Council of Europe Convention on Cybercrime, is the world's first international treaty specifically designed to address cybercrime. It came into effect in 2004 with three main objectives:

  1. The convention aims to improve how countries investigate cybercrime by setting standards for collecting electronic evidence and fostering cooperation between law enforcement agencies.
  2. It facilitates cooperation among member states in tackling cybercrime. This includes sharing information, assisting with investigations, and extraditing cybercriminals.
  3. The convention encourages member countries to harmonize their national laws related to cybercrime. This creates a more unified approach to defining and prosecuting cyber offences.

India's Stand: India is not currently a party to the Budapest Convention. There are concerns that some provisions, like data sharing with foreign law enforcement agencies, might infringe on India's national sovereignty. India has also argued that it wasn't involved in drafting the initial convention.

 

6. What is the Global Cybersecurity Index?

 

The Global Cybersecurity Index (GCI) is an initiative by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) to measure and rank the cybersecurity capabilities of countries around the world. The index provides insights into the commitment of countries to cybersecurity at a global level, assessing their strengths and identifying areas for improvement. The key aspects of the Global Cybersecurity Index

Purpose

  • To promote cybersecurity awareness and foster a global culture of cybersecurity.
  • To encourage countries to enhance their cybersecurity infrastructure and strategies.
  • To facilitate knowledge sharing and cooperation among nations.

Assessment Criteria

 The GCI evaluates countries based on five main pillars:

  1. Examines the existence of cybersecurity legislation and regulatory frameworks.
  2. Assesses the implementation of cybersecurity technologies and technical institutions.
  3.  Looks at national cybersecurity strategies, policies, and dedicated agencies.
  4. Evaluate the availability of cybersecurity education, training, and awareness programs.
  5. Measures the extent of international and national cooperation in cybersecurity efforts.
Methodology
 
The assessment is conducted through a comprehensive survey sent to ITU member states, followed by analysis and validation of the responses. The countries are then scored and ranked based on their overall cybersecurity posture.

Impact

 The GCI serves several important functions:

  • Provides a benchmarking tool for countries to assess their cybersecurity maturity.
  • Helps policymakers identify gaps and prioritize areas for improvement.
  • Encourages international cooperation and collaboration to tackle global cyber threats.
The GCI reports typically highlight the growing importance of cybersecurity due to increasing digital transformation and the rising number of cyber threats. They showcase best practices and successful initiatives from top-ranking countries, serving as models for others.
 

7. The challenges related to cyber security in India

 

India faces numerous challenges related to cybersecurity, reflecting its rapidly growing digital economy and increasing reliance on technology. 

Increasing Cyber Threats:

  • India has seen a significant rise in cybercrimes, including hacking, phishing, ransomware attacks, and identity theft. Sophisticated, state-sponsored attacks targeting critical infrastructure and sensitive data are becoming more common.
  • Many public and private sector systems rely on outdated technology, making them vulnerable to attacks. Inadequate implementation of robust cybersecurity measures and protocols leaves systems exposed.
  • There is a significant gap in the number of trained cybersecurity experts needed to protect against and respond to cyber threats. Ongoing education and training programs are insufficient to keep pace with evolving cyber threats.
  • The absence of a unified regulatory framework complicates cybersecurity management. While laws like the IT Act 2000 exist, enforcement and implementation remain inconsistent and weak.
  • Many individuals and small businesses lack awareness of basic cybersecurity practices. Practices like using weak passwords, not updating software, and falling for phishing scams are common.
  • The absence of robust data protection legislation makes it difficult to safeguard personal and sensitive data. Ensuring privacy and protection of personal information remains a significant challenge.
  • Effective cybersecurity often requires international cooperation, which is currently limited and inconsistent. Cross-border cyber threats and geopolitical tensions complicate collaboration and response efforts.
  • The rapid adoption of IoT devices, often with minimal security features, increases vulnerabilities. While AI can enhance security, it also introduces new risks and attack vectors.
  • Sectors like banking, healthcare, and energy are increasingly targeted, requiring enhanced protection measures. Ensuring coordinated efforts among various governmental and private entities involved in critical infrastructure protection is challenging.
  • Limited financial resources allocated for cybersecurity initiatives hinder the development and implementation of comprehensive security measures.
  • Staying abreast of the latest cybersecurity technologies and tools is difficult due to financial and logistical constraints.
 
8. Way Forward
 
Addressing these challenges requires a multifaceted approach involving improved regulatory frameworks, enhanced public awareness, investment in cybersecurity infrastructure, international cooperation, and the development of a skilled workforce. By strengthening these areas, India can better safeguard its digital ecosystem against the growing threat of cybercrime.
 
 
For Prelims: Cyber Crime, Artificial Intelligence, Internet of Things, Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre,  National Cybercrime Reporting Portal, Budapest Convention, Global Cybersecurity Index, International Telecommunication union
For Mains: 
1. India witnesses a high number of cybercrimes originating from Southeast Asia. Analyze the challenges this poses for Indian Law Enforcement Agencies and suggest measures to improve cross-border cooperation in tackling cybercrime. (250 words)
2. What are the key functions of the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C)? Critically evaluate its effectiveness in combating cybercrime in India. (250 words)
3. The rise of Internet of Things (IoT) devices introduces new vulnerabilities in cyberspace. Analyze the cybersecurity challenges posed by IoT and suggest measures to mitigate these risks. (250 words)
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (UPSC 2020)
1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one's computer
2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so
3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion
4. Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.1, 2 and 4 only  B.1, 3 and 4 only  C.2 and 3 only   D.1, 2, 3 and 4
 
2. Global Cyber Security Index (GCI) 2020 is released by which of the following organizations? (RRB Clerk Mains 2021)
A. World Bank
B. United Nations Development Programme
C. International Telecommunication Union
D. World Economic Forum
E. None of these
Answers: 1-D, 2-C
 
Source: The Indian Express
 

FCRA LICENCE

1. Context 

The Centre on Monday announced that any NGO involved in anti-developmental activities and forced religious conversions will face cancellation of their registration under Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010.

2. Key points

  • This came five months after the Income Tax Department conducted "surveys" on the premises of the CPR, Oxfam India and the Independent and Public Spirited Media Foundation (IPSMF), which funds a range of digital media entities.
  • The licence was suspended following prima facie inputs regarding the violation of funding norms.

3. About CPR

  • CPR is recognised as a not-for-profit society by the government of India and contributions to the Centre are tax-exempt.
  • CPR receives grants from the Indian Council for Social Science Research (ICSSR) and is a Department of Science and Technology (DST) recognised institution.
  • CPR receives grants from a variety of domestic and international sources, including foundations, corporate philanthropy, governments and multilateral agencies.
Image Source: Telugu bharath.com

4. About FCRA

  • The FCRA was enacted during the Emergency in 1976 amid apprehensions that foreign powers were interfering in India's affairs by pumping money into the country through independent organisations.
  • These concerns were expressed in Parliament as early as 1969.
  • The law sought to regulate foreign donations to individuals and associations so that they functioned "in a manner consistent with the values of a sovereign democratic republic".
An amended FCRA was enacted under the UPA government in 2010 to "consolidate the law" on the utilisation of foreign funds and "to Prohibit" their use for "any activities detrimental to the national interest".
  • The law was amended again by the current government in 2020, giving the government tighter control and scrutiny over the receipt and utilisation of foreign funds by NGOs.
Broadly, the FCRA requires every person or NGO seeking to receive foreign donations to be 
  1.  Registered under the Act
  2. To open a bank account for the receipt of foreign funds in the State Bank of India, Delhi and 
  3. To utilise those funds only for the purpose for which they have been received and as stipulated in the Act.
  • They are also required to file annual returns and they must not transfer the funds to another NGO.
  • The Act prohibits the receipt of foreign funds by candidates for elections, journalists or newspaper and media broadcast companies, judges and government servants, members of the legislature and political parties or their office-bearers and organisations of a political nature.

4.1. Amendments to the Act

  • In July 2022, the MHA effected changes to FCRA rules through two gazette notifications and increased the number of compoundable offences under the Act from 7 to 12.
  • The other key changes were the exemption from intimation to the government for contributions less than Rs 10 lakh the earlier limit was Rs 1 lakh received from relatives abroad and an increase in the time limit for intimation of the opening of bank accounts.
  • Under the new rules, political parties, legislature members, election candidates, judges, government servants, journalists and media houses among others all barred from receiving foreign contributions will no longer be prosecuted if they receive foreign contributions from relatives abroad and fail to intimate the government within 90 days.
  • However, the recipient will be required to pay 5 per cent of the foreign contribution received.

4.2. FCRA registration

  • NGOs that want to receive foreign funds must apply online in a prescribed format with the required documentation.
  • FCRA registrations are granted to individuals or associations that have definite cultural, economic, educational, religious and social programmes.
  • Following the application by the NGO, the MHA makes inquiries through the Intelligence Bureau into the antecedents of the applicant and accordingly processes the application.
Under the FCRA, the applicant should not be fictitious or benami; and should not have been prosecuted or convicted for indulging in activities aimed at conversion through inducement or force, either directly or indirectly, from one religious faith to another.
  1. The applicant should also not have been prosecuted for or convicted of creating communal tension or disharmony;
  2. Should not have been found guilty of diversion or misutilisation of funds and
  3. should not be engaged or likely to be engaged in the propagation of sedition.
  • The MHA is required to approve or reject the application within 90 days.
  • In case of failure to process the application in the given time, the MHA is expected to inform the NGO of the reasons for the same.

4.3. Duration of the approval

  • Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for five years. NGOs are expected to apply for renewal within six months of the date of expiry of registration.
  • In case of failure to apply for renewal, the registration is deemed to have expired and the NGO is no longer entitled to receive foreign funds or utilise its existing funds without permission from the ministry.
  • NGOs failing to apply before the due date can petition the ministry with cogent reasons within four months of the expiry of the registration, following which their applications can be reconsidered.
  • Many NGOs do not apply for renewal for a variety of reasons, which include either the completion of the project for which the FCRA registration had been taken or the NGO itself folding up.

4.4. Cancellation of FCRA registration 

The government reserves the right to cancel the FCRA registration of any NGO if it finds it to violate the Act.
  1. Registration can be cancelled if an inquiry finds a false statement in the application; 
  2. If the NGO is found to have violated any of the terms and conditions of the certificate or renewal
  3. If it has not been engaged in any reasonable activity in its the chosen field for the benefit of society for two consecutive years 
  4. Or if it has become defunct.
  • It can also be cancelled if "in the opinion of the Central Government, the Public interest must cancel the certificate".
  • Registrations are also cancelled when an audit finds irregularities in the finances of an NGO in terms of the misutilisation of foreign funds.
  • According to FCRA, no order of cancellation of the certificate can be made unless the person or NGO concerned had been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.
  • Once the registration of an NGO is cancelled, it is not eligible for re-registration for three years.
  • The ministry also has the power to suspend an NGO's registration for 180 days pending inquiry and can freeze its funds.
  • All orders of the government can be challenged in the High Court.

For Prelims & Mains

For Prelims: FCRA, Ministry of Home Affairs, NGOs, High courts, ICSSR, DTS, IPSMF, CPR, 
 
Previous year question
1. With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which one of the following is considered its major characteristic?
1. It is the investment through capital instruments essentially in a listed company.
2. It is a largely non-debt creating capital flow.
3. It is the investment which involves debt-servicing.
4. It is the investment made by foreign institutional investors in Government securities.
1. Answer: 2
 
For Mains: 
1.  What is Foreign Contribution Regulation Act and discuss the major provisions of the Foreign Contribution Act and the need for such legislation. (250 Words)
 
Source: The Indian Express

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