INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) KEY (09/10/2025)

INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY

 
 
 
 
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 Photovoltaic (PV) modules  and Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitutionand its significance for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) , Environment Impact Assesment (EIA), Election Commission of India (ECI)  important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for October 09, 2025

 
 
 

Will China capture the electrolyser market?

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international Significance

For Mains Examination: GS III - Enviornment and ecology

Context:

In the clean energy market, the limelight has recently shifted from solar and wind towards green hydrogen. Hydrogen is widely used in industries for oil refining and ammonia and methanol production, but most of it is currently produced using fossil fuels, which add to carbon emissions. Green hydrogen technologies used in production, storage, transportation and application are rapidly advancing, with electrolysers at the core of this transformation. Electrolysers are central to its production, much like photovoltaic (PV) modules are to solar power. And just as no discussion on solar PVs is complete without examining China’s dominance in its supply chain, a similar story seems to be unfolding with electrolysers

 

Read about:

Photovoltaic (PV) modules 

Green hydrogen technologies

 

Key takeaways:

 

In the global clean energy sector, attention has been shifting from traditional renewables such as solar and wind to green hydrogen. While hydrogen already plays a critical role in industries like oil refining and the production of ammonia and methanol, the majority of it is generated from fossil fuels, adding to carbon emissions. The focus now lies on developing green hydrogen technologies across production, storage, transport, and application stages. Electrolysers, in particular, have emerged as the backbone of this transformation, much like photovoltaic (PV) modules are for solar energy. Just as debates on solar PVs cannot overlook China’s dominance in the supply chain, a similar trend is now unfolding with electrolysers.

China’s position in green hydrogen

  • By 2024, China had become the leading producer of hydrogen globally, generating around 36.5 million tonnes annually. Of this, nearly 1,20,000 tonnes was green hydrogen—accounting for close to half of the world’s total.
  • In the electrolyser market, China commands almost 85% of global production capacity for alkaline (ALK) electrolysers. Currently, both Alkaline (ALK) and Proton Exchange Membrane (PEM) electrolysers are used commercially.
  • ALK systems, being an established technology, are cheaper but less efficient in handling renewable power fluctuations. PEM electrolysers, though costlier, perform better under variable loads and yield hydrogen of higher purity.
  • For the moment, China’s edge lies in its mass-scale ALK electrolyser production, catering both to domestic use and exports.
  • China’s rapid build-up of electrolyser capacity, alongside its rollout of large-scale green hydrogen projects, has raised global concerns about its growing influence over the sector’s supply chains.

How China gained this advantage

  • China replicated in electrolysers the strategy it had earlier applied in solar PVs: subsidised pricing, tightly integrated supply chains, control over raw material inputs, and speedy expansion of manufacturing capacity.
  • ALK electrolysers from China are priced significantly lower than international averages, offering up to 45% cost savings for hydrogen plants in Europe. Price declines continue due to supply chain maturity and increased competition.
  • In 2024, a 5 MW ALK electrolyser system cost about six million yuan (~$167/kW), 20% cheaper than in 2023. A 1 MW PEM system was also priced at six million yuan (~$838/kW), reflecting a 32% drop within a year.
  • China benefits from abundant domestic supplies of nickel and steel, essential for ALK electrolysers. However, PEM electrolysers depend on scarce and expensive metals such as iridium, platinum, and titanium, which China imports heavily.
  • Since hydrogen production requires specific system integration depending on its intended use and purity requirements, competition may increasingly depend on providing integrated solutions rather than price alone.
  • Major Chinese renewable energy players such as LONGi and Envision have diversified into hydrogen, not only manufacturing electrolysers but also investing in overseas production facilities.
  • For example, Guofu Hydrogen has partnered with German firms to build plants, while Envision Energy has unveiled the world’s largest green hydrogen and ammonia facility powered entirely by renewables.

Competition and challenges

  • China appears well on track to dominate the green hydrogen equipment market through its aggressive scaling up of production and international outreach. However, replicating its solar success will not be straightforward.
  • Unlike solar, green hydrogen has been designated as a strategic sector by many countries, which are keen to safeguard domestic industries. Consequently, Chinese imports are expected to face stricter regulations, barriers, and scrutiny.
  • Concerns over supply chain resilience and energy security will likely shape how far Chinese products penetrate international markets, potentially curbing their expansion in this domain

 

Follow Up Question

Mains

1.Green hydrogen production utilizes electrolysis, a process powered by renewable energy sources. However, large-scale production of renewable energy also has environmental implications. Discuss the ethical considerations involved in promoting green hydrogen as a sustainable solution. (250 words)

Prelims

1.With reference to 'fuel cells' in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2015)
1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products.
2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers.
3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only       
B. 2 and 3 only         
C. 1 and 3 only       
D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer (A)
 

Statement 1: If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products. ✅ Correct.
Hydrogen fuel cells combine hydrogen and oxygen to generate electricity, with water and heat being the only by-products.

Statement 2: Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers. ❌ Incorrect.
Fuel cells are versatile; they can power large systems like buildings and vehicles, as well as small devices like laptops and mobile phones (portable fuel cells exist).

Statement 3: Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC). ❌ Incorrect.
Fuel cells generate Direct Current (DC) electricity, which can then be converted to AC using an inverter if required.

 

 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national significance like Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution
 
For Mains Examination: GS I - Indian Polity
 
Context:
 
Four persons were killed and at least 50 injured in Leh Wednesday as police opened fire after protesters, demanding statehood and seeking extension of Sixth Schedule protections to Ladakh, turned violent. The BJP office in Leh was also torched.
 
 
Read about:
 
What is the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
 
What are Autonomous District Councils?
 
 
Key takeaways:
 
 
  • The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides a framework for the governance of tribal areas in the northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Inclusion of Ladakh under this Schedule would enable the creation of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) and Autonomous Regional Councils (ARCs), which are elected bodies with authority over tribal areas.
  • These councils would have legislative powers over various subjects such as forestry, agriculture, village and town administration, inheritance, marriage, divorce, and social customs.
  • The Schedule also empowers ADCs and ARCs to collect land revenue, impose taxes, regulate money lending and trade, levy royalties from mineral leases or licenses, and develop public infrastructure like schools, markets, and roads.
  • In 2019, the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes recommended that Ladakh be brought under the Sixth Schedule, citing several reasons: the region has a tribal population exceeding 97%, there are restrictions on land acquisition by outsiders, and Ladakh possesses a distinct cultural heritage that needs protection.
  • Following violent incidents linked to these demands, climate activist Sonam Wangchuk, who had been on a 35-day hunger strike, ended his fast. The Leh administration imposed restrictions on gatherings of four or more people as a precaution.
  • The unrest occurred ahead of scheduled talks between the Centre and the Leh Apex Body on October 6, after a four-month hiatus. Government sources indicated that Wangchuk was seen as a potential obstacle to the negotiations.
  • The roots of the issue go back to 2019, when the repeal of Article 370 and the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act led to the bifurcation of the state into two Union Territories: Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature, and Ladakh without one.
  • The political and legal status of Ladakh has remained a matter of debate, with the people advocating for Sixth Schedule inclusion due to the high proportion of Scheduled Tribes (over 90%).
  • Under Article 244, the Sixth Schedule allows the establishment of ADCs, which govern tribal-majority areas. These councils, each having up to 30 members serving five-year terms, can legislate on issues related to land, forests, water, agriculture, village councils, health, sanitation, and policing at village and town levels.
  • Currently, there are 10 ADCs in the Northeast, distributed as three each in Assam, Meghalaya, and Mizoram, and one in Tripura.
  • Sonam Wangchuk, an engineer and innovator of sustainable technologies, is widely recognized for inspiring the character portrayed by Aamir Khan in the 2009 film 3 Idiots.
  • In 2018, he was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award for his systematic, community-driven reforms in education and his efforts to improve opportunities for Ladakhi youth, serving as a model for minority communities worldwide
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.What is/ are true in relation to Autonomous Districts (CGPSC 2021)
1. Each Autonomous District Council has 30 members
2.24 members of the Autonomous District Council are elected via voting and rest 6 are nominated by Governor
3.Rights to direct the Acts passed by the Parliament of India is Autonomous. Districts of Assam lie with Governor
A.1 , 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 Only
 
Answer (C)
 
  • Each Autonomous District Council (ADC) has up to 30 members – Correct.

  • 24 members are elected and the remaining 6 are nominated by the Governor – Correct.

  • The statement that ADCs have rights to direct Acts passed by Parliament is incorrect. While ADCs have legislative powers over certain subjects in their areas (like land, forest, water, agriculture, and village administration), Acts of Parliament apply to them like any other part of India, and the Governor acts as a supervisory authority, not giving them absolute autonomy

 
 

 

Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) imposes penalty of ₹ 3 Lakh on Sriram’s IAS for advertising misleading claims regarding result of UPSC Civil Service Exam 2022

 

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS II - Consumer Protection rules

 

Context:

The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has imposed penalty of ₹ 3 lakh for misleading advertisement on Sriram’s IAS. The decision was taken to protect & promote the rights of consumers as a class and ensure that no false or misleading advertisement is made of any goods or services which contravenes the provisions of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019

 

Read about:

What is Central COnsumer Protection Authority (CCPA)?

What is State Consumer Protection Council?

Key takeaways:

The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has imposed a ₹3 lakh fine on Sriram’s IAS for disseminating misleading advertisements. This action aims to safeguard and advance consumer rights and to ensure that no advertisements for goods or services breach the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

The penalty was issued under the leadership of Chief Commissioner Smt. Nidhi Khare and Commissioner Shri Anupam Mishra, following violations related to misleading advertising about the UPSC Civil Service Exam 2022.

Many coaching institutes and online edtech platforms use images and names of successful candidates to attract potential students, without disclosing which courses these candidates completed or the duration of their studies.

Sriram’s IAS made claims in its advertisements such as:

  • “200 plus selections in UPSC Civil Service Exam 2022”
  • “We are India's No.1 Prestigious UPSC/IAS Coaching Institute”

The CCPA found that while Sriram’s IAS advertised various courses, it intentionally withheld information about the courses taken by the successful candidates in the UPSC Civil Service Exam. This omission misled consumers into believing that all the claimed successful candidates had enrolled in the paid courses advertised by the institute.

According to Section 2(28)(iv) of the Consumer Protection Act, misleading advertisements that deliberately hide critical information are prohibited. Knowing the course details chosen by successful candidates is essential for consumers to make informed decisions about which course and coaching institute to select.

In response, Sriram’s IAS provided details for only 171 out of the 200-plus claimed successful candidates. Of these, 102 were from the Free Interview Guidance Programme (IGP), 55 from the Free Test Series, 9 from the GS Classroom course, and 5 from an MoU arrangement with state governments for free coaching. This information was not disclosed in their advertisements, misleading potential consumers.

Successful candidates in the Civil Services Examination must pass all three stages: Prelims, Mains, and the Personality Test (PT). Marks from Mains and PT contribute to the final selection, with PT accounting for 13.5% of the total marks. Many candidates had cleared the Preliminary and Mains exams independently, with Sriram’s IAS providing guidance only after these stages. By concealing this fact, the misleading advertisements misinformed UPSC aspirants, violating their right to be accurately informed and protecting themselves from unfair practices

 

Follow Up Question

1.Which of the following statements about the 'Consumer Protection Act 2019' is not true? (UGC NET 2020)
A.It has widened the definition of consumer
B.It provides for E-filing of complaints
C.It establishes Central Consumer Protection Authority
D.It ignores mediation as an alternate disputes resolution mechanism

 

Answer (D)
 
The Consumer Protection Act 2019 actually includes provisions for mediation as an alternative dispute resolution mechanism. The Act aims to simplify and expedite the resolution of consumer disputes and includes mechanisms for mediation, among other methods, to resolve conflicts efficiently

 

 

 

Why is environmental surveillance important?

For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international Significance like Environment Surveillance

For Mains Examination: GS III - Environment and Ecology

Context:

Pathogens (usually bacteria and viruses) that cause diseases in humans and animals, can be tracked in samples taken from the environment, for example, by sampling sewage through wastewater surveillance. This can provide early warnings for potential disease outbreaks.

 

Read about:

Environment Impact Assesment (EIA)

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • Pathogens such as bacteria and viruses that cause diseases in humans and animals can be monitored through environmental samples, particularly by analysing sewage in wastewater surveillance. This approach serves as an early warning system for possible disease outbreaks.
  • Samples are typically collected from sewage treatment facilities, hospital effluents, or public locations like railway stations and airplane toilets, and then examined to observe daily changes in the pathogens present.
  • The method works because infected individuals shed these pathogens in their stools or urine. Even diseases caused by parasitic worms, such as hookworms and roundworms, can be tracked using wastewater and soil samples, offering insights into disease prevalence and the success of control measures.
  • Strict protocols guide the collection and processing of such samples, ensuring that pathogens can be accurately detected and analysed. With these methods, pathogen loads can be compared across samples, and whole-genome sequencing allows the identification of different variants.
  • Traditionally, infection levels in a community were gauged only through clinical case detection. However, this method has limitations since many infected people may remain asymptomatic or avoid testing if symptoms are mild, meaning official numbers often underestimate the true scale of infection.
  • Environmental surveillance thus becomes crucial as it provides early warning signs of outbreaks. Evidence shows that pathogen levels in wastewater can rise more than a week before infections become noticeable in clinical data.
  • This advanced notice allows for better public health preparedness since higher levels of circulating pathogens increase the risk of widespread infection.
  • Wastewater-based epidemiology has been employed for decades to monitor diseases such as cholera, polio, and measles. In India, wastewater surveillance for polio was first launched in Mumbai in 2001.
  • During the COVID-19 pandemic, similar programs were rolled out in five cities and continue to operate today. Recently, the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) announced plans to expand wastewater surveillance to track 10 viruses across 50 cities.
  • This initiative will strengthen public health monitoring by detecting increases in viral loads within communities. The ICMR is also working on surveillance of viruses like avian influenza in outbreak-prone regions.
  • Nonetheless, there remains a need for improvement. Data-sharing across institutions, harmonised protocols, and common templates for disease-specific frameworks are essential.
  • A shift towards programmatic approaches—integrating wastewater and environmental surveillance into routine disease monitoring—will be key. Building a comprehensive national wastewater surveillance system is therefore vital for India’s public health strategy

 

Follow Up Question

1.Consider the following statements: The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to (2019)

1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought

2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer (b)
 
  • Statement 1: The Environment Protection Act, 1986 does not specifically empower the government to mandate public participation in environmental protection processes. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

  • Statement 2: Under the Act, the Central Government has the power to set standards for the emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from different sources. This statement is correct.

 
 
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international Significance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity
 
Context:
At a press conference on August 7, Leader of the Opposition Rahul Gandhi accused the Election Commission (EC) of massive electoral roll manipulations in Mahadevapura Assembly constituency in Karnataka. Mr. Gandhi’s presser capped a series of allegations of deliberate voter roll discrepancies by the EC beginning with the Maharashtra Assembly polls. This, coupled with the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls in Bihar, which is under judicial scrutiny, has put the poll body in the eye of a storm.
 
Read about:
 
Election Commission of India (ECI) Powers and Functions
 
Special Investigation revision (SIR)
 
 
Key takeaways:
 
  • The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a permanent institution established under the Constitution. It has been entrusted with the authority to supervise, direct, and oversee the entire electoral process for Parliament, State legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President.
  • Initially, the Commission comprised only the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC), but it was later expanded to include two additional Election Commissioners. In 2023, Parliament enacted the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, which introduced a new appointment process.
  • Under this law, EC members are chosen by a three-member selection panel consisting of the Prime Minister, a Union Minister, and the Leader of the Opposition. Opposition parties criticized this arrangement, arguing that the government could dominate the decision-making by a 2:1 majority.

Why is the ECI under scrutiny?


  • In recent years, several political parties have accused the Commission of irregularities in voter lists. The Maha Vikas Aghadi (MVA) coalition claimed that Maharashtra’s rolls were artificially inflated with lakhs of new entries between the 2019 Lok Sabha and Assembly elections.
  • Similar allegations came from the Congress in Haryana and later from the Aam Aadmi Party in Delhi. Amidst these accusations, Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar announced a Special Intensive Revision (SIR) in Bihar aimed at cleaning up voter rolls, which the Commission said would later be extended nationwide.
  • Meanwhile, Congress leader Rahul Gandhi alleged large-scale manipulation in the voter rolls of the Mahadevapura Assembly segment in Karnataka, which he said benefitted the BJP.
  • According to him, a six-month investigation by his party revealed duplicate entries, false addresses, and mass registrations from single locations. He demanded that the EC provide all political parties with machine-readable electoral rolls for independent verification.
  • However, the Commission declined, citing cyber-security risks—a stance earlier upheld by the Supreme Court in a 2018 petition filed by former Madhya Pradesh CM Kamal Nath.

When was the Bihar revision announced?


  • On June 24, the ECI ordered a Special Intensive Revision of Bihar’s electoral rolls, just five months before the State Assembly polls. Under this exercise, voters not listed in the 2003 rolls were required to furnish proof of their date and place of birth to confirm citizenship. Those born after 1987 had to additionally provide documents establishing their parents’ birth details.
  • When the draft rolls were published on August 1, Bihar’s registered electorate had shrunk by 65 lakh—from 7.89 crore to 7.24 crore. The Commission explained that the deletions were due to deaths, migration, duplicate entries, or voters being untraceable.
  • This led to petitions from civil society groups, NGOs, and Opposition parties in the Supreme Court, questioning the fairness of the process.
  • In an interim ruling on August 14, a bench of Justices Surya Kant and Joymalya Bagchi instructed the EC to release booth-wise details of the 65 lakh excluded names, along with reasons for each deletion—such as death, relocation, duplication, or untraceability.
  • The Court also directed that Aadhaar be accepted as valid proof of identity for the inclusion of voters in the rolls
 
Powers and Functions of the Election Commissioner
 
 
  • The Election Commission of India, headed by the Chief Election Commissioner and assisted by Election Commissioners, has been entrusted with wide-ranging powers and responsibilities to ensure free and fair elections in the country.
  • Their authority is derived directly from the Constitution, which grants them the power of superintendence, direction, and control over the entire electoral process.
  • This means that the Commission not only conducts elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President, but also frames the rules, sets guidelines, and monitors compliance to guarantee the purity of the process.
  • In practice, the Commission supervises the preparation and periodic revision of electoral rolls, ensuring that eligible citizens are added and ineligible names are removed.
  • It decides the schedule of elections, taking into account law and order, availability of forces, and logistics. It regulates political parties by granting recognition, allotting election symbols, and monitoring adherence to the Model Code of Conduct during campaigns.
  • The Commission also has quasi-judicial powers to settle disputes over political party splits and symbol allocations.
  • Furthermore, it exercises authority over election expenditure by candidates and parties, laying down spending limits and requiring detailed accounts. The Commission can deploy observers, requisition staff, and coordinate with law enforcement to maintain order during polling.
  • In case of malpractice or violence, it has the power to countermand or postpone elections. Importantly, its decisions cannot ordinarily be questioned in courts during the conduct of elections, underscoring its independence.
  • Thus, the powers and functions of the Election Commission combine administrative, advisory, and quasi-judicial elements.
  • They are designed to ensure that elections in the world’s largest democracy are conducted in a transparent, impartial, and credible manner, thereby strengthening the foundation of India’s representative system
 
Follow-Up Question
 
1.Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
 
Answer (D)
 

Statement 1: The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
❌ Incorrect.
The Election Commission is not a five-member body. The Constitution provides for a Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and such number of Election Commissioners as the President may decide. Currently, it is a three-member body (one CEC + two ECs), but not five.

Statement 2: Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
❌ Incorrect.
The election schedule is decided by the Election Commission of India, not by the Ministry of Home Affairs. The ECI has exclusive powers of superintendence, direction, and control of elections.

Statement 3: Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
✅ Correct.
Under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, the Election Commission adjudicates disputes regarding party splits and mergers, and also decides on symbol allocation.

 

 

India’s new EV policy

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international significance

For Mains Examination: GS III - Science and Technology

Context:

Electric Vehicle (EV) major Tesla is not interested in manufacturing in India but is looking at opening two stores, Union Heavy Industries Minister H D Kumaraswamy said on Monday.

 

Read about:

EV's regenerative braking

India’s new EV policy

 

Key takeaways:

 

• When the Indian government unveiled its electric vehicle (EV) scheme in March 2024, just ahead of the Lok Sabha elections, expectations were high that Elon Musk would visit India and commit over $2 billion to set up a Tesla manufacturing facility. However, Musk canceled the trip, citing pressing responsibilities at Tesla. Interestingly, shortly after postponing his India visit, Musk traveled to China, which is Tesla’s second-largest market.

• In February, shortly after Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s meeting with Elon Musk in Washington, Tesla posted 13 job openings in India. These roles included positions such as store manager, service advisor, customer engagement manager, and business operations analyst.

• According to the Global Trade Research Initiative (GTRI), although the launch of the EV scheme’s guidelines is a positive development, the journey to market-ready EVs will take time. The application process is yet to begin and is expected shortly. GTRI notes that it could take at least another six months to finalize participating companies. Until then, approved manufacturers are permitted to import fully assembled EVs at a reduced customs duty of 15%.

• Companies like Mercedes-Benz, Hyundai, Kia, and Volkswagen-Škoda have already expressed interest in the scheme. However, Tesla may not be joining them. At a media interaction, Kumaraswamy noted that Tesla plans to open two showrooms in India but does not appear interested in local manufacturing.

• Former U.S. President Donald Trump criticized Tesla's potential expansion in India in February, calling it unfair to the United States. He remarked that while building a factory in India is permissible, it disadvantages American interests. Trump has echoed similar concerns about Apple’s growth in the Indian market.

• On Monday, India’s heavy industries ministry released detailed guidelines for the EV manufacturing scheme and will soon open the online application process. The scheme mandates a minimum investment of ₹4,150 crore from approved applicants, with specific targets for domestic value addition.

• In return, selected companies can annually import up to 8,000 completely built electric vehicles priced at $35,000 or more, benefiting from a reduced import duty of 15% for five years. The scheme is designed for global automotive manufacturers with annual revenues exceeding ₹10,000 crore and fixed assets worth at least ₹3,000 crore.

 

India’s New EV Policy

India has introduced a new EV manufacturing policy aimed at attracting global electric carmakers to set up local production facilities while offering short-term import benefits as an incentive.

What the Policy Offers

  • Lower Import Duty: Approved manufacturers can import up to 8,000 fully built electric vehicles (CBUs) per year at a reduced 15% customs duty (normally it’s much higher), provided each car costs at least $35,000.

  • 5-Year Benefit Window: This import benefit is available for five years, giving companies time to set up local operations

What Companies Must Do

To be eligible for the policy, companies must:

  • Invest at least ₹4,150 crore (~$500 million) in setting up EV manufacturing in India.

  • Start production within 3 years from approval.

  • Achieve specific domestic value addition (DVA) targets:

    • 25% DVA by 3rd year

    • 50% DVA by 5th year

  • Have global revenue of ₹10,000 crore+ and fixed assets worth ₹3,000 crore+.

📦 Why This Matters

  • Builds Local Industry: Encourages global EV giants like Tesla, Hyundai, or Volkswagen to invest in India, generating jobs and tech transfer.

  • Bridges Gap: The import window allows companies to test market demand while their factories are being built.

  • Supports Clean Energy Goals: Aligns with India’s push for sustainable mobility and reduced oil imports.

⏳ Challenges

  • Timeline Delays: As of now, the application process hasn’t started. Experts say it could take 6+ months before manufacturers are selected.

  • Market Entry Isn’t Instant: Locally made EVs under this scheme are likely still a few years away.

 

 Follow Up Question

 

1.With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2015)

1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products.
2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers.
3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only       

(b) 2 and 3 only     

(c) 1 and 3 only         

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (a)
 

Statement 1: If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products.

  • Correct.

  • In hydrogen fuel cells, hydrogen reacts with oxygen to produce electricity, heat, and water.

  • The reaction is:
    2H2+O2→2H2O+energy (electricity + heat)

Statement 2: Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers.

  • Incorrect.

  • Fuel cells can power both large and small devices, depending on their size and design.

  • Miniature fuel cells have been developed for laptops and portable electronics.

Statement 3: Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC).

  • Incorrect.

  • Fuel cells produce Direct Current (DC) electricity.

  • If AC is needed, an inverter must be used to convert the DC output

 
 
 

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