Directions: In the following five items, each sentence has a blank space and four options have been given after the sentence. Select the most appropriate option for the blank, space and indicate your response,
Answer Sheet accordingly.
(a) Was
(b) have
(c) have been
(d) had been
Answer: C
(a) is doubted
(b) is a doubt
(C) may be a doubt
(d) may be doubted.
Answer: D
(a) in hand
(b) to hand
(c) handy
(d) in one’s hand
Answer: A
(a) Knows
(b) keeps
(c) crosses
(d) marks
Answer: A
(a) Be made
(b) be fused
(c) fit
(d) be balanced
Answer: C
Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the five questions that follow by selecting your answers based solely on the content of the passage and opinion of the author only.
The world's life-supporting resources are being depleted at a faster rate than ever before! We have to change our practices and those of the world as a whole towards a more sustainable future. To give us an idea about the dimensions of change, the General Assembly of the United Nations has announced its ‘Agenda 2030’. The 17 Sustainable Development Goals describe the framework of our common global efforts. Within each goal, education holds a key position.
Of course education and learning do not function in isolation. In a traditional sense they help to understand the world one lives in and prepare all for job market with both intrinsic and instrumental values. What are the many roles of education in sustainable development? Its purpose is transformative in nature, in the sense that it should widen one’s worldview, make one question ‘unsustainability and help one build competencies to address global challenges and be accommodated into a global system. Beyond this, education for sustainable development means integrating the ‘future’ as as specific dimension of our learning activities and teaching. How to build a sustainable future must play a central role in educational processes. Globalization, which is sometimes merely seen as global capitalism, has inevitability about it. Whether we like it or not, we live in a highly interconnected and interdependent world. It is now well recognised that 21st century challenges are global in nature and require cooperation beyond national boundaries. In a sustainable development sense we have to see ourselves as citizens the world and respond accordingly to the global challenges in the present century. In fact, global challenges have expanded the very notion of citizenship itself. There is an increasing recognition of importance of global citizenship.
(a) Environment
(b) Gender
(c) Globalization
(d) Education
Answer: D
Education
(a) Education will develop multiple competencies for sustainable development among people all over the world
(b) Education will provide books to read on sustainable development
(c) Education will increase the global capital
(d) Education will reduce interdependence of the people
Answer: A
Education will develop multiple competencies for sustainable development among people all over the world
(a) We are now more connected and dependent upon each other for our survival
(b) The means of transport have become faster
(c) We have become dependent on other countries
(d) We are facing challenges from globalization
Answer: A
We are now more connected and dependent upon each other for our survival
(a) Today we are facing an acute shortage of food products
(b) Medical health systems are deteriorating at a fast pace
(c) The natural resources necessary to sustain life are reducing drastically
(d) Human life is becoming more dependent on the support of technology
Answer: C
The natural resources necessary to sustain life are reducing drastically
(a) People want to travel more and live in different parts of the world
(b) It will unite people from all over the world to face the challenges of the 21% century
(c) People believe that there is a future in foreign countries
(d) People will cooperate with each other to save themselves from natural disasters
Answer: B
It will unite people from all over the world to face the challenges of the 21% century
Directions: In the following five items, each item consists of six sentences of passage. The first and second last sentence are given at the beginning as S1 and S6. The four sentences in between S1 and S6 in every question have been jumbled up and labelled as P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly in the Answer Sheet.
S6: Nothing is more naive than to believe that a field geologist should gather only facts interpretation of which is to be made at a later date.
P: While the field work progresses he should conceive His many interpretations as are consists with the known facts.
Q: As the field work progresses and the larger geological picture begins to unfold, experience a judgment are essential if the geologist is to evaluate properly the vast number of facts gathered from thousands of outcrops.
R: Such mapping requires keen observation and knowledge of what data are significant.
S: Above all, the field geologist must use the method of “working multiple hypotheses” to deduce the geological structure. ,
(a) SRQP (b) RQSP (c) PSQR (d) SRPQ
Answer: B
RQSP
S6: Naturally, therefore, these areas remained inaccessible to the people.
P: There always remained an acute shortage of all-weather roads to reach out to the rural areas during the rainy season,
Q: Roads constructed in India prior to the advent of British rule were not fit for modern transport
R: However, the real motive behind this development was not necessarily to provide basic amenities to the people but to sub serve various colonial interests.
S: The roads that were built primarily served the purposes of mobilizing the army within India and drawing out raw materials from the countryside to the nearest railway station.
(a) SPQR (b) PQSR (c) QPRS (d) RQSP
Answer: D
RQSP
S6: Some portentous events can be seen to be so from the moment of their occurrence, like the discovery of the New World; others of comparable momentousness are hidden in obscurity.
P: The relevance of the issue of Proportion is significant.
Q: It possesses, indeed, a massive supply of public record, but it necessarily lacks the inner knowledge of politicians’ minds, of Planners’ proposals, of scientists’ discoveries of technicians break-through.
R: It also lacks perspective since it is bereft of a sense of proportion.
S: It is impossible, over just a few years of observation, to estimate accurately the significance of various events.
(a) QPSR (b) SRPQ (C) QSRP (d) PRSQ
Answer: A
QPSR
S6: The tax regime in these countries needs to be progressive and futuristic.
P: There is a staggering level of difference between the income metrics and the the prosperous in such countries.
Q: The effective tax rates are not really progressive with regard to income.
R: They need to be reengineered to bring into the tax net the enormous sums of ‘missing’ income.
S: They are even less so with regard to wealth.
(a) PQSR (b) QSPR (c) QSRP (4) SRPQ
Answer: B
QSPR
S6: This is the real danger of periodization, which tends to give the impression of distinct categories where there are none.
Q: Each period has unique features that produce certain family resemblances between the writers of a particular period.
R: Scholars often specialize in periods such as the Medieval renaissance, Romantic, Victorian, and modern literature.
S: Failure to detect these discontinuities often produces a false sense of uniformity and consensus within a period.
(a) PQRS (b) RQPS (c) PSQR (d) RSPQ
Answer: B
RQPS
Directions: In the following five items, each item has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b), and (c). Read each sentence and identify any error in any underlined part, and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e. (a) (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
Answer: C
Answer: A
Answer: D
19. Jitender was the smartest(A) of the two (B) children in the room.(C) No error(D)
Answer: A
20. He asked me if I would be(A) interested in signing up(B) as a member of the group.(C) No error(D)
Answer: D
(a) Rayanna
(b) Tipu Garo
(c) Jagbandhu
(d) Dukaribgla Devi
Answer: A
Rayanna, also known as Sangolli Rayanna, was a prominent warrior and leader who fought against British colonial rule in India. After the capture of Rani Chennamma of Kittur by the British in 1824, Rayanna continued the resistance movement and played a crucial role in organizing and leading the armed struggle against the British forces. He is remembered as a valiant freedom fighter and a symbol of resistance against British imperialism in Karnataka, India.
(a) Women labour
(b) Living conditions of factory workers
(c) Child labour
(d) Textile workers
Answer: C
The First Indian Factories Act of 1881 primarily focused on regulating and addressing the issue of child labour in factories. It aimed to protect children from exploitation and improve their working conditions by introducing provisions such as minimum age of employment, maximum working hours, and mandatory rest intervals for child workers. The act marked an important step towards the welfare and rights of child labourers in India.
(a) Singapore
(b) Tokyo
(c) Berlin
(d) Rangoon
Answer: A
The Azad Hind Fauj, also known as the Indian National Army (INA), was formed in Singapore on September 1, 1942. It was founded by Indian nationalist leader Subhas Chandra Bose with the aim of liberating India from British colonial rule. Bose, who was in exile, sought support from the Axis powers during World War II and received assistance from Japan in forming the INA. The INA played a significant role in the Indian independence movement and fought against the British alongside the Japanese forces in Burma (now Myanmar) and Northeast India.
(a) Harcourt Butler
(b) A.J. Wilson
(c) WS. Holds worth
(d) S.C. Peel
Answer: D
S.C. Peel was not a member of the Committee appointed by Lord Birkenhead in 1927 to enquire into the relationship between the Indian States and the British Government. The members of the Committee were: (a) Harcourt Butler (b) A.J. Wilson (c) W.S. Holdsworth
- Under the Cornwallis System, the districts were divided into thanas Or police jurisdictions” of 20-30 miles square.
- Each of them was placed under an officer of government under the denomination of daroga.
- The daroga system was introduced in Madras in 1812.
- The daroga as nominated by the district magistrate.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2only
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: A
Statement 1 is correct. Under the Cornwallis System, the districts were divided into police jurisdictions called "thanas" which were typically 20-30 miles square.
Statement 2 is correct. Each thana was placed under an officer of the government known as "daroga" or "darogha" who was responsible for maintaining law and order in the area.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The daroga system was not specifically introduced in Madras in 1812. It was a part of the administrative reforms introduced by Lord Cornwallis in the late 18th century.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The darogas were not nominated by the district magistrate. They were appointed by the East India Company and later by the British government.
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Kerela
(d) West Bengal
Answer: B
The Model Standing Orders formed under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 shall apply to an establishment in respect of which the Appropriate Government is that of the State of Gujarat.
(a) The Factories Act, 1948
(b) The Plantations Labour Act, 1951
(c) The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970
(d) The Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1979
Answer: A
An outworker is expressly excluded from the definition of 'workman' under the (a) The Factories Act, 1948.
(a) The process, operation or other work is incidental to or necessary for the industry
(b)The work is of a permanent nature
(c)The work is done ordinarily through regular workmen
(d) The work is intermittent nature
Answer: D
The work is intermittent nature
(a) It shall consist of equal number of members from among employer and workmen.
(b) It shall be constituted in an industrial establishment employing twenty or more workmen.
(c) The Chairperson of the Committee shall be nominated by the Appropriate Government
(d) The total members of the Committee shall not be more than six.
Answer: C
The Chairperson of the Committee shall be nominated by the Appropriate Government
(a) 1000 or more workers are employed
(b) Hazardous substances are used or handled
(c) Heavy machinery is utilised
(d) 500 or more workers are employed
Answer: D
500 or more workers are employed
(a) x=1y=2
(b) x=2 y=2
(c) x=3 y=6
(d) x=4, y=4
Answer: A
A number is divisible by 88 if it is divisible by 8 and 11. The last three digits, 59xy, must be divisible by 8. The only possible values of x and y that satisfy this are x=1 and y=2. So the answer is (a).
(a) 116
(b) 124
(c) 128
(d) 132
Answer: A
To find the value of x and y, we need to determine the least common multiple (LCM) of the given numbers.
The LCM of 24 and 30 can be found by listing their multiples: Multiples of 24: 24, 48, 72, 96, 120, ... Multiples of 30: 30, 60, 90, 120, 150, ...
From the list, we can see that the LCM of 24 and 30 is 120. Therefore, x = 120.
The greatest common divisor (GCD) of 36 and 100 can be found by listing their divisors: Divisors of 36: 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, 36 Divisors of 100: 1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20, 25, 50, 100
The highest common factor of 36 and 100 is 4. Therefore, y = 4.
Now we can calculate x - y: x - y = 120 - 4 = 116.
So, the value of x - y is 116.
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer: C
(a) 32 minutes
(b) 31 minutes
(c) 29 minutes
(d) 28 minutes
Answer: C
The runner completed the race in 3 hours, so she ran at an average speed of 40/3 = 13.33 km/hour. The runner's speeds in the first, second, third, and fourth quarter were 213.33 = 26.66 km/hour, 313.33 = 39.99 km/hour, 413.33 = 53.32 km/hour, and 513.33 = 66.65 km/hour, respectively. The distance of the last quarter of the race was 40/4 = 10 km. The runner's speed in the last quarter was 53.32 km/hour, so she took 10/53.32 = 0.186 hours = 11 minutes to complete the last quarter of the race. So the answer is (c).
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11
Answer: A
The number of ways to pay 10 rupees using 1, 2, and 5 rupee coins can be determined using the following steps:
List the possible combinations of coins that add up to 10 rupees.
Count the number of times each combination appears.
The possible combinations are:
10 x 1 rupee coins
5 x 2 rupee coins
2 x 5 rupee coins + 1 x 1 rupee coin
1 x 5 rupee coin + 2 x 2 rupee coins
There are 4 possible combinations, so the answer is (a) 8.
(a) Administrative overheads that do not contribute to bringing the inventories to their present location and condition
(b) Storage costs which are necessary in the production process prior to a further production stage.
(c) Selling and distribution costs
(d) Duties and taxes paid on purchases subsequently recoverable by the enterprise from the Tax Authorities.
Answer: B
The answer is (b) Storage costs which are necessary in the production process prior to a further production stage.
According to Accounting Standard-2 (Inventory Valuation), the cost of inventory includes all costs of purchase, costs of conversion (direct labour and production overhead) and other costs incurred in bringing the inventories to their present location and condition.
Storage costs are included in the cost of inventory if they are necessary in the production process prior to a further production stage. For example, if the inventory is raw materials that need to be stored in a warehouse before they can be used in the production process, then the storage costs would be included in the cost of inventory.
Administrative overheads, selling and distribution costs, and duties and taxes paid on purchases subsequently recoverable by the enterprise from the Tax Authorities are not included in the cost of inventory.
|
Trade receivables |
₹ 2,50,000 |
|
|
Provision for discount to debtors |
|
₹14, 000 |
|
Discount to debtors |
₹ 4, 000 |
|
Additional discount allowed to debtors during the year is ₹ 20,000. The firm has a policy of maintaining a provision for discount to debtors equal to 10% of the Trade Receivables’ balances. Total amount to be charged to Profit and Loss "Account (for the year ending 31.03.2022) for discount allowed and provision for discount created will be:
(a) ₹ 25,000
(b) ₹ 13,000
(c) ₹ 9,000
(d) ₹ 33,000
Answer: D
|
Date |
Particulars |
Units |
Rate per unit(₹)
|
|
January 1 |
Inventory in hand |
200 |
7 |
|
January 8 |
Purchases |
1100 |
8 |
|
January 25 |
Purchases |
300 |
9 |
|
January 6 |
Issued for sale |
100 |
- |
|
January 9 |
Issued for sale |
200 |
- |
Which one of the following is the value of inventory on January 31 under perpetual inventory system using First-In-First-Out (FIFO) method?
(a) ₹ 6,700
(b) ₹ 8,700
(c) ₹ 10,700
(d) ₹ 12,000
Answer: C
Subscription outstanding as on 31.03.2021 16,000
Subscription outstanding as on 31.03.2022 18,000
Subscription received in advance as on 31.03.2021 12,000
Subscription received in advance as on 31.03.2022 11,000
There are 70 members each paying an annual subscription of ₹ 1,000. Total subscription received during the year 2021 — 22 will be:
(a) ₹ 67,000
(b) ₹ 71,000
(c) ₹ 69,000
(d) ₹ 77,000
Answer: A
The total subscription received during the year 2021-22 is calculated as follows:
Subscription received during the year = 70 * 1000 = 70000
Subscription outstanding as on 31.03.2021 = 16000
Subscription outstanding as on 31.03.2022 = 18000
Subscription received in advance as on 31.03.2021 = 12000
Subscription received in advance as on 31.03.2022 = 11000
Therefore, the total subscription received during the year 2021-22 = 70000 - 16000 - 18000 + 12000 + 11000 = 67000.
(a) exceed ₹ 20 lakh
(b) exceed ₹ 20 lakh
(c) exceed ₹ 75 lakh
(d) Are ₹ 1 crore or above
Answer: C
The Companies (Auditor’s Report) Order, 2016, mandates auditors to report fraud to the Central Government if the sums involved in the fraud exceed ₹ 75 lakh.
(a) 108
(b) 102
(c) 98
(d) 96
Answer: A
The total distance covered by the two trains to cross each other is 400+300 = 700 m. The time taken is 15 seconds. The speed of the two trains relative to each other is 700/15 = 46.67 m/s. The speed of the shorter train is 60 km/hr = 16.66 m/s. The speed of the longer train is 46.67-16.66 = 30 m/s. The speed of the longer train in km/hr is 30*18/5 = 108 km/hr.
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 15
Answer: B
(a) ₹ 16
(b) ₹ 15
(c) ₹ 14
(d) ₹ 13
Answer: C
The cost of 10 pens and 8 pencils is 200 rupees. Let the cost of each pen be x rupees and the cost of each pencil be y rupees. 10x + 8y = 200 5x + 24y = 200 Solving the above two equations, we get x = 14 and y = 3. Therefore, the price of each pen is 14 rupees.
(a) 30
(b) 28
(c) 25
(d) 20
Answer: D
(a) 2 km
(b) 3 km
(c) 4 km
(d) 5 km
Answer: B
The man is 5 km away from his starting position in the north-east direction. The man is 4 km away from his starting position in the south direction. The shortest distance between the man's current position and his starting position is the hypotenuse of a right triangle with sides of length 5 km and 4 km. The hypotenuse of this right triangle is √(5^2 + 4^2) = 3 km.
(a) 0-6 years
(b) 0-3 years
(c) 3-6 years
(d) 6-15 years
Answer: A
The beneficiaries under the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme are children in the age group of 0-6 years
- Growing vegetables around urban centres to meet the daily demand of people is known as Truck Farming.
- It is governed by the distance a truck can cover overnight between the farm and the market
Select the correct answer using the code given
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Both the statements are correct
- Retail trade falls under tertiary activity
- Research and Development based activity comes under quaternary activity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Retail trade falls under tertiary activity, which is a part of the service sector. Research and Development (R&D) based activity comes under quaternary activity, which is also a part of the service sector.
- It is a non-profit Public limited company set up by the Ministry of Skill development and Entrepreneurship.
- It promotes skill development by catalysing the creation of only large quality and non-profit vocational institutions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Statement 1 is correct: The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) is a non-profit Public limited company set up by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
However, statement 2 is not correct: The NSDC promotes skill development by catalysing the creation of both large quality and for-profit vocational institutions, not just non-profit ones. NSDC works with various training partners, including both non-profit and for-profit organizations, to facilitate skill development initiatives in the country.
- Fulfil basic needs of destitute elderly citizens
- Build and strengthen intergenerational relationships through Regional Resource and Training Centre
- Provide guaranteed monthly pension to elderly citizens
- Establish Atal Incubation centres for elderly citizens
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 only
Answer: C
Statement 1 is correct: The Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana (AVYAY) aims to fulfill the basic needs of destitute elderly citizens.
Statement 2 is correct: AVYAY includes the establishment of Regional Resource and Training Centers to build and strengthen intergenerational relationships.
Statement 3 is not correct: AVYAY does not provide a guaranteed monthly pension to elderly citizens.
Statement 4 is not mentioned in relation to AVYAY.
Statement I:
In India, Central Government determines the inflation target, in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India, in terms of the Consumer Price index once in five years.
Statement II:
At present, the Monetary Policy framework in India is operated by Central Government.
Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both statements I and statement II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation for statement I
(b) Both statements I and statement II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Answer: C
Statement I is correct: In India, the Central Government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), determines the inflation target. The inflation target is typically set in terms of the Consumer Price Index (CPI). However, it is important to note that the frequency of determining the inflation target may vary. In the past, the inflation target has been set for a shorter period than five years.
Statement II is incorrect: The monetary policy framework in India is not operated by the Central Government alone. It is a shared responsibility between the Central Government and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The RBI is the primary authority responsible for formulating and implementing monetary policy in India. The Central Government and the RBI work together to determine the inflation target and formulate monetary policy measures to achieve that target.
Statement I:
In India, the RTGS and NEFT payment systems are owned and operated by National Payment Corporation of India.
Statement II:
National Payment Corporation of India is an entity promoted by banks.
Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both statements I and statement II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation for statement I
(b) Both statements I and statement II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement II is correct
Answer: B
The correct answer is (b) Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I.
Statement I is correct: In India, the Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) and National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) payment systems are indeed owned and operated by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). The NPCI is responsible for providing and managing various retail payment systems in the country.
Statement II is also correct: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is an entity that is promoted by multiple banks in India. It was established with the guidance and support of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks' Association (IBA). The NPCI is jointly owned by a consortium of banks and acts as an umbrella organization for operating retail payment systems in India.
Statement I:
A very strong US Dollar squeezes global credit.
Statement II:
Many countries and companies outside America borrow in Dollars.
Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both statements I and statement II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation for statement I
(b) Both statements I and statement II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Answer: A
The correct answer is (a) Both statements I and II are correct, and statement II is the correct explanation for statement I.
Statement I is correct: A very strong US Dollar can indeed have a significant impact on global credit. When the US Dollar strengthens, it becomes more expensive for countries and companies outside of America to borrow in Dollars. This is because their domestic currencies are usually weaker in comparison to the Dollar, and as the Dollar strengthens, it takes more of their domestic currency to repay Dollar-denominated debts. This can lead to higher borrowing costs and can squeeze global credit availability.
Statement II is correct and provides the correct explanation for statement I: Many countries and companies outside America do borrow in US Dollars. The US Dollar is considered a global reserve currency and is widely used in international trade and finance. It is common for countries and companies to borrow in Dollars to take advantage of lower interest rates, access broader capital markets, or facilitate international transactions. However, when the US Dollar strengthens significantly, it becomes more expensive for borrowers to repay their Dollar-denominated debts, which can lead to financial stress and squeeze global credit.
Statement I:
The Government of India mandates the packaging of 100% sugar and food grains in diversified jute bags.
Statement II:
The Government of India enacted the Jute Packaging Materials (Compulsory Use in Packing Commodities) Act, 1987.
Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both statements I and statement II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation for statement I
(b) Both statements I and statement II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but statement
Answer: A
The correct answer is (a) Both statements I and II are correct, and statement II is the correct explanation for statement I.
Statement I is correct: The Government of India does mandate the packaging of 100% sugar and food grains in diversified jute bags. This requirement is aimed at promoting the jute industry in the country and supporting the livelihood of jute farmers and workers.
Statement II is correct and provides the correct explanation for statement I: The Government of India enacted the Jute Packaging Materials (Compulsory Use in Packing Commodities) Act, 1987. This act makes it mandatory for specified commodities, including sugar and food grains, to be packaged in jute bags. The act was introduced to boost the jute industry, promote the use of jute packaging materials, and provide support to jute farmers and workers. Therefore, statement II explains the legal basis for the government's mandate mentioned in statement I.
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Finance Corporation
(c) New Development Bank
(d) World Bank
Answer: D
The World Bank recently committed up to $25 billion for the next five years to fund India's infrastructure creation under the Prime Minister's Gati Shakti initiative, as well as social development and climate action. This funding aims to support India's aspirations for green growth and sustainable development. The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans and grants to countries for various development projects and initiatives.
- Creation of reimagined search engines
- Health care
- Software development
- Translating a language
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3and 4
Answer: D
The correct answer is (d). Large language models can be used in all of the options listed.
Creation of reimagined search engines: Large language models can be used to improve the accuracy and relevance of search results. They can also be used to create new types of search engines that are more personalized and intuitive.
Health care: Large language models can be used to diagnose diseases, develop new treatments, and provide personalized care to patients. They can also be used to create educational resources and tools for patients and healthcare professionals.
Software development: Large language models can be used to generate code, test code, and debug code. They can also be used to create documentation and tutorials for software developers.
Translating a language: Large language models can be used to translate text from one language to another. They can also be used to generate text in different languages.
Emission Example
- Scope l emissions Emissions as a result of employee commuting, business travel and waste produced
- Scope 2 emissions Emissions as a result of purchase of electricity, steam, heating and cooling for own use
- Scope 3 emissions Emissions from fuels consumed by company vehicles, owned and leased
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: B
(a) Global Anti-Base Erosion Rules
(b) Prevention of Money Laundering
(c) Regulation of Crypto-currency
(d) Virtual Digital Asset Transactions
Answer: A
The "Quantified Domestic Minimum Top-up tax" is generally discussed in the context of Global Anti-Base Erosion Rules. These rules aim to prevent multinational corporations from reducing their taxable income by shifting profits to low-tax jurisdictions, thus eroding the tax base of higher-tax jurisdictions. The concept of a "Quantified Domestic Minimum Top-up tax" is related to ensuring that companies pay a minimum level of tax in their home jurisdiction, even if they have utilized various strategies to reduce their tax liabilities through profit shifting. This measure helps prevent tax avoidance and maintain a fair and effective global tax system.
(a) A special-purpose supercomputer with a hardware architecture dedicated to a single problem
(b) A database of the financial performance of companies that is specially designed for academia
(c) A computing machine that uses the properties of quantum physics to store data and perform computation
(d) A database in which collection and storing of data is done on user’s system and this is basically designed for a single user
Answer: B
Prowess dx is a database of the financial performance of companies in India. It is widely used in academia, particularly in the field of finance and economics, for research purposes. The database provides comprehensive financial data and key performance indicators of companies, allowing researchers to analyze and study various aspects of corporate performance, financial markets, and economic trends. Prowess dx is designed to meet the specific needs of researchers and is a valuable resource for academic studies and analysis related to the Indian corporate sector.
(a) A high standard corporate governance initiative
(b) A Long-duration Sovereign Green Bonds
(c) Concessions and tax-holidays for hi-tech start-up companies
(d) Special privileges for certain categories of Non-Banking Financial Institutions
Answer: A
A high standard corporate governance initiative
(a) Deferred revenue expenditure
(b) Revenue receipt
(c) Capital expenditure
(d) Revenue expenditure
Answer: D
Overhauling expenses of ₹25,000 for the engine of a motor car to get better fuel efficiency would be classified as revenue expenditure. Revenue expenditure refers to expenses incurred in the ordinary course of business operations to maintain and generate revenue. In this case, the expense of overhauling the car's engine is a recurring expense aimed at maintaining the car's functionality and improving its fuel efficiency. It does not result in the acquisition of a new asset or an increase in the car's lifespan.
(a) Depreciation is a non-cash expense.
(b) Depreciation is the process of valuation of assets.
(c) The main cause of depreciation is wear and tear caused by usage.
(d) Depreciation must be charged so as to ascertain true profit or loss of a business.
Answer: B
Depreciation is not the process of valuation of assets; it is the allocation of the cost of an asset over its useful life. Depreciation is an accounting concept used to spread the cost of an asset over its expected useful life, reflecting the wear and tear, obsolescence, or other factors that reduce the asset's value over time.
(a) Compensating errors
(b) Errors of commission
(c) Errors of principle
(d) Errors of omission
Answer: C
Recording a credit purchase of machinery in the Purchase Book instead of the Journal Proper indicates an error of principle. Errors of principle occur when a transaction is recorded in the wrong category or account due to a fundamental mistake in understanding or applying accounting principles. In this case, the error is made in the classification of the transaction, as machinery purchases should typically be recorded in the Machinery or Equipment account in the Journal Proper, not in the Purchase Book.
Compensating errors refer to two or more errors that offset each other, resulting in the books appearing balanced, even though there are underlying mistakes. Errors of commission involve making an error while recording a transaction, such as recording an incorrect amount or posting to the wrong account. Errors of omission occur when a transaction is completely left out or omitted from the books of accounts.
(a) Convention of consistency
(b) Money measurement concept
(c) Convention of conservatism
(d) Convention of full disclosure
Answer: D
The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liability in accounting statements is in accordance with the convention of full disclosure. This convention requires companies to provide all relevant and material information in their financial statements so that users of the statements can make informed decisions. Contingent liabilities are potential obligations that may or may not arise in the future, but their existence and potential impact need to be disclosed in the financial statements to ensure transparency and provide a complete picture of a company's financial position.
The convention of consistency refers to the need for consistency in the application of accounting principles and methods over time. The money measurement concept states that accounting should only consider items that can be measured in monetary terms. The convention of conservatism suggests that when there is uncertainty, companies should err on the side of caution and recognize potential losses or liabilities rather than potential gains. However, in the context of contingent liabilities, the convention of full disclosure is most relevant.
(a) Natural personal account
(b) Representative personal account
(c) Real account
(d) Nominal account
Answer: B
Representative personal account
(a) </-- -->
(b)
(c) <-- !-->
(d)</-- --/>
Answer: B
(a) Mail:
(B) mailto:
(c) tomail:
(d) to_mail:
Answer: B
mailto:
(a) Simple peripheral operation on-line
(b) Simple peripheral operation off-line
(c) Simultaneous peripheral operation on-line
(d) Simultaneous peripheral operation off-line
Answer: C
Simultaneous peripheral operation on-line
(a) A*b=b* A
(b) A+b=b+A
(c) A-b=b-A
(d) A*B=B*A
Answer: C
A-b=b-A
(a) Network layer
(b) Transport layer
(c) Session layer
(d) Data link layer
Answer: A
The Network layer of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model is responsible for managing the communication between computers in a network. This layer handles the routing of data packets across different networks and ensures that they reach their intended destinations. It establishes logical connections between devices, handles addressing and routing, and performs functions such as packet forwarding and network congestion control.
The Transport layer (b) is responsible for end-to-end communication between hosts, providing reliable and transparent data transfer services.
The Session layer (c) manages and synchronizes the communication sessions between applications running on different devices.
The Data link layer (d) is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between directly connected nodes over a physical link.
Therefore, the correct layer for managing communication between computers in the network is the Network layer (a).
- DNA refers to Deoxyribo nucleic Acid.
- It is located in the ribosomes.
- It is composed of Ribonucleic Acid.
- It can make a copy of itself.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 4 only
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: A
DNA refers to Deoxyribo nucleic Acid. This statement is correct. DNA is a molecule that carries the genetic instructions for the development, functioning, and reproduction of all known living organisms.
It is located in the ribosomes. This statement is incorrect. DNA is not located in the ribosomes. Ribosomes are cellular structures responsible for protein synthesis. DNA is primarily found in the cell nucleus in eukaryotic cells and in the nucleoid region in prokaryotic cells.
It is composed of Ribonucleic Acid. This statement is incorrect. DNA is composed of deoxyribonucleic acid, not ribonucleic acid. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is a different type of nucleic acid that plays various roles in protein synthesis and gene expression.
It can make a copy of itself. This statement is correct. DNA has the unique ability to replicate or make copies of itself through a process called DNA replication. This is an essential process for cell division and inheritance of genetic information.
(a) Tap root
(b) Epiphytic root
(c) Fibrous root
(d) Respiratory root
Answer: B
Velamen is a spongy tissue that is formed in epiphytic roots. Epiphytic roots are specialized roots found in epiphytic plants, which grow on other plants for physical support but do not rely on them for nutrients. These plants often grow in environments where water availability is limited, such as rainforests. The velamen tissue acts as an adaptation to enhance water absorption by the roots.
In epiphytic plants, the velamen tissue surrounds the outer layer of the roots, providing a spongy, water-absorbent layer. This tissue helps to absorb and retain moisture from the surrounding environment, allowing the plant to survive in habitats where the availability of water is intermittent or limited.
(a) Hydrogen ions cannot exist alone.
(b) All compounds containing hydrogen are acidic.
(c) Separation of H+ ions from HCI molecules cannot occur in the absence of water.
(d) Water soluble bases are known as alkalis.
Answer: B
Statement (b) is not correct. Not all compounds containing hydrogen are acidic. While many compounds containing hydrogen can exhibit acidic properties, not all of them do. There are compounds that contain hydrogen but do not exhibit acidic behavior. For example, compounds such as methane (CH4) and ethane (C2H6) contain hydrogen but are not acidic.
(a) Lithium
(b) Sodium
(c) Potassium
(d) Rubidium
Answer: D
Among the given options, rubidium (Rb) has the highest boiling point. The boiling points of the alkali metals generally increase as you move down the group in the periodic table. Rubidium is the heaviest alkali metal among the options provided, and as such, it has the highest boiling point.
The boiling points of the alkali metals are as follows:
Lithium (Li): 1,342°C
Sodium (Na): 883°C
Potassium (K): 759°C
Rubidium (Rb): 688°C
Which one of the following statements is correct in this context ?
(a) Total volume will increase and total surface area will decrease.
(b) Total volume will decrease and total surface area will increase.
(c) Total volume will remain the same and total surface area will increase.
(d) Total volume will increase and total surface area will remain the same.
Answer: C
Total volume will remain the same and total surface area will increase.
- Article 128 permits the attendance of retired judges at the sittings of the Supreme Court.
- The Chief Justice of India may at any time request anyone who has held office as a Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court,
- The Chief Justice of India may at any time with the previous consent of the President of India, request any person who has held the office of Chief Justice of a High Court to sit and act as ‘a Judge of the Supreme Court.
- The Chief Justice of India may at any time, ‘with the previous consent of the President of India, requests any person who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a). 1 and 4
(b). 1 and 3
(c). 2 and 4
(d). 4 Only
Answer: A
According to the provisions mentioned in the question, both statements 1 and 4 are correct:
Article 128 of the Indian Constitution permits the attendance of retired judges at the sittings of the Supreme Court. This means that retired judges have the option to attend and participate in the proceedings of the Supreme Court if they wish to do so.
The Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President of India, request any person who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court. This provision allows the Chief Justice of India, in consultation with the President, to call upon retired judges who have previously served in the Supreme Court to temporarily fill in as judges when required.
- There is negligence in the performance of duties.
- There is any act prejudicial to the interest of the co-operative society or its members.
- The body has failed to conduct elections in accordance with the provisions of the state Act.
- There are no Government shareholdings or loan or financial assistance or any guarantee by the Government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
According to the provisions mentioned in the question, the board of a cooperative society can be superseded or kept under suspension if the following conditions are met:
There is negligence in the performance of duties. This means that if the board members of the cooperative society fail to fulfill their responsibilities and duties, they can be superseded or suspended.
There is any act prejudicial to the interest of the cooperative society or its members. If the actions or decisions of the board members are found to be harmful or detrimental to the interests of the cooperative society or its members, the board can be superseded or suspended.
The body has failed to conduct elections in accordance with the provisions of the state Act. If the board fails to conduct elections as required by the relevant cooperative society laws or regulations, it can be superseded or suspended.
- The nodal ministry for the scheme is the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
- Funds released under the scheme are non-lapsable.
- The role of the Member of Parliament is limited to recommending works.
- The scheme is confined to the State from which the Member of Parliament is elected (Lok Sabha). However, a Member of Parliament from Rajya Sabha can recommend works anywhere in the country.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Regarding the Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme, the following statements are correct:
The nodal ministry for the scheme is the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. This ministry is responsible for overseeing and implementing the scheme.
The scheme is confined to the State from which the Member of Parliament is elected (Lok Sabha). However, a Member of Parliament from Rajya Sabha can recommend works anywhere in the country. This means that Members of Parliament from the Lok Sabha can recommend works only within their respective states, while Members of Parliament from the Rajya Sabha can recommend works across the country.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Funds released under the scheme are not non-lapsable. The funds allocated to Members of Parliament under the scheme are subject to certain time limitations and need to be utilized within a specific period. Any unutilized funds may lapse.
Statement 3 is also incorrect. The role of the Member of Parliament is not limited to recommending works. They are also involved in the implementation and monitoring of the recommended works.
- Nutrition
- Cooking fuel
- Assets
- School attendance
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1, 2 and 3only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
Answer: A
The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) is a measurement that takes into account multiple dimensions of poverty. It goes beyond income-based measures and includes various indicators related to deprivation and well-being. The dimensions covered by the MPI include:
Nutrition: It includes indicators related to child malnutrition and inadequate nutrition among adults.
Cooking fuel: It includes indicators related to the type of fuel used for cooking, with a focus on clean and safe cooking methods.
Assets: It includes indicators related to access to basic assets and amenities, such as housing quality, sanitation facilities, and access to clean water.
School attendance: It includes indicators related to children's access to education, such as school attendance and years of schooling.
(a) The appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner should be made by the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of-India and the Leader of the opposition.
(b) The members of the Election Commission should be appointed by the President of India on the advice of a Committee, consisting of the Prime Minister the Leader of the Opposition.
(c) The consultation process should have a statutory backing.
(d) The appointment of the other Election Commissioners should be made in consultation with the Chief Election Commissioner, the Chief Justice of India and the Leader of the Opposition.
Answer: D
The option (d) "The appointment of the other Election Commissioners should be made in consultation with the Chief Election Commissioner, the Chief Justice of India and the Leader of the Opposition" was not recommended by the Dinesh Goswami Committee (1990).
The Dinesh Goswami Committee made several recommendations regarding the appointment and functioning of the Election Commission of India. However, the specific recommendation mentioned in option (d) was not part of the committee's recommendations.
(a) It made the Presidency of Bengal supreme over those of Bombay and Madras in matters relating to war and peace.
(b)The tenure of the Governor-General and his Councillors was fixed as five years.
(c)The Supreme Court of Justice was established at Calcutta.
(d) The Governor-General-in-Council was authorized to appoint successors to Bombay and Madras Presidencies.
Answer: B
The Regulating Act of 1773 introduced significant changes in the administration of British India. However, the specific provision mentioned in option (b) regarding the fixed tenure of the Governor-General and his Councillors for five years was not part of the Act.
(a) It was an outcome of the Round Table Conferences.
(b) It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation.
(c) It retained the authority of secretary of State over the Government of India.
(d)It introduced the provision of Provincial Autonomy.
Answer: C
The Government of India Act of 1935 did not retain the authority of the secretary of State over the Government of India. Instead, it significantly reduced the powers of the secretary of State and introduced a system of diarchy in the provinces, granting them a greater degree of autonomy.
List I List II
(Congress Session) (President)
- Lahore Session 1909 1. Madan Mohan Malaviya
- Calcutta Session 1911 2. Raghunath Narasimha Mudholkar
- Bankipore Session, 1912 3. Dished Narayan Dar
- Madras Session, 1914 4. Bhupendra Nath Bose
Code :
A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 4 3 2 1
Answer: A
1 3 2 4
(a) V.D.Savarkar
(b) M.R.Jayakar
(c) N.C. Kelkar
(d) B.S. Moonje
Answer: D
The Bhonsala Military School at Nashik was started by B.S. Moonje.
- Founding of the Banaras Hindu University
- Formation of the Congress Nationalist Party
- Founding of the English newspaper ‘The Leader’
- Founding of the Hindu Boarding House at Allahabad
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 3-4-1-2
(b) 4-3-1-2
(c) 4-3-2-1
(d) 3-4-2-1
Answer: B
4-3-1-2
(a) Rupees fifteen thousand
(b) Rupees eighteen thousand
(c) Rupees twenty-one thousand
(d) Rupees twenty-four thousand
Answer: C
Rupees twenty-one thousand
(a) A minimum piece rate
(b) A guaranteed time rate
(c) A minimum time rate
(d) A guaranteed piece rate
Answer: D
Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, a guaranteed piece rate refers to the minimum rate of remuneration that is applied to an employee working on a piecework basis. It is designed to ensure that employees are paid at least a minimum wage when working on a piecework arrangement. The guaranteed piece rate is determined based on the time taken to complete a specific task or produce a certain quantity of work, and it ensures that the employee's earnings are not below the prescribed minimum wage.
List-I List-II
(Provision) (Legislation)
- Recovery officer 1. The Industrial Employment (standing orders) Act, 1946.
- Compulsory Insurance 2. The Minimum Wages Act, 1948
- Scheduled Employment 3.The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
- Subsistence Allowance 4. The Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 4 2 3 4
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 1 3 2 4
Answer: A
4 3 2 1
(a) Nil
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 11
Answer: B
According to the provisions of the Factories Act, an adult worker is entitled to one day of leave with wages for every 20 days of work performed in a calendar year.
In this case, the worker worked for 220 days during the year 2022 and was laid off for 25 days. Therefore, the worker effectively worked for (220 - 25) = 195 days.
To calculate the number of days of leave with wages for the calendar year 2023, we divide the total number of days worked by 20:
195 days / 20 = 9.75
Since the number of days cannot be a fraction, we round down to the nearest whole number.
Therefore, the worker would be entitled to 9 days of leave with wages during the calendar year 2023. The correct answer option is (b) 10, as it is the nearest whole number greater than or equal to 9.
(a) Seven days
(b) Ten days
(c) Fifteen days
(d) Thirty days
Answer: D
As per the provisions of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, standing orders shall come into operation after the expiry of 30 days from the date on which copies of the order of the Appellate Authority are sent to the employer and to the trade unions.
(a) Eighteen
(b) Twenty
(c) Twenty-six
(d) Thirty-four
Answer: A
As per the provisions of the Unorganised Workers' Social Security Act, 2008, the Central Government is required to nominate eighteen members to the National Social Security Board.
(a) National Family Benefit Scheme
(b) Janashree Bima Yojana
(c) Employees’ Pension Scheme
(d) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana
Answer: C
The Employees' Pension Scheme is not a Social Security Scheme under the Unorganised Workers' Social Security Act, 2008.
(a) Employees Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal
(b) National Tribunal
(c) Labour Appellate Tribunal
(d) Industrial Tribunal
Answer: A
The Appellate Authority under the Employees' Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 is the Employees Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal.
(a) Eight weeks
(b)Twelve weeks
(c) Sixteen weeks
(d) Twenty-six weeks
Answer: B
As per the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, the maximum period for which a female employee shall be entitled to leave with wages as maternity benefit for giving birth to the third child is 12 weeks.
(a) It makes provision for pension scheme including family pension.
(b) It makes provision for Employees Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme.
(c) The provisions of the Act shall not be applicable to Cooperative Societies employing fifty or more persons working without the aid of power.
(d) The contribution by the employer to the Fund shall be on the basis of the basic wage, dearness allowance and retaining allowance (if any) of the employee.
Answer: C
According to the Employees' Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, the provisions of the Act are applicable to all establishments employing 20 or more persons. There is no specific exemption for Cooperative Societies based on the number of employees or working without the aid of power.
(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 17
Answer: B
- R is shorter than P but taller than other friends.
- U is taller than Q but shorter than S although Q is not the shortest among the friends.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 alone is sufficient
(b) 2 alone is sufficient
(c) Both 1 and 2 are not sufficient
(d) 1 and 2 together are sufficient
Answer: D
From statement 1, we know that R is shorter than P and taller than the other friends. However, there is no direct comparison between S and T. Therefore, statement 1 alone is not sufficient to compare the heights of S and T.
From statement 2, we know that U is taller than Q, but shorter than S. However, it also mentions that Q is not the shortest among the friends. This implies that there is at least one friend shorter than Q, which means it could be T. Therefore, statement 2 alone is not sufficient to compare the heights of S and T.
When we combine both statements, we have additional information that R is shorter than P but taller than the other friends. Since R is taller than the other friends, including T, and S is taller than U, we can conclude that S is taller than both R and T. Therefore, when we consider both statements together, we have sufficient information to compare the heights of S and T.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) 1 and 2 together are sufficient.
(a) Adjacent to D
(b) Adjacent to A
(c) Adjacent to F
(d) Adjacent to G
Answer: A
Adjacent to D
(a) 2 days
(b) 3 days
(c) 4 days
(d) 5 days
Answer: B
To find the number of days it takes for A, B, and C to finish the job together, we can calculate their combined work rate.
Let's denote the work rate of A as 1/10 (since A can finish the job in 10 days), the work rate of B as 1/15 (since B can finish the job in 15 days), and the work rate of C as 1/6 (since C can finish the job in 6 days).
When they work together, their combined work rate is the sum of their individual work rates. So, the combined work rate is: 1/10 + 1/15 + 1/6 = (3/30) + (2/30) + (5/30) = 10/30 = 1/3
This means that A, B, and C together can complete 1/3 of the job in a single day.
To finish the entire job, which is represented by 1, they will need to work for 3 days (since 1/3 of the job is completed each day).
Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 3 days.
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 21
(d) 36
Answer: C
To find the number of ways that the number appearing on the first throw is not less than that on the second throw, we need to count the favorable outcomes.
On a fair six-sided dice, the numbers that can appear on each throw are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6.
To count the favourable outcomes, we can consider the cases where the numbers on both throws are the same and the cases where the number on the first throw is greater than the number on the second throw.
Case 1: Same number on both throws There are 6 possible outcomes where the numbers on both throws are the same: (1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5, 5), and (6, 6).
Case 2: Number on the first throw is greater than the number on the second throw For each number on the first throw, there are (6 - number) favorable outcomes where the number on the second throw is less than the number on the first throw. For example, if the number on the first throw is 2, there are (6 - 2) = 4 favourable outcomes on the second throw: (2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), and (2, 4). Similarly, for each number on the first throw, there are (6 - number) favorable outcomes on the second throw.
Summing up the favourable outcomes from both cases: 6 (same number on both throws) + (6 - 1) + (6 - 2) + (6 - 3) + (6 - 4) + (6 - 5) + (6 - 6) = 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 + 0 = 21
Therefore, the correct answer is (c) 21.
(a) TLS
(b) SSL
(c) IPsec
(d) MIME
Answer: D
MIME (Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) is not a security protocol. It is an internet standard that extends the format of email messages to support various content types, such as images, audio, and video. MIME allows email clients to exchange different types of data, but it does not provide any security features.
(a) \documentclass{article}
(b) \begin{document}
(c) \end{document}
(d) \documentstyle{article}
Answer: D
In LaTeX, the standard document class is specified using \documentclass{...}, where the most common class for articles is "article". This command is used to define the overall structure and formatting of the document.
The \begin{document} and \end{document} commands mark the beginning and end of the document content. All the text, equations, tables, and other elements of the document are written between these two commands.
The \documentstyle{article} command, on the other hand, is an outdated syntax used in older versions of LaTeX. It is no longer recommended or supported in recent LaTeX distributions. The correct syntax is \documentclass{article}.
(a) 0.8122
(b) 0.8123
(c) 0.8124
(d) 0.8125
Answer: D
0.8125
(a) Relative referencing
(b) Real-time referencing
(c) Absolute referencing
(d) Mixed referencing
Answer: B
Real-time referencing
(a) Interpreter
(b) Compiler
(c) Linker
(d) Loader
Answer: C
A linker is a software tool or program that combines multiple object modules and libraries generated by a compiler into a single executable program. The linker resolves references between different modules, resolves external symbols, and generates the final executable file that can be run on a computer system. It performs the necessary steps to create a coherent and functioning executable program by resolving dependencies and linking together the required components.
(a) 50 W
(b) 100 W
(c) 200W
(d) 400 W
Answer: D
The power dissipated in an incandescent bulb can be calculated using the formula:
P = V^2 / R
Where P is the power, V is the voltage, and R is the resistance of the bulb.
In this case, the bulb is rated as 100W at 110V. We can calculate the resistance of the bulb using Ohm's law:
R = V^2 / P
R = (110V)^2 / 100W = 121 Ω
Now, if the bulb is connected to a 220V power supply, we can calculate the power dissipated in the bulb:
P = (220V)^2 / 121 Ω = 400W
Therefore, the power dissipated in the bulb would be (d) 400W.
(a) be doubled
(b) be halved
(c) remain unchanged
(d) become zero
Answer: C
According to Ohm's Law, the current (I) flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference (V) applied across it, and inversely proportional to the resistance (R) of the conductor.
Mathematically, Ohm's Law is represented as: I = V / R
If the length of a current-carrying wire is halved while keeping the potential difference constant, the resistance of the wire remains the same. Since the resistance (R) in the equation remains unchanged, halving the length of the wire does not affect the current (I).
Therefore, the current in the wire would remain unchanged (c) for a given potential difference.
(a) blue colour salt
(b) white colour salt
(c) green colour salt
(d) brown colour salt
Answer: B
Crystals of copper sulphate pentahydrate, when heated, undergo a chemical change and lose their water of crystallization. The resulting compound is anhydrous copper sulphate, which is a white crystalline salt.
(a) Tamarind
(b) Tomato
(c) Orange
(d) Vinegar
Answer: A
Tartaric acid is found in tamarind.
(a) Melting of wax
(b) Heating of iron
(c) Dissolution of sugar in water
(d) Burning of magnesium in air
Answer: D
The burning of magnesium in air is an example of a chemical change.
(a) National Human Rights Commission
(b) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(c) National Commission for Backward Classes
(d) National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Answer: A
National Human Rights Commission
- India will reach its non-fossil energy capacity of 500 GW by 2030.
- India will meet 50% of its energy requirements from renewable energy by 2030.
Select the correct answer using the code given below;
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Both 1 and 2
- Preponderance of Tribal Population
- Compactness and reasonable size of the area
- Economic backwardness of the area
- The notification must be issued by the Governor of the concerned State
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
All the statements are true
(a) Distributive Convention of 1925
(b) Separation Convention of 1924
(c) Bifurcation of Estimates of 1924
(d) Equalising Convention of 1925
Answer: C
The separation of the Railway Budget from the General Budget was a result of the Bifurcation of Estimates of 1924.
The Bifurcation of Estimates refers to the decision taken in 1924 to present the Railway Budget separately from the General Budget. Prior to this decision, the Railway Budget and the General Budget were presented together. However, due to the growing complexity and size of the railways, it was felt that presenting the Railway Budget separately would enable better focus and management of railway finances.
- It is a natural refrigerator made primarily to “store vegetables, fruits and milk and also for cooling water.
- This standard helps BIS in fulfilling 6 out of 17 United Nations Sustainable Development Goals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Statement 1 is correct. The non-electric cooling cabinet, for which the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has developed Indian standards (IS 17693: 2022), is indeed a natural refrigerator primarily designed to store vegetables, fruits, milk, and cool water. It provides a low-tech and sustainable solution for preserving perishable items without the need for electricity.
Statement 2 is also correct. The development of this standard by BIS contributes to fulfilling 6 out of 17 United Nations Sustainable Development Goals. Although the specific goals are not mentioned, the non-electric cooling cabinet aligns with several sustainable development goals, including promoting sustainable consumption and production, ensuring access to affordable, reliable, sustainable, and modern energy, and combating climate change.
- Equal pay for equal work irrespective of sex
- Provision for suitable residential accommodation
- Provision for protective clothing
- Provision for old age benefit scheme
- Prescribed medical facilities
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: C
According to the Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1979, the contractor is required to provide certain facilities to inter-state migrant workers in connection with the work of an establishment. These facilities include:
Equal pay for equal work irrespective of sex: The Act ensures that there is no discrimination in payment based on gender, and workers are entitled to equal pay for equal work.
Provision for suitable residential accommodation: The contractor is responsible for providing suitable residential accommodation to inter-state migrant workers. This is to ensure that workers have adequate living conditions while they are employed at the establishment.
Provision for protective clothing: The contractor must provide necessary protective clothing and equipment to inter-state migrant workers to ensure their safety and well-being during work.
Provision for old age benefit scheme: The Act does not specifically mention the provision for an old age benefit scheme. Therefore, statement 4 is not correct.
Prescribed medical facilities: The contractor is required to provide prescribed medical facilities to inter-state migrant workers. This includes access to medical treatment and facilities in case of illness or injury.
(a) The Prescribed Medical Authority
(b) The Labour Court
(c) The Inspector appointed under the Act
(d) The Appropriate Government
Answer: A
Under the Child and Adolescent (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, if a dispute arises regarding the age of an adolescent employed by an employer due to the absence of any authentic document, it can be referred to the Prescribed Medical Authority for a decision.
The Prescribed Medical Authority is responsible for determining the age of the adolescent through medical examination or any other prescribed method. The authority will assess the physical appearance, bone development, and other relevant factors to ascertain the age of the individual.
Therefore, if there is a dispute regarding the age of an adolescent employee, the matter can be referred to the Prescribed Medical Authority for a decision under the Child and Adolescent (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986.
(a) Labour Commissioner of the State is the Chairman.
(b) An independent person is appointed as the Chairman.
(c) The Labour Minister of the State is the ex-officio Chairman
(d) The Chief Inspector of the State is the Chairman.
Answer: B
Under the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, the Chairman of the Site Appraisal Committee is appointed as an independent person. The Site Appraisal Committee is responsible for assessing the suitability of a site for the establishment of a factory. It evaluates various factors such as the availability of infrastructure, the potential impact on the environment, and the safety and health considerations.
To ensure impartiality and expertise in the assessment process, an independent person is appointed as the Chairman of the Site Appraisal Committee. This person is typically knowledgeable in the field of industrial safety, environmental concerns, and related aspects.
Therefore, option (b) - An independent person is appointed as the Chairman - is the correct statement regarding the appointment of the Chairman of the Site Appraisal Committee under the Factories Act, 1948.
List I List II
(Provision) (Act)
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Answer: B
3 1 4 2
(a) Statutory right
(b) Not at all permissible
(c) Can be permitted by the forum if the other party does not object or gives consent
(d) May be permitted if such permission is granted by the High Court of the State/Union Territory
Answer: A
Statutory right
