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NDA-I 2019 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS

(Part – A)

SYNONYMS

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Some people complain when they encounter a small misfortune in the course of their thoroughly happy life.

(a) run into

(b) run away

(d) run with

Answer – (a)

In this context, "encounter" is used as a synonym for "run into." It means to come across or experience something, usually by chance or unexpectedly.

This world is full of miseries.

(a) indifferent love

(b) perfect happiness

(d) moderate sympathies

Answer – (c)

"Miseries" refers to intense and prolonged suffering or hardship.

A glance at a beautiful object gives us delight.

(a) wisdom

(b) happiness

(d) peace

Answer – (b)

Delight" indicates a feeling of great pleasure and happiness upon seeing a beautiful object

It is terrible for people to die of starvation.

(a) starch

(b) staple

(d) hunger

Answer – (d)

Starvation" is the severe lack of food leading to extreme hunger

The university has constituted a grievance redressal committee to look into the matter.

(a) depression

(b) complaint

(d) gratefulness

Answer – (b)

"Grievance" refers to a formal complaint or protest

Rakesh delivered a slanderous speech.

(a) abusive

(b) praiseworthy

(d) inspiring

Answer – (a)

"Slanderous" means making false spoken statements damaging to someone's reputation

Suddenly, the sky was darkened by a gigantic bird.

(a) winged

(b) small

(d) enormous

Answer – (d)

Gigantic" indicates something of great size or magnitude

To abolish poverty would be to destroy the soil upon which mankind produces the virtues conducive to higher civilization

(a) detest

(b) eradicate

(d) assimilate

Answer – (b)

Abolish" means to completely put an end to something, similar to "eradicate"

The Arabs who are not in the cities live in the desert throughout the year, shifting from one oasis to another.

(a) sandbank

(b) mound

(d) spring

Answer – (d)

"Oasis" is a fertile spot in a desert where water is found, typically surrounded by sand

The various facets of life can be found reflected in a large city.

(a) several

(b) similar

(d) singular

Answer – (a)

Various" implies multiple or different aspects

SPOTTING ERRORS

Directions : Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Opening his letters, (a)/ reading them carefully and sending for his clerk, (b)/ he dictated answers with them. (c)/ No error. (d)

Answer – (b)

reading them carefully and sending for his clerk - The correct phrase should be "having read them carefully and sending for his clerk" to indicate that he read the letters first before calling for his clerk.

He was my school-friend, (a)/ but becoming a great man,(b) / he has grown proud enough to forget his old friends. (c)/ No error. (d)

Answer – (c)

he has grown proud enough to forget his old friends - The correct tense should be "he had grown proud enough to forget his old friends" to maintain consistency with the past tense used in the first part of the sentence.

Rabindranath Tagore, (a)/ a Nobel laureate and the author of the national anthem, (b)/ found Shantiniketan.(c)/ No error. (d)

Answer – (c)

found Shantiniketan - The correct phrase should be "founded Shantiniketan" as it refers to the action of establishing the place.

The art of printing was introduced into England (a)/ during the reign of Edward IV (b)/ by William Caxton, a native of Kent. (c) No error. (d)

Answer – (a)

the art of printing was introduced into England - The correct phrase should be "The art of printing was introduced in England" to use the appropriate preposition.

From thirty years (a) / he devoted himself to public affairs (b)/ without taking a holiday. (c) / No error.

Answer – (a)

From thirty years - The correct phrase should be "For thirty years" to indicate the duration of time.

If Ramesh will be promoted (a) / he will get (b) / a higher salary. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer – (a)

If Ramesh will be promoted - The correct phrase should be "If Ramesh is promoted" as the conditional statement does not require the future tense "will."

My brother goes (a)/ to the office (b) / five day week. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer – (c)

five day week - The correct phrase should be "five days a week" to specify the frequency of going to the office.

If you lend Mohan a pen (a) / he will lend it to someone else (b) / and never you will get it back. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer – (c)

and never you will get it back - The correct phrase should be "and you will never get it back" to maintain the correct word order.

One of most widely spread (a) / bad habits (b) / is the use of tobacco. © / No error. (d)

Answer – (b)

One of most widely spread - The correct phrase should be "One of the most widely spread" to indicate that it is among a group of widely spread habits.

A great part (a) / of Arabia (b) / is desert. (c) / No error. (d)

Answer – (a)

A great part - The correct phrase should be "A large part" to convey the intended meaning of a significant portion.

ANTONYMS

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Ramesh is a very dubious character.

(a) shady

(b) suspicious

(d) doubtful

Answer – (c)

Do not indulge in unmindful activities, please.

(a) vigilant

(b) careless

(d) fatuous

Answer – (a)

He is suffering from a curable disease.

(a) remediable

(b) treatable

(d) operable

Answer – (c)

He was born on a very auspicious day.

(a) propitious

(b) fortunate

(d) opportune

Answer – (c)

He has deeper hostility towards Mohan.

(a) animosity

(b) belligerence

(d) friendship

Answer – (d)

His life is rather monotonous.

(a) exciting

(b) dreary

(d) uneventful

Answer – (a)

Macbeth is a morally repulsive character.

(a) abominable

(b) attractive

(d) ugly

Answer – (b)

The serene beauty of Kashmir had a soothing effect on his mind.

(a) placid

(b) pleasing

(d) turbulent

Answer – (d)

Life is transient in nature.

(a) brief

(b) momentary

(d) short-lived

Answer – (c)

Sohan is a vain person.

(a) modest

(b) arrogant

(d) proud

Answer – (a)

IDIOMS AND PHRASES

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

A dark horse

(a) a black coloured horse

(b) a person who wins a race or competition although no one expected him to

(d) an ignorant person

Answer – (b)

A dark horse" is an idiom used to describe a person or competitor who unexpectedly wins a competition, race, or contest despite being less known or having lower chances of success.

A show-stopper

(a) someone who stops the show

(b) someone who organizes the show

(d) a fashionable person thing

Answer – c

"A show-stopper" refers to a performance or act that is so impressive or captivating that it stops the show, grabbing the attention of the audience.

A jack of all trades

(a) someone who has many skills

(b) a confident and not very serious young man

(d) a great businessman

Answer – c

"A jack of all trades" is an idiom used to describe a person who has a wide range of skills or abilities but may not be an expert in any specific field.

Fight tooth and nail

(a) to quarrel with someone

(b) to attack someone with a lot of force

(d) to try very hard to achieve some

Answer – (b)

Fight tooth and nail" means to fight or compete fiercely, using all available resources and not holding back any effort.

Fair and square

(a) in an honest way

(b) in a critical way

(d) in a foolish way

Answer – (a)

Fair and square" means to act or behave in an honest and just manner, without cheating or deception. It can also refer to a situation where something is done in a straightforward and equitable manner.

FILL IN THE BLANK

Directions : Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

_______ forests prevent erosion.

(a) Lean

(b) Dense

(d) Tidy

Answer – (b)

Dense forests" refer to forests with a high concentration of trees, which can effectively prevent erosion due to the interlocking root systems and dense vegetation.

Three people were arrested and an illegal arms unit was ______ by the police in a raid.

(a) revealed

(b) searched

(d) busted

Answer – (d)

The sentence indicates that the illegal arms unit was found and stopped by the police in a raid, making "busted" the most appropriate word, which means to discover and dismantle an illegal operation.

A woman got into the car and _______.

(a) drove off

(b) broke down

(d) drove in

Answer – (a)

The sentence implies that the woman entered the car and left, making "drove off" the suitable choice, meaning to depart in a vehicle.

The lecture was not very interesting. In fact I _______ in the middle of it.

(a) showed off

(b) put off

(d) plugged off

Answer – c

he sentence suggests that the lecture was not interesting enough, and the speaker fell asleep in the middle of it, making "dozed off" the correct expression for falling asleep unintentionally.

The cops ______ murder by kin.

(a) suspect

(b) afford

(d) administer

Answer – a

The sentence indicates that the police have suspicions or doubts about the involvement of relatives in the murder, making "suspect" the appropriate word, meaning to have a belief or idea about something without certainty.

ORDERING OF SENTENCES

Directions : In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and 56. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

41.

S1: We do not know what to do with our knowledge.

S6: In the course of time they may rule over us altogether.

P : For example, we are unable to manage our machines.

Q : We already find it difficult to do without machines.

R : Machines should be fed properly and waited upon attentively; otherwise they refuse to work or cause destruction.

S : Science has given us superhuman powers, which we do not use properly.

The proper sequence should be

(a) S P R O

(b) P S Q R

(d) S R P Q

Answer – a

42.

S1 : The British rule in India has brought about moral, material, cultural and spiritual ruination of this great country.

S6 : We are not to kill anybody but it is our dharma to see that the curse of this Government is blotted out.

P : I regard this rule as a curse.

Q : Sedition has become my religion.

R : Ours is a non-violent battle.

S : I am out to destroy this system of Government

The proper sequence should be

(a) S P R Q

(b) P S Q R

(d) S R P Q

Answer – b

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

43.

(P) the urban local body elections

(Q) unidentified gunmen

(R) and injured another during

(S) shot dead two workers

The proper sequence should be

(a) Q S R P

(b) P Q S R

(d) R P S Q

The proper sequence should be

Answer – a

44.

(P) both intense political and

(Q) this state has a history of

(R) of syncretic accomplishments

(S) religious contestation and

The proper sequence should be

(a) S Q P R

(b) P Q S R

(d) Q P S R

Answer – d

45.

(P) the father also

(Q) in his quest for justice

(R) by the system

(S) feels let down

The proper sequence should be

(a) S Q P R

(b) P S R O

(d) P Q R S

Answer – (b)

COMPREHENSION

Directions : In this section you have a passage. After the passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read the passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

Passage

I do not wish to suggest that because we were one nation we had no differences, but it is submitted that our leading men travelled throughout India either on foot or in bullock carts. They learned one another’s languages and there was no aloofness amongst them. What do you think could have been the intention of those farseeing ancestors of ours who stahlished Setubandha (Rameshwar) in the South, Jagannath in the East and Hardware in the North as places of pilgrimage ? You will admit they were no fools. They knew that worship of God could have been performed just as well at home. They taught us that those whose hearts were aglow with righteousness had the Ganges in their own homes. But they saw that India was one undivided land so made by nature. They, therefore argued that it must be one nation. Arguing thus, they established holy places in variou part of India and fired the people with an idea of nationality in a manner unknow in other world. And we Indians are one as no two Englishmen are. Only you and I and others who consider ourselves civilized and superior persons imagine that we are nations. It was after the advent of railways that we began to bene distinctions, and you are at liberty now to say that it is through the railways that we are beginning to abolish those distinctions. An opium-eating may argue the advantage of opium-eating from the fact that he began to understand the evil of the opium habit after having eaten it. I would ask you to consider well what I had said on the railways.

According to the author, India

(a) has never been one nation

(b) has been an aggregate of several nations

(d) became a nation after the British came

Answer – c

Why did the great sages of India establish pilgrimages in the different corners of the country?

(a) Because they wanted to push people to travel to different places

(b) Because they could observe the underlying unity of the country as made by nature

(d) Because they wanted people to be religious everywhere

Answer – b

In the passage, the author’s attitude towards the railways is

(a) critical

(b) sympathetic

(d) apathetic

Answer – a

What does the author mean when he says that “whose hearts were aglow with righteousness had the Ganges in their own homes”?

(a) One need not visit the Ganges to take holy bath

(b) The Ganges has been polluted, so one should bath at home

(d) The purity of heart is superior to observance of any ritual

Answer – d

The paragraph is written in a

(a) dialogic style

(b) prescriptive style

(d) analytical style

Answer – d

In the paragraph, the author analyzes the intentions and actions of India's ancestors in establishing holy places as places of pilgrimage throughout the country. The author evaluates the historical events and the reasoning behind these actions, highlighting the idea of India as one undivided land and one nation. The analysis is aimed at understanding the historical context and the impact of these actions on the sense of nationality among the Indian people. Therefore, the correct answer is (d) analytical style.

An Election Commissioner can be removed from office on the recommendation of

(a) The Chief Justice of India

(b) The Chief Election Commissioner

(d) The Parliament

Answer – b

Article 324 of the Indian Constitution:

The CEC cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. This provision ensures the independence and autonomy of the CEC in carrying out his duties.

The Chief Election Commissioner has a security of tenure, which means he holds his office for a fixed period of time. He can serve for six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. This provision ensures that the CEC can perform his duties without fear of premature removal.

The CEC cannot be removed from his office except in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. This ensures that the CEC can only be removed through a proper judicial process, providing further protection to his position.

The CEC is not subject to the pleasure of the President, even though he is appointed by the President. This means that the President cannot remove the CEC at his discretion, further enhancing the CEC's independence.

The service conditions of the CEC cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment. This provision ensures that the terms and conditions of the CEC's service cannot be changed to harm him while he is in office.

Which one of the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha is NOT correct?

(a) Its members are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of a State

(b) The election follows the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote

(d) It is a permanent body, but can be dissolved earlier by the President

Answer – d

The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved by the President. Unlike the Lok Sabha, which can be dissolved by the President before completing its full term, the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body that continues to exist throughout its term.

The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body, and its members are not subject to regular elections. Instead, one-third of the members retire every second year, ensuring continuity and stability in the functioning of the house.

The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies. Each state is represented in the Rajya Sabha based on its population and other factors.

The election of Rajya Sabha members is conducted using the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote (STV). This method ensures a fair representation of various political parties and groups in the house.

The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from people who have special knowledge or practical experience in the fields of art, literature, science, and social service. These nominated members add expertise and diversity to the house.

Fundamental right guaranteed under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is available only to the citizens of India ?

(a) Article 19

(b) Article 20

(d) Article 22

Answer – a

Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, 30 are available only to the Citizens of India.

Article 15 - Prohibits discrimination on the basis of race, caste, gender, sex, or place of birth. This right ensures that all Indian citizens are treated equally without any bias or prejudice.

Article 16 - Provides for reservation in public employment. This right allows the government to reserve certain positions in public services for specific groups, such as Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and Other Backward Classes (OBCs), to promote social equality and representation.

Article 19 - Ensures freedom of speech and expression. This right includes six fundamental freedoms, namely freedom of speech and expression, freedom of assembly, freedom of association, freedom of movement, freedom of residence and settlement, and freedom of profession, occupation, trade, or business.

Article 20 - Provides protection in respect of conviction of offenses. This right ensures that no person shall be punished for the same offense more than once, and no person shall be subjected to a penalty greater than what is prescribed by law.

Article 21 - Ensures the protection of life and personal liberty. This right is one of the most fundamental rights, guaranteeing every person the right to life and personal liberty, which cannot be taken away except according to the procedure established by law.

Article 22 - Provides protection against arrest and detention in certain cases. This right lays down the guidelines for safeguarding an individual's rights if arrested or detained.

Article 29-30 - Guarantees cultural and educational rights to religious and linguistic minorities. Article 29 ensures the protection of minorities' interests regarding language, script, and culture, while Article 30 grants the right to minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

The treaty of Yandabo was signed in

(a) 1826

(b) 1825

(d) 1823

Answer – a

The Anglo-Burmese Wars were a series of three wars fought between the British Empire and the Konbaung Dynasty of Burma from 1824 to 1885. The wars resulted in the British annexation of large parts of Burma, and ultimately led to the establishment of British rule over the country.

The First Anglo-Burmese War (1824-1826) was the first of the three wars. The war was fought over control of the Arakan and Tenasserim provinces of Burma. The British won the war, and the Treaty of Yandabo was signed in 1826. The treaty required Burma to cede Arakan and Tenasserim to the British, and to pay an indemnity of one million pounds sterling.

The Second Anglo-Burmese War (1852-1853) was fought over the British desire to control the trade routes in the Bay of Bengal. The British blockaded the port of Rangoon in 1852, and the Burmese responded by attacking British ships. The British responded by invading Burma, and they quickly captured Rangoon and the surrounding area. The war ended with the signing of the Treaty of Yangon in 1853. The treaty required Burma to cede Lower Burma to the British, and to open up three ports to British trade.

The Third Anglo-Burmese War (1885) was the final war in the series. The war was fought over the British desire to control all of Burma. The British invaded Burma in 1885, and they quickly captured the capital city of Mandalay. The war ended with the signing of the Treaty of Thibaw in 1886. The treaty required Burma to cede all of its territory to the British, and to accept British rule.

In the Manusmriti which form of marriage results from the “Voluntary union of a maiden and her lover”?

(a) Eighth form

(b) Fifth form

(d) Sixth form

Answer – d

Brahma marriage: This is the highest form of marriage, in which the bride is given to the groom in a Vedic ceremony. The groom is required to be a learned man and the bride is required to be a virgin.

Daiva marriage: This form of marriage is similar to Brahma marriage, but the bride is not required to be a virgin. The groom is still required to be a learned man.

Arsha marriage: This form of marriage is a gift exchange between the bride's and groom's families. The groom's family gives two cows or bulls to the bride's family, and the bride's family gives the groom a bride price.

Prajapatya marriage: This form of marriage is the simplest form of marriage. The bride and groom are simply married by a priest in a simple ceremony.

Asura marriage: This form of marriage is a purchase. The groom pays a price to the bride's family in exchange for the bride.

Gandharva marriage (sixth): This form of marriage is a love marriage. The bride and groom simply elope together and are considered married.

Rakshasa marriage: This form of marriage is a forced marriage. The groom abducts the bride and forces her to marry him.

Paishacha marriage: This form of marriage is a most heinous form of marriage. The groom kills the bride's parents and then marries the bride.

Consider the following description of the Samadhi of a former Prime Minister of India :

Central Samadhi platform comprises nine square black polished granite solid stone blocks, capped with a ‘Diya’ in the centre. The number nine holds significance and represents the navarasas, navaratras and navagrahas. Then placement of the nine-square Samadhi is in a circular lotus shaped pattern. The nine-square platform is accessed in four cardinal directions by pathways made in white composite tiles so that the floor does not get heated.

Identify the Samadhi :

(a) Shakti Sthal

(b) Shantivan

(d) Veer Bhumi

Answer – c

The passage describes the memorial named "Sadaiv Atal," which is dedicated to the late Bharat Ratna and former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.

Atal Bihari Vajpayee's birth anniversary, which falls on 25th December, is celebrated as the Day of Good Governance.

IMBEX is a joint exercise conducted regularly between Armies of India and

(a) Malaysia

(b) Maldives

(d) Myanmar

Answer – d

IMBEX is a joint bilateral army exercise conducted between India and Myanmar. The 2018-19 exercise was the second edition of this bilateral army exercise. It took place at the Chandimandir Military Station, which serves as the headquarters of the Western Command. The objective of the exercise is to train the Myanmar Army delegation on tactics, procedures, and methodologies for participating in United Nations peacekeeping missions.

India-Malaysia: The joint army exercise conducted between India and Malaysia is called "Exercise Harimau Shakti."

India-Maldives: The joint army exercise conducted between India and the Maldives is called "Ekuverin."

Who among the following was awarded The Hindu Prize in Fiction category for the year 2018?

(a) Neelum Saran Gour

(b) N Kalyan Raman

(d) Arunav Sinha

Answer – a

Fiction Category: The winner in the fiction category of The Hindu Prize 2018 is writer Neelum Saran Gour. She won the award for her novel titled "Requiem in Raga Janki."

Non-Fiction Category: The winner in the non-fiction category of The Hindu Prize 2018 is Manoranjan Byapari. He won the prize for his book "Interrogating My Chandal Life."

Who among the following was appointed as head of the seven member committee to look into revenue shortfall being faced by the states after the GST roll-out in India and suggest steps for augmenting collections ?

(a) Himanta Biswa Sharma

(b) Thomas Isaac

(d) Capt Abhimanyu

Answer – c

Committee Headed by Sushil Modi: Sushil Modi will be heading the committee to address the GST revenue shortfall faced by the states. He will lead the Group of Ministers (GoM) tasked with this responsibility.

Other Members of the GoM: The committee, besides Sushil Modi, includes other prominent members such as Punjab Finance Minister Manpreet Singh Badal, Kerala Finance Minister Thomas Isaac, Karnataka Rural Development Minister Krishna Byre Gowda, Odisha Finance Minister Shashi Bhushan Behera, Haryana Taxation Minister Capt Abhimanyu, and Goa Panchayat Minister Mauvin Godinho. The GoM is composed of representatives from different states.

The 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas, 2019 was held in

(a) New Delhi

(b) Gandhi Nagar

(d) Varanasi

Answer – d

Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated every year in India on 9th January. This day holds special significance as it commemorates the return of Mahatma Gandhi, the nation's father, from South Africa.

15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas, 2019 was held in the city of Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh. The event took place from 21st January to 23rd January 2019.

The theme was ‘Role of Indian Diaspora in Building a New India’. The theme reflects the focus of the event on the contributions and role of the Indian diaspora in the development of India.

The event was organized by the Ministry of External Affairs in association with the Uttar Pradesh government.

Which one of the following cities was named by UNESCO as World Capital of Architecture for 2020 ?

(a) Tokyo

(b) Johannesburg

(d) New Delhi

Answer – c

Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) named as World Capital of Architecture for 2020 | UNESCO.

Rio de Janeiro will be the first city to receive this title under a program launched jointly by UNESCO and the International Union of Architects (UIA) in 2018

The city of Rio de Janeiro will host the 27th edition of the World Congress of the International Union of Architects (UIA) in July 2020. This event takes place every three years and will serve as a platform for global discussions on critical challenges related to culture, cultural heritage, urban planning, and architecture.

Who among the following was named ICC’s emerging player of the year 2018?

a) Rishabh Pant

(b) Josh Hazlewood

(d) Mustafizur Rahman

Answer –a

India’s first private sector Howitzer gun-making unit is located at

(a) Jamshedpur

(b) Kolkata

(d) Gwalior

Answer – c

On the 19th of January, Prime Minister Narendra Modi officially opened India's inaugural Armoured Systems Complex (ASC) in Hazira, Surat, Gujarat. The complex was constructed by Larsen & Toubro (L&T), a private company, and will serve as the manufacturing site for K9 Vajra self-propelled Howitzer guns. This marks a significant milestone as it is the first private facility in India dedicated to producing these advanced weapons.

Which of the following pairs of old names and new names of islands in India is/are correctly matched ?

Ross Island : Shaheed Dweep
Neil Island : Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose Dweep
Havelock : Swaraj Dweep Island

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Answer – d

Prime Minister Narendra Modi made a special announcement to honor Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose by renaming three islands in the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago.

Ross Island has been renamed as Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose Dweep.

Neil Island will now be known as Shaheed Dweep. Neil Island is one of India's islands located in the Bay of Bengal.

Havelock Island has been renamed as Swaraj Dweep. Havelock Island is part of Ritchie's archipelago in the Andaman Islands of India.

Who among the following was posthumously conferred with the Ashoka Chakra, India’s highest peacetime gallantry award, in 2019?

(a) Jyoti Prakash Nirala

(b) Nazir Ahmad Wani

(d) Mohan Nath Goswami

Answer – b

In 2019, Lance Naik Nazir Ahmad Wani was posthumously conferred with the Ashoka Chakra, India's highest peacetime gallantry award, for his exceptional bravery and sacrifice during counter-terrorism operations in Jammu and Kashmir.

As per the code of the nomenclature, which one of the following is the correct way of writing a biological name?

(a) Amoeba Proteus

(b) Amoeba proteus

(d) Amoeba Proteus

Answer – b

As per the code of nomenclature for biological names (International Code of Nomenclature for algae, fungi, and plants, and International Code of Zoological Nomenclature), the correct way of writing a biological name is to capitalize the genus name (first word) and use lowercase for the species name (second word). The genus name should always be capitalized, while the species name should be in lowercase. Additionally, both names should be italicized or underlined when written in print to indicate that they are scientific names. In this case, "Amoeba" is the genus name, and "proteus" is the species name, so the correct way to write the biological name is "Amoeba proteus."

Which one of the following state ments regarding Electrocardiogram is correct?

(a) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of electrical activity of cornea

(b) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of activity of kidney

(d) Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of electrical activity of heart

Answer – d

An Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) is a non-invasive test that records the electrical activity of the heart over a period of time. It is commonly used to detect and diagnose various heart conditions, such as arrhythmias, heart attacks, and abnormal heart rhythms. The ECG shows the electrical impulses that cause the heart to contract and pump blood. By analyzing the ECG waveform, doctors can gain valuable insights into the heart's health and functioning

Which one of the following statements regarding Penicillin is correct ?

(a) Penicillin resistant bacteria can store this antibiotic in vacuole

(b) Penicillin resistant bacteria can degrade this antibiotic by an enzyme called β-lactamase

(d) Penicillin is not absorbed by bacteria; so most bacteria are resistant

Answer – b

Penicillin is a β-lactam antibiotic, which means that it works by binding to and inhibiting the action of an enzyme called penicillin-binding protein. This enzyme is essential for the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall, so by inhibiting its action, penicillin can kill bacteria.

However, some bacteria have evolved to produce an enzyme called β-lactamase, which can degrade penicillin. This enzyme cuts the β-lactam ring of penicillin, rendering it inactive.

As a result, penicillin resistant bacteria can degrade penicillin and are therefore not affected by it.

Which one of the following organelles of mammalian cell is rich in hydrolytic enzymes?

(a) Mitochondria

(b) Ribosomes

(d) Nucleus

Answer – c

Lysosomes are the organelles of mammalian cells that are rich in hydrolytic enzymes.

Lysosomes are small, membrane-bound sacs that contain a variety of enzymes that can break down large molecules into smaller molecules. These enzymes are called hydrolytic enzymes because they use water to break down the molecules.

Lysosomes are responsible for a variety of functions in the cell, including:

Digesting food particles

Breaking down old organelles

Killing foreign invaders

Recycling cellular waste

Which one of the following statements regarding Cholera is correct ?

(a) Cholera is a disease that causes loss of memory

(b) Cholera is a disease of muscles due to consumption of alcohol

(d) Cholera is a genetic disease

Answer– c

Cholera is a disease due to the consumption of contaminated food or water.

Cholera is an acute diarrheal illness caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. The bacterium produces a toxin that causes the body to lose fluids and electrolytes. This can lead to severe dehydration and death, especially in children.

Cholera is spread through the ingestion of contaminated food or water. The bacterium can live in contaminated water for several weeks, and it can also be found in raw shellfish.

Two metallic wires A and B are made using copper. The radius of wire A is r while its length is l. A dc voltage V is applied across the wire A, causing power dissipation, P. The radius of wire B is 2r and its length is 2l and the same dc voltage V is applied across it causing power dissipation P1. Which one of the following is the correct relationship between P and P1 ?

(a) P = 2P1

(b) P = P1/2

(d) P = P1

Answer – b

The power dissipated in a wire is given by the equation:

P = V^2 / R

where V is the voltage applied across the wire, and R is the resistance of the wire.

The resistance of a wire is given by the equation:

R = ρl / A

where ρ is the resistivity of the material of the wire, l is the length of the wire, and A is the cross-sectional area of the wire.

The cross-sectional area of the wire is given by the equation:

A = πr^2

where r is the radius of the wire.

In wire A, the radius is r and the length is l. So the resistance is:

R_A = ρl / πr^2

In wire B, the radius is 2r and the length is 2l. So the resistance is:

R_B = ρ(2l) / π(2r)^2 = ρl / πr^2 = R_A

Since the resistance of wire A is the same as the resistance of wire B, the power dissipated in wire A is half the power dissipated in wire B. So P = P1/2.

Consider the following statements about a solenoid :

The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends upon the number of turns per unit length in the solenoid
The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends upon the current flowing in the wire of the solenoid
The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends upon the diameter of the solenoid

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer – d

The magnetic field strength of a solenoid can be calculated using the following equation:

B = μ0nI

where:

B is the magnetic field strength

μ0 is the permeability of free space

n is the number of turns per unit length

I is the current flowing in the wire

The permeability of free space is a constant value, so the magnetic field strength depends on the number of turns per unit length and the current flowing in the wire.

The diameter of the solenoid does not affect the magnetic field strength because the magnetic field is confined to the interior of the solenoid. The diameter of the solenoid only affects the cross-sectional area of the solenoid, which does not affect the magnetic field strength.

Light year is a unit of measurement of

(a) very large distances

(b) time interval in years

(d) mass of atoms

Answer – a

A light year is the distance that light travels in a vacuum in one Julian year. One light year is equal to approximately 9.5 trillion kilometers (6 trillion miles).

Light years are used to measure the distances between stars and galaxies. For example, the nearest star to Earth, Proxima Centauri, is 4.2 light years away. The Andromeda Galaxy is 2.5 million light years away.

The focal length of the objective lens of a telescope is 50 cm. If the magnification of the telescope is 25, then the focal length of the eye-piece is

(a) 12.5 cm

(b) 5 cm

(d) 10 cm

Answer – c

The focal length of the eyepiece of a telescope is 2 cm.

The magnification of a telescope is given by the formula:

m = fo / fe

where:

m is the magnification

fo is the focal length of the objective lens

fe is the focal length of the eyepiece

In this case, we are given that m = 25 and fo = 50 cm. Solving for fe, we get:

fe = fo / m = 50 cm / 25 = 2 cm

Which one of the following forces is non-central and non-conservative ?

(a) Frictional force

(b) Electric force

(d) Mechanical force

Answer – b

Frictional force is a non-central and non-conservative force.

A central force is a force that acts along the line joining the centers of two interacting objects. A conservative force is a force whose work done in moving a particle between two points is independent of the path taken.

Frictional force is a force that opposes the relative motion of two surfaces in contact. It is not a central force because it does not act along the line joining the centers of the two surfaces. It is also not a conservative force because the work done by frictional force depends on the path taken.

The other forces listed are central and conservative forces.

Electric force is a central force because it acts along the line joining the centers of two charged particles. Gravitational force is also a central force because it acts along the line joining the centers of two massive objects. Mechanical force is a general term that encompasses all forces that act on objects, including central and non-central forces.

On exposure to moist air, copper gains a green coat on its surface due to formation of which one of the following compounds ?

(a) Copper carbonate

(b) Copper oxide

(d) Copper nitrate

Answer – a

When copper is exposed to moist air, it reacts with carbon dioxide and water to form a green coating of copper carbonate. The chemical reaction is:

2Cu + CO2 + H2O → CuCO3 + Cu(OH)2

Copper carbonate is a green compound that is insoluble in water. It is the main constituent of the green patina that forms on copper objects over time.

Which one of the following will NOT produce carbon dioxide on reacting with an aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid ?

(a) Limestone

(b) Quick Lime

(d) Marble

Answer – b

Quick lime is calcium oxide. When it reacts with an aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid, it produces calcium chloride and water, but no carbon dioxide.

The reaction is as follows:

CaO + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O

This is because quick lime is already a very reactive substance and does not need to be converted into carbon dioxide in order to react with the acid.

Therefore, quick lime is the only one of the options that will not produce carbon dioxide on reacting with an aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid.

Which one of the following substances is NOT a mixture ?

(a) Ice

(b) Ice-cream

(d) Honey

Answer – d

Ice is a pure substance. It is made up of water molecules that are arranged in a regular crystalline structure.

The other options are mixtures. Ice cream is a mixture of milk, cream, sugar, and flavorings. Air is a mixture of gases, including nitrogen, oxygen, and carbon dioxide. Honey is a mixture of honeydew and nectar from flowers.

Which one of the following is an example of Salt-Crystal growth?

(a) Chemical weathering

(b) Physical weathering

(d) Bio-chemical weathering

Answer – b

alt-crystal growth is a type of physical weathering that occurs when water evaporates from cracks in rocks, leaving behind salt crystals. The salt crystals can grow and expand, putting pressure on the rock and eventually causing it to break apart.

This type of weathering is common in arid regions, where there is a lot of evaporation. It can also occur in areas with high levels of salt in the water, such as coastal areas.

The other options are incorrect. Chemical weathering occurs when rocks are broken down by chemical reactions. Biological weathering occurs when rocks are broken down by living organisms. Bio-chemical weathering occurs when rocks are broken down by a combination of chemical reactions and biological activity.

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of proved coal reserves in the Indian States in decreasing order?

(a) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, West Bengal

(b) Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal

(d) Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Jharkhand

Answer – a

Here is the state-wise distribution of coal reserves in India according to the Ministry of Coal:

Jharkhand - 83,152 million tonnes

Odisha - 79,295 million tonnes

Chhattisgarh - 57,206 million tonnes

West Bengal - 31,667 million tonnes

Madhya Pradesh - 27,987 million tonnes

Telangana - 21,702 million tonnes

Consider the following statements relating to Richter scale :

It was devised in 1935 by Charles F. Richter
It describes the quantity of energy released by a single earthquake
Richter Scale has no upper limit

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – d

The Richter Scale is used to measure the magnitude of an earthquake. It was developed by Charles F. Richter in 1935.

The scale is designed to describe the quantity of energy released by a single earthquake.

Theoretically, the Richter Scale has no upper limit, which means it can measure the magnitude of earthquakes of any size.However, in practice, no earthquake has been recorded with a magnitude higher than 8.6 on the Richter Scale.

Which one of the following ocean currents is NOT a cold ocean current ?

(a) Canary current

(b) California current

(d) Oyashio current

Answer – c

Kuroshio Current: It is a warm current, also known as the Pacific/Japan Current, flowing in a northeasterly direction off the coast of Japan. It carries warm water from the subtropical region, influencing the climate of the coastal areas it passes through.

Canary Current: This is a cold current that is a part of the North Atlantic Gyre. It flows along the margin of West Africa, Portugal, and Spain, carrying cold water from higher latitudes. It plays a significant role in the marine ecosystems of the regions it affects.

California Current: It is a cold current in the Pacific Ocean that flows southwards along the United States coast. This current is responsible for the cool and temperate climate along the west coast of the United States.

Oyashio Current: This is a cold current that collides with the Kuroshio Current off the eastern shore of Japan. The collision creates an ideal location for fishing due to the nutrient-rich waters and the presence of various marine species.

What is the time gap in occurrence of two successive tides at a given place on the ocean surface ?

(a) 12 hours

(b) 12 hours 26 minutes

(d) 24 hours 52 minutes

Answer – b

The time it takes for two successive high tides or two successive low tides to occur is about 12 hours and 26 minutes. This is because the Earth rotates on its axis once every 24 hours. The tidal bulges are slightly ahead of the Earth's rotation, so it takes about 24 hours and 50 minutes for two successive high tides or two successive low tides to occur.

Tooth enamel is made up of which one of the following calcium compounds ?

(a) Calcium carbonate

(b) Calcium sulphate

(d) Calcium phosphate

Answer – d

Tooth enamel is the hardest substance in the body. It is made up of about 96% calcium phosphate, which is a very strong and durable compound.

Suppose there are two planets, 1 and 2, having the same density but their radii are R1 and R2 respectively, where R1 > R2 . The accelerations due to gravity on the surface of these planets are related as

(a) g1 > g2

(b) g1 < g2

(d) Can’t say anything

Answer – a

The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a planet is given by the formula:

g = G * M / R^2

where:

g is the acceleration due to gravity

G is the gravitational constant

M is the mass of the planet

R is the radius of the planet

In this case, we are given that the two planets have the same density but different radii. The density of a planet is defined as the mass of the planet divided by the volume of the planet.

Since the density is the same for both planets, the mass of the planets is also the same.

However, the radius of planet 1 is greater than the radius of planet 2. This means that the surface area of planet 1 is greater than the surface area of planet 2.

The acceleration due to gravity is inversely proportional to the square of the radius. So, the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet 1 is greater than the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet 2.

Which one of the following cell organelles does NOT possess nucleic acid ?

(a) Nucleolus

(b) Chloroplast

(d) Plasma Membrane

Answer – d

The plasma membrane is a phospholipid bilayer that surrounds the cell. It is not bound by DNA or RNA. The plasma membrane is responsible for maintaining the cell's shape, controlling the movement of substances into and out of the cell, and protecting the cell from its environment.

Nucleolus, Chloroplast, and Ribosomes contain nucleic acids.

Nucleolus: Nucleolus is a small, dense structure found in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. It is not bound by a membrane and contains DNA and RNA. The nucleolus is responsible for the production of ribosomes.

Chloroplast: Chloroplast is a membrane-bound organelle found in plant cells. It contains chlorophyll, which is responsible for photosynthesis. Chloroplasts also contain DNA and RNA.

Ribosomes: Ribosomes are small, spherical organelles found in the cytoplasm of cells. They are made up of RNA and protein and are responsible for protein synthesis.

Which one of the following cell organelles does NOT possess its own genetic material encoding proteins?

(a) Ribosome

(b) Nucleus

(d) Chloroplast

Answer – a

The nucleus is the control center of the cell and contains the DNA, which is the genetic material of the cell.

Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA, which is separate from the DNA in the nucleus. This DNA is used to make proteins that are specific to these organelles.

Ribosomes do not have their own DNA. They are made up of RNA and protein, and the RNA is made in the nucleus. The ribosomes then move out of the nucleus and into the cytoplasm, where they make proteins.

Which one of the following is NOT a component of conducting tissue in plants?

(a) Fibres

(b) Tracheids

(d) Sieve tubes

Answer – c

Pericycle is a layer of cells that lies just inside the endodermis in the roots of plants. It is a cylinder of thin-walled, parenchymatous cells that can differentiate into secondary tissues such as sclerenchyma and xylem.

The pericycle is responsible for the following functions:

The pericycle protects the vascular bundles from mechanical damage.

The pericycle gives rise to lateral roots.

The pericycle can differentiate into secondary tissues such as sclerenchyma and xylem.

The pericycle is not a component of conducting tissue, but it is an important part of the root system.

Conducting tissue in plants is made up of two types of cells: tracheids and sieve tubes.

Tracheids are long, narrow cells that are dead at maturity. They have thick cell walls that are perforated with pits. Tracheids transport water and minerals from the roots to the leaves.

Sieve tubes are long, tube-like cells that are alive at maturity. They have thin cell walls and contain sieve plates, which are perforated areas that allow the passage of substances between cells. Sieve tubes transport sugars and other organic substances from the leaves to the other parts of the plant.

Which one of the following organisms has vascular tissues ?

(a) Cladophora

(b) Penicillium

(d) Anabaena

Answer – c

Vascular tissues are tissues that transport water and nutrients throughout the plant. Vascular tissues are found in plants and some algae.

Marsilea is a genus of aquatic ferns that have vascular tissues. These plants have three leaflets arranged in a clover-like pattern. They are found in freshwater habitats, such as lakes, ponds, and streams.

Cladophora is a type of green algae that does not have vascular tissues.

Penicillium is a fungus that does not have vascular tissues.

Anabaena is a type of blue-green algae that does not have vascular tissues.

Which one of the following organisms represents the primary consumer category in an ecosystem?

(a) Caterpillar

(b) Crabapple tree

(d) Sparrowhawk

Answer – a

Primary consumers are organisms that consume only plants or other photosynthetic organisms.

Caterpillar: Caterpillars are the larval form of moths and butterflies. They are herbivores, which means they eat plants. Caterpillars are primary consumers in many ecosystems.

Crabapple tree: Crabapple trees are plants. They are not primary consumers.

Frog: Frogs are omnivores, which means they eat both plants and animals. Frogs are not primary consumers in most ecosystems.

Sparrowhawk: Sparrowhawks are carnivores, which means they eat only animals.

Sparrowhawks are not primary consumers in any ecosystem.

In a food chain, primary consumers are always at the second trophic level. They are eaten by secondary consumers, which are carnivores that eat herbivores. Secondary consumers are at the third trophic level, and so on.

Spring tides refer to

(a) greatest difference in the sea level at high and low tides

(b) lowest difference in the sea level at high and low tides

(d) counteraction of gravitational pull of the Sun to that of Moon

Answer – b

Spring Tide: It occurs when the Earth, Moon, and Sun are all in a straight line. This tide happens during the full moon and new moon phases of each lunar month. During the spring tide, the gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun combine, causing the highest high tides and the lowest low tides. As a result, the difference between high tide and low tide is the greatest during spring tides.

Neap Tide: It occurs when the Earth, Moon, and Sun form a right angle with each other. This tide takes place during the first and last quarter phases of the Moon. During neap tides, the gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun partially cancel each other out, resulting in the least difference between high tide and low tide. As a result, the neap tides have the lowest high tides and the highest low tides.

Which one of the following energy is stored in the links between the atoms?

(a) Nuclear energy

(b) Chemical energy

(d) Thermal energy

Answer – c

Chemical energy is the energy that is stored in the bonds between atoms. When these bonds are broken, the energy is released. This energy can be used to do work, such as powering a car or generating electricity.

Nuclear energy is the energy that is stored in the nucleus of an atom. When the nucleus of an atom is split, a large amount of energy is released. This energy can be used to power nuclear power plants.

Potential energy is the energy that an object has due to its position or condition. For example, a rock held up in the air has potential energy because it could fall and hit the ground. When the rock falls, the potential energy is converted into kinetic energy.

Thermal energy is the energy that is associated with the motion of atoms and molecules. When the atoms and molecules of a substance move faster, the substance has more thermal energy. For example, a hot cup of coffee has more thermal energy than a cold cup of coffee.

The light energy escaping from the Sun can be spread by

(a) a shower of rain drops

(b) a plane mirror

(d) a combination of a convex lens and a concave lens

Answer – a

When sunlight hits raindrops, it is refracted and dispersed. This means that the light is bent and spread out into different colors. This is why we see a rainbow after a rain shower.

The correct sequence of energy transfer that occurs when an apple falls to the ground is

(a) Gravitational potential energy → heat energy to air → kinetic energy → heat energy to ground and apple → sound energy

(b) Gravitational potential energy → sound energy → kinetic energy → heat energy to air → heat energy to ground and apple

(c) Gravitational potential energy → kinetic energy → sound energy → heat energy to air → heat energy to ground and apple

(d) Gravitational potential energy → kinetic energy → sound energy → heat energy to air → heat energy to ground and apple

Answer – a

According to the law of conservation of energy, energy can neither be created nor destroyed, it can only be converted from one form to another.

When an apple falls from a tree, it has gravitational potential energy due to its height. As the apple falls, the gravitational potential energy is converted into kinetic energy. The kinetic energy of the apple causes it to accelerate and move faster and faster.

As the apple falls, it collides with air molecules. This collision causes the apple to slow down and the kinetic energy to be converted into heat energy. The heat energy is distributed among the apple, the air molecules, and the ground.

When the apple hits the ground, the kinetic energy is converted into sound energy and heat energy. The sound energy is the noise that we hear when the apple hits the ground. The heat energy is distributed among the apple, the ground, and the air molecules.

In summary, the energy transfer when an apple falls to the ground is as follows:

Gravitational potential energy → kinetic energy → heat energy to air → heat energy to ground and apple → sound energy.

Which one of the following minerals is used as a fuel in nuclear power stations?

(a) Bauxite

(b) Quartz

(d) Pitchblende

Answer – d

Pitchblende is a uranium-bearing mineral. Uranium is a radioactive element that can be used to generate heat in a nuclear reactor. The heat from the nuclear reactor is then used to generate electricity.

Bauxite is an aluminum ore. Quartz is a silicon dioxide mineral. Feldspar is a group of minerals that are made up of aluminum, silicon, oxygen, and other elements.

Which one of the following is NOT a synthetic detergent ?

(a) CH3(CH2)10CH2O SO3– Na+

(b) [CH3(CH2)15-N-(CH3)3]+ Br–

(d) CH3(CH2)16 COO(CH2CH2O)n CH2CH2OH

Answer – b

Hexa Ethyl Trimethylammonium bromide is a cationic surfactant.

Cationic surfactants are a type of synthetic detergent that has a positively charged head group and a negatively charged tail group. The head group is attracted to water, while the tail group is attracted to oil. This makes cationic surfactants good at cleaning surfaces that are oily or greasy.

Hexadecyltrimethylammonium bromide is a cationic surfactant that is commonly used in personal care products, such as shampoos and conditioners. It is also used in industrial cleaners and in water treatment.

Here is the structure of hexadecyltrimethylammonium bromide:

[CH3(CH2)15-N+-(CH3)3]Br-

Which one of the following is an example of a clean fuel ?

(a) Coke

(b) Propane

(d) Wax

Answer – d

A clean fuel is a fuel that produces fewer harmful emissions than traditional fuels. Propane is a clean fuel because it produces fewer pollutants than gasoline or diesel fuel. Propane also produces less greenhouse gases than coal or natural gas.

Coke is a solid carbonaceous material produced from coal or oil refining processes. When coke is burned, it can release particulate matter (unburnt particles) and other pollutants, which can contribute to air pollution and respiratory issues if not properly controlled.

Wax is not typically used as a fuel but can be derived from petroleum refining. When burned, wax can release pollutants similar to other hydrocarbon-based fuels.

Which one of the following metals does NOT react with cold water ?

(a) Calcium (Ca)

(b) Potassium (K)

(d) Sodium (Na)

Answer – c

The metal that does not react with cold water is (c) Magnesium (Mg).

The reactivity of metals with water decreases as you go down the periodic table. The most reactive metals, such as lithium, sodium, and potassium, react violently with cold water to produce hydrogen gas. Magnesium is less reactive than these metals and does not react with cold water.

In which of the following pairs are the ions isoelectronic ?

(a) Mg2+, Ar

(b) Na+, O2-

(d) K+, Ne

Answer – b

Isoelectronic refers to two ions or molecules that share identical electronic structures and possess the same number of valence electrons.

Na+ ion's electronic configuration is 2,8, and O- ion's electronic configuration is 2,7.

The electronic configuration of O2– ion is 2,8.

Therefore, Na+, O2- are cosidered isoelectronic.

Which one of the following is used as a binder in paints ?

(a) Titanium dioxide

(b) Novolac

(d) Silicones

Answer – d

Silicones are a versatile class of polymers with a wide range of properties. They are used in a variety of applications, including paints, sealants, adhesives, lubricants, and elastomers.

Here are some of the key properties of silicones:

Low thermal conductivity: Silicones have a low thermal conductivity, which means that they are good insulators. This makes them ideal for use in applications where heat transfer needs to be minimized, such as in cookware and electrical insulation.

Low chemical reactivity: Silicones are chemically inert, which means that they are not easily corroded or reacted with other chemicals. This makes them ideal for use in applications where exposure to harsh chemicals is a concern, such as in food processing and industrial manufacturing.

Water repellency: Silicones are water-repellent, which means that they do not absorb water. This makes them ideal for use in applications where water resistance is required, such as in sealants and adhesives.

Ozone and UV resistance: Silicones are resistant to ozone and UV light, which means that they can be used outdoors without being degraded. This makes them ideal for use in applications such as roofing and window caulking.

Electrical insulation: Silicones are good electrical insulators, which means that they can be used to protect electrical components from short circuits and other electrical hazards. This makes them ideal for use in applications such as high-voltage cables and electronic devices.

Gas permeability: Silicones are permeable to gases, which means that they can be used to create gas seals. This makes them ideal for use in applications such as valves and gaskets.

High thermal stability: Silicones have a high thermal stability, which means that they can be used in applications where they will be exposed to high temperatures. This makes them ideal for use in applications such as cooking utensils and engine gaskets.

Solvent resistance: Silicones are resistant to many organic solvents, which makes them ideal for use in applications where exposure to solvents is a concern. This makes them ideal for use in applications such as paints and adhesives.

The Sun is seen little before it rises and for a short while after it sets. This is because of

(a) total internal reflection

(b) atmospheric refraction

(d) dispersion

Answer – d

The sun is seen little before it rises and for a short while after it sets because of atmospheric refraction. When sunlight passes through the atmosphere, it is bent by the different layers of air. This bending of light is called refraction.

The closer the sun is to the horizon, the more the light is refracted. This is because the atmosphere is denser closer to the Earth's surface. As a result, the sun appears to be higher in the sky than it actually is.

This is why we can see the sun for a few minutes before it actually rises and for a few minutes after it actually sets.

102.

The figure shown above gives the time (t) versus position (x) graphs of three objects A, B and C. Which one of the following is the correct relation between their speeds VA , VB and VC, respectively at any instant (t > 0) ?

(a) VA < VB < VC

(b) VA > VB > VC

(d) VA = VB = VC = 0

Answer – b

Velocity is defined as the rate of change of displacement of an object over time. It is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude and direction.

From the graph, we can observe that the steeper the distance vs. time graph, the faster the displacement of the particle would be. Thus, Object A will have the highest speed compared to B and C.

The general graph represents the motion of a body traveling at a constant velocity, as shown by the linear relationship between distance and time.

Using the linear equation y = mx, where m is a constant and x is a variable, we can represent the graph as Time = slope × displacement.

Hence, the slope (m) of the graph is equal to 1/velocity (v).

This implies that the shallower the slope, the higher the velocity, and the steeper the slope, the lower the velocity.

Therefore, the sequence of velocities will be VA > VB > VC based on their respective graph slopes.

1 dyne (a unit of force in CGS system), equals to

(a) 10^3 g cm/s^2

(b) 10^(-3) g cm/s^2

(d) 10^(-5) kg m/s^2

Answer – d

Both dyne and newton are units of force used in different systems of measurement. In the CGS (Centimeter-Gram-Second) system, force is measured in dynes, while in the SI (International System of Units) system, force is measured in newtons.

1 dyne = 1 gm-cm/s^2

1 newton = 1 kg-m/s^2

1 kg = 1000 gm

1 m = 100 cm

1 kg-m/s^2 = 1000 gm × 100 cm/s^2

1 kg-m/s^2 = 10^5 gm-cm/s^2 = 10^5 dynes

Therefore, 1 dyne = 10^-5 kg-m/s^2 = 10^-5 newtons

In the given velocity (V) versus time (t) graph, accelerated and decelerated motions are respectively represented by line segments

(a) CD and BC

(b) BC and AB

(d) AB and CD

Answer – c

The graph presents three different scenarios of motion:

When an object is moving with a constant velocity, it exhibits no acceleration. This is represented by a straight line on the graph, as seen between points B and C.

If the graph shows an ascending or increasing slope, it indicates that the object is accelerating. This is evident between points C and D.

Conversely, a descending or decreasing slope on the graph implies that the object is decelerating (undergoing negative acceleration). This is observed between points A and B.

Which one of the following statements regarding a thermos flask is NOT correct?

(a) The walls of flask are separated by vacuum and made of glass which is a poor conductor of heat

(b) The glass walls themselves have shiny surfaces

(c) The surface of the inner wall radiates a good amount of heat and the surface of the outer wall absorbs some of the heat that is radiated from the inner wall.

(d) The cork supports conductors of heat are poor

Answer – c

The surface of the inner wall of a thermos flask does not radiate a good amount of heat. Instead, it reflects most of the heat back into the flask. This is because the inner wall is made of shiny metal, which is a good reflector of heat.

The other statements are all correct.

‘Black hole’ is a

(a) huge black star which has zero acceleration due to gravity on its surface

(b) star which has moderate acceleration due to gravity on its surface

(d) star which has collapsed into itself and has zero acceleration due to gravity on its surface

Answer – c

A black hole is a star that has collapsed in on itself and has such a strong gravitational field that nothing, not even light, can escape. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a black hole is infinite.

The formula for conversion between Fahrenheit and Celsius is °F = X + (1.8 x °C)

What is factor X?

(a) 32

(b) 22

(d) 42

Answer – a

The factor X in the formula for conversion between Fahrenheit and Celsius is 32.

The formula for converting Fahrenheit to Celsius is: °C = (°F - 32) / 1.8

When a beam of white light passes through a glass prism, the colour of light beam that deviates the least is

(a) Blue

(b) Red

(d) Violet

Answer –b

The color of light beam that deviates the least when a beam of white light passes through a glass prism is red.

The reason for this is that red light has the longest wavelength of visible light, and the wavelength of light is inversely proportional to the amount of refraction. So, the longer the wavelength of light, the less it will be refracted by the prism.

LIGO stands for

(a) Laser Interferometer Gravitational wave Observatory

(b) Light Interferometer Gravitational wave Observatory

(d) Laser Induced Gaseous Optics

Answer – a

LIGO stands for Laser Interferometer Gravitational Wave Observatory.

LIGO is a large-scale physics experiment and observatory designed to detect cosmic gravitational waves and to develop gravitational-wave observations as an astronomical tool.

A fuse wire must be

(a) conducting and of low melting point

(b) conducting and of high melting point

(d) insulator and of low melting point

Answer –a

A fuse wire must be conducting and of low melting point.

A fuse is a safety device that is used to protect electrical circuits from damage. When the current in a circuit exceeds a certain value, the fuse wire melts and breaks the circuit. This prevents the current from flowing through the circuit and causing damage.

The fuse wire must be conducting so that it can carry current. However, it must also have a low melting point so that it will melt and break the circuit when the current exceeds a certain value.

If the fuse wire had a high melting point, it would not melt and break the circuit when the current exceeded a certain value. This could lead to damage to the electrical circuit.

Kamarajar Port was commissioned in 2001 to handle thermal coal requirements. It is situated along the coast of which Indian State ?

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Odisha

(d) Karnataka

Answer – c

India has a significant coastline with a total of 12 major ports and approximately 200 minor or non-major ports.

The major ports on the Eastern Coast are Kolkata (currently known as Shyamaprasad Mukerji Port), Paradip, Visakhapatnam, Kamarajar (Ennore, Tamil Nadu), Chennai, and V.O. Chidamananar (Tuticorin).

On the Western Coast, there are 6 major ports, which include Cochin, New Mangalore, Mormugao, Mumbai, Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Sheva, Navi Mumbai), and Deendayal (formerly known as Kandla).

The major ports are under the direct administrative control of the Central Government, falling under the Union List.

On the other hand, minor ports fall under the jurisdiction of the respective state governments and are part of the Concurrent List.

Which one of the following Union Territories of India is the smallest in terms of geographical area?

(a) Daman and Diu

(b) Chandigarh

(d) Lakshadweep

Answer –d

Lakshadweep, a Union Territory, boasts the smallest geographical area among all with just

32 sq km spread across an archipelago comprising 36 islands. Its capital is Kavaratti.

Daman and Diu have a total area of 112 sq km, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli cover an area of 491 sq km.

On the other hand, Chandigarh stands as the Union Territory with the largest geographical area, covering 125,191 sq km.

Which one of the following can be said to be essentially related to “Polar Front Theory’?

(a) Anticyclone

(b) Tropical Cyclone

(d) Inter Tropical Convergence

Answer – c

Temperate cyclones are low-pressure systems that form at mid and high latitudes.

These cyclones are associated with fronts, which are boundaries between different air masses.

Temperate cyclones are formed across the polar front, which is the boundary between cold polar air and warm tropical air.

Anticyclones are high-pressure systems that are formed from air masses.

Inter Tropical Convergence is the zone of convergence of trade winds between the North and South Hemispheres.

Brahmaputra and Indus rivers are antecedent rivers. Which one of the following may be the true definition of an antecedent drainage ?

(a) Which follows the initial slope of the Himalaya

(b) Which existed before the Himalayan range came into existence

(d) Which followed the strikes of rock beds of the Himalaya

Answer – b

Antecedent rivers are rivers that existed before the landmass came into existence.

The Himalayan range is a very young mountain range, and it has been uplifted over millions of years. However, the Brahmaputra and Indus rivers are much older than the Himalayas. These rivers were formed during the Tethys Sea period, when the Indian subcontinent was still a separate landmass.

The Karachi resolution of Congress in 1931 advocated which one of the following issues ?

(a) State shall not own or control key industries and services

(b) State shall handover the key industries and services to the Indian business groups

(d) State shall own or control key industries and services

Answer – d

The Karachi Resolution of the Indian National Congress in 1931 encompassed the following aspects:

Basic Civil Rights: The resolution advocated for fundamental civil liberties such as freedom of speech, freedom of assembly, freedom of association, and a free press.

Equality before Law: The resolution emphasized the importance of equal treatment under the law for all citizens.

Universal Adult Franchise: The resolution called for elections to be based on universal adult franchise, ensuring that every adult citizen has the right to vote.

Free and Compulsory Primary Education: The resolution stressed the need for providing free and compulsory education at the primary level to all children.

Better Living Conditions for Workers: The resolution aimed to improve the living conditions and working conditions of laborers and workers.

Government Ownership of Key Industries and Services: The resolution advocated for government ownership of critical industries, mines, and transportation services to ensure their efficient management and benefit to the public.

Protection of Women and Peasants: The resolution sought to protect the rights and interests of women and peasants, ensuring their fair treatment and welfare.

Protection of Minorities: The resolution emphasized the need to safeguard the rights and interests of minority communities within the country

The treaty of Schonbrunn (1809) was signed after which one of the following battles?

(a) Battle of Austerlitz

(b) Battle of Tilsit

(d) Battle of Lisbon

Answer –c

The Battle of Wagram was a decisive victory for Napoleon over the Austrians. It was fought on July 5-6, 1809, near the town of Wagram, Austria. The battle resulted in the Austrians being forced to sign the Treaty of Schönbrunn, which ceded large amounts of territory to France.

Which of the following statements about The New Model Unions is/are correct?

The New Model Unions were formed in the 1850s
The New Model Unions were formed in the 1880s
The New Model Unions com prised a Labour Party idea
The New Model Unions excluded women in the 1920s

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 3 only

Answer –a

New Model Unions were a variety of trade unions that were prominent in the 1850s-1860s. They were different from the Consolidated Unions in a few key ways:

New Model Unions were restricted to individual trades and industries, while Consolidated Unions were not.

New Model Unions had a focus on education and negotiations, while Consolidated Unions were more likely to conduct strikes.

New Model Unions included women, while Consolidated Unions did not.

The Truman Doctrine of 1947 was announced to achieve which one of the following ?

(a) Containment of the USSR

(b) Increasing agricultural production in the USA

(d) Strengthening the UNO

Answer – a

The Truman Doctrine was a foreign policy of the United States that was announced by President Harry S. Truman on March 12, 1947.

The stated aim of the Truman Doctrine was to counter the perceived threat of Soviet expansionism toward countries in Europe that were still recovering from World War II. Specifically, the doctrine committed the U.S. to providing economic and military aid to Greece and Turkey, both of which were threatened by communist insurgencies.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

In 1948, Burma was admitted to the United Nations and immediately supported the USA in the Cold War
In 1948, Burma joined the United Nations but refused to denounce China as the aggressor in the Korean War

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer –b

Burma was a founding member of the United Nations and declared itself neutral in the Cold War during U Nu's time as Prime Minister. Burma was one of two countries, along with India, that refused to vote for a motion recognizing China as an aggressor in the Korean War. However, Burma did enforce the UN Security Council resolution that labeled North Korea as the aggressor.

Who among the following presented ‘The April Theses’ to the Russian people in 1917 ?

(a) Stalin

(b) Trotsky

(d) Lenin

Answer – d

The April Theses were a set of political demands presented by Vladimir Lenin to the Russian people in April 1917. The Theses outlined Lenin's vision for a socialist revolution in Russia.

Lenin had been in exile in Switzerland during the February Revolution, which overthrew the Tsarist government. He returned to Russia in April 1917, and immediately began to call for a more radical revolution.

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for the given reaction ?

Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)

(a) Iron is the reducing agent

(b) The solution turns green in colour after the reaction

(d) The reaction is an example of a redox reaction

Answer – c

In the given reaction: Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)

Iron (Fe) is the reducing agent because it loses electrons to form Fe2+ ions (oxidation state changes from 0 to +2). It causes the reduction of copper ions (Cu2+) in CuSO4 to form solid copper (Cu) metal.

The solution turns green after the reaction.

Copper is less reactive than iron. In the reaction, copper ions (Cu2+) are reduced to form solid copper (Cu). This indicates that copper is less reactive than iron, as it is displaced from its compound by iron.

Which one of the following is an organic acid ?

(a) Hydrochloric acid

(b) Nitric acid

(d) Sulphuric acid

Answer –c

Organic acids are acids that contain carbon. The other acids listed are inorganic acids.

Here is a brief explanation of each acid:

Hydrochloric acid is an inorganic acid that contains hydrogen and chlorine. It is a strong acid that is used in many industrial and household applications.

Nitric acid is an inorganic acid that contains hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen. It is a strong acid that is used in the production of fertilizers, explosives, and other chemicals.

Acetic acid is an organic acid that contains hydrogen, carbon, and oxygen. It is a weak acid that is found in vinegar and is used in food and beverage production.

Sulfuric acid is an inorganic acid that contains hydrogen, sulfur, and oxygen. It is a strong acid that is used in the production of fertilizers, plastics, and other chemicals.

Dinitrogen (N2) and dioxygen (O2) are the main constituents of air but they do not react with each other to form oxides of nitrogen because requires initiation

(a) the reaction by a catalyst

(b) oxides of nitrogen are unstable

(d) the stoichiometry of N2 and O2 in air is not ideal for the reaction to take place

Answer – c

The reaction of dinitrogen and dioxygen to form oxides of nitrogen is endothermic and requires very high temperature.

The reaction is written as:

N2 + O2 → 2NO

The bond energy of N2 is very high (941.4 kJ/mol), so it requires a lot of energy to break the N2 molecule. The bond energy of O2 is also high (498.4 kJ/mol), so it requires some energy to break the O2 molecule.

The reaction also releases heat (180.5 kJ/mol), so it is endothermic. This means that the reaction needs to be initiated by adding heat or some other form of energy.

Who among the following has explained the phenomenon of photoelectric effect ?

(a) Max Planck

(b) Albert Einstein

(d) Ernest Rutherford

Answer – b

Albert Einstein explained the phenomenon of photoelectric effect in 1905.

The photoelectric effect is the emission of electrons from a metal when light shines on it. Einstein explained this effect by proposing that light is not a wave, but rather a stream of particles called photons.

The equivalent weight of oxalic acid in C2H2O.2H2O is

(a) 45

(b) 63

(d) 126

Answer –b

The equivalent weight of oxalic acid is 63.

Equivalent weight is defined as the mass of the substance that will react with or displace 1 equivalent of another substance. In the case of oxalic acid, 1 equivalent will react with or displace 1 equivalent of hydrogen ions.

The molecular weight of oxalic acid is 126.04 g/mol. The acid has two ionisable hydrogen atoms.

Therefore Equivalent weight = Molecular weight / Number of ionisable hydrogen atoms

= 126.04 g/mol / 2

= 63 g/eq

Which one of the following is NOT a west flowing river?

(a) Periyar

(b) Bharatpuzha

(d) Tamraparni

Answer –d

Tamraparni River or Porunai: It is a perennial river that originates from the Agastyarkoodam peak, which is a hill (Pothigai) located in the Western Ghats. The river flows through various districts in Tamil Nadu and eventually drains into the Gulf of Mannar. Hence, it is classified as an East flowing river.

Periyar River: The Periyar River is the second longest river in Kerala. It drains into the Vembanad Lake, making it a West flowing river.

Bharathapuzha: Also known as Ponnani, the Bharathapuzha river rises near the Annamalai hills. It is the longest river in Kerala and ultimately drains into the Arabian Sea. Thus, it is a West flowing river.

Pamba River: The Pamba river in Kerala traverses a course of 177 km and also drains into the Vembanad lake, making it a West flowing river.

Which one of the following rivers was earlier known as “Vitasta”?

(a) Tista

(b) Jhelum

(d) Bharatpuzha

Answer – b

The ancient Greeks referred to Jhelum as 'Vitasta'.

River Sarda drains in the Northern Plains of Uttar Pradesh. Before entering in the Plains, Sarda is known

(a) Saraswati

(b) Bhagirathi

(d) Pindar

Answer –c

The Sarda or Saryu river originates from the Milam glacier in the Nepal Himalayas, where it is known as the Goriganga.

Along the Indo-Nepal border, it is called Kali or Chauk, and at this point, it merges with the Ghaghara river.

“Mission Indradhanush” is related to

(a) Bullet train project

(b) Agriculture development

(d) Full immunization

Answer –d

Mission Indradhanush is a national immunization programme launched by the Government of India in December 2014 to fully immunize all children and pregnant women across the country.

The programme provides vaccination against 12 vaccine-preventable diseases (VPDs):

Diphtheria

Whooping cough

Tetanus

Polio

Tuberculosis

Hepatitis B

Meningitis and pneumonia

Haemophilus influenza type B infections

Japanese encephalitis (JE)

Rotavirus vaccine

Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV)

Measles-rubella (MR)

Which of the following is/are environmental effects of Rotation of the Earth?

Daily or diurnal rhythm in day light and air temperature
Flow path of both air and water are turned consistently in a sideward direction
The movement of the tides

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Answer – c

All three effects are environmental effects of the rotation of the Earth.

Daily or diurnal rhythm in day light and air temperature: The rotation of the Earth causes the Earth to be exposed to sunlight for different lengths of time in different parts of the world. This causes a daily or diurnal rhythm in day light and air temperature.

Flow path of both air and water are turned consistently in a sideward direction: The rotation of the Earth causes the flow of both air and water to be turned consistently in a sideward direction. This is known as the Coriolis effect.

The movement of the tides: The rotation of the Earth also causes the movement of the tides. The tides are caused by the gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun on the Earth's oceans.

Who among the following historians have described the Quit India movement as a ‘spontaneous revolution’?

(a) Gordon Johnson

(b) David Arnold

(d) Peter Robb

Answer – c

F.G. Hutchins described the Quit India movement as a "spontaneous revolution".

In his book, India's Revolution: Gandhi and the Quit India Movement (1973), Hutchins argued that the Quit India movement was not a carefully planned and organized event, but rather an outburst of popular anger and frustration. He cited the fact that the movement spread rapidly across India, even in areas where the Indian National Congress (INC) had little or no presence.

The following 3 (three) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code :

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(b) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I

(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Statement I : Abul Fazl shaped, represented and articulated the ideas associated with the reign of Akbar

Statement II : The qualities of Abul Fazl impressed Akbar who found the former suitable as an adviser and spokesperson for his policies

Answer – a

Abul Fazl was indeed a political advisor and held a high-ranking position in the administration of Akbar.He played a crucial role in helping Akbar shape his vision of governance with the concept of Sulh-i-kul, which aimed at promoting peaceful and harmonious relationships among different religions in his administration.

Abul Fazl also authored a three-volume history of Akbar's reign, known as the Akbarnama.

The first volume focused on Akbar's ancestry, while the second volume recorded events from Akbar's reign.The third volume, Ain-i Akbari, was a comprehensive account of Akbar's administration, providing rich statistics on crop diversity, wages, revenue, and prices.

Both statements in the passage are correct, and Statement II offers the correct explanation of Statement I.

Statement I : The Kisan manifesto adopted by the All India Kisan Sabha in August 1936 contained radical demands

Statement II : The All India Kisan Sabha was a part of the Congress and maintained close relationship with the Provincial Congress Committees

Answer –b

Statement I states that the Kisan manifesto adopted by the All India Kisan Sabha in August 1936 contained radical demands. This is correct. The manifesto demanded the abolition of the zamindari system and the cancellation of rural debts. These were radical demands at the time, and they put the AIKS at odds with the Congress, which was more cautious in its approach to land reform.

Statement II states that the All India Kisan Sabha was a part of the Congress and maintained close relationship with the Provincial Congress Committees. This is also correct. The AIKS was formed by a group of Congressmen, and it was initially affiliated with the Congress. However, the AIKS soon became more radical and critical of the Congress, and it eventually broke away from the Congress in 1942

Statement I : The British ruled India through a modern bureaucracy headed by the Indian Civil Service, whose members were recruited through merit based on open competition

Statement II : The Indian Civil Service was based on the wholehearted participation of Indians

Answer –c

Statement I states that the British ruled India through a modern bureaucracy headed by the Indian Civil Service, whose members were recruited through merit based on open competition. This is correct. The Indian Civil Service (ICS) was the highest level of the British bureaucracy in India. It was a prestigious and powerful service, and its members were responsible for administering the vast Indian Empire. The ICS was recruited through a system of open competition, which meant that anyone, regardless of their social background, could apply for a position.

Statement II states that the Indian Civil Service was based on the wholehearted participation of Indians. This is incorrect. The ICS was open to Indians, but it was very difficult for Indians to pass the rigorous exams. In the early years, only a handful of Indians were able to join the ICS. This was because the exams were biased against Indians, and because Indians had limited access to education.

Which one of the following is NOT true in reference to Air mass ?

(a) Air mass forms either in tropical or in polar region

(b) Air mass develops on continents as well as over ocean

(d) Air mass changes the weather conditions

Answer – c

Air mass does not develop in a cyclonic condition.

Air mass is a large body of air that has similar temperature and humidity throughout. Air masses form over large areas of land or ocean, and they are classified according to their temperature and humidity.

Cyclones are large rotating storms that form over oceans. They are characterized by low pressure at their center and strong winds that spiral inward. Cyclones can bring heavy rain and strong winds to the areas they affect.

National Water Academy, a centre of excellence in training and capacity building in water resource, is located at

(a) New Delhi

(b) Kolkata

(d) Chennai

Answer – c

The National Water Academy is located in Pune, Maharashtra.

The National Water Academy (NWA) is a premier training institute in water resources in India. It was established in 1988 as the Central Training Unit (CTU) under the Central Water Commission (CWC). In 2002, the CTU was upgraded to the National Water Academy.

“Campos” and “Llanos”, Tropical Savanna grasslands are generally found in

(a) Australia

(b) Central Africa

(d) East Asia

Answer – c

Campos and Llanos are tropical savanna grasslands found in South America.

Campos are found in the southern part of Brazil, while Llanos are found in the Orinoco River basin in Venezuela and Colombia. Both Campos and Llanos are characterized by tall grasses and scattered trees. They are home to a variety of animals, including cattle, jaguars, and anacondas.

“Viticulture” is a common feature of which one of the following Australian cities?

(a) Adelaide

(b) Darwin

(d) Brisbane

Answer – a

Viticulture is a common feature of Adelaide, Australia.

Adelaide is a city in South Australia, Australia. It is the fifth-largest city in Australia and the state capital of South Australia. Adelaide is known for its Mediterranean climate, which is ideal for viticulture. The city is home to a number of wineries, and it is a major producer of wine in Australia.

“Shamal” warm and dry wind is a “Local” wind found in

(a) East Asia

(b) West Coast of Africa

(d) Mesopotamia

Answer –d

Shamal is a local wind found in the Mesopotamian region, which is located in the Middle East. It is a warm and dry wind that blows from the northwest. The Shamal usually occurs in the summer, and it can bring dust storms and high temperatures.

“Inversion of Rainfall” is associated with

(a) Orographic rainfall

(b) Convectional rainfall

(d) Cyclonic rainfall (Temperate)

Answer –a

Inversion of rainfall occurs when the air temperature at a certain altitude is higher than the air temperature at a lower altitude. This can happen when a warm air mass moves over a cold air mass. The warm air mass will rise, but it will stop rising at the point where the air temperature is the same. This is called the inversion layer.

The inversion layer prevents the warm air from rising any further, so the water vapor in the warm air cannot condense and form rain. This is why areas under an inversion layer often experience drought conditions.

In the case of orographic rainfall, the air is forced to rise over a mountain range. As the air rises, it cools and the water vapor condenses. This process can create a lot of rain on the windward side of the mountain range. However, the air on the leeward side of the mountain range does not experience the same amount of uplift, and therefore does not experience the same amount of rain. This is why the leeward side of a mountain range is often dry.

Who was the author of the book ‘History of British India’?

(a) Charles Grant

(b) John Stuart Mill

(d) William Jones

Answer – c

The author of the book ‘History of British India’ is James Mill.

James Mill was a Scottish historian, economist, and philosopher. He was born in 1773 and died in 1836. Mill is best known for his book ‘History of British India’, which was published in 1817. The book is a comprehensive history of British rule in India from the early 17th century to the early 19th century.

The Azamgarh Proclamation of August 25, 1857 stressed on which one of the following issues ?

(a) Hindu-Muslim divide

(b) Support to the English Government

(d) The imposition of heavy Jumas (revenue demand)

Answer –a

The Azamgarh Proclamation of August 25, 1857 stressed on the Hindu-Muslim divide.

The proclamation was issued by the rebels in Azamgarh, Uttar Pradesh, in response to the mutiny of Indian soldiers against the British East India Company. The proclamation called for Hindu and Muslim unity against the British and promised to restore the Mughal emperor to power.

The proclamation was written in both Hindi and Urdu, and it was distributed widely in the region. It was a powerful appeal to Hindu and Muslim sentiment, and it helped to galvanize support for the rebellion.

Which Viceroy had made the observation, “It’s a beautiful world if it wasn’t for Gandhi ……..” ?

(a) Lord Irwin

(b) Lord Wavell

(d) Lord Willingdon

Answer –d

Lord Willingdon made the observation, “It’s a beautiful world if it wasn’t for Gandhi.”

Lord Willingdon was the Viceroy of India from 1931 to 1936. He was a staunch opponent of Gandhi and the Indian independence movement. He was known for his repressive policies, which included the use of force to suppress the Civil Disobedience Movement.

In a letter to the British Secretary of State for India in 1933, Willingdon wrote, “It’s a beautiful world if it wasn’t for Gandhi.” The letter was leaked to the press, and it caused a great deal of anger in India.

Which Indian businessman favoured ‘healthy capitalism’ in helping Gandhiji to work towards a ‘common object’?

(a) Ghanshyam Das Birla

(b) Ambalal Sarabhai

(d) T. T. K. Krishnamachari

Answer – a

. Ghanshyam Das Birla favored ‘healthy capitalism’ in helping Gandhiji to work towards a ‘common object’.

Ghanshyam Das Birla was a wealthy Indian businessman who was a close associate of Gandhi. He was a strong supporter of Gandhi’s philosophy of non-violence and his work for Indian independence.

In 1934, Birla wrote a letter to another Indian businessman, Thakurdas, in which he said that he wanted to support only those Congressmen and Swarajists who did not favor communism or socialism. He believed that these ideologies were not in the best interests of India and that they would only lead to conflict and instability.

The art piece “In Memoriam” was a creation of which one of the following European painters?

(a) Thomas Jones Barker

(b) Joseph Noel Paton

(d) Charles D’Oyly

Answer – b

The art piece “In Memoriam” was a creation of Sir Joseph Noel Paton.

The painting depicts a group of British women and children being attacked by Indian soldiers during the Sepoy Mutiny of 1857.

Which one of the following can charge an insulator?

(a) Current electricity

(b) Static electricity

(d) Gravitational field

Answer –b

Static electricity can charge an insulator.

Static electricity is an imbalance of electric charge on a surface. This imbalance can be caused by the friction of two surfaces rubbing against each other, or by the contact of a charged object with an uncharged object.

Insulators are materials that do not conduct electricity. This means that they do not allow electrons to flow easily through them. However, insulators can still be charged with static electricity.

At 20°C, the speed of sound in water is approximately

(a) 330 m/s

(b) 800 m/s

(d) 5000 m/s

Answer – c

The speed of sound in water at 20°C is approximately 1500 m/s.

The speed of sound in water is a function of temperature. At 20°C, the speed of sound in water is 1499 m/s.

Which one of the following could be the melting point of iron ?

(a) 25°C

(b) 37°C

(d) 1500°C

Answer – d

The melting point of iron is 1538°C.

The melting point of a substance is the temperature at which it changes from a solid to a liquid. Iron is a metal, and metals have high melting points.

Let us consider a copper wire having radius r and length l. Let its resistance be R. If the radius of another copper wire is 2r and the length is l/2 then the resistance of this wire will be

(a) R

(b) 2R

(d) R/8

Answer – d

The resistance of a wire is given as R=ρlA

ρ = resistivity of the material,

l = is the length and

A = area of cross-section.

The resistance of a wire is directly proportional to its length and inversely proportional to its cross-sectional area. The resistivity of the material is a constant.

Using this we can say that since material remains the same resistivity (ρ) is the same and the ratio of both the resistance can be given as below

Given:

R1 = R,

l1 = l and l2 = l/2

r1 = r and r2 = 2r

R1/R2=(ρl1/A1)/(ρl2/A2)=(l1A2)/(l2A1)

R1/R2=(l×π×4r^2)/(l2×π×r^2)=8

Therefore R2 = R/8

Basic scientific principle behind a nuclear reactor is

(a) Nuclear fusion

(b) Controlled nuclear fusion

(d) Controlled nuclear fission

Answer –d

The basic scientific principle behind a nuclear reactor is controlled nuclear fission.

Nuclear fission is the splitting of an atom's nucleus into two smaller nuclei. This process releases a large amount of energy in the form of heat and radiation.

In a nuclear reactor, the fission process is controlled by using moderators and control rods. Moderators are materials that slow down the neutrons that are released during fission. Control rods are materials that absorb neutrons.

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