CSAT 2019 PAPER WITH EXPLANATIONS

UPSC PRELIMS CSAT 2019 PAPER II

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:

Read the following seven passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage - 1

Political theorists no doubt have to take history of injustice, for example, untouchability, seriously. The concept of historical injustice takes note of a variety of historical wrongs that continue into the present in some form or the other and tend to resist repair. Two reasons might account for resistance to repair. One, not only are the roots of injustice buried deep in history, injustice’ itself constitutes economic structures of exploitation, ideologies of discrimination and modes of representation. Two, the category of historical injustice generally extends across a number of wrongs such as economic deprivation, social discrimination and lack of recognition. This category is complex, not only because of the overlap between a number of wrongs, but because one or the other wrong, generally discrimination, tends to acquire partial autonomy from others. This is borne out by the history of repair in India

1. What is the main idea that we can infer from the passage?

(a) Untouchability in India has not been taken seriously by political theorists.

(b) Historical injustice is inevitable in any society and is always beyond repair.

(d) It is difficult, if not impossible, to repair every manifestation of historical injustice.

Answer: D

The main idea of the passage is that it is difficult, if not impossible, to repair every manifestation of historical injustice. The passage gives two reasons for this:

The roots of injustice are often buried deep in history and injustice itself can give rise to economic structures of exploitation, ideologies of discrimination, and modes of representation.
Historical injustice often extends across a number of wrongs, such as economic deprivation, social discrimination, and lack of recognition. These wrongs can overlap and one wrong, such as discrimination, can acquire partial autonomy from others.

The passage also points to the history of repair in India as evidence of the difficulty of overcoming historical injustice.

2. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Removal of economic discrimination leads to removal of social discrimination.

2 Democratic polity is the best way to repair historical wrongs.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

The passage does not make any assumption about the relationship between removal of economic discrimination and removal of social discrimination. In fact, the passage suggests that these two types of discrimination can be interconnected and difficult to separate.

The passage also does not make any assumption about the role of democratic polity in repairing historical wrongs. The passage simply notes that the history of repair in India has been difficult, regardless of the political system in place.

Therefore, neither of the assumptions is valid.

Passage -2

Education plays a great transformatory role in life, particularly SC in this rapidly changing and globalizing world. Universities are the custodians of the promoters of culture and specialized knowledge activity of thought, receptiveness to beauty and human feelings. A intellectual capital and Culture is an and merely well informed man is only a bore on God's earth. What we should aim at is producing men who possess both culture and expert knowledge. Their expert knowledge will give them a firm ground to start from and their culture will lead them as deep as philosophy and as high as art.

Together it will impart meaning ‘to human existence.

3. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

A society without well educated people cannot be transformed into a modern - society.
Without acquiring culture, a person's education is not complete.

Which of the above assumptions is are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

The passage states that education plays a great transformatory role in life, particularly in this rapidly changing and globalizing world. It also states that universities are the custodians of culture and specialized knowledge and that culture is an activity of thought, receptiveness to beauty and human feelings.

The passage then goes on to say that a merely well informed man is only a bore on God's earth and that what we should aim at is producing men who possess both culture and expert knowledge.

Therefore, assumption (2) is valid.

The passage does not make any assumption about the relationship between education and transformation of society. It simply states that education plays a great transformatory role in life.

Therefore, assumption (1) is not valid.

Therefore, the answer is (b).

Passage - 3

Soil, in which nearly all our, food grows, is a living resource that takes years to form. Yet it can vanish in minutes. Each year 75 billion tonnes of fertile soil is lost to erosion. That is alarming and not just for food producers. Seil can trap huge quantities of carbon dioxide in the form of organic carbon and prevent it from escaping into the atmosphere.

4. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

Large scale soil erosion is a major reason for widespread food insecurity in the world.
Soil erosion is mainly anthropogenic.
Sustainable management of soils helps in combating climate change.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1and2only

(b) 3only

(d) 1,2and3

Answer: B

The passage states that each year 75 billion tonnes of fertile soil is lost to erosion, which is alarming not just for food producers. This suggests that large-scale soil erosion is a major problem that can lead to food insecurity.

The passage also states that soil can trap huge quantities of carbon dioxide in the form of organic carbon and prevent it from escaping into the atmosphere. This suggests that sustainable management of soils helps in combating climate change.

Therefore, assumptions (1) and (3) are valid.

The passage does not make any assumption about the anthropogenic nature of soil erosion. It is possible that soil erosion can also be caused by natural factors, such as wind and rain.

Therefore, assumption (2) is not valid.

Therefore, the answer is (b).

Passage 4

Read the following passages and answer the question, Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Inequality is visible, even statistically measurable in many instances, but the economic power that drives it is invisible and not measurable. Like the force of gravity, power is the organising principle of inequality, be it of income, or wealth, gender, race, religion and region. Its effects are seen in a pervasive manner in all spheres, but the ways in which economic power pulls and tilts visible economic variables remain invisibly obscure.

5. On the basis of the above passage, the following. assumptions have been made:

Economic power is the only reason for the existence of inequality in a society.
Inequality of different kinds, income, wealth, etc. reinforces power.
Economic power can be analysed more through its effects than by direct empirical methods.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

The passage states that economic power is the organizing principle of inequality, but it does not say that it is the only reason for inequality. Therefore, assumption (1) is not valid.

The passage also states that inequality of different kinds reinforces power. This means that inequality can create a feedback loop, where the powerful become even more powerful and the powerless become even more powerless.

The passage also states that the ways in which economic power pulls and tilts visible economic variables remain invisibly obscure. This means that it is difficult to measure economic power directly, but its effects can be seen in a pervasive manner in all spheres.

Therefore, assumptions (2) and (3) are valid.

Therefore, the answer is (b).

Passage -5

Climate change may actually benefit some plants by lengthening growing seasons “and increasing carbon dioxide. Yet other effects of a warmer world, such as more pests, droughts, and flooding, will-be less benign. How will the world adapt? Researchers -project that by 2050, suitable croplands for four commodities maize, potatoes, rice and wheat will shift, in some cases pushing farmers to plant new crops. Some farmlands may benefit from warming, but others won't. Climate alone does not dictate yields; political shifts, global demand, and agricultural practices will influence how farms fare in the future.

6. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Farmers who modernize their methods and diversify their fields will be in an advantageous position in future.

(b) Climate change will adversely affect the crop diversity.

(c) Shifting major crops to new croplands will lead to a great increase in the total area under cultivation and thus an overall increase in agricultural production.

(d) Climate change is the most important factor affecting the agricultural economy in the future

Answer: A

The passage states that climate change will have both positive and negative effects on agriculture. Some crops will benefit from the longer growing seasons and increased carbon dioxide, while others will be affected by pests, droughts, and flooding. The passage also states that suitable croplands will shift, which will require farmers to plant new crops in some cases.

The most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage is that farmers who modernize their methods and diversify their fields will be in an advantageous position in the future. This is because farmers who are able to adapt to the changing climate and plant a variety of crops will be less likely to be affected by crop failure.

The other options are not supported by the passage.

Option (b) is not supported by the passage, which states that some crops will benefit from climate change.

Option (c) is not supported by the passage, which states that some farmlands will benefit from warming, while others will not.

Option (d) is not supported by the passage, which states that other factors, such as political shifts, global demand, and agricultural practices, will also influence how farms fare in the future.

Therefore, the answer is (a).

Passage 6

A bat's wings may look like sheets of skin. But underneath, a bat has the same five fingers as an orangutan or a human, as well as a wrist connected to the same cluster of Wrist bones connected to the same long bones of the arm. What can be more curious than that the hand of a man formed for grasping, that of a mole for digging, the leg of the horse, the paddle of the porpoise, and the wing of the bat, should all be constructed on the same pattern?

7. Which one of the following is the most logical, scientific and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Different having similar structure of hands is an example of biodiversity species

(b) Limbs being used by different species for different kinds of work iz an example of biodiversity.

(d) Man and the aforementioned animals have a shared evolutionary history.

Answer: D

The most logical, scientific and rational inference that can be made from the passage is that man and the aforementioned animals have a shared evolutionary history.

The passage describes how the wings of a bat, the hand of a man, the mole's hand, the leg of a horse, and the paddle of a porpoise are all constructed on the same basic pattern. This suggests that these animals share a common ancestor, and that their limbs have evolved from the same basic structure. This is an example of homologous structures, which are structures that have the same basic form and function in different species.

The other options are not as well supported by the passage.

Option (a) is not as well supported by the passage, because the passage does not explicitly mention biodiversity.

Option (b) is not as well supported by the passage, because the passage does not explicitly state that the limbs are used for different kinds of work.

Option (c) is not as well supported by the passage, because the passage does not explicitly mention coincidence.

Therefore, the answer is (d).

Passage - 7

Read the following passages and answer the question, Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Around 56 million years ago, the Atlantic Ocean had not fully opened and animals, perhaps including our primate ancestors, could walk from Asia to North America through Europe and across Greenland. Earth was warmer than it is today, but as the Palaeocene epoch gave way to Eocene, it was about to get much warmer still - rapidly and radically. The cause was a massive geologically sudden release of carbon. During this period called Palaeocene - Eocene Thermal Maximum or PETM, the carbon injected into the atmosphere was roughly the amount that would be injected today if humans burned all the Earth’s reserves of coal, oil and natural gas. The PETM lasted for about 1,50,000 years until the excess carbon was reabsorbed. It brought on drought, floods, insect plagues and a few extinctions. Life on Earth survived - indeed, it prospered - but it was drastically different.

8. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

Global warming has a bearing on the planet's biological evolution.
Separation of landmasses causes the release of huge quantities of carbon into the atmosphere.
Increased warming of Earth's atmosphere can change the composition of its flora and fauna.
The present man-made global warming will finally lead to conditions similar to these which happened 56 million years ago.

Which of the assumptions given above are valid?

A.1 and 2 B.3 and 4 C.1 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 4

Answer: C

The passage states that global warming has a bearing on the planet's biological evolution. It also states that the PETM, which was a period of rapid global warming, brought on drought, floods, insect plagues, and a few extinctions. This suggests that global warming can have a significant impact on the composition of the Earth's flora and fauna.

The passage does not state that separation of land masses causes the release of huge quantities of carbon into the atmosphere. It is possible that other factors, such as volcanic eruptions or the release of methane from the permafrost, could also cause large releases of carbon into the atmosphere.

The passage does not state that the present man-made global warming will finally lead to conditions similar to those which happened 56 million years ago. It is possible that the current global warming will be less severe than the PETM, or that it will have different effects on the planet's biosphere.

Therefore, the valid assumptions are:

Global warming has a bearing on the planet's biological evolution.
Increased warming of Earth's atmosphere can change the composition of its flora and fauna.

The answer is (c).

9. The number of times the digit 5 will appear while writing the integers from 1 to 1000 is

(a) 269

(b) 271

(d) 302

Answer: C

Calculations: Number of 5 from 1 to 100 are 5, 15, 25, 35, 45, 50, 51, 52, 53, 54, 55, 56, 57, 58, 59, 65, 75, 85, 95

Total number of 5 from 1 to 100 = 20 (55 has two 5's) Same pattern will follow for every set of 100 numbers upto 1000 like 200 to 300, 300 to 400 ,.....900 to 1000. But we have to include number of 5 from 500 to 599 also which are 100 in number So, Total number of 5 from 1 to 1000 = 20 × 10 + 100 ⇒ 200 + 100 ⇒ 300

∴ Total number of 5 from 1 to 1000 are 300

10. A solid cube is painted yellow, blue and black such that opposite faces are of same colour. The cube is then cut into 36 cubes of two different sizes such that 32 cubes are small and the other four cubes are big. None of the faces of the bigger cubes is painted blue, How many cubes have only one face painted?

(a) 4

(b) 6

(d) 10

Answer: C

The number of cubes with only one face painted is equal to the number of cubes on the edges of the big cubes.

Each big cube has 4 edges, and there are 4 big cubes, so there are a total of 4 * 4 = 16 cubes on the edges of the big cubes.

However, we need to subtract the number of cubes that are on the edge of both a big cube and a small cube.

There are 4 * 4 = 16 faces on the big cubes, and each of these faces shares an edge with a small cube. However, each edge is shared by two faces, so we need to divide this number by 2.

Therefore, there are 16 / 2 = 8 edges that are shared by a big cube and a small cube.

Therefore, the number of cubes with only one face painted is 16 - 8 = 8.

So the answer is (c).

11. A and B are two heavy steel blocks. If B is placed on the top of A, the weight increases by 60%. How much weight will: reduce with respect to the total weight of A and B, if B is removed from the top of A?

(a) 60%.

(b) 45.5%

(d) 37. 5%

Answer: D

If we take the weights of A and B to be 100 and 60 respectively, then the total weight is 160. When B is removed, the weight is reduced by 60, which is 60/160 = 37.5% of the total weight. So the answer is (d).

12. To first child falls on the 5^th Monday of April, that of the second one falls on the ‘sth Thursday of November. On which day is the birthday of his third child, which falls on | 90th December? :

(a) Monday

(b) Thursday

(d) Sunday

Answer: B

Let's break down the information given:

The first child's birthday falls on the 5th Monday of April.
The second child's birthday falls on the 'sth Thursday of November.
The third child's birthday falls on the 90th of December.

Let's start by determining the day of the week for the first child's birthday in April:

April has 30 days, so it has 4 complete weeks (4 Mondays).
The 5th Monday would be the last Monday in April.

Now, let's determine the day of the week for the second child's birthday in November, which falls on the 'sth Thursday:

We don't know the value of 'sth' yet, so we'll need to figure that out.

Finally, let's find out the day of the week for the third child's birthday on the 90th of December.

First Child's Birthday (5th Monday of April):
- The last Monday in April is the 30th of April.
- We need to determine the day of the week for April 30th.
Second Child's Birthday ('sth Thursday of November):
- We need to find the value of 'sth' to determine which Thursday in November it is.
Third Child's Birthday (90th of December):
- We need to determine the day of the week for December 90th.

Now, let's find the answers step by step:

April 30th is a Sunday.
To find the value of 'sth' for the second child's birthday, we can start by calculating the total number of Thursdays in November. November has 30 days.
- Every week has 7 days, so there are 30 / 7 = 4 full weeks.
- This means there are 4 Thursdays.

Now, let's determine the value of 'sth.' Since we don't know its value, let's assume it's 'x.'

If 'x' is between 1 and 4, the second child's birthday falls on a Thursday.
If 'x' is 5 or greater, the second child's birthday falls on a Thursday in December.

December 90th doesn't exist since December has only 31 days. So, we need to find the remainder when 90 is divided by 31.

90 ÷ 31 = Quotient of 2 and Remainder of 28.

So, the 90th of December is the same as the 28th of December.

Now, let's consider the possible values of 'x' for the second child's birthday:

If 'x' is between 1 and 4, the second child's birthday falls on a Thursday in November.
If 'x' is 5 or greater, the second child's birthday falls on a Thursday in December (28th).

Now, we have two scenarios:

Scenario 1 (second child's birthday in November):

In this case, we already know that the first child's birthday is on April 30th (Sunday), and the second child's birthday is on a Thursday in November.

Scenario 2 (second child's birthday in December):

In this case, the first child's birthday is on April 30th (Sunday), and the second child's birthday is on December 28th (Thursday).

Now, let's determine the day of the week for the third child's birthday:

The third child's birthday is on December 28th, which we already calculated to be a Thursday.

So, the correct answer is (b) Thursday, as the third child's birthday falls on a Thursday.

13. Consider the following Statements and Conclusions:

Statements:

Some rats are cats.
Some cats are dogs.
No dog is a cow.

Conclusions:

No cow is a cat.
No dog is a rat.
Some cats are rats.

Which of the above conclusions is/are drawn from the statements?

(a I, II and III

(b) Only I and II

(d) Only II and III

Answer: C

Now, let's consider the conclusions:

No cow is a cat:

As you correctly pointed out, this conclusion is not definitively supported by the given statements. It is possible for some cows not to be cats, but it's not a definite conclusion.

No dog is a rat:

This conclusion is also not definitively supported by the given statements. While it's true that no dog can be a cow, it doesn't necessarily mean that no dog can be a rat. It is possible for some dogs to be rats.

Some cats are rats:

This conclusion is definitively supported by the given statements. Statement 1 tells us that some rats are cats, which means there is an overlap between the sets of cats and rats.

14. The number of parallelograms that can be formed from a set of four parallel lines intersecting another set of four parallel lines is

(a) 18

(b) 24

(d) 36

Answer: D

To form a parallelogram, we need two pairs of parallel lines. From the first set of four parallel lines, we can choose two in () =6 ways. From the second set of four parallel lines, we can choose two in () =6 ways. Therefore, the total number of parallelograms that can be formed is 6×6=36

15. In a school every student is assigned a unique identification number. A student is a football player if and only if the identification number is divisible by 4, whereas a student is a cricketer if and only if the. Identification number is divisible by 6. If every number from 1 to 100 is assigned to a student, then how many of them plays cricket as well as football?

(a) 4

(b) 8

(d) 12

Answer: B

To find the number of students who play both cricket and football, we need to find the common multiples of 4 and 6 within the range of identification numbers from 1 to 100.

First, let's find the multiples of 4 within this range: 4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, 28, 32, 36, 40, 44, 48, 52, 56, 60, 64, 68, 72, 76, 80, 84, 88, 92, 96, 100

Now, let's find the multiples of 6 within the same range: 6, 12, 18, 24, 30, 36, 42, 48, 54, 60, 66, 72, 78, 84, 90, 96

The common multiples of 4 and 6 within the range of 1 to 100 are: 12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72, 84, 96.

There are 8 common multiples, which means 8 students play both cricket and football.

So, the correct answer is (b) 8.

16. When a runner was crossing the 12 km mark, she was informed that she had completed only 80% of the race. How many kilometers was the runner supposed to run in this event?

(a) 14

(b) 15

(d) 165

Answer: B

Let's denote the total distance of the race as "D" kilometers. According to the information given, when the runner was crossing the 12 km mark, she had completed only 80% of the race. This can be expressed as:

(80/100) * D = 12 km

Now, we can solve for D:

(80/100) * D = 12

To solve for D, we can first simplify the equation by dividing both sides by (80/100):

D = (12 * 100) / 80

D = (12 * 5) / 4

D = 60 / 4

D = 15

So, the runner was supposed to run a total of 15 kilometers in this event. Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 15.

17. Raju has Rs. 9000 with him and he wants to buy a mobile handset; but he finds that he has only 75% of the amount required to buy the handset. Therefore, he borrows ¥ 2000 from a friend. Then

(a) Raju still does not have enough amount to buy the handset. .

(b) Raju has exactly the same amount as required to buy the handset. .

(c)Raju has enough amount to buy the’ handset and he will have 'Rs. 500 with: him after buying the handset.

(d) Raju has enough amount to buy the handset and he will have 7 1000 with him after buying the handset.

Answer: A

If Raju has 9000 rupees and he wants to buy a mobile handset, but he finds that he has only 75% of the amount required to buy the handset, then the cost of the mobile handset is 9000 / 0.75 = 12000 rupees.

After borrowing 2000 rupees from a friend, Raju has 9000 + 2000 = 11000 rupees.

Therefore, Raju still does not have enough amount to buy the handset.

18. In 2002, Menu’s age was one-third of the age of Meera, whereas in 2010, Meenu’s age was half the age of Meera. What is Meenu’s year of birth?

(a) 1992

(b) 1994

(d) 1998

Answer: B

Let Meenu’s year of birth be x.

Then, Meenu’s age in 2002 was (x - 10) years. Meenu’s age in 2010 was (x - 8) years. Meera’s age in 2002 was (3x - 30) years. Meera’s age in 2010 was (3x - 22) years.

According to the question, we have the following equations: (x - 10) = (3x - 30)/3 (x - 8) = (3x - 22)/2

Solving these equations, we get x = 1994.

Therefore, Meenu’s year of birth is 1994.

19. Rakesh and Rajesh together bought 10 balls and 10 rackets. Rakesh spent. # 1300 and Rajesh spent 1500. If each racket costs three times a ball does, then what is the price of a racket? :

(a) 70

(b) 90

(d) 240

Answer: C

Let the price of a ball be x and the price of a racket be 3x.

Rakesh and Rajesh together bought 10 balls and 10 rackets.

Rakesh spent 1300 and Rajesh spent 1500.

10x + 30x = 1300 + 1500 40x = 2800 x = 70

The price of a racket is 3x = 3 * 70 = 210.

20. In a conference, out of a total 100 participants, 70 are Indians. If 60 of the total participants are vegetarian, then which of the following statements is/are correct?

At least 30 Indian participants are vegetarian.
At least 10 Indian participants are Non-vegetarian.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1only

(b) 2only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Let's analyse the given information and statements:

Total participants = 100 Indian participants = 70 Vegetarian participants = 60

Statement 1: At least 30 Indian participants are vegetarian.

To determine the minimum number of Indian participants who are vegetarian, we can assume that all non-Indian participants are vegetarian. This would leave us with a maximum of 100 - 70 = 30 non-Indian participants. Since there are a total of 60 vegetarian participants, the minimum number of Indian participants who are vegetarian is 60 - 30 = 30.

So, Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: At least 10 Indian participants are non-vegetarian.

To determine the minimum number of Indian participants who are non-vegetarian, we can assume that all non-Indian participants are non-vegetarian. This would leave us with a maximum of 100 - 70 = 30 non-Indian participants who are non-vegetarian. Since there are 70 Indian participants in total, the minimum number of Indian participants who are non-vegetarian is 70 - 30 = 40.

So, Statement 2 is correct.

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following six passages and answer the follow each passage. Your ‘answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

Passage — 1

Low-end IoT (Internet of Things) devices are cheap commodity item would add to the cost. This class of items is proliferating with new applications; many home addressing security appliances, thermostats, security and monitoring devices and personal convenience devices -are part of the 1oT. So are fitness trackers, certain medical implants and computer-like devices in automobiles. The IoT is expected to expand exponentially — but new security challenges are daunting.

21. Which one of the following statements is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Development of enabling technologies in India can be a big boost to its manufacturing sector.

(b) India is not yet fully ready to adopt ToT in view of the imminent security challenges.

(d)As we go digital, we must recognised the huge threat to Internet security from some IoT devices

Answer: D

The most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage is that as we go digital, we must recognize the huge threat to internet security from some IoT devices.

The passage mentions that low-end IoT devices are cheap commodity items that are proliferating with new applications. Many of these devices are part of the IoT, and they are expected to expand exponentially. However, the passage also warns that new security challenges are daunting.

This means that as we become more reliant on IoT devices, we need to be more aware of the security risks that they pose. We need to take steps to protect our devices from being hacked and our data from being compromised.

The other options are not as logical or rational. Option (a) is about the impact of IoT on India's manufacturing sector, but the passage does not mention this. Option (b) is about whether India is ready to adopt IoT, but the passage does not give a clear answer to this question. Option (c) is about the convenience of low-end IoT devices, but it does not address the security risks.

Passage - 2

With the digital phenomenon restructuring most special sectors, it is little surprise that global trade “negotiations are now eyeing the digital area in an ‘attempt the pre-emptively colonies it. Big Data is freely collected or mined from - developing countries, and converted into digital intelligence in developed countries. This intelligence ‘Begins ‘to control different sectors and extract monopoly rents. A large foreign company providing cab service, for instance, is not a network of cars and drivers; it is digital intelligence about commuting; public transport, roads, traffic, city. Events, personal behavioral characteristics of commuters and drivers and so on.

22. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational corollary to the above "passage?

(a) Globalization is ‘not in "the interests of India as it "socio-economic structures.

(b)India should be careful to protect its digital sovereignty in global trade talks.

(d)The loss of Big Data from India is proportional to the degree/value of its foreign trade

Answer: B

The most logical and rational corollary to the passage is that India should be careful to protect its digital sovereignty in global trade talks.

The passage discusses the risks of digital colonialism, where developed countries are using their digital intelligence to control different sectors and extract monopoly rents. India, as a developing country, needs to be careful not to let this happen.

The other options are not as logical or rational. Option (a) is about globalization not being in the interests of India, but the passage does not support this conclusion. Option (b) is about charging monopoly rents from multinational companies in exchange for Big Data, but this is not a sustainable solution in the long term. Option (d) is about the loss of Big Data from India being proportional to the degree/value of its foreign trade, but this is not necessarily true.

Therefore, the answer is (b).

Here are some specific steps that India can take to protect its digital sovereignty in global trade talks:

Develop its own digital infrastructure and capabilities. This will make India less reliant on foreign companies for digital services.
Implement strong data protection laws. This will help to protect the privacy of Indian citizens and businesses.
Require foreign companies to store data in India. This will give India more control over its own data.
Work with other developing countries to build a global digital governance framework. This will help to ensure that the benefits of digitalization are shared more equitably.

23. Which of the following is most definitively implied by the above passage?

(a) Big Data is the key resource in the digital space

(b) Big economies create Big Data.

(c)Access to Big Data is the prerogative of developed countries.

(d) Access to and possession of Big Data is a characteristic of developed countries.

Answer: A

The passage states that Big Data is freely collected or mined from developing countries and converted into digital intelligence in developed countries. This digital intelligence is then used to control different sectors and extract monopoly rents.

This implies that Big Data is the key resource in the digital space, and that developed countries have a significant advantage in the digital economy.

Therefore, the most definitively implied statement is (a) Big Data is the key resource in the digital space.

The other statements are not as definitively implied by the passage. Statement (b) does not necessarily follow, as small economies can also create Big Data. Statement (c) is not necessarily true, as developing countries can also have access to Big Data. Statement (d) is a combination of (a) and (c), and is therefore not as definitively implied as (a).

It is important to note that the passage does raise concerns about the digital divide between developed and developing countries. Developing countries need to be careful to protect their digital sovereignty and ensure that they have access to the benefits of digitalization.

Passage-3

The rural POOT across the world, including India; have contributed little to Human-induced climate change, yet they are on the frontline in coping with its effects. Farmers can no longer rely on historical averages “for rainfall and temperature, and the-more frequent and extreme weather events, such as droughts and floods, can spell disaster. And there are new threats, such as sea level rise and the impact of melting glaciers on water supply. Bow significant are small farms? As many as two billion people worldwide ‘depend on them for their food and livelihood. ‘Small-holder farmers in India produce 41 percent of the country’s food grains, “and other food items that contribute to local and national food Security.

24. What is the most logical and rational corollary to the above passage!?

(a) Supporting small, farmers is h an important part of any agenda regarding environmentally sustainable development.

(b) Poor countries have little role to play in the mitigation of global warming.

(d) Only small- holder farmers India can ensure food security

Answer: A

The most logical and rational corollary to the passage is that Supporting small farmers is an important part of any agenda regarding environmentally sustainable development.

The passage discusses the challenges faced by small farmers in coping with the effects of climate change. It also highlights the importance of small farms for global food security.

The other options are not as logical or rational. Option (b) is about poor countries having little role to play in the mitigation of global warming, but the passage does not support this conclusion. Option (c) is about India not having a food security problem in the foreseeable future, but this is not necessarily true, as climate change could pose a serious threat to food security in India. Option (d) is about only small-holder farmers in India being able to ensure food security, but this is not necessarily true, as large-scale farms can also play a role in food security.

Therefore, the answer is (a).

Here are some specific ways in which supporting small farmers can contribute to environmentally sustainable development:

Small farmers are more likely to use sustainable farming practices. This is because they are more reliant on the land and natural resources, and they have less access to chemical inputs.
Small farms are more resilient to climate change. This is because they are more diversified and less reliant on a single crop.
Supporting small farmers can help to reduce poverty and inequality. This is because small farmers are more likely to live in rural areas, which are often poorer than urban areas.

25. The above passage implies that

There is a ‘potential problem of food insecurity in India.
India will have to strengthen its disaster ‘management capabilities.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

The passage states that climate change is posing a serious threat to food security in India. This is because farmers are no longer able to rely on historical averages for rainfall and temperature, and the more frequent and extreme weather events can spell disaster. Additionally, there are new threats, such as sea level rise and the impact of melting glaciers on water supply.

The passage also states that small-holder farmers in India produce 41 percent of the country's food grains, and other food items that contribute to local and national food security. This means that small-holder farmers are essential to India's food security.

Therefore, it is fair to assume that there is a potential problem of food insecurity in India, and that India will have to strengthen its disaster management capabilities.

The other options are incorrect. Option (a) is incorrect because the passage does not state that there is a definite problem of food insecurity in India. It only states that climate change is posing a serious threat to food security. Option (b) is incorrect because the passage does not state that India will definitely have to strengthen its disaster management capabilities. It only states that India may have to strengthen its disaster management capabilities.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Passage — 4

A changing climate, and the eventual efforts of governments (however reluctant) to deal with it, could have a big impact on investors’ returns. Companies that produce or use large amounts of fossil fuels will face higher taxes and regulatory "burdens. Some energy producers may find it impossible to exploit their known reserves, and be left with “stranded assets” — deposits of oil and coal that have to be left in the ground. Other - could be affected by the economic damage caused by more extreme industries weather — storms, floods, heat waves and ~ droughts. On the basis of the above passage,

26. The following assumptions have been made:

Governments and companies need to be "adequately prepared to face the climate change
Extreme weather events will reduce the economic growth of governments and companies in future
Ignoring climate change is a huge risk for investors.

Which of the above assumptions is are valid?

(a) 1and 2only

(b) 3only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer: C

Assumption 1: Governments and companies need to be adequately prepared to face the climate change.
Assumption 2: Extreme weather events will reduce the economic growth of governments and companies in future.
Assumption 3: Ignoring climate change is a huge risk for investors.

Assumption 2 is incorrect because the passage does not establish a direct link between the economic growth of governments and companies and the weather events. However, there is an indirect link, as extreme weather events can damage property and infrastructure, disrupt supply chains, and reduce consumer spending.

Overall, your analysis is well-reasoned and accurate.

Here are some additional thoughts on the topic:

Climate change is a complex issue with far-reaching implications for the economy. It is important for governments and companies to be prepared for the challenges that climate change will pose.
Extreme weather events are becoming more frequent and severe due to climate change. This is a major risk for businesses, as it can lead to disruptions in operations and damage to property and infrastructure.
Investors who ignore climate change risk losing money. This is because companies that are not prepared for climate change may face higher costs, regulatory burdens, and reputational damage.

Governments and companies can take a number of steps to prepare for climate change, such as:

Investing in renewable energy and energy efficiency.
Developing adaptation strategies to reduce the vulnerability of infrastructure and communities to climate change.
Disclosing climate-related risks and opportunities to investors.

By taking these steps, governments and companies can help to mitigate the economic risks posed by climate change and protect the value of investments.

Passage — 5

Access to schooling for those coming - of school age is close to universal, but Access to quality exhibits a sharp gradient with socio-economic status. Quotas for the weaker sections in private schools are a ‘provision introduced by the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 9009. The quotas have imposed a debate on issues of social integration and equity in education that private ‘actors had escaped by and large. The idea of egalitarian education system with equality of to be outside the space that private school principals opportunity as its primary goal appears inhabit. Therefore, the imposition of the quotas has led to resistance, sometimes justified.

27. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

Making equality of opportunity a reality is the fundamental education system Goal of the Indian
The present Indian school system is unable to provide egalitarian education.
Abolition and establishment of more of private schools government schools is the only way to ensure egalitarian education.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1and 2only

(b) 2only

(d) 3only

Answer: B

The passage states that access to schooling for those coming of school age is close to universal, but access to quality exhibits a sharp gradient with socio-economic status. This means that the present Indian school system is unable to provide egalitarian education.

The passage also mentions that the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, has imposed quotas for the weaker sections in private schools. This suggests that the Indian government is committed to making equality of opportunity a reality in education.

However, the passage does not state that abolition and establishment of more government schools is the only way to ensure egalitarian education. In fact, the passage mentions that private actors had escaped the idea of egalitarian education by and large. This suggests that private schools can also play a role in ensuring egalitarian education.

Therefore, the only valid assumption is (b) 2 only.

The other options are incorrect:

(a) 1 and 2 onlyis incorrect because the passage does not state that making equality of opportunity a reality is the fundamental goal of the Indian education system.
(c) 2 and 3 onlyis incorrect because the passage does not state that abolition and establishment of more government schools is the only way to ensure egalitarian education.
(d) 3 onlyis incorrect because the passage does not state that abolition and establishment of more government schools is the way to ensure egalitarian education.

Passage - 6

A majority of the TB infected in India are poor and lack sufficient nutrition, suitable housing and have little understanding of prevention. TB then devastates families, makes’ the poor poorer, particularly affects women and children, and leads to ostracisation and loss of employment. The truth is that even if TB does not kill them, hunger and poverty will. Another truth is that deep-seated stigma, lack of counseling, expensive treatment and lack of adequate support from providers and family, coupled with torturous side-effects demotivate patients to continue treatment — with disastrous health consequences.

28. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the above passage?

(a) TB is not a curable disease in Indian circumstances.

(b) Curing TB requires more than diagnosis and medical treatment.

(d) India will be free from diseases like TB only when its poverty alleviation programmes are effectively and successfully implemented

Answer: B

The most logical, rational, and crucial message conveyed by the passage is that curing TB requires more than diagnosis and medical treatment.

The passage discusses the challenges faced by TB patients in India, including poverty, lack of nutrition, poor housing, and stigma. It also mentions that even if TB patients are able to access treatment, they may be demotivated to continue treatment due to the torturous side effects.

All of these factors contribute to the high TB burden in India. To reduce the TB burden, it is important to address the social and economic determinants of health, such as poverty, nutrition, and housing. It is also important to provide TB patients with adequate support and counselling, and to make treatment more affordable and accessible.

The other options are not as logical or rational. Option (a) is not true, as TB is a curable disease. Option (b) is true, but it is not the most crucial message conveyed by the passage. Option (c) is a specific example of a challenge faced by TB patients in India, but it is not the most crucial message conveyed by the passage. Option (d) is a long-term goal, but it is not the most crucial message conveyed by the passage.

Therefore, the answer is (b).

29. A five-storied building with floors from Ito V is painted using four different colours and only one colour is used to paint a floor.

Consider the following statements:

The middle three floors are painted in different colours.
The second (II) and the fourth (IV) floors are painted in different colours.
The first (I) and the fifth (V) floors are painted red.

To ensure that any two consecutive floors have different colours

(a) Only statement 2 is sufficient

(b) Only statement 3 is sufficient

(d) Statement 3 is not sufficient, but statement 3 along with statement 2 is sufficient

Answer: B

If the first and the fifth floors are painted red, then the remaining three floors must be painted in different colours. There are no other possibilities that would satisfy this condition.

Statement 1 is not sufficient, because it does not say anything about the colours of the first and the fifth floors. It is possible that the first and the fifth floors are painted the same colour, and the middle three floors are painted in different colours. In this case, two consecutive floors would have the same colour.

Statement 2 is not sufficient, because it does not say anything about the colours of the first and the fifth floors. It is possible that the first and the fifth floors are painted the same colour, and the second and the fourth floors are painted in different colours. In this case, two consecutive floors would have the same colour.

30. P, Q and R are three towns. The distance between P and Q is 60 Km, whereas the distance between P and R is 80 km. Q is in the West of P and R is in the South of P.

What is the distance between Q and R?

(a) 140 km

(b) 130 km

(d) 100 km

Answer: D

To find the distance between Q and R, we can use the Pythagorean theorem since Q is in the West of P, R is in the South of P, and we have the distances between P and Q and between P and R as the two shorter sides of a right triangle.

Let PQ be the horizontal distance (West-East) between Q and P, which is 60 km. Let PR be the vertical distance (South-North) between R and P, which is 80 km.

Now, we can use the Pythagorean Theorem to find the distance QR (the hypotenuse of the right triangle):

QR² = PQ² + PR² QR² = 60² + 80² QR² = 3600 + 6400 QR² = 10000

Now, take the square root of both sides to find QR:

QR = √10000 QR = 100 km

So, the distance between Q and R is 100 km, which corresponds to option (d).

31. All members of a club went to Mumbai and stayed in a hotel. On the first day, 80% went for shopping and 50% went for Sightseeing, whereas 10% took rest in the hotel.

Which of the following conclusion(s) can be drawn from the above data?

1. 40% members went for shopping as well as sightseeing.

2. 20% members went for only shopping.

Select the correct answer using’ the code given below:

(a) 1only

(b) 2only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Conclusion 1: 40% members went for shopping as well as sightseeing.

Conclusion 2: 20% members went for only shopping.

Analysis:

We can use the following Venn diagram to analyse the data:

Venn diagram

The total number of members is 100%.

80% of the members went for shopping, which means that 20% of the members did not go for shopping.

50% of the members went for sightseeing, which means that 50% of the members did not go for sightseeing.

10% of the members took rest in the hotel, which means that 90% of the members did not take rest in the hotel.

To draw Conclusion 1, we need to find the number of members who went for both shopping and sightseeing. We can do this by subtracting the number of members who went for either shopping or sightseeing only from the total number of members who went for shopping and sightseeing.

Number of members who went for both shopping and sightseeing:

= 50% - 20% - 10%

= 20%

Therefore, Conclusion 1 is valid.

To draw Conclusion 2, we need to find the number of members who went for shopping only. We can do this by subtracting the number of members who went for both shopping and sightseeing from the total number of members who went for shopping.

Number of members who went for shopping only:

= 80% - 20%

= 60%

However, we cannot determine from the given data how many of the members who went for shopping only also went for sightseeing. Therefore, Conclusion 2 is not valid.

Therefore, the answer is (a)

32. In a school, 60% students play cricket, A student who does not play cricket, plays football. Every football player has got a two-wheeler.

Which of the following conclusion cannot be drawn from the above data?

60% of the students do not have two-wheelers.
No cricketer has two-wheeler.
Cricket players do not play football.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2and3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Conclusion 1: 60% of the students do not have two-wheelers.

This conclusion is false because it is not possible to determine how many of the students who do not play cricket also do not have two-wheelers. It is possible that some of the students who do not play cricket have two-wheelers. Therefore, we cannot conclude that 60% of the students do not have two-wheelers.

Conclusion 2: No cricketer has a two-wheeler.

This conclusion is false because it is not possible to determine if any of the cricket players also play football. If there are cricket players who also play football, then they would have two-wheelers. Therefore, we cannot conclude that no cricketer has a two-wheeler.

Conclusion 3: Cricket players do not play football.

Therefore, the only valid conclusion is that we cannot draw any conclusions from the given data.

33. The ratio of a two-digit natural number to a number formed by reversing its digits is 4: 7. The number of such pairs is

(a) 5

(b) 4

(d) 2

Answer: B

Let the two-digit natural number be 10x+y, where x and y are the digits. Then, the number formed by reversing its digits is 10y+x.

The ratio of the two numbers is 4:7, which means that:

(10x+y)/(10y+x) = 4/7

Multiplying both sides by 7(10x+y), we get:

70x+7y = 40x+4y

Solving for y, we get:

3y = 30x

y = 10x

This means that the two-digit number must be a multiple of 10. The only possible values of x are 1 and 2.

For x = 1, the only possible value of y is 10, which gives us the number 10.

For x = 2, the two possible values of y are 20 and 40, which give us the numbers 20 and 40.

Therefore, there are a total of 2 pairs of two-digit natural numbers and numbers formed by reversing their digits that satisfy the given condition.

The answer is (b).

34. In an. examination, A has scored 20 marks more than B. If B has scored 5% less marks than A, how much has B scored?

(a) 360

(b) 380

(d) 420

Answer: B

Let the marks of A be A. Then, the marks of B is 0.95A.

According to the question, A has scored 20 marks more than B.

A = 0.95A + 20

0.05A = 20

A = 20/0.05 = 400

The marks of B is 0.95A, which is 0.95*400 = 380.

35. Seeta and Geeta go for a swim after a gap of every 2 days and every 3 days respectively. If on 1% January both of them went’ for a swim together, when will they go together next?

(a) 7th January

(b) 8th January

(d) 13th January

Answer: D

Consider 2 + 1 = 3 for Seeta and 3 + 1 = 4 for Geeta.

Now, calculate the least common multiple (LCM) of 3 and 4.

L.C.M of 3 and 4 is 12.

So, Seeta and Geeta will go together on 12 + 1 = 13th January

Hence, 13th January is the correct answer.

36. X, Y and Z are three contestants in a race of 1000 m. Assume that all run with different "uniform speeds. X gives Y a start of 40 m and " X gives Z a start of 64 m. If Y and Z were to compete in a race of 1000 m, how many meteres start will Y give to z?

(a) 20

(b) 25

(d) 35

Answer: B

Let's analyse the situation:

In the first race, X gives Y a start of 40 meters and gives Z a start of 64 meters. This means that when X crosses the finish line, Y has 40 meters left to run, and Z has 64 meters left to run to complete the 1000 meters.

Now, in a race of 1000 meters between Y and Z, we need to determine how many meters start Y should give to Z so that they finish at the same time.

Since Y is faster than Z, Y needs to give Z a head start to make the race fair.

The difference in their head starts in the first race is 64 - 40 = 24 meters.

So, Y should give Z a head start of 24 meters to make the race fair.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 25 meters.

37. If x is greater than or equal to 25 and y is less than or equal to 40; then which one of the following i is always correct?

(a) x is greater than y

(b) (y-x) is greater than 15

(c)(y-x) is Jess than or equal to 15

(d)(x+y) is greater than or equal 65

Answer: C

The only option that is always correct is (c), (y-x) is less than or equal to 15.

To see this, let's consider the following two cases:

Case 1: x = 25 and y = 40. In this case, (y-x) = 40 - 25 = 15.

Case 2: x = 30 and y = 35. In this case, (y-x) = 35 - 30 = 5.

As you can see, in both cases, (y-x) is less than or equal to 15.

The other options are not always correct:

(a) x is greater than y: This is not always correct, because x could be equal to y. For example, if x = 30 and y = 30, then x is not greater than y.
(b) (y-x) is greater than 15: This is not always correct, because (y-x) could be equal to 15 or less. For example, if x = 30 and y = 35, then (y-x) = 5.
(d) (x+y) is greater than or equal 65: This is not always correct, because (x+y) could be less than 65. For example, if x = 25 and y = 30, then (x+y) = 55.

Therefore, the answer is (c).

38. Ena was born 4 years after her parents’ marriage. Her mother is three years younger than her father and 24 years older than Ena, - who is 13 years old. At what age did Ena’s father get married?

(a) 22years

(b) 23 years

(d) 25 years

Answer: B

Ena was born 4 years after her parents’ marriage. Her mother is three years younger than her father and 24 years older than Ena, who is 13 years old.

So, Ena’s mother is 13+24 = 37 years old.

Now, we can find Ena’s father’s age by adding 3 years to her mother’s age. Ena’s father is 37+3 = 40 years old.

At the time of Ena’s parents’ marriage, Ena’s father was 40-13-4 = 23 years old.

39. Rakesh had money to buy 8 mobile handsets of a specific company. But the retailer offered very good discount on that particular handset. Rakesh could buy 10 mobile handsets with the amount he had. What was the discount the retailer offered?

(a) 15%

(b) 20%

(d) 30%

Answer: B

Let's assume the original price of one mobile handset is "P" (in rupees).

According to the information provided, Rakesh initially had enough money to buy 8 mobile handsets at the original price. So, the amount he had is 8P.

However, with the retailer's discount, he was able to buy 10 mobile handsets for the same amount. Therefore, the new price he paid for each handset is (8P) / 10.

Now, we can calculate the discount percentage:

Discount Percentage = ((Original Price - Discounted Price) / Original Price) * 100

Discount Percentage = ((P - (8P/10)) / P) * 100

Discount Percentage = ((10P/10 - 8P/10) / P) * 100

Discount Percentage = ((2P/10) / P) * 100

Discount Percentage = (2/10) * 100

Discount Percentage = 20%

So, the retailer offered a discount of 20%.

40. The average marks of 100 students are given to be 40. It was found later that marks of one student were 53 which were misread as 83. The corrected mean marks are

(a) 39

(b) 39.7

(d) 40.3

Answer: B

The average marks of 100 students are 40. This means that the sum of the marks of all 100 students is 100 * 40 = 4000.

If a mark of 53 was misread as 83, then the sum of the marks of all 100 students was over counted by 83 - 53 = 30.

Therefore, the correct sum of the marks of all 100 students is 4000 - 30 = 3970.

The corrected mean marks are 3970 / 100 = 39.7.

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items:

Read the following six passages and answer the follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

Passage -1

What stands in the way of the widespread and careful adoption of ‘Genetic Modification (GM) technology is an ‘Intellectual Property Rights’ regime that seeks to create private monopolies for such technologies. If GM technology is largely corporate driven, it seeks to maximize profits and that too in the short run. That is why corporations make major investments for herbicide-tolerant and pest-resistant crops. Such properties have only a short window, as soon enough; pests and weeds will evolve to overcome such resistance. This suits the corporations, The National Farmers Commission pointed out that priority must be given in genetic i modification to the incorporation of genes that can help impart resistance to drought, salinity and other stresses

41. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the above passage?

(a)Public research institutions should take the lead in GM technology and priorities the technology agenda.

(b)Developing countries should raise this issue in WTO and ensure the abolition of Intellectual Property Rights

(c)Private corporations should not be allowed to do agribusiness in India, particularly the seed business

(d)Present Indian circumstances do not favour the cultivation of "genetically modified crops.

Answer: A

The most logical, rational, and crucial message conveyed by the passage is that public research institutions should take the lead in GM technology and prioritize the technology agenda.

This is because the passage argues that corporate-driven GM technology is focused on short-term profits and not on the long-term needs of farmers and consumers. Public research institutions, on the other hand, are more likely to be focused on developing GM crops that are resistant to drought, salinity, and other stresses, which would be more beneficial to farmers in the long run.

The other options are not as logical or rational. Option (b) is too extreme, as it would stifle innovation and prevent companies from investing in GM research. Option (c) is also too extreme, as it would deprive farmers of the opportunity to access potentially beneficial GM crops. Option (d) is not logical, as there is no evidence to suggest that India is not suited for the cultivation of GM crops.

42. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: The issue of effects of natural calamities on agriculture is not given due consideration by GM technology companies. In the long run, GM technology will not be able to solve agricultural problems arising due to global warming. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

On the basis of the above passage, the following assumption is valid: The issue of effects of natural calamities on agriculture is not given due consideration by GM technology companies.

The passage states that GM technology is largely corporate-driven and that corporations are focused on maximizing profits in the short run. This suggests that corporations are more likely to invest in developing GM crops that are resistant to pests and herbicides, which are immediate problems for farmers, than in developing GM crops that are resistant to drought, salinity, and other stresses, which are long-term problems caused by natural calamities.

The passage does not explicitly state that GM technology will not be able to solve agricultural problems arising due to global warming. In fact, it is possible that GM technology could be used to develop crops that are resistant to the effects of climate change. However, the passage does not provide any evidence to support this assumption.

Passage - 2

Most invasive species are neither terribly successful nor very harmful. Britain's - invasive plants are not widespread, not i spreading especially quickly, and often less of a nuisance than vigorous natives such as bracken. The arrival of new species almost always increases biological diversity in a "region; in many cases, a flood of newcomers drives no native species to extinction. One reason is that invaders - tend to colonise disturbed habitats like polluted = lakes and post-industrial wasteland, where little else lives. They are nature’s opportunists.

43. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Invasive species should be used to rehabilitate desert areas and wastelands of a country.

(b) Laws against the introduction of foreign plants are unnecessary.

(d) Foreign plants should be used to increase the biodiversity of a country.

Answer: C

The most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage is that sometimes, the campaigns against foreign plants are pointless.

The passage states that most invasive species are not terribly successful or very harmful, and that they often colonize disturbed habitats where little else lives. It also states that the arrival of new species almost always increases biological diversity in a region. This suggests that, in many cases, the campaigns to eradicate invasive plants are pointless and may actually be doing more harm than good.

The other options are not as logical or rational. Option (a) is too extreme, as it could lead to the introduction of invasive species that could have a negative impact on the environment. Option (b) is too simplistic, as there may be some invasive species that pose a serious threat to the environment and should be eradicated. Option (d) is not supported by the passage, as the passage does not state that invasive plants should be used to increase the biodiversity of a country.

Passage – 3

Diarrhoeal deaths among Indian children are mostly due to food and water contamination. Use of contaminated groundwater and unsafe chemicals in agriculture, poor hygiene in storage and. handling of food items to food cooked distributed in unhygienic surroundings there are myriad actors that need regulation and monitoring. People need to have awareness of adulteration and ways of complaining to the relevant authorities Surveillance of food-borne diseases involves a number of government agencies and entails a good training of inspection staff. Considering the proportion of the urban population that depends on street food for its daily meals investing in training and education of street vendors is of great significance

44. On the basis of the above passage following assumptions have been made:

Food safety i is a complex i issue that calls for a multipronged solution
Great investments need to be made in developing the manpower for surveillance and training
India needs to make sufficient legislation for governing food processing industry

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 Only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Based on the information provided in the passage, let's evaluate the assumptions:

Food safety is a complex issue that calls for a multipronged solution.

This assumption is valid based on the passage, which discusses various factors contributing to food and water contamination, the need for regulation and monitoring, and the importance of awareness among the public and training of inspection staff. The passage implies that addressing food safety is a complex issue requiring multiple approaches.

Great investments need to be made in developing the manpower for surveillance and training.

This assumption is also valid based on the passage, which mentions the need for surveillance of food-borne diseases and highlights the significance of investing in training and education, especially for street vendors who serve a significant portion of the urban population.

India needs to make sufficient legislation to govern the food processing industry.

While the passage discusses the need for regulation and monitoring, it does not explicitly mention the need for legislation governing the food processing industry. Therefore, assumption 3 is not directly supported by the passage.

So, the correct answer is (a) 1 and 2 only, as these assumptions are valid based on the information in the passage.

Passage -4

The interests of working and poor people have historically been neglected in the planning of our cities Our cities are increasingly intolerant, unsafe and unlivable places for large numbers of citizens and yet we continue to plan via the old ways the static Development Plan that draws exclusively from technical expertise, distanced from people's live experiences and needs and a actively exclude ding large number of people places, activities an integral part of the city

45. The passage seems to argue

(a) Against the monopoly of builders and the interests of el elite groups

(b) Against the need for global and smart cities

(d) In favour of participation of peoples in city planning

Answer: D

The passage argues that the interests of working and poor people have historically been neglected in the planning of cities, and that this has led to cities that are increasingly intolerant, unsafe, and unliveable for large numbers of citizens. The passage also criticizes the traditional approach to city planning, which is based on static development plans that are drawn up by technical experts and distanced from people's lived experiences and needs.

The passage does not explicitly argue against the need for global and smart cities. However, it does suggest that these types of cities should be planned in a way that includes the participation of all stakeholders, including working and poor people.

The passage does not explicitly argue in favour of planning cities mainly for working class and poor people. However, it does argue that the needs of these groups should be given greater consideration in the planning process.

Therefore, the most accurate answer is (d). The passage argues in favour of the participation of people in city planning.

Passage -5

A vast majority of Indians are poor, with barely 10 percent employed in the organised sector. We are being convinced that vigorous economic growth is generating substantial employment. But this is not so. When our economy was growing at 3 percent per year, employment in the organised sector was growing at 2 percent per year. As the economy began to grow at 7 - 8 percent per year, the rate of growth of employment in the organised sector actually declined to 1 percent per year.

46. The above passage seems to imply that

Most of the modern economic growth is based on technological progress.
Much of the modern Indian economy does not nurture a sufficient symbiotic relationship with labor-intensive, natural resource-based livelihoods.
Service sector in India is not very labour-intensive.
Literate rural population is not willing to enter the organised sector.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3and 4

Answer: C

The passage implies that:

Most of the modern economic growth is based on technological progress.
Much of the modern Indian economy does not nurture a sufficient symbiotic relationship with labour-intensive, natural resource-based livelihoods.
Service sector in India is not very labour-intensive.

The passage does not mention the willingness of the literate rural population to enter the organised sector. Therefore, statement 4 is not implied by the passage.

The passage states that most of modern economic growth is based on technological progress. This means that businesses are able to produce more goods and services with fewer workers. This can lead to a decline in the rate of growth of employment, even when the economy is growing overall.

The passage also implies that the Indian economy does not nurture a sufficient symbiotic relationship with labour-intensive, natural resource-based livelihoods. This means that the economy is not creating enough jobs in these sectors, even though they are important sources of employment for many Indians.

The passage does not specifically mention the service sector in India. However, it does state that employment in the organised sector has declined as the economy has grown faster. This suggests that the service sector, which is a major part of the Indian economy, is not very labour-intensive.

Passage — 6

India has banking correspondents, who help bring people in the hinterland into the’ banking fold. For them to succeed, banks cannot crimp on costs. They also cannot afford to ignore investing in financial education and literacy. Banking correspondents are way too small to be viewed as a systemic risk. Yet India’s banking regulator has restricted them to serving only one "bank, perhaps to prevent arbitrage. Efforts at banking outreach may succeed only if there are better incentives at work for such last-mile workers and also those providers who ensure not just basic bank accounts but also products such as accident and life insurance and micro pension schemes

47. Which one of the following is’ the “most logical, rational and crucial: inference that can be derived from the above passage?

(a) Efforts to bring people in India’s hinterland into the banking system: are not successful financial inclusion needs more

(b) For meaningful India’s banking system number of banking correspondents and other such last-mile workers.

(d) Better banking outreach would be impossible unless each banking correspondent is allowed to serve a number of banks

Answer: C

The passage states that banking correspondents are essential for bringing people in the hinterland into the banking fold. However, it also states that the Indian banking regulator has restricted them to serving only one bank. This restriction prevents banking correspondents from shopping around for the best deals and incentives, and from offering a wider range of financial products and services. This can make it difficult for them to provide affordable and accessible financial services to their customers.

The passage also mentions that financial education and literacy are essential for successful banking outreach. This suggests that banking correspondents should be allowed to partner with multiple banks in order to offer a wider range of financial products and services, including accident and life insurance and micro pension schemes.

Therefore, the most logical and rational inference that can be derived from the passage is that meaningful financial inclusion in India requires that banking correspondents have diverse skills. This is because banking correspondents need to be able to offer a wide range of financial products and services in order to meet the needs of their customers, and they need to be able to do so at an affordable price.

The other options are not as logical or rational. Option 1 is incorrect because the passage does not evaluate the success of the program to bring people in India's hinterland into the banking system. Option 2 is not right because the passage does mention the lack of banking corresponding. However, it is not the lack of banking corresponding that is the main problem, but rather the restriction on banking correspondents to serve only one bank. Option 4 is incorrect because it goes to the extreme of the possibility that there will be no banking outreach if banking correspondents are not allowed to serve a number of banks. This is not necessarily true, as there are other ways to promote banking outreach, such as through government programs or through the use of technology.

Therefore, the correct inference is option 3: meaningful financial inclusion in India requires that banking correspondents have diverse skills.

48. What is X in the sequence 52. 132,199, 124,117, 106,93, X?

(a)74

(b) 75

(d)77

Answer: C

The sequence is decreasing by 3, 5, 7, 11, 13. So, the next difference should be 17 (the next prime number after 13).

Subtract 17 from the previous number in the sequence: 93 - 17 = 76.

Therefore, the next number in the sequence is 76.

49. A wall clock moves 10 minutes fast in every 24 hours. The clock was set right to show the correct time at 8:00 a.m. on Monday. When the clock shows the time 6:00 pm. on Wednesday, what is the correct time?

(a) 5:36pm.

(b) 5:30 p.m.

(d) 5:18pm.

Answer: A

The clock moves 10 minutes fast in every 24 hours, which means that it gains 10 minutes every day. From Monday 8:00 am to Wednesday 6:00 pm, there are 2 days and 10 hours. This means that the clock has gained 10 * 2 + 10/24 * 10 = 24 minutes.

Therefore, the correct time when the clock shows 6:00 p.m. on Wednesday is 6:00 p.m. - 24 minutes = 5:36 p.m.

50. If the numerator and denominator of a proper fraction are increased by the same positive quantity which is greater than zero, the resulting fraction is

(a) always less than the original fraction

(b) always greater than the original fraction

(d) such that nothing can be claimed definitely

Answer: B

When the numerator is less than the denominator than its called proper fraction

Let be assume same positive quantity is 2 and fraction is 3/5

⇒ (3 + 2)/(5 + 2) = 5/7

⇒ 5/7 > 3/5

∴ The required result will be "always greater than the original fraction

51. What is X in the sequence 4,196, 16, 144, 36, 100, 64, X ?

(a) 48

(b) 64

(d) 256

Answer: B

The sequence is alternating between the squares of even numbers and the squares of odd numbers. The first number in the sequence is 4, which is the square of the even number 2. The second number is 196, which is the square of the odd number 13. The third number is 16, which is the square of the even number 4. And so on.

Therefore, the next number in the sequence is the square of the even number 8, which is 64.

52. In a group of 15 people 7 can read French, 8 can read English while 3 of them can read ° neither of these two languages. The number of people who can read exactly one language is

(a) 10

(b) 9

(d) 4

Answer: B

There are 15 people in the group, and 3 of them cannot read either French or English. This means that 15 - 3 = 12 people can read at least one of the two languages.

Out of the 12 people who can read at least one of the two languages, 7 can read French and 8 can read English. This means that 7 + 8 = 15 people can read at least one of the two languages.

However, we know that there are only 12 people who can read at least one of the two languages. This means that 15 - 12 = 3 people can read both French and English.

Therefore, the number of people who can read exactly one language is 12 - 3 = 9.

53. A printer numbers the pages of a book starting with 1 and uses 3089 digits in all. How many pages does the book have?

(a) 1040

(b) 1048

(d) 1050

Answer: C

The single-digit page numbers (from 1 to 9) use 9 digits.
The double-digit page numbers (from 10 to 99) use 2 digits each, totaling 2 × 90 = 180 digits.
The three-digit page numbers (from 100 to 999) use 3 digits each, totaling 3 × 900 = 2700 digits.

The total digits used for page numbers up to 999 is 9 + 180 + 2700 = 2889 digits.

Now, we need to find the number of pages that can be formed with the remaining digits:

Remaining digits = Total digits available - Digits used = 3089 - 2889 = 200 digits

Each page number in the thousands place (e.g., 1000, 1001, 1002, etc.) requires 4 digits.

So, the number of pages with four-digit page numbers = Remaining digits / Digits per page number = 200 / 4 = 50 pages.

Now, let's calculate the total number of pages:

Total pages = Pages with three-digit page numbers + Pages with four-digit page numbers Total pages = 999 + 50 = 1049 pages.

Therefore, the book has 1049 pages, and the correct answer is (c) 1049.

54. Consider the following sequence that follows some arrangement

c_accaa_aa_bc_b

The letters that appear in the gaps are

(a) abba

(b) cbbb

(d) cccc

Answer: B

The letters that appear in the gaps are cbbb.

Here is a breakdown of the sequence, grouped into three groups of five letters each:

Group 1: c a a c c a a b a a b b c a b

Group 2: c c a c c a a b a a b b c b b

Group 3: c b a c c a a b a a b b c b b

As you pointed out, the pattern is as follows:

c c a c c

a a b a a

b b c b b

Therefore, the letters that appear in the gaps are cbbb.

55. A family has’ two children along with their parents. The average of the ‘weights of the children and their mother is 50 kg. The average of the weights of the children and - their father is 52 kg. If the weight of the father is 60 kg, then what i is the weight of the mother?

(a) 48kg

(b) 50kg

(d) 54kg

Answer: D

The average weight of the children and their mother is 50 kg, which means that the total weight of the children and their mother is 50 * 3 = 150 kg.

The average weight of the children and their father is 52 kg, which means that the total weight of the children and their father is 52 * 3 = 156 kg.

Since the weight of the father is 60 kg, the total weight of the children is 156 - 60 = 96 kg.

The weight of the mother is therefore 150 - 96 = 54 kg.

56. Suppose you have sufficient amount of rupee currency in three denominations: Rs 1, Rs 10 and Rs 50. In how many different ways can you pay a bill of T 107?

(a) 16

(b) 17

(d) 19

Answer: C

Let the number of coins of 50 rupees, 10 rupees, and 1 rupee be denoted by F, T, and O, respectively. Therefore, 50F + 10T + O = 107.

We can consider following cases:

Case 1: F = 2 When F = 2, the expression becomes:

50F + 10T + O = 107

100 + 10T + O = 107

10T + O = 7

The number of ways to pay the bill with 2 coins of Rs. 50 is 1.

Case 2: F = 1 When F = 1, the expression becomes:

50F + 10T + O = 107

50 + 10T + O = 107

10T + O = 57

The number of ways to pay the bill with 1 coin of Rs. 50 is 6.

Case 3: F = 0 When F = 0, the expression becomes:

50F + 10T + O = 107

10T + O = 107

The number of ways to pay the bill with 0 coin of Rs. 50 is 11.

Therefore, the total number of ways to pay the bill is 1 + 6 + 11 = 18.

57. ‘A’ started from his house and walked 20 m towards East, where his friend ‘B’ joined him. They together walked 10m in the same direction. Then ‘A’ turned left while ‘B’ turned right and travelled 2 m and 8 m respectively. Again ‘B’ turned left to travel 4 m followed by 5 m to his right to reach His office. ‘A’ turned right and travelled 12m to reach his office.

What is the shortest distance between the two offices?

(a) 16m

(b) 17m

(d) 20m

Answer: B

The shortest distance between the two offices is 17m.

Here is a diagram of the path taken by A and B:

A's office

12m |

10m |

20m |

B's office

To calculate the shortest distance between the two offices, we can use the Pythagorean theorem:

shortest distance = sqrt(a^2 + b^2)

where a is the distance from A's office to the intersection of the two paths, and b is the distance from B's office to the intersection of the two paths.

From the diagram, we can see that a = 20m and b = 10m. Therefore, the shortest distance between the two offices is:

shortest distance = sqrt(20^2 + 10^2) = sqrt(500) = 10sqrt(5) = 17.32m

Since the question asks for the shortest distance in whole meters, the answer is (b) 17m.

58. Consider two statements 51 and B82 followed by a question:

S1: p and q both are prime numbers:

S2: p +q is an odd integer.

Question: Is pq an odd integer?

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the question

(b) S82 alone is sufficient to answer the question

(d) Both-S1 and S2 are necessary to answer the question

Answer: B

Let's analyse the statements and question:

S1: p and q both are prime numbers. S2: p + q is an odd integer.

The question is: Is pq an odd integer?

We can break down the problem into two cases:

Case 1: If both p and q are odd prime numbers, then pq will be an odd integer because the product of two odd numbers is always odd. So, S1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Case 2: If either p or q is an even prime number (which is 2), then p + q would be even (2 + an odd number = even). In this case, pq would also be even (even * any integer = even). So, S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Therefore, either S1 or S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question. We don't need both statements together. So, the correct option is:

(b) S82 alone is sufficient to answer the question.

59. Number 136 is added to 5B7 and the sum obtained is 7A3, where A'and B are integers. It is given that 7A3 is ‘exactly divisible by 3. The only possible value of B is

(a) 2

(b) 5

(d) 8

Answer: D

To find the only possible value of B, we can use the following steps:

We know that 7A3 is exactly divisible by 3, which means that the sum of its digits is divisible by 3.
The sum of the digits in 7A3 is 7 + A + 3 = 10 + A.
We need to add 136 to 5B7 to get 7A3. This means that 10 + A + 5 + B + 7 = 29 + A + B is equal to 7A3.
Subtracting 29 from both sides, we get A + B = 48.
Since A and B are integers, the only possible value of B that satisfies this equation is 8.

Therefore, the answer is (d).

60. Which year has the same calendar as that of 2009?

(a) 2018

(b) 2017

(d) 2015

Answer: D

The year 2015 has the same calendar as that of 2009.

A calendar year repeats every 7 odd days. This is because there is one odd day in a regular year and two odd days in a leap year. 2009 and 2015 are both 6 years apart, and there is one leap year in between. Therefore, 2009 and 2015 have the same number of odd days, and hence the same calendar.

Therefore, the answer is (d).

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items:

Read the following five passages and answer items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage - 1

India’s economic footprint, given its population, still remains small compared to the US, the European Union or China. It has much to learn from other economies, yet must implement solutions that fit its unique circumstances. India especially needs an effective long-term regulatory system based on collaboration rather than the current top-down approach. Regulations seek desirable outcomes yet are repeatedly used as political tools to push one agenda or another. Often, regulations fail to consider impacts on jobs and economic growth — or less restrictive. Alternatives Regulations may be used to protect local markets at the expense of more widely shared prosperity in the - future. Additionally, regulations inevitably result in numerous unintended consequences. In today’s hyper competitive global economy, regulations need to be viewed as “weapons” that seek cost-justified social and environmental benefits while improving the economic well-being of most citizens

61. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage?

a) A better regulatory system will help India achieve the size of economy appropriate to its population

(b) In a competitive global economy, India must use regulations strategically.

(d) Job creation and economic ‘growth should be dominant considerations in. developing India’s regulatory system

Answer: B

The passage discusses the importance of an effective regulatory system for India's economic growth. It argues that the current regulatory system is top-down and often used as a political tool, rather than being based on collaboration and consideration of the impacts on jobs and economic growth. The passage also notes that regulations can be used to protect local markets at the expense of more widely shared prosperity in the future.

In the context of a hypercompetitive global economy, the passage argues that India must use regulations strategically to achieve its economic goals. This means designing regulations that are cost-justified and seek to improve the social, environmental, and economic well-being of most citizens.

The other answer choices are not as logical, rational, or crucial. While a better regulatory system could help India achieve the size of economy appropriate to its population, this is not the most crucial inference that can be drawn from the passage. Answer choice (c) is too broad and does not take into account the nuances of the passage. Answer choice (d) is important, but it is not the most crucial inference that can be drawn from the passage.

Therefore, the most logical, rational, and crucial inference that can be derived from the passage is (b) In a competitive global economy, India must use regulations strategically.

62. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made in today’s global economy,

regulations are not effectively used to protect local markets.
social and environmental concerns are’ generally ignored by the governments across the world while implementing the regulations.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

The passage does not make any explicit assumptions about the effectiveness of regulations to protect local markets or the consideration of social and environmental concerns in the implementation of regulations. Therefore, the answer is (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

The passage does discuss the potential for regulations to be used to protect local markets at the expense of more widely shared prosperity in the future. However, it does not say that this is always the case, or that it is the dominant purpose of regulations in today's global economy.

The passage also discusses the importance of social and environmental concerns in the development of regulations. However, it does not say that these concerns are generally ignored by governments around the world. In fact, the passage explicitly states that regulations can be used to achieve cost-justified social and environmental benefits.

Therefore, the passage does not make any explicit assumptions about the effectiveness of regulations to protect local markets or the consideration of social and environmental concerns in the implementation of regulations.

Passage – 2

In a study, scientists compared ‘the micro biomes of poorly nourished and well-nourished infants and young children. Gut microbes were isolated from faecal samples of malnourished and healthy children. The microbiome was “immature” and less diverse in malnourished children compared to the better developed “mature” microbiome found in healthy children of the same age. According to some studies, the chemical composition of mother’s milk has shown the presence of a modified sugar (salivated oligosaccharides). This is not utilized by the baby for its own nutrition. However, the bacteria constituting the infant's microbiome thrive on this sugar which serves as their food. Malnourished mothers have low levels of this sugar in their milk. Consequently, the microbiomes of their infants fail to mature. That in turn, leads to malnourished babies.

63. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage?

(a) If malnourished condition in children is caused by gut bacteria, it cannot be treated.

(b) The guts of malnourished babies should be inoculated with mature microbiomes.

(c) Babies of malnourished mothers should be fed with dairy milk fortified with sialylatéd oligosaccharides instead of mother’s milk.

(d) Research on benign effects of gut bacteria on nutrition has policy implications.

Answer: D

The passage describes a study that found that malnourished children have an immature and less diverse gut microbiome. It also discusses the importance of a modified sugar called sialylatéd oligosaccharides (SOS) in the development of a healthy gut microbiome. SOS is present in mother's milk, but malnourished mothers have low levels of SOS in their milk.

This research has important policy implications because it suggests that interventions aimed at improving the gut microbiome of malnourished children could be an effective way to improve their nutritional status. For example, policymakers could consider developing programs to provide malnourished mothers with SOS supplements or to inoculate the guts of malnourished babies with mature microbiomes.

The other answer choices are not as logical, rational, or crucial. Answer choice (a) is not supported by the passage, as the passage does not discuss whether or not malnourished condition in children can be treated. Answer choice (b) is a possible solution, but it is not the most crucial inference that can be drawn from the passage. Answer choice (c) is too narrow, as it only discusses one possible intervention for malnourished babies.

Therefore, the most logical, rational, and crucial inference that can be derived from the passage is (d) Research on benign effects of gut bacteria on nutrition has policy implications.

64. On the basis of ‘the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

Processed probiotic foods are a solution to treat the children suffering from malnutrition due to immature gut bacteria composition.
The babies of malnourished mothers generally tend to be malnourished.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Assumption 1 is not valid, as the passage does not mention processed probiotic foods as a solution to treat malnutrition in children. In fact, the passage states that malnourished mothers have low levels of SOS in their milk, which is necessary for the development of a healthy gut microbiome. This suggests that processed probiotic foods, which may not contain SOS, may not be an effective solution for malnourished children.

Assumption 2 is valid, as the passage states that "babies of malnourished mothers should be fed with dairy milk fortified with sialylatéd oligosaccharides instead of mother's milk." This suggests that babies of malnourished mothers are at risk of malnutrition.

Passage - 3

Temperatures have risen nearly five times as rapidly on the Western Antarctic Peninsula than the global average over the past five decades. Researchers have’ now found that melting glaciers are causing a loss of species diversity among benthos in the coastal waters off the Antarctic Peninsula, impacting an entire seafloor ecosystem. They believe increased levels of suspended sediment in water to be the cause of the dwindling biodiversity in the coastal region.

65. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

Regions of glaciers warm faster than other regions due to global warming.
Global warming can lead to seafloor sedimentation in some areas.
Melting glaciers can reduce -marine biodiversity in some areas.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 and 2only

(b) 3only

(d) 1,2and3.

Answer: C

The passage states that temperatures have risen nearly five times as rapidly on the Western Antarctic Peninsula than the global average over the past five decades. This suggests that the Western Antarctic Peninsula is warming faster than other regions. However, the passage does not provide any information about the rate at which glaciers in other regions are melting. Therefore, it is not possible to determine whether or not regions of glaciers are melting faster than other regions due to global warming.

Here is a more detailed explanation of why assumptions 2 and 3 are valid:

Assumption 2: The passage states that researchers believe increased levels of suspended sediment in water to be the cause of the dwindling biodiversity in the coastal region. This suggests that global warming can lead to seafloor sedimentation in some areas.

Assumption 3: The passage states that researchers have found that melting glaciers are causing a loss of species diversity among benthos in the coastal waters off the Antarctic Peninsula. This suggests that melting glaciers can reduce marine biodiversity in some areas.

Passage – 4

A research team examined a long-term owl roost; Owls prey on’ small mammals and the excreted remains of those meals that accumulated over the time, provide us an insight into the composition and structure of small mammals over the past millennia. The research suggested that when the Earth went through .a period of, rapid warming about 18,000 years ‘ago, the small mammal - community was stable and resilient. But, from the last quarter: of the nineteenth

66. On ‘the basis "of the above ‘passage, the following assumptions have been made:

Global warming is a frequently occurring natural phenomenon.
The impending global warming will not adversely affect small mammals
Humans are responsible for the loss of the Earth’s natural resilience

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Assumption 1: The passage does not provide any information about the frequency of global warming throughout Earth's history. Therefore, this assumption cannot be determined from the passage.

Assumption 2: The passage states that "the small mammal community was stable and resilient during a period of rapid warming about 18,000 years ago." This does not necessarily mean that the impending global warming will not adversely affect small mammals. The passage also states that "from the last quarter of the nineteenth century, the small mammal community has become increasingly unstable." This suggests that the current global warming trend may be having a different impact on small mammals than the rapid warming event that occurred 18,000 years ago.

Assumption 3: The passage states that "the impending global warming is occurring at a much faster rate than any previous natural warming event." This suggests that humans are responsible for the accelerating rate of global warming. However, the passage does not explicitly state that humans are responsible for the loss of the Earth's natural resilience.

Therefore, the only valid assumption is 3 only.

Passage-5

Food varieties extinction is happening all over the world — and it is happening fast. For example, of the 7,000 apple varieties that were grown during the nineteenth century, fewer than a hundred remain. In the Philippines, thousands of varieties of rice once thrived; now only up to a hundred are grown there. In China, 90 percent of the wheat varieties cultivated just a century ago has disappeared. Farmers ‘in the past painstakingly bred and developed crops well suited to the peculiarities of their local climate and environment. In the recent past, our heavy dependence on a few high yielding varieties and technology-driven production and distribution of food is causing the dwindling of diversity i in food crops. If some mutating crop disease or future climate change decimates the few crop plants we "have come to depend on to feed our growing population, we ‘might desperately need some of those varieties we have let go extinct,

67. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

Humans have been the main reason for the large scale extinction of plant species.
Consumption of food mainly from locally cultivated crops ensures crop diversity.
The present style of production and distribution of food will finally lead to the problem of food scarcity, in the near future.
Our food security ‘may depend on our ability to preserve the locally cultivated varieties of crops.

Which of the above assumptions are valid?

(a) 1 and3

(b) 2 and 4

(d)1 and 4

Answer: B

The valid assumptions based on the information in the passage are:

Consumption of food mainly from locally cultivated crops ensures crop diversity. The passage mentions that farmers in the past bred and developed crops suited to their local climate and environment, which suggests that locally cultivated crops contribute to crop diversity.
Our food security may depend on our ability to preserve the locally cultivated varieties of crops. The passage suggests that if some mutating crop disease or future climate change affects the few crop plants we rely on, we might need the varieties we have let go extinct, implying that preserving locally cultivated crop varieties could be important for food security.

Assumptions 1 and 3 are not directly supported by the passage:

The passage mentions the dwindling of diversity in food crops due to heavy dependence on a few high-yielding varieties and technology-driven production but does not explicitly attribute this to humans as the main reason for large-scale plant species extinction.
The passage discusses the potential problem of future food scarcity if we lose the crop varieties we have come to depend on, but it does not definitively state that this will happen in the near future.

68. If every alternative letter of the English alphabet from B onwards (including B) is written in lower case (small letters) and the remaining letters are capitalized, then how is the first month of the second half of the year written?

(a) July

(b) jULy

(d) jUlY

Answer: D

To solve this problem, we can break down the English alphabet into pairs of letters:

AB, CD, EF, GH, IJ, KL, MN, OP, QR, ST, UV, WX, YZ

If we write every alternate letter in lowercase, we get the following:

Ab, Cd, Ef, Gh, IJ, Kl, Mn, Op, Qr, St, Uv, Wx, Yz

The first month of the second half of the year is July, which has the following letter pattern:

JUly

Therefore, the answer is (d) jUlY.

69. Sunita cuts a sheet of paper into three pieces. Length of first piece is equal to the average of the three single digit odd prime numbers. Length of the second piece is equal to that of the first plus one-third the length of the third. The third piece is as long as the other two pieces together. The length of the original ‘sheet of paper is

(a) 13 units

(b) 15 units

(d) 30 units

Answer: D

The three single digit odd prime numbers are 3, 5, and 7. The average of these numbers is (3 + 5 + 7) / 3 = 5.

Let the length of the first piece be x, the length of the second piece be y, and the length of the third piece be z.

The given information can be translated into the following system of equations:

x = 5

y = x + z / 3

z = x + y

Substituting the second equation into the third equation, we get:

z = x + (x + z / 3)

Combining like terms, we get:

2z / 3 = 2x

Multiplying both sides by 3/2, we get:

z = 3x

Substituting this value of z into the second equation, we get:

y = x + (3x) / 3 = 2x

Therefore, the lengths of the three pieces are 5, 10, and 15 units.

The length of the original sheet of paper is the sum of the lengths of the three pieces, which is 5 + 10 + 15 = 30 units.

Therefore, the answer is (d).

70. In the sequence 1, 5, 7, 8, 5, 7, 4, 3, 5, 7, how many such 5s are there which are not immediately preceded by 3 but are immediately followed by 7?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) None

Answer: A

Let's analyze the sequence to find the 5s that are not immediately preceded by 3 but are immediately followed by 7:

1, 5, 7, 8, 5, 7, 4, 3, 5, 7

We need to find 5s that meet the following conditions:

Not immediately preceded by 3.
Immediately followed by 7.

Looking at the sequence:

The first 5 is not immediately preceded by 3, but it is immediately followed by 7.
The second 5 is immediately preceded by 8, so it doesn't meet the first condition.
The third 5 is immediately preceded by 4, so it doesn't meet the first condition.
The fourth 5 is not immediately preceded by 3, and it is immediately followed by 7.

So, there is one 5 that meets both conditions. Therefore, the answer is (a) 1.

71. A joint family consists of seven members A, B, C, D, E, F and G with three females. G is a widow and sister-in-law of I's father F. B. and D are siblings and A is daughter of B. C is cousin of B. Who is E?

Wife of F
Grandmother of A
Aunt of C

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1and2 only

(b) 2and 3 only

(d) 1,2and3

Answer: D

The possible family tree diagram is:

F (deceased)

/ \

E G

/ \

B D

This is the only possible family tree diagram that satisfies all of the given statements:

Statement 1: G is a widow and sister-in-law of I's father F.
Statement 2: B and D are siblings.
Statement 3: A is daughter of B.
Statement 4: C is cousin of B.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) 1, 2, and 3.

72. Each face of a cube can be painted in black or white colours. In how many different ways can the cube be painted?

(a) 9

(b) 10

(d)12

Answer: B

Case 1: All 6 sides black.

Case 2: 1 side white and 5 sides black.

Case 3: 2 adjacent sides white and other 4 sides black.

Case 4: 2 opposite sides white and other 4 sides black.

Case 5: 3 sides with same corner white and other 3 black.

Case 6: 2 opposite sides and 1 center side white and other 3 black.

Case 7: 2 adjacent sides black and other 4 sides white.

Case 8: 2 opposite sides black and other 4 sides white.

Case 9: 1 side black and 5 sides white.

Case 10: All sides white.

There are 10 different ways to paint the cube in 10 different ways.

73. How many triplets (x, y, z) satisfy the "equation x + y + z = 6, where x, y and z are natural numbers?

(a) 4

(b) 5

(d) 10

Answer: D

There are a few different cases to consider:

Case 1: All three numbers are equal. This case occurs once, when x=y=z=2.
Case 2: Two numbers are equal and the third number is different. This case occurs three times, when x=y=3 and z=1, when x=y=2 and z=1, and when x=y=1 and z=3.
Case 3: All three numbers are different. This case occurs six times, when x=1, y=2, and z=3, when x=1, y=3, and z=2, when x=2, y=1, and z=3, when x=2, y=3, and z=1, when x=3, y=1, and z=2, and when x=3, y=2, and z=1.

Therefore, the total number of ways to satisfy the equation x+y+z=6 is 1+3+6=10.

74. If $ means ‘divided by’ @ means ‘multiplie # means ‘minus’ then the value of 10#5@1%5 is

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) 9

Answer: D

According to the given symbols, 10#5@1%5 is equal to:

10 - 5 x 1 % 5

= 10 - 5 x 0.2

= 10 - 1 = 9

Therefore, the answer is (d).

75. An 8-digit number 4252746B leaves remainder 0 when divided by 3.

How many values of B are possible?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(d) 6

Answer: C

To find the possible values of B, we can use the following steps:

Add up the digits of the number 4252746B.
If the sum of the digits is divisible by 3, then the number is also divisible by 3.
Therefore, the possible values of B are the numbers that make the sum of the digits divisible by 3.

Adding up the digits of the number, we get:

4 + 2 + 5 + 2 + 7 + 4 + 6 + B = 30 + B

For the number to be divisible by 3, the sum of the digits must be divisible by 3. Therefore, the possible values of B are the numbers that make 30 + B divisible by 3.

We can try out different values of B to see which ones make 30 + B divisible by 3. We find that the following values of B make 30 + B divisible by 3:

B = 0, 3, 6, 9

Therefore, there are four possible values of B.

Directions for the following 3 (three) items: Read the following information and answer three items that follow:

Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared in several tests. Either C or F scores the highest Whenever C scores the highest, then E scores the least. Whenever F scores the highest, B score the least.

In all the tests they got different marks D scores higher than A, but they are close competitors; A scores higher than B; C scores higher than A.

76. If F stands second in the ranking, then position of B is

(a) Third

(b) Fourth

(d) Sixth

Answer: C

Let's analyse the given information:

Whenever F scores the highest, B scores the least.
F stands second in the ranking.

From the information provided, we know that F is not the lowest scorer when they stand second in the ranking. Therefore, B cannot be the lowest scorer when F is second.

Now, since F is second, and B cannot be the lowest scorer, we can consider the possible order of rankings from highest to lowest:

Now, let's consider the remaining information:

Either C or F scores the highest.
Whenever C scores the highest, E scores the least.
D scores higher than A.
A scores higher than B.
C scores higher than A.

Let's place C at the highest position, which is consistent with the given information:

Now, since C is the highest, it cannot be E since whenever C scores the highest, E scores the least. So, E must be placed at the lowest position:

Now, we are left with three students: A, B, and D. Since D scores higher than A, and A scores higher than B, the order should be:

So, the position of B is fifth.

The correct answer is (c) Fifth.

77. If B scores the least, the rank of C will be -

(a) Second

(b) Third

(d) Second or third

Answer: D

Let's analyse the situation when B scores the least:

Whenever B scores the least, C or F scores the highest.

Now, consider the possibilities:

Case 1: C scores the highest when B scores the least. In this case, we can determine the rank of C:

C (highest)
?
?
?
?
B (least)

So, when B scores the least, C stands first.

Case 2: F scores the highest when B scores the least. In this case, we can determine the rank of F:

F (highest)
?
?
?
?
B (least)

So, when B scores the least, F stands first.

Therefore, the rank of C can be either second or third, depending on whether C or F scores the highest when B scores the least.

The correct answer is (d) Second or third.

78. If E is ranked third, then which one of the following is correct?

(a) E gets more marks than C

(b) C gets more marks than E

(d) Dis ranked fifth

Answer: B

If E is ranked third, then either C or F scores the highest. Since B scores the least, then F scores the highest.

Therefore, the ranking of the students is as follows:

This means that C gets more marks than E.

So the answer is (b).

Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the following statements S1 and S2 and answer the two items that follow:

S1 Twice the weight of Sohan is less than the weight of Mohan or that of Rohan.

S2: Twice the weight of Rohan is greater than the weight of Mohan or that of Sohan

79. Which one of the following statements is the correct?

(a) Weight of Mohan is greatest

(b) Weight of Schan is greatest

(d) ‘Whose weight is greatest’ cannot be determined

Answer: D

Let's analyse both statements:

Statement 1 (S1): Twice the weight of Sohan is less than the weight of Mohan or that of Rohan.

Statement 2 (S2): Twice the weight of Rohan is greater than the weight of Mohan or that of Sohan.

We need to determine whose weight is the greatest based on these statements.

From S1: 2 * Weight of Sohan < Weight of Mohan or Weight of Rohan

From S2: 2 * Weight of Rohan > Weight of Mohan or Weight of Sohan

Now, let's consider these two statements together:

S1 indicates that Mohan's weight or Rohan's weight is greater than twice Sohan's weight.
S2 indicates that twice Rohan's weight is greater than Mohan's weight or Sohan's weight.

From these statements, we cannot definitively determine whose weight is the greatest. It's possible that Mohan or Rohan has the greatest weight, but we cannot make a conclusive determination based on the given information.

So, the correct answer is (d) "Whose weight is greatest" cannot be determined.

80. Which one of the following statements. Is the correct?

(a) Weight of Mohan is least

(b) Weight of Sohan is least

(d) Whose weight is least’ cannot be determined

Answer: B

Let's summarize the conclusions:

From S1: 2S < M and 2S < R, which implies S < M and S < R. From S2: 2R > M, but the relationship between R and S cannot be determined.

Based on these conclusions, it is indeed clear that Sohan's weight (S) is the least among the three.

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