UPSC PRELIMS 2018 CSAT PAPER II

How many triangles does the above figure have?
(a) 18
(b) 20
(c) 22
(d) 24

Answer: B

The figure has 5 triangles on the top, 5 triangles on the bottom, 5 triangles on the front, and 5 triangles on the back. Therefore, the total number of triangles is 5+5+5+5=20​

In the above sum, • stands for
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 8

Answer: D

• For • = 4, 5, or 6, the sum cannot be solved because the left-hand side (LHS) is always greater than the right-hand side (RHS). For example, when • = 4, the LHS is 126, which is greater than the RHS of 214.
• For • = 8, the sum can be solved because the LHS is equal to the RHS. For example, when • = 8, the LHS is 218, which is equal to the RHS of 214.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) 8.

Answer: A

In each column, second element is subtracted from the sum of first and third element to get the fourth element.

Column 1 : (8 + 4) - 6 = 6

Column 2 : (10 + 6) - 5 = 11

Column 3 : (15 + 8) - 7 = 16

Column 4 : (13 + 8) - 4 = 17

Answer: A

There are 20 diagonals that can be drawn by joining the vertices of an octagon.

To calculate the number of diagonals in an n-sided polygon, we can use the following formula:

n(n - 3) / 2

where n is the number of sides in the polygon.

Therefore, the number of diagonals in an octagon is:

8(8 - 3) / 2 = 8 * 5 / 2 = 20

 

What is the ratio between the distances covered by vehicles A and B in the time interval OL?
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 1 : 1 

Answer: C

The distance covered by a vehicle in a given time interval is equal to the area under its velocity graph in that time interval.

In the figure, the distance covered by vehicle A in the time interval OL is equal to the area of the triangle OLP. The distance covered by vehicle B in the time interval OL is equal to the area of the rectangle OLDC.

The area of the triangle OLP is:

(1/2) * OL * LP = (1/2) * OL * (LD + PD) = (1/2) * OL * (3/2 * LD) = (3/4) * OL * LD

The area of the rectangle OLDC is:

OL * LD

Therefore, the ratio of the distances covered by vehicles A and B in the time interval OL is:

[(3/4) * OL * LD] / [OL * LD] = 3/4

Therefore, the answer is (c) 3: 4.

 6. A train 200 metres long is moving at the rate of 40 kmph. In how many seconds will it cross a man standing near the railway line?

Answer: D

To solve this problem, we can use the following formula:

Time = Distance / Speed

Where:

• Time is the time it takes to travel the distance at the given speed
• Distance is the distance to be travelled
• Speed is the speed at which the distance is travelled

In this case, the distance is 200 meters and the speed is 40 kilometers per hour. However, we need to convert the speed from kilometers per hour to meters per second in order to use the formula. To do this, we can use the following conversion factor:

1 kilometre per hour = 5/18 meters per second

Therefore, the speed in meters per second is:

40 kilometers per hour * 5/18 meters per second per kilometer = 100/9 meters per second

Now, we can use the formula to calculate the time it takes for the train to cross the man:

Time = Distance / Speed = 200 meters / 100/9 meters per second = 18 seconds

 

Directions for the following 4 (four) items
Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage-1

Global population was around 1.6 billion in 1990—today it is around 7.2 billion and growing. Recent estimates on population growth predict a global population of 9.6 billion in 2050 and 10.9 billion in 2100. Unlike Europe and North America, where only three to four per cent of population is engaged in agriculture, around 47 per cent of India’s population is dependent upon agriculture. Even if India continues to do well in the service sector and the manufacturing
sector picks up, it is expected that around 2030 when India overtakes China as the world’s most populous country, nearly 42 per cent of India’s population will still be predominantly dependent on agriculture.

Answer: A

The most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage is that the prosperity of the agriculture sector is of critical importance to India.

The passage states that India has a large and growing population, and that a significant portion of the population is dependent on agriculture. This suggests that the agriculture sector plays a vital role in the Indian economy and that the well-being of the Indian people is closely linked to the success of this sector.

A prosperous agriculture sector can provide food security for the nation, generate employment opportunities, and contribute to economic growth. Conversely, a struggling agriculture sector can lead to food shortages, unemployment, and economic hardship.

Therefore, the answer is (a) Prosperity of agriculture sector is of critical importance to India.

The other options are not logical or rational inferences from the passage. Option (b) is a tautology, as it simply restates one of the facts presented in the passage. Option (c) is not supported by the passage, as it does not discuss population growth in India. Option (d) is also not supported by the passage, as it does not discuss the economic conditions of Indian farming communities.

Passage-2

Many pathogens that cause foodborne illnesses are unknown. Food contamination can occur at any stage from farm to plate. Since most cases of food poisoning go unreported, the true extent of global foodborne illnesses is unknown. Improvements in international monitoring
have led to greater public awareness, yet the rapid globalization of food production increases consumers’ vulnerability by making food harder to regulate and trace. “We have the world on our plates”, says an official of WHO.

Answer: A

The most logical corollary to the passage is that with more options for food come more risks.

The passage states that the globalization of food production has increased consumers' vulnerability to foodborne illnesses by making food harder to regulate and trace. This suggests that the greater variety of food choices available to consumers also comes with the risk of consuming food that is contaminated or unsafe.

The other options are not logical corollaries to the passage. Option (b) is not supported by the passage, as it does not discuss food processing as the source of foodborne illnesses. Option (c) is a hasty generalization, as it does not follow that all locally produced food is safe. Option (d) is also a hasty generalization, as it does not follow that all foodborne illnesses are caused by the globalization of food production.

Passage-3
I am a scientist, privileged to be somebody who tries to understand nature using the tools of science. But it is also clear that there are some really important questions that science cannot really answer, such as:  Why is there something instead of nothing? Why are we here? In those domains, I have found that faith provides a better path to answers. I find it oddly anachronistic that in today’s culture there seems to be a widespread presumption that scientific and spiritual views are incompatible. 

Answer: B

The most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage is that science and faith can be mutually complementary if their proper domains are understood.

The passage states that science is a powerful tool for understanding nature, but that there are some important questions that it cannot answer. The author then suggests that faith can provide a better path to answers to these questions. This suggests that the author believes that science and faith can work together to provide a more complete understanding of the world.

The other options are not logical or rational inferences from the passage. Option (a) is not supported by the passage, as it does not discuss the ability of faith to solve all the problems of mankind. Option (d) is not supported by the passage, as it does not discuss the relative importance of scientific and spiritual views in today's culture.

Therefore, the answer is (b) Science and faith can be mutually complementary if their proper domains are understood.

 Passage-4

Though I have discarded much of past tradition and custom, and am anxious that India should rid herself of all shackles that bind and contain her and divide her people, and suppress vast numbers of them, and prevent the free development of the body and the spirit; though I seek all this, yet I do not wish to cut myself off from that past completely. I am proud of that great inheritance that has been and is, ours and I am conscious that I too, like all of us, am a link in that unbroken chain which goes back to the dawn of history in the immemorial past of India.

Answer: D

The author wants India to rid herself of certain past bonds because they obstruct her physical and spiritual growth.

The passage states that the author is proud of India's past inheritance, but that he also wants India to break free from the shackles of the past that bind and contain her people and prevent their free development. This suggests that the author believes that certain aspects of India's past are holding the country back and preventing it from reaching its full potential.

The other options are not supported by the passage. Option (a) is not supported by the passage, as the author states that he is proud of India's past inheritance. Option (b) is not supported by the passage, as the author does not state that there is not much to be proud of in India's past. Option (c) is not supported by the passage, as the author does discuss the history of India in the passage.

Therefore, the answer is (d) they obstruct her physical and spiritual growth.

 

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

The following three items are based on the graph given below which shows imports of three different types of steel over a period of six months of a year. Study the graph and answer the three items that follow.

The figures in the brackets indicate the average cost per ton over six months period.

Answer: C

To find the difference in imports of sheet steel and coil steel in the first three months of the year, we need to subtract the import of coil steel from the import of sheet steel.

From the graph, we can see that the import of sheet steel in the first three months is 40 thousand tons, and the import of coil steel in the first three months is 21 thousand tons. Therefore, the difference is 40 thousand tons - 21 thousand tons = 19 thousand tons.

 

Answer: C

To find the approximate total value of sheet steel imported over the six months period, we need to multiply the total quantity of sheet steel imported by the average cost per ton.

The total quantity of sheet steel imported over the six months period is 184 thousand tons (40 + 37 + 36 + 35 + 20 + 16). The average cost per ton of sheet steel is $300/ton. Therefore, the approximate total value is 184 thousand tons * $300/ton = $55,200.

The closest answer choice is (c) 55,550.

Answer: B

To find the approximate ratio of sheet steel and scrap steel imports in the first three months of the year, we need to divide the import of sheet steel by the import of scrap steel.

From the graph, we can see that the import of sheet steel in the first three months is 40 thousand tons, and the import of scrap steel in the first three months is 30 thousand tons. Therefore, the ratio is 40 thousand tons / 30 thousand tons = 1.33: 1.

The closest answer choice is (b) 1.2: 1.

 

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
Rotated positions of a single solid are shown below.

The various faces of the solid are marked with different symbols like dots, cross and line. Answer the three items that follow the given figures.

 

Answer: B

To determine the symbol on the face opposite to the one containing a single dot, you can observe the pattern in the given figures.

In the first figure, you can see that the single dot is on the top face, and the symbol on the bottom face is a cross.

In the second figure, the single dot is on the bottom face, and the symbol on the top face is four dots.

In the third figure, the single dot is on the side face (left side), and the symbol on the opposite side face (right side) is three dots.

So, the symbol on the face opposite to that containing a single dot is (b) Three dots.

 

Answer: C

To determine the symbol on the face opposite to the one containing two dots, you can again observe the pattern in the given figures.

In the first figure, the two dots are on the side face (left side), and the symbol on the opposite side face (right side) is a line.

In the second figure, the two dots are on the top face, and the symbol on the bottom face is three dots.

In the third figure, the two dots are on the side face (right side), and the symbol on the opposite side face (left side) is four dots.

So, the symbol on the face opposite to that containing two dots are (c) Four dots.

 

Answer: C

The symbol on the face opposite to that containing the cross is (c) Line.

This can be determined by rotating the solid so that the face with the cross is facing down. The opposite face will then be facing up, and it will have a line.

Here is a diagram to illustrate:

     / \

    /    \

  /       \

 +---+---+

 |     | X |

 +---+---+

  \       /

    \    /

     \  /

Rotating the solid so that the face with the cross is facing down, we get:

 

     \  /

    /    \

  /       \

 +---+---+

 |     | -    |

 +---+---+

  \        /

   \     /

    /  \

Therefore, the symbol on the face opposite to that containing the cross is a line.

Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
Read the following passage and answer the four items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

Passage

It is no longer enough for us to talk about providing for universal access to education. Making available schooling facilities is an essential prerequisite, but is insufficient to ensure that all children attend school and participate in the learning process. The school may be there, but children may not attend or they may drop out after a few months. Through school and social
mapping, we must address the entire gamut of social, economic, cultural and indeed linguistic and pedagogic issues, factors that prevent children from weaker sections and disadvantaged groups, as also girls, from regularly attending and complementing elementary education. The focus must be on the poorest and most vulnerable since these groups are the most disempowered and at the greatest risk of violation or denial of their right to education.
The right to education goes beyond free and compulsory education to include quality education for all. Quality is an integral part of the right to education. If the education process lacks quality, children are being denied their right. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act lays down that the curriculum should provide for learning through activities, exploration and discovery. This places an obligation on us to change our perception of children as passive receivers of knowledge, and to move beyond the convention of using textbooks as the basis of examinations. The teaching learning process must become stress-free, and a massive programme for curricular reform should be initiated to provide for a child-friendly learning system, that is more relevant and empowering. Teacher accountability systems and processes must ensure that children are learning, and that their right to learn in a child-friendly environment is not violated. Testing and assessment systems must be re-examined and redesigned to ensure that these do not force children to struggle between school and tuition centres, and bypass childhood. 

Answer: C

The passage states that the right to education goes beyond free and compulsory education to include quality education for all. It also states that the curriculum should provide for learning through activities, exploration, and discovery. This suggests that the Right to Education Act places a high priority on curricular reforms for developing a child-friendly learning system.

The other options are not mentioned in the passage as being of paramount importance under the Right to Education Act. Option (a) is important, but it is not mentioned as being of paramount importance. Option (b) is also important, but it is not mentioned as being of paramount importance.

 18. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. The Right to Education guarantees teachers’ accountability for the learning process of children.
2. The Right to Education guarantees 100% enrolment of children in the schools.
3. The Right to Education intends to take full advantage of demographic dividend.
Which of the above assumptions is/ are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

The passage states that the Right to Education Act lays down that teachers are accountable for the learning of children. This suggests that the Right to Education guarantees teachers' accountability for the learning process of children.

The passage does not mention anything about the Right to Education guaranteeing 100% enrolment of children in schools or the Right to Education intending to take full advantage of demographic dividend. Therefore, assumptions 2 and 3 are not valid.

Therefore, the only valid assumption is (a) 1 only.

Answer: D

The answer is (d) Inculcating learning through activities and discovery.

The passage states that the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act lays down that the curriculum should provide for learning through activities, exploration and discovery. It also states that the teaching learning process must become stress-free, and a massive programme for curricular reform should be initiated to provide for a child-friendly learning system, that is more relevant and empowering.

This suggests that the passage considers inculcating learning through activities and discovery to be critical in bringing quality to education.

The other options are not mentioned in the passage as being critical in bringing quality to education. Option (a) is important, but it is not mentioned as being critical. Option (b) is not mentioned at all. Option (c) is important, but it is not mentioned as being critical.

Answer: C

The essential message in the passage is that the Right to Free and Compulsory Education should include quality education for all.

The passage discusses the importance of quality education and the need to reform the curriculum to make it more child-friendly and relevant. It also emphasizes that teachers must be accountable for the learning of children.

The other options are also important aspects of the Right to Education, but they are not the essential message of the passage. Option (a) is a statement of fact, but it is not the essential message of the passage. Option (b) is true, but it is not the focus of the passage. Option (d) is also true, but it is not the essential message of the passage.

Answer: A

The code is generated by shifting before n alphabets where n is the position of the letter in the word.

M -> U (2 alphabets before)

U -> M (2 alphabets before)

M -> B (2 alphabets before)

B -> A (2 alphabets before)

A -> I (2 alphabets before)

I -> D (2 alphabets before)

Therefore, the code for DELHI is CCIDD.

Answer: B

The code is generated by adding the position of the letter in the alphabet to the corresponding digit in the code for RAMON.

H -> 8 (8th letter in the alphabet) + 1 = 9

A -> 1 (1st letter in the alphabet) + 2 = 3

M -> 13 (13th letter in the alphabet) + 3 = 16

A -> 1 (1st letter in the alphabet) + 2 = 3

M -> 13 (13th letter in the alphabet) + 3 = 16

Therefore, the code for HAMAM is 92323.

23. If X is between -3 and -1, and Y is between -1 and 1, then X2 - Y2 is in between which of the following?

Answer: D

If X is between -3 and -1, and Y is between -1 and 1

X lies between -3 to -1 so, 0 < x² < 9

Y lies between -1 to 1 so, 0 < y² < 1

Least value of x² - y² = 0 - 0 = 0

Maximum value of x² - y² = 9 - 0 = 9

So, 0 < x² - y² < 9

∴ Option 4 will be the correct choice

Answer:  A

The largest number is (a) XY.

Here is a proof:

Let X and Y be any two natural numbers other than 1, and let Y be greater than X.

We want to prove that XY is the largest among the four options.

Option (b) X / Y

Since X is less than Y, X / Y will always be less than 1. Therefore, X / Y cannot be the largest number.

Option (c) Y / X

Since Y is greater than X, Y / X will always be greater than 1. However, it will be less than XY. Therefore, Y / X cannot be the largest number.

Option (d) (X + Y) / XY

(X + Y) / XY is the ratio of the sum of X and Y to their product. Since the product is always greater than the sum, (X + Y) / XY cannot be the largest number.

Therefore, the largest number among the four options is XY.

Here is an example:

Let X = 2 and Y = 3.

• XY = 6
• X / Y = 2 / 3
• Y / X = 3 / 2
• (X + Y) / XY = (2 + 3) / (2 * 3) = 5 / 6

As you can see, XY is the largest number.

 

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

Read the following information and answer the two items that follow.

The plan of an office block for six officers A, B, C, D, E and F is as follows : Both B and C
occupy offices to the right of the corridor (as one enters the office block) and A occupies on the left of the corridor. E and F occupy offices on opposite sides of the corridor but - their offices do not face each other. The offices of C and D face each other. E does not have a corner office. Ps office is further down the corridor than A’s, but on the same side.

Answer: C

We know that E and F occupy offices on opposite sides of the corridor but their offices do not face each other. We also know that the offices of C and D face each other. This means that E and C are on opposite sides of the corridor and their offices do not face each other.

We also know that E faces the corridor. This means that C's office is to the left of E's office.

Therefore, the answer is (c) C.

Note: The other answer choices are incorrect. A's office is not to the left of E's office because A's office is on the same side of the corridor as E's office. B's office is not to the left of E's office because B's office is on the same side of the corridor as E's office and B's office does not face the corridor. D's office is not to the left of E's office because D's office is on the same side of the corridor as C's office and C's office is to the left of E's office.

Answer: A

We know that both B and C occupy offices to the right of the corridor (as one enters the office block) and A occupies on the left of the corridor. We also know that E and F occupy offices on opposite sides of the corridor but their offices do not face each other. The offices of C and D face each other. E does not have a corner office. Ps office is further down the corridor than A’s, but on the same side.

This means that F's office is on the left side of the corridor and its only immediate neighbour is A.

Therefore, the answer is (a) A only.

Note: The other answer choices are incorrect. B and C are not F's immediate neighbours because they are on the opposite side of the corridor. D is not F's immediate neighbour because it is on the same side of the corridor as C and C is F's immediate neighbour.

 

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items:
Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage-1
'Desertification’ is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of productivity. While this phenomenon is often linked to the arid, semi-arid and sub-humid ecosystems, even in the humid tropics, the impact could be most dramatic. Impoverishment of human-impacted terrestrial ecosystems may exhibit itself in
a variety of ways : accelerated erosion as in the mountain regions of the country, salinization of land as in the semi-arid and arid ‘green revolution’ areas of the country, e.g., Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh, and site quality decline—a common phenomenon due to general decline in tree cover and monotonous monoculture of rice/wheat across the Indian plains. A major consequence of deforestation is that it relates to adverse alterations in the hydrology and related soil and nutrient losses. The consequences of deforestation invariably arise out of site degradation through erosive losses. Tropical Asia, Africa and South America have the highest levels of erosion. The already high rates for the tropics are increasing at an alarming rate (e.g., through the major river systems— Ganga and Brahmaputra, in the context), due to deforestation and land management practices subsequent to forest clearing. In the mountain context, the declining moisture retention of the mountain soils, drying up of the ‘underground springs and smaller rivers in the Himalayan could be attributed to drastic changes the forest cover. An indirect consequence is drastic alteration in the upland-lowland interaction, mediated
through water. The current concern the tea planter of Assam has is about the damage to tea plantations due to frequent inundation along the flood-plains of Brahmaputra, and the damage to tea plantation and the consequent loss in tea productivity is due to rising level of the river bottom because of siltation and the changing course of the river system. The ultimate consequences of site desertification are soil degradation, alteration in available water’ and its quality, and the consequent decline in food, fodder and fuel-wood. essential for the economic well-being of rural communities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below,
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

The passage states that the consequences of decline in forest cover include:

• Accelerated erosion as in the mountain regions of the country, leading to loss of topsoil.
• Salinization of land as in the semi-arid and arid 'green revolution' areas of the country, e.g., Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh, leading to adverse effect on production.
• Site quality decline—a common phenomenon due to general decline in tree cover and monotonous monoculture of rice/wheat across the Indian plains, leading to declining of groundwater.
• Drying up of the 'underground springs and smaller rivers in the Himalayan, which could be attributed to drastic changes the forest cover.
• Drastic alteration in the upland-lowland interaction, mediated through water.

Therefore, all four options are consequences of decline in forest cover.

The passage also mentions that the ultimate consequences of site desertification are soil degradation, alteration in available water' and its quality, and the consequent decline in food, fodder and fuel-wood. essential for the economic well-being of rural communities.

Answer: A

Inference 1: Deforestation can cause changes in the course of rivers.

This inference can be made from the following sentence in the passage:

An indirect consequence is drastic alteration in the upland-lowland interaction, mediated through water.

This sentence suggests that deforestation affects the movement of water between the uplands and lowlands, which can lead to changes in the course of rivers.

Inference 2: Salinization of land takes place to human activities only.

This inference is not supported by the passage. The passage states that salinization of land can occur in semi-arid and arid regions, but it does not say that it is caused by human activities only.

Inference 3: Intense monoculture practice in plains is a major reason for desertification in Tropical Asia, Africa and South America.

This inference is supported by the following sentence in the passage:

Site quality decline—a common phenomenon due to general decline in tree cover and monotonous monoculture of rice/wheat across the Indian plains.

This sentence suggests that intense monoculture practice in plains can lead to a decline in tree cover and soil quality, which are both factors that contribute to desertification.

Therefore, the only inference that can be made from the passage is that deforestation can cause changes in the course of rivers.

Answer: D

Assumption 1: Desertification is a phenomenon in tropical areas only.

This assumption is not supported by the passage. The passage states that desertification can occur in arid, semi-arid, and sub-humid ecosystems, which are found in all parts of the world.

Assumption 2: Deforestation invariably leads to floods and desertification.

This assumption is also not supported by the passage. The passage states that deforestation can increase the risk of floods and desertification, but it does not say that it invariably leads to these consequences.

Therefore, neither of the assumptions is valid.

Note: Desertification is a process of land degradation in which the biological productivity of the land decreases, leading to the loss of plant and animal life. It is caused by a combination of factors, including climate change, human activities such as deforestation and overgrazing, and natural factors such as drought.

Passage-2

A diversity of natural assets will be needed to cope with climate change and ensure
productive agriculture, forestry, and fisheries. For example, crop varieties are needed that perform well under drought, heat, and enhanced CO2. But the private sector and farmer-led process of choosing crops favours homogeneity adapted to past or current conditions, not varieties capable of producing consistently high yields in warmer, wetter, or drier conditions.
Accelerated breeding programmes are needed to conserve a wider pool of genetic resources of existing crops, breeds, and their wild relatives. Relatively intact ecosystems, such as forested catchments, mangroves, wetlands, can buffer the impacts of climate change. Under a changing climate, these ecosystems are themselves at risk, and management approaches will need to be
more proactive and adaptive. Connections between natural areas, such as migration corridors, may be needed to facilitate species movements to keep up with the change in climate.

Answer: B

With reference to the passage, the following would assist in coping with climate change:

1. Conservation of natural water sources: This is mentioned in the passage as intact ecosystems like forested catchments, wetlands, and mangroves can buffer the impacts of climate change, and under a changing climate, these ecosystems are at risk. Conserving natural water sources can help mitigate the effects of climate change.
2. Conservation of a wider gene pool: The passage discusses the need for accelerated breeding programs to conserve a wider pool of genetic resources of existing crops, breeds, and their wild relatives. This wider gene pool would be valuable in developing crop varieties that can perform well under changing climate conditions.
3. Migration corridors: The passage suggests that connections between natural areas, such as migration corridors, may be needed to facilitate species movements to keep up with the change in climate. This can help species adapt and survive in the face of climate change.

So, the correct answer is (b) 1, 2, and 4 only.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Assumption 1: Diversification of livelihoods acts as a coping strategy for climate change.

This assumption is valid. The passage states that climate change is posing a great threat to agriculture, forestry, and fisheries. By diversifying their livelihoods, people can reduce their reliance on these sectors and become more resilient to the impacts of climate change.

Assumption 2: Adoption of monocropping practice leads to the extinction of plant varieties and their wild relatives.

This assumption is also valid. Monocropping is a type of agriculture in which only one type of crop is grown on a piece of land. This practice can lead to the loss of genetic diversity, as farmers tend to select the same varieties of crops each year. This can make crops more vulnerable to pests, diseases, and climate change.

Therefore, both assumptions are valid.

Note: The passage also mentions that conserving a wider pool of genetic resources is essential for developing climate-resilient crops.

Passage-3
Today, the top environmental challenge is a combination of people and their aspirations. If the aspirations are more like the frugal ones we had after the Second World War, a lot more is possible than if we view the planet as a giant shopping mall. We need to get beyond the fascination with glitter and understand that the planet works as a biological system.

Answer: C

The passage states that the top environmental challenge is a combination of people and their aspirations. It also states that if our aspirations are more like the frugal ones we had after the Second World War, a lot more is possible than if we view the planet as a giant shopping mall. This suggests that the author believes that reducing our consumerism is essential for addressing the environmental challenge.

The other options are not as directly supported by the passage. Option (a) is possible, but the passage does not explicitly state that the Earth can meet only the basic needs of humans. Option (b) is also possible, but the passage does not say that it is the only way to meet the environmental challenge. Option (d) is true, but it is not as specific as option (c).

Passage-4
Some people believe that leadership is a quality which you have at birth or not at all. This theory is false, for the art of leadership can be acquired and can indeed be taught. This discovery is made in time of war and the results achieved can surprise even the instructors. Faced with the alternatives of going left or right, every soldier soon grasps that a prompt decision either way is better than an endless discussion. A firm choice of direction has an even chance of being right while to do nothing will be almost certainly wrong.

 Answer: B

The answer is (b) leadership can be acquired as well as taught.

The passage states that the theory that leadership is a quality which you have at birth or not at all is false, and that the art of leadership can be acquired and can indeed be taught. It also states that the results achieved in time of war can surprise even the instructors, suggesting that even people who do not naturally seem like leaders can learn to be effective leaders in difficult situations.

The other options are not supported by the passage. Option (a) states that leadership can only be taught through war experience, but the passage does not say this. Option (c) states that the results of training show that more people acquire leadership than are expected, but the passage does not provide any evidence to support this claim. Option (d) states that despite rigorous instruction, very few leaders are produced, but the passage actually suggests that leadership can be taught effectively.

Therefore, the author of the passage holds the view that leadership can be acquired as well as taught.

 34. A number consists of three digits of which the middle one is zero and their sum is 4. If the number formed by interchanging the first and last digits is greater than the number itself by 198, the difference between the first and last digits is

Answer: B

Let the three-digit number be 100x + 10y + z.

Then the number formed by interchanging the first and last digits is 100z + 10y + x.

According to the question.

100z + x - (100x + z) = 198 (y = 0)

99z - 99x = 198

z - x = 2

∴ The difference of the 1st and last digit is 2.

 

Answer: A

The number of small cubes with exactly two painted faces is equal to the number of cubes on the edges of the original cube. There are 12 edges on a cube, so there are 12 small cubes with exactly two painted faces.

Answer: C

The number of numbers with the digit at hundred's place greater than the digit at ten's place, and the digit at ten's place is greater than the digit at unit's place is 85.

This can be found by counting the number of ways to choose the digit at each place, taking into account the restrictions.

For the hundred's place, there are 3 choices: 7, 8, and 9.

For the ten's place, there are 8 choices for each hundred's digit: 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 (the digit at ten's place cannot be the same as the digit at hundred's place).

For the unit's place, there are 7 choices for each hundred's digit: 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, and 9 (the digit at unit's place cannot be the same as the digit at hundred's place or the digit at ten's place).

Therefore, the total number of numbers with the digit at hundred's place greater than the digit at ten's place, and the digit at ten's place is greater than the digit at unit's place is 3 * 8 * 7 = 85.

37. If Pen < Pencil, Pencil < Book and Book > Cap, then which one of the following is always true?
(a) Pen > Cap
(b) Pen < Book
(c) Pencil = Cap
(d) Pencil > Cap

Answer: B

From the given information, we can create a transitive relationship between the four objects:

Pen < Pencil < Book > Cap

This means that Pen is less than Pencil, Pencil is less than Book, and Book is greater than Cap

We can then use this transitive relationship to answer the question. For example, if we are asked "Is Pen > Cap?", we can see that this is true because Pen is less than Pencil, and Pencil is less than Book, which is greater than Cap.

Therefore, the only option that is always true is (b) Pen < Book.

The other options are not always true:

• (a) Pen > Cap: This may be true, but it is not always true. For example, if Pencil = Cap, then Pen < Cap.
• (c) Pencil = Cap: This is not always true. For example, if Pencil is greater than Cap, then Pencil ≠ Cap.
• (d) Pencil > Cap: This may be true, but it is not always true. For example, if Pencil = Cap, then Pencil ≯

Here is a table that shows the truth value of each option for different values of Pencil and Cap:

Pencil	Cap	Pen > Cap	Pen < Book	Pencil = Cap	Pencil > Cap
Less than Book	Less than Book	True	True	False	False
Less than Book	Greater than or equal to Book	False	True	False	False
Greater than or equal to Book	Less than Book	False	True	False	False
Greater than or equal to Book	Greater than or equal to Book	False	True	False	False

As you can see, only option (b) is always true.

Answer: B

The total sale for the Geography textbooks is ax. The total sale for the History textbooks is (a + 2)(x + 2). The total sale for the Mathematics textbooks is (a - 2)(x - 2).

Therefore, the total sale for all the textbooks is:

ax + (a + 2)(x + 2) + (a - 2)(x - 2)

Expanding the parentheses, we get:

ax + ax + 4x + 4 + ax - 4x + 4

Combining like terms, we get:

3ax + 8

Therefore, the answer is (b).

 

(a) 1/ 2
(b) 4/ 7
(c) 5/ 9
(d) 12/ 13

Answer: B

The boy wins if the ball is red and numbered 3 or if it is black and numbered 1 or 2.

There are 15 red balls, and 40% of them are numbered 3, so there are 0.4 * 15 = 6 red balls numbered 3. There are 20 black balls, and 30% of them are numbered 1 or 2, so there are 0.3 * 20 = 6 black balls numbered 1 or 2.

Therefore, there are a total of 6 + 6 = 12 winning balls. There are a total of 15 + 20 = 35 balls in the bag.

Therefore, the probability of winning is 12/35 = 4/7.

So the answer is (b).

Answer: A

Since A and B are running on a circular track with uniform speeds, the ratio of the distances they cover is equal to the ratio of their speeds.

When A reaches the point diametrically opposite to his starting point, he has covered a distance of 180°.

B has covered a distance of 180° - 30° = 150°.

Therefore, the ratio of the speeds of A and B is 180:150 = 6:5.

Answer: C

Let the maximum marks in the examination be M.

The student gets 40% of M marks, which is equal to 30 + 30 = 60 marks.

Therefore, 40% of M = 60

Solving for M, we get:

M = 60 / 0.4 = 150

Therefore, the maximum marks in the examination is 150.

Answer: C

Total no. of boys who came for playing hockey = 19 No. of boys wearing hockey shirts = 11 No. of boys not wearing hockey shirts = 19 - 11 = 8 No. of boys wearing hockey pants = 14 No. of boys wearing full uniform = No. of boys wearing hockey pants - No. of boys not wearing hockey shirts = 14 - 8 = 6

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: 

Read the information given below and answer the six items that follow.

A, B, C and D are students. They are studying in four different cities, viz., P,  Q, R and .f(not necessarily in that order).  They are studying in Science college, Arts  college, Commerce college and Engineering college (not necessarily in that order),  which are situated in four different States, viz., Gujarat, Rajasthan, Assam and Kerala (not necessarily in that order). Further, it is given that

Answer: B

Let’s determine the location of each student and their respective colleges:

1. D is studying in Assam, so D is in Assam.
2. Arts College is in Rajasthan, so S is in Rajasthan.
3. A is studying in Commerce college, so A is not in Science, Arts, or Engineering colleges. Since we have cities Q and S remaining, A must be in Commerce College in one of these cities. We can't say for sure yet.
4. B is studying in city Q, so B is not in Science, Arts, or Commerce colleges. Since we have city S remaining, B must be in an Engineering college in city S.

Now, we know that the Science college is in Kerala, and none of the students are studying there. A is in Commerce college, and B is in Engineering college. This leaves C in Science College in Gujarat.

Answer: A

The Science college is located in city Q. This is because the Arts college is located in city S which is in Rajasthan, and the Science college cannot be located in city P because A is studying in the Commerce college in Gujarat.

Therefore, the final arrangement is as follows:

Student	City	College	State
A	P/R	Commerce	Gujarat
B	Q	Science	Kerala
C	S	Arts	Rajasthan
D	P/R	Engineering	Assam

 

Answer: B

From the table, we can see that C is studying in the Arts College in Rajasthan.

(a) Science college is incorrect. C is studying in the Arts College.

(b) Rajasthan is correct. C is studying in Rajasthan.

(c) Gujarat is incorrect. C is not studying in Gujarat.

(d) city Q is incorrect. C is not studying in city Q.

 

Answer: A

(a) D is not studying in city S. - Correct. D is studying in Assam.

(b) A is studying in Science college. - Incorrect. A is studying in Commerce college.

(c) A is studying in Kerala. - Incorrect. A is studying in Gujarat.

(d) Engineering college is located in Gujarat. - Incorrect. Engineering college is located in Assam.

(a) C is studying there. 
(b) B is studying there. 
(c) It is located in Gujarat. 
(d) D is studying there. 

Answer: D

From the table, we can see that the Engineering college is located in Assam and D is studying in Assam. Therefore, the only correct statement is (d).

(a) C is studying in the Arts college.

 (b) B is studying in the Science college.

 (c) The Engineering college is located in Assam.

(d) D is studying in the Engineering college.

Answer: A

 (a) Engineering college is located in Assam.

The other statements are incorrect:

(b) City Q is situated in Assam. City Q is situated in Kerala.

(c) C is studying in Kerala. C is studying in Rajasthan.

(d) B is studying in Gujarat. B is studying in Kerala.

 

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: 
Read the following eight passages and answer tilt- items that follow. Your answers to these Items should be based on the passages only. 

Passage-1
All actions to address climate change ultimately involve costs. Funding is vital in order for countries like India to design and implement adaptation and mitigation plans and projects. The problem is more severe for developing countries like India, which would be one of the hardest hit by climate change, given its need to finance development. Most countries do indeed treat climate change as real threat and are striving to address it in a more comprehensive 4 integrated manner with the limited rezio-urces at their disposal. 

Answer: C

• Assumption 1: Climate change is not a challenge for developed countries.

This assumption is not valid, as the passage clearly states that climate change is a challenge for all countries, including developed countries. For example, the passage states that "most countries do indeed treat climate change as real threat and are striving to address it in a more comprehensive and integrated manner with the limited resources at their disposal." This suggests that all countries, including developed countries, are facing the challenge of climate change.

• Assumption 2: Climate change is a complex policy issue and also a development issue for many countries. Ways and means of finance must be found to enable developing countries to enhance their adaptive capacity.

This assumption is valid, as the passage states that climate change is a complex policy issue and a development issue for many countries. It also states that ways and means of finance must be found to enable developing countries to enhance their adaptive capacity. For example, the passage states that "climate change is a complex policy issue and a development issue for many countries." It also states that "the problem is more severe for developing countries like India, which would be one of the hardest hit by climate change, given its need to finance development."

• Assumption 3: Ways and means of finance must be found to enable developing countries to enhance their adaptive capacity.

This assumption is also valid, as the passage states that ways and means of finance must be found to enable developing countries to enhance their adaptive capacity. For example, the passage states that "the problem is more severe for developing countries like India, which would be one of the hardest hit by climate change, given its need to finance development." It also states that "most countries do indeed treat climate change as real threat and are striving to address it in a more comprehensive and integrated manner with the limited resources at their disposal." This suggests that there is a need to find ways to finance climate change adaptation and mitigation measures in developing countries.

Passage-2 

Cooking with biomass and coal in India is now recognized to cause major health problems, with women and children in poor populations facing the greatest risk. There are more than IO lakh premature deaths each year from household air pollution due to polluting cooking fuels with another l ·5 lakh due to their contribution to general outdoor air pollution in the country. Although the fraction of the Indian population using clean cooking fuels, such as LPG, natural gas and electricity, is slowly rising, the number using polluting solid fuels as their primary cooking fuel has remained static for nearly 30 years at about 70 crore.

Answer: D

The most crucial and logical inference that can be made from the passage is that access to cooking gas can reduce premature deaths in poor households.

The passage states that there are more than 10 lakh premature deaths each year from household air pollution due to polluting cooking fuels. It also states that the number using polluting solid fuels as their primary cooking fuel has remained static for nearly 30 years. This suggests that there is a need to increase access to clean cooking fuels in order to reduce premature deaths.

The passage does not mention whether rural people are giving up the use of polluting solid fuels due to their increasing awareness of health hazards. It also does not mention whether subsidizing the use of clean cooking fuels will solve the problem of India's indoor air pollution. It also does not mention whether India should increase its import of natural gas and produce more electricity.

Passage-3 

Scientific knowledge has its dangers, but so has every great thing. Over and beyond the dangers with which it threatens the present, it opens up as nothing else can, the vision of a possible happy world; a world without poverty, without war, with little illness. Science, whatever unpleasant consequences it may have, by the way, is in its very nature a liberator. 

Answer: A

In the passage, it has been highlighted that science is a liberator. Like every other great thing, it seeks to create a world without poverty, wars and illnesses. Used within limits, science has the potential to uplift the state of living of mankind. Thus, the most direct implication is that a happy world is a dream of science.

Passage-4 
The Arctic’s vast reserves of fossil fuel, fish and minerals are now accessible for a longer period in a year. But unlike Antarctica, which is protected from exploitation by the Antarctic Treaty framed during the Cold War and is not subject to territorial claims by any country, there is no legal regime protecting the Arctic from industrialization, especially at a time when the world craves for more and more resources. The distinct possibility of ice-free summer has prompted countries with Arctic coastlines to scramble for great chunks of the melting ocean.

Answer: B

The most important implication of the passage is that melting of summer ice in the Arctic leads to changes in the geopolitics.

The passage states that the Arctic's vast reserves of fossil fuel, fish and minerals are now accessible for a longer period in a year. It also states that there is no legal regime protecting the Arctic from industrialization, and that countries with Arctic coastlines are scrambling for great chunks of the melting ocean.

This suggests that the melting of summer ice in the Arctic is leading to a new era of competition and rivalry in the region. Countries are vying for access to the Arctic's resources, and there is a risk of conflict if these disputes are not resolved peacefully.

The passage does not say that India can have territorial claims in the Arctic territory and free access to its resources. It also does not say that the Arctic region will solve the world's future problem of resource crunch, or that the Arctic region has more resources than Antarctica.

Passage-5 
Being a member of the WTO, India is bound by the agreements that have been signed and ratified by its members, including itself.  According to Article 6 of the Agriculture Agreement, providing minimum support prices for agricultural products is considered distorting and is subject to limits. The subsidy arising from ‘minimal supports’ cannot exceed 1 O per cent of the value of agricultural production for developing countries. PDS in India entails a minimum 
support prices and public stockholding of food grains. It is possible that, in some years, the subsidy to producers will exceed 10 per cent of the value of agricultural production.

Answer: C

The passage states that India is bound by the WTO agreements, and that providing minimum support prices for agricultural products is considered distorting and is subject to limits. The passage also states that the PDS in India entails minimum support prices and public stockholding of food grains, and that it is possible that, in some years, the subsidy to producers will exceed 10 per cent of the value of agricultural production.

This suggests that India's food security policies, such as the PDS, may be in conflict with its WTO obligations. If India's food security policies are found to be in violation of the WTO agreements, it could face trade sanctions from other WTO members.

The passage does not say that India should revise its PDS, or that India should not be a member of the WTO. The passage also does not say that India provides food security to its poor.

 Passage-6 

India’s educational system is modelled on the mass education system that developed in the 19th century in Europe and later spread around the world. The goal of the system is to condition children as ‘good’ citizens and productive workers. This suited the industrial age that needed the constant supply of a compliant workforce with a narrow set of capabilities. Our educational institutes resemble factories with bells, uniforms and batch-processing of learners, designed to get learners to conform. But, from an economic point of view, the environment today is very different. It is a complex, volatile and globally interconnected world.

Answer: B

The passage states that the Indian educational system is modelled on the mass education system that developed in the 19th century in Europe and later spread around the world. The passage also states that the goal of the system is to condition children as ‘good’ citizens and productive workers.

This suggests that the Indian educational system is not well-suited to the needs of today's learners. Today's learners need to be able to think critically and creatively, and to solve complex problems. They also need to be able to adapt to change and to learn new things quickly.

The passage does not say that India continues to be a developing country essentially due to its faulty education system. It also does not say that a good number of Indians go to some developed countries for education because the educational systems there are a perfect reflection of the societies in which they function.

Passage-7 
The practice of dieting has become an epidemic; everyone is looking out for a way to attain that perfect body. We are all different with respect to our ethnicity, genetics, family history, gender, age, physical and mental and spiritual health status, lifestyles and preferences. Thereby we also differ in what foods we tolerate or are sensitive to. So we really cannot reduce so many complexities into one diet or diet book. This explains the failure of diets across the world in curbing obesity. Unless the reasons for weight gain are well understood and addressed and unless habits are changed permanently, no diet is likely to succeed. 

Answer: D

The most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage is that there is no perfect diet or one solution for obesity.

The passage states that we are all different with respect to our ethnicity, genetics, family history, gender, age, physical and mental and spiritual health status, lifestyles and preferences. It also states that we differ in what foods we tolerate or are sensitive to.

This suggests that there is no one-size-fits-all solution to obesity. What works for one person may not work for another. It is important to find a diet and lifestyle that is right for you, and to be patient and consistent in your efforts to lose weight and improve your health.

The passage does not say that obesity has become an epidemic all over the world, or that a lot of people are obsessed with attaining a perfect body. The passage also does not say that obesity is essentially an incurable disease.

 

Passage-8 

Monoculture carries great risks. A single disease or pest can wipe out swathes of the world’s food production, an alarming prospect given that its growing and wealthier population will eat 70% more by 2050. The risks are magnified by the changing climate. As the planet warms and monsoon rains intensify, farmlands in Asia will flood. North America will suffer more intense droughts, and crop diseases will spread to new latitudes.

Answer: A

The passage states that monoculture carries great risks, and that a single disease or pest can wipe out swathes of the world's food production. It also states that the risks are magnified by the changing climate.

Preserving crop genetic diversity means growing a variety of different crops, each with its own unique strengths and weaknesses. This means that if one crop is wiped out by a disease or pest, there will still be other crops that can be grown to feed the population.

The passage does not say that monoculture is the only way to ensure food security in the world, or that more and more genetically modified crops can save the world from impending shortages of food. The passage also does not say that Asia and North America will be the worst sufferers from climate change and the consequent shortage of food.

 

57. A shopkeeper sells an article at Rs. 40 and gets X% profit. However, when he sells it at Rs. 20, he faces same percentage of loss. What is the original cost of the article?
(a) Rs. 10 
(b) Rs. 20 
(c) Rs. 30 
(d) Rs. 40

Answer: C

C × (100 + X)/100 = 40    (1)

C × (100 - X)/100 = 20     (2)

From equation (1): 100C + XC = 4000

From equation (2): 100C - XC = 2000

Adding both equations: 100C + XC + 100C - XC = 4000 + 2000 200C = 6000

Dividing by 200: C = 6000 / 200 C = 30

the original cost of the article is Rs. 30.

 

58. There are 24 equally spaced points lying on the circumference of a circle. What is the maximum number of equilateral triangles that can be drawn by taking sets of three points as the vertices?

Answer: C

To maximize the number of equilateral triangles, we need to choose sets of three points that are as far apart as possible. The maximum distance between two points on a circle is the diameter of the circle. So, we should choose sets of three points such that each point is at a distance of 1/3 of the circle's diameter from the other two points.

This can be done by choosing sets of three points that are 120 degrees apart. For example, we could choose the points at 0 degrees, 120 degrees, and 240 degrees.

We can continue to choose sets of three points that are 120 degrees apart until we run out of points. In this case, we can choose 8 sets of three points, which means that we can draw 8 equilateral triangles.

 

4/12/95, 1/1/96, 29/1/96, 26/2/96, 
What is the next term of the series?
(a) 24/3/96 
(b) 25/3/96 
(c) 26/3/96 
(d) 27/3/96 

Answer: B 

The sequence is a list of dates in chronological order, with each date being one month after the previous date. The day of the month decreases by 3 each time (4, 1, 29, 26, 25, 24, ...), while the month increases by 1 each time (12, 1, 1, 2, 3, 4, ...).

Therefore, the next term in the series is 25/3/96.

 

Answer: C

The diagonal of a rectangle is equal to the square root of the sum of the squares of the two sides. Since the rectangle has a diagonal of 5 cm, the side lengths of the rectangle must be 3 cm and 4 cm.

The area of each square is equal to the side length squared. Since the squares are equal, the side length of each square is equal to the square root of the area of the square.

The area of the rectangle is equal to the product of the side lengths. Setting the area of the rectangle equal to the sum of the areas of the squares, we get:

3 cm * 4 cm = 12 * area of each square

12 cm^2 = 12 * area of each square

1 cm^2 = area of each square

Therefore, the area of each square is 1 square centimetre.

 

Which one of the following statements is not correct with reference to the graph given above?
(a) On 1st June, the actual progress of work was less than expected.
(b) The actual rate of progress of work was the greatest during the month of August.
(c) The work was actually completed before the expected time.
(d) During the period from 1st April to 1st September, at no time was the actual progress more than the expected progress.

 Answer: D

The graph shows that the actual progress of work was more than the expected progress during the month of May.

Therefore, the statement "During the period from 1st April to 1st September, at no time was the actual progress more than the expected progress" is not correct.

The other statements are all correct.

• On 1st June, the actual progress of work was less than expected.
• The actual rate of progress of work was the greatest during the month of August.
• The work was actually completed before the expected time.

Here is a detailed explanation of each statement:

• On 1st June, the actual progress of work was less than expected.

The graph shows that the actual progress line (the blue line) is below the expected progress line (the red line) on 1st June. This means that the actual progress of work was less than the expected progress on that day.

• The actual rate of progress of work was the greatest during the month of August.

The slope of the actual progress line is the greatest during the month of August. This means that the rate of progress of work was the greatest during that month.

• The work was actually completed before the expected time.

The actual progress line crosses the expected progress line before the end of the project. This means that the work was actually completed before the expected time.

• During the period from 1st April to 1st September, at no time was the actual progress more than the expected progress.

This statement is not correct, as the actual progress line is above the expected progress line during the month of May.

 

There are six different colours available to choose from and each of the three wooden blocks is to be painted such that no two of them has the same colour. In how many different ways can the winners’ stand be painted? 
(a) 120
(b) 81
(c) 66
(d) 36

Answer: A

To calculate the number of ways to paint the winners' stand, we can use the following steps:

1. Choose one color for the first wooden block. There are 6 different colors to choose from, so there are 6 ways to do this.
2. Choose a different color for the second wooden block. There are now only 5 colors left, so there are 5 ways to do this.
3. Choose a different color for the third wooden block. There are now only 4 colors left, so there are 4 ways to do this.

Therefore, the total number of ways to paint the winners' stand is 6 * 5 * 4 = 120.

Directions for the following 2 (two) items: 

Consider the following graph in which the birth rate and death rate of a country are given, and answer the two items that follow.

Answer: D

The graph shows that the birth rate and death rate are both decreasing from 1990 to 1995, but they then level off and remain relatively stable from 1995 to 2010. This means that the difference between the birth rate and the death rate, which is the population growth rate, also remains relatively stable over this period.

Therefore, the most accurate answer to question (63) is (d), population growth rate shows no trend.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 
(c) 3 and 4 
(d) 2 and 4 

Answer: D

The most logical and rational statements that can be made from the above graph are:

2. Population growth rate has stabilized after 35 years.
3. Birth rate has stabilized after 35 years.

The population growth rate is the difference between the birth rate and the death rate. From the graph, we can see that both the birth rate and the death rate have stabilized after 35 years. This means that the population growth rate has also stabilized.

Statements 1 and 3 are not supported by the graph. The graph does not show that the population has stabilized after 35 years, or that the death rate has fallen by 10% in the first 10 years.

 

65. Average hourly earnings per year (E) of the workers in a firm are represented in figures A and B as follows:

 

From the figures, it is observed that the
(a) values of E are different 
(b) ranges (i.e., the difference between the maximum and the minimum) of E are different
(c) slopes of the graphs are same
(d) rates of increase of E are different

 Answer: C

The slope of a graph is a measure of how steep the graph is. The graph in Figure A has the same slope as the graph in Figure B, which means that the rates of increase of E are the same in both figures.

The other statements are not supported by the graph.

• Values of E are the same in both case. The graph does not show the values of E, so we cannot say whether the values of E are the same in both figures.
• Ranges of E are also the same (from 20 to 40). The range of E is the difference between the maximum and minimum values of E. The graph does not show the maximum and minimum values of E, so we cannot say whether the ranges of E are the same in both figures.
• Rate of increase of E is the same in both cases. The slope of a graph is a measure of the rate of change of the variable on the y-axis. Since the slopes of the graphs are the same, the rates of increase of E are the same in both figures.

Therefore, the only statement that is supported by the graph is that the slopes of the graphs are the same.

 

 Answer: A

In Row 1, there are three figures. First figure has shaded circle on one end, second figure has shaded square on one end and third figure has triangle on one end.

Similarly in Row 2, first figure has shaded square on one end, second figure has triangle on one end and third figure has shaded circle on one end.

In Row 3, first figure has triangle, second figure has shaded circle.

Therefore, third figure must have shaded square.

Based on this, option 2, 3 and 4 can be eliminated.

 

The manufacturing cost and projected sales for a product are shown in the above figures A and B respectively. What is the minimum number of pieces that should be manufactured to avoid a loss? 
(a) 2000 
(b) 2500
(c) 3000 
(d) 3500 

Answer: A

To avoid a loss, the manufacturing cost must be equal to or less than the projected sales. From the graphs, we can see that the manufacturing cost and projected sales lines intersect at the point (2000, 4000). This means that the minimum number of pieces that should be manufactured to avoid a loss is 2000.

Here is a more detailed explanation:

The manufacturing cost graph shows the total cost of manufacturing a certain number of pieces of a product. The projected sales graph shows the estimated revenue from selling a certain number of pieces of the product.

To avoid a loss, the total cost of manufacturing the product must be equal to or less than the estimated revenue from selling the product. This means that the manufacturing cost line and the projected sales line must intersect.

The point of intersection of the two lines is the point where the total cost of manufacturing the product is equal to the estimated revenue from selling the product. This point is also known as the breakeven point.

The breakeven point is (2000, 4000). This means that the minimum number of pieces that should be manufactured to avoid a loss is 2000.

If fewer than 2000 pieces are manufactured, the total cost of manufacturing the product will be greater than the estimated revenue from selling the product, and the company will incur a loss.

If more than 2000 pieces are manufactured, the total cost of manufacturing the product will be less than the estimated revenue from selling the product, and the company will make a profit.

Answer: B

The lift has a capacity of 30 children, so 30 children can board the lift with 0 adults.

With 12 adults, the lift is already occupied with 12 * 5/3 = 20 children.

Therefore, 10 more children can board the lift with 12 adults.

So the answer is (b).

Answer: D

To calculate the amount to be paid at the end of the third year, we can use the following formula:

Amount = Principal * (1 + Interest Rate) ^Time

Where:

• Principal is the original amount borrowed
• Interest Rate is the annual interest rate
• Time is the number of years

In this case, the principal is Rs.22,800, the interest rate is 12.5%, and the time is 3 years. Therefore, the amount to be paid at the end of the third year is:

Amount = Rs.22,800 * (1 + 0.125)^3 = Rs.32,463.28

Therefore, the answer is (d), Rs.11,250.

Note that the amount to be paid at the end of the third year is the total amount of the loan, plus the interest that has accrued over the three years. The person has already paid Rs.8,650 at the end of the first year and Rs.9,125 at the end of the second year. Therefore, the remaining amount to be paid at the end of the third year is Rs.32,463.28 - Rs.8,650 - Rs.9,125 = Rs.14,688.28.

The person can choose to pay off the entire loan at the end of the third year, or they can make smaller payments over a longer period of time.

70. Consider the following figures

 

 Answer: B

Here, the square moves in clockwise direction and triangle moves in anti-clockwise direction in each successive figure. Based on this, option 1, 3 and 4 can be eliminated.

 

With reference to the above graphs, which of the following are the most logical and rational inferences that can be made? 
1. Over the last two and a half decades, the dependency ratio for country B has decreased. 
2. By the end of next two and a half decades, the dependency ratio of country A will be much less than that of country B. 
3. In the next two decades, the work force relative to its total population will increase in country B as compared to country A.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3 

Answer: C

The most logical and rational inferences that can be made from the graphs are:

• Over the last two and a half decades, the dependency ratio for country B has decreased.

The dependency ratio is the ratio of the dependent population (children and the elderly) to the working-age population. It is calculated by dividing the number of people under the age of 15 and over the age of 64 by the number of people aged 15 to 64.

The graph for country B shows that the proportion of the population under the age of 15 has decreased over the last two and a half decades, while the proportion of the population aged 15 to 64 has increased. This means that the dependency ratio has decreased.

• In the next two decades, the work force relative to its total population will increase in country B as compared to country A.

The graph for country B shows that the proportion of the population aged 15 to 64 is expected to continue to increase in the next two decades. This means that the workforce relative to its total population will increase in country B.

The graph for country A shows that the proportion of the population aged 15 to 64 is expected to remain relatively stable in the next two decades. This means that the workforce relative to its total population is not expected to increase as much in country A as it is in country B.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c), 1 and 3 only.

Note: Statement 2 is not supported by the graphs. The graphs do not show that the dependency ratio of country A will be much less than that of country B by the end of next two and a half decades.

 72. Lakshmi, her brother, her daughter and her son are badminton players. A game of doubles is about to begin:
i. Lakshmi’s brother is directly across the net from her daughter. 
ii. Her son is diagonally across the net from the worst player’s sibling. 
iii. The best player and the worst player are on the same side of the net. 
Who is the best player? 
(a) Her brother 
(b) Her daughter 
(c) Her son 
(d) Lakshmi

Answer: A

Statement (ii) tells us that Lakshmi's son is diagonally across the net from the worst player's sibling. This means that Lakshmi's son is not the worst player, because he is not across from his own sibling.

Statement (iii) tells us that the best player and the worst player are on the same side of the net. This means that Lakshmi's son is not the best player, because he is not across from the worst player.

Statement (i) tells us that Lakshmi's brother is directly across the net from her daughter. This means that Lakshmi's brother is either the best player or the worst player.

Since Lakshmi's son is not the best player or the worst player, Lakshmi's brother must be the best player.

Therefore, the answer is (a).

(a) Encouraging foreign investment 
(b) Increasing the liquidity 
(c) Encouraging both public and private savings 
(d) Anti-inflationary stance

Answer: D

The graph shows that the central bank has been raising key policy rates several times in a year. This is typically done to combat inflation.

When the central bank raises interest rates, it becomes more expensive to borrow money. This discourages spending and encourages saving, which can help to reduce inflation.

Therefore, the answer is (d), anti-inflationary stance.

The other options are not as likely explanations for the central bank's actions.

• Encouraging foreign investment: Raising interest rates can make a country's currency more attractive to foreign investors. However, this is not the primary goal of the central bank when raising interest rates.
• Increasing liquidity: Liquidity is the amount of cash and other assets that can be easily converted into cash. Raising interest rates can actually decrease liquidity, as it makes it more expensive to borrow money.
• Encouraging both public and private savings: Raising interest rates does encourage saving, but it does not have a direct impact on public savings.

It is important to note that the central bank may have other reasons for raising interest rates, such as to promote economic growth or to stabilize the financial system. However, the most likely reason for the central bank's actions in the graph provided is to combat inflation.

Directions for the following 2 (two) items: 

The following table gives the GDP growth rate and Tele-density data of different States of a country in a particular year. Study the table and answer the two items that follow.

Answer: C

The most logical and rational inference that can be made from the table is that higher per capita income is generally associated with higher tele-density. This is because states with higher per capita income tend to have more disposable income, which people can use to purchase telecommunications services.

The other statements are not supported by the table.

• Higher GDP growth rate always ensures higher per capita income: This is not always the case. For example, if a country's population is growing rapidly, the GDP growth rate may be high, but per capita income may not increase.
• Higher GDP growth rate does not necessarily ensure higher tele-density: This is correct. As the table shows, there is no direct correlation between GDP growth rate and tele-density. For example, the state of Bihar has the highest GDP growth rate, but the lowest tele-density.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c), 1 and 3 only.

 

Answer: D

The first assumption states that the prosperity of an already high performing state cannot be sustained without making further large investments in its telecom infrastructure. However, the table shows that there is no correlation between tele-density and per capita income. For example, the state of Bihar has the highest GDP growth rate, but the lowest tele-density.

The second assumption states that a very high tele-density is the most essential condition for promoting business and economic growth in a state. However, the table shows that there is no direct correlation between tele-density and GDP growth rate. For example, the state of West Bengal has a higher tele-density than the state of Bihar, but a lower GDP growth rate.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d), Neither 1 nor 2.

It is important to note that correlation does not equal causation. Just because there is no correlation between tele-density and GDP growth rate does not mean that tele-density does not have a positive impact on economic growth. However, the table does not provide any evidence to support the claim that a very high tele-density is the most essential condition for promoting business and economic growth in a state.

 

 

With reference to the above graph, which of the following is/are the most logical and rational inference/ inferences that can be made? 
1. During the given period, the revenue from Direct Taxes as percentage of gross tax revenue 
has increased while that of Indirect Taxes decreased. 
2. The trend in the revenue from Excise Duty demonstrates that the growth of manufacturing 
sector has been negative during the given period. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below, 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: A

The graph shows that the revenue from direct taxes as a percentage of gross tax revenue has increased during the given period, while the revenue from indirect taxes has decreased. This is likely due to a number of factors, including:

• The growth of the service sector, which is typically taxed at a higher rate than the manufacturing sector.
• The increase in the number of people paying income tax.
• Changes in tax policy, such as the introduction of new taxes or the reduction of tax rates.

The trend in the revenue from excise duty does not necessarily indicate that the growth of the manufacturing sector has been negative during the given period. Excise duty is a tax on the production or sale of certain goods, such as alcohol and tobacco. The revenue from excise duty can fluctuate for a number of reasons, such as changes in the prices of goods, changes in consumption patterns, and changes in tax policy.

Therefore, the only logical and rational inference that can be made from the graph is that the revenue from direct taxes as a percentage of gross tax revenue has increased during the given period, while the revenue from indirect taxes has decreased.

Answer: D

None of the following statements must be true if x - y = 8:

• Both x and y must be positive for any value of x and y. For example, x = -2 and y = -10 satisfy the equation x - y = 8, but both x and y are negative.
• If x is positive, y must be negative for any value of x and y. For example, x = 10 and y = 2 satisfy the equation x - y = 8, but both x and y are positive.
• If x is negative, y must be positive for any value of x and y. For example, x = -10 and y = -2 satisfy the equation x - y = 8, but both x and y are negative.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d), Neither 1 nor 2 nor 3.

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. 

Passage—I

The quest for cheap and plentiful meat has resulted in factory farms where more and more animals are squeezed into smaller lots in cruel and shocking conditions. Such practices have resulted in many of the world’s health pandemics such as the avian flu. Worldwide, livestock are increasingly raised in cruel, cramped conditions, where animals spend their short lives under artificial light, pumped full of antibiotics and growth hormones, until the day they 
are slaughtered. Meat production is water intensive. 15000 litres of water is needed for every kilogram of meat compared with 3400 litres for rice, 3300 litres for eggs and 255 litres for a kilogram of potatoes. 

Answer: D

The most rational and crucial message given by the passage is:

The environmental cost of meat production is unsustainable when it is produced through industrial farming.

The passage highlights the negative environmental impact of mass meat production in industrial farming, including the excessive use of water and the cruelty to animals. It suggests that the environmental cost of this practice is unsustainable, which is a key message of the passage.

Passage-2
A male tiger was removed from Pench Tiger Reserve and was relocated in Panna National Park. Later, this tiger trekked toward his honie 250 miles away. The trek of this solitary tiger highlights a crisis. Many wildlife reserves exist as islands of fragile habitat in a vast sea of humanity, yet tigers can range over a hundred miles, seeking prey, mates and territory. Nearly 
a third of India’s tigers live outside tiger reserves, a situation that is_dangerous for both human and animal. ‘Prey and tigers can only disperse if there are recognized corridors of land/ between protected areas to allow unmolested passage. 

Answer: B

The most rational and crucial message given by the passage is that safe wildlife corridors between protected areas are an essential aspect of conservation efforts.

The passage describes how a male tiger was removed from his home in Pench Tiger Reserve and relocated in Panna National Park. The tiger later trekked 250 miles back to his home, which highlights the fact that tigers can range over a hundred miles, seeking prey, mates, and territory. The passage also mentions that nearly a third of India's tigers live outside tiger reserves, which is dangerous for both humans and animals.

The passage then states that prey and tigers can only disperse if there are recognized corridors of land between protected areas to allow unmolested passage. This suggests that safe wildlife corridors are essential for the conservation of tigers and other wildlife.

The other options are not as well-supported by the passage.

• The conflict between man and wildlife cannot be resolved, no matter what efforts we make. The passage does not say this explicitly, and it is possible to resolve the conflict between man and wildlife through conservation efforts.
• India needs to declare more protected areas and set up more tiger reserves. The passage does not say this explicitly, and it is possible that safe wildlife corridors are more important than declaring more protected areas.
• India's National Parks and Tiger Reserves need to be professionally managed. The passage does not say this explicitly, and it is possible that safe wildlife corridors are more important than professional management of National Parks and Tiger Reserves.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

 

Answer: A

The first assumption is valid. The passage states that the male tiger trekked 250 miles back to his home after being relocated from Pench Tiger Reserve to Panna National Park. This suggests that the strategy of conservation of wildlife by relocating them from one protected area to another is not often successful.

The second assumption is not valid. The passage does not discuss India's legislation or conservation efforts in detail. Therefore, we cannot say that India does not have suitable legislation to save the tigers, and its conservation efforts have failed which forced the tigers to live outside protected areas.