UPSC PRELIMS CSAT 2016 PAPER II

 

Directions for the following 6 (six) items:
Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

 Passage-1

Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance generally, and civil services, in particular, is a major factor underlying the deficiencies in governance and public administration. Designing an effective framework for accountability has been a key element of the reform agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil services should be accountable to the political executive of the day or to society at large. In other words, how should internal and external accountability be reconciled? Internal accountability is sought to be achieved by internal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the ---Central-Vigilance Commission-and-Comptroller and Auditor—General, and judicial review of executive decisions. Articles 311 and 312 of the Indian Constitution provide job security and safeguards to the civil services, especially the All India Services. The framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision of these safeguards would result in a civil service that is not totally subservient to the political executive but will have the strength to function in larger public interest. The need to balance internal and external accountability is thus built into the Constitution. The issue is where to draw the line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to have tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of the civil services to the political leaders of the day who in turn are expected to be externally accountable to the society at large through the election process. This system for seeking accountability to Society has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance.
Some special measures can be considered for improving accountability in civil services. Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and laws and regulations framed to ensure external accountability of civil services. The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to address some of these requirements. The respective roles of professional civil services and the political executive should he defined so that professional managerial functions and management of civil services are depoliticized. For this purpose, effective statutory civil service boards should be created at the centre and in the states. Decentralization and devolution of authority to bring government and decision making closer to the people also helps to enhance accountability.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

The passage states that the inability of civil services to strike a balance between internal and external accountabilities is a major factor underlying the deficiencies in governance and public administration. This is because it has led to a system where civil servants are more accountable to the political executive of the day than to society at large. This has resulted in a number of adverse consequences, such as corruption, inefficiency, and lack of transparency.

The passage also mentions that lack of sufficient professional training to the officers of All India Services and lack of proper service benefits in civil services are also factors that contribute to the deficiencies in governance and public administration. However, it does not say that these factors have led to adverse consequences.

The passage does not mention anything about lack of Constitutional provisions to define the respective roles of professional civil services vis-a-vis political executive in this context.

Which of these assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

According to the passage, it is mentioned that "Over the years, the emphasis seems to have tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of the civil services to the political leaders of the day who in turn are expected to be externally accountable to the society at large through the election process."

This implies that assumption 1 is valid because the passage suggests that the political executive plays a role in internal accountability.

However, assumption 2 is not supported by the passage. The passage does not suggest that the political executive is no longer accountable to society. In fact, it mentions that the political leaders are expected to be externally accountable through the election process.

So, the correct answer is (a) "1 only."

 

(a) Civil services are not accountable to the society they are serving
(b) Educated and enlightened persons are not taking up political leadership
(c) The framers of the Constitution did not envisage the problems being encountered by the civil services
(d) There is a need and scope for reforms to improve the accountability of civil services

Answer: D

The essential message implied by the passage is that there is a need and scope for reforms to improve the accountability of civil services. This is because the current system of accountability has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance.

The passage discusses the importance of accountability in civil services, and the challenges that exist in achieving it. It also suggests some measures that can be taken to improve accountability, such as reviewing the provisions of Articles 311 and 312 of the Constitution, framing laws and regulations to ensure external accountability, creating effective statutory civil service boards, and decentralizing and devolving authority.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) There is a need and scope for reforms to improve the accountability of civil services.

(a) Better job security and safeguards
(b) Supervision by Central Vigilance Commission
(c) Judicial review of executive decisions
(d) Seeking accountability through enhanced participation by people in decision making process

Answer: D

Enhanced participation by people in the decision-making process is not a means of enhancing internal accountability of civil services.

Internal accountability refers to the accountability of civil servants to their superiors and to the organization as a whole. It is achieved through mechanisms such as performance appraisal, disciplinary proceedings, and internal audits.

External accountability, on the other hand, refers to the accountability of civil servants to the public. It is achieved through mechanisms such as the right to information, the right to complain, and the role of the media.

Enhanced participation by people in the decision-making process is a way to improve external accountability, but it does not directly enhance internal accountability.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Seeking accountability through enhanced participation by people in decision making process.

The other three options are all means of enhancing internal accountability:

• Better job security and safeguards help to protect civil servants from political interference and allow them to function independently.
• Supervision by the Central Vigilance Commission helps to ensure that civil servants uphold ethical standards and conduct themselves in a fair and impartial manner.
• Judicial review of executive decisions helps to keep civil servants within the bounds of the law.

Passage-2

In general, religious traditions stress our duty to god, or to some universal ethical principle. Our duties to one another derive from these. The religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to this divinity or principle and the implication it has on our other relationships. This correspondence between rights and duties is critical to any further understanding of justice. But, for justice to be practiced; rights and duties cannot remain formal abstraction. They must be grounded in a community (common unity) bound together by a sense of common union (communion). Even as a personal virtue, this  solidarity is essential to the practice and understanding of justice

5. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

Which of these assumption(s) is/are valid?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

The passage states that religious traditions stress our duty to god, or to some universal ethical principle, and that our duties to one another derive from these. This means that religious traditions play a role in shaping human relationships. However, the passage does not say that human relationships are derived entirely from religious traditions. It is possible to have meaningful and fulfilling relationships without being religious.

The passage does not say that human beings can be duty bound only if they believe in god. There are many other sources of moral obligations, such as secular ethics, human rights, and personal conscience.

The passage does say that religious traditions are essential to practice and understand justice. However, it also says that justice cannot be practiced without solidarity, which is a sense of common unity and union. This suggests that religious traditions are not the only way to achieve justice.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 1 only.

(a) Our duties to one another derive from our religious traditions
(b) Having relationship to the divine principle is a great virtue
(c) Balance between and duties is crucial to the delivery of justice in a society
(d) Religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to god

Answer: C

The passage begins by discussing the importance of religious traditions in shaping our duties to one another and to god. It then goes on to say that the religious concept of rights is derived from our relationship to god. However, the passage does not say that religious traditions are the only source of moral obligations, or that justice can be achieved only through religious means.

The passage concludes by saying that for justice to be practiced, rights and duties cannot remain formal abstractions. They must be grounded in a community bound together by a sense of common unity and union. This suggests that the balance between rights and duties is essential for justice to be delivered in a society.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

(a) Apple
(b) Pineapple
(c) Grapes
(d) Oranges

Answer: D

Only B and C ate oranges, and both fell sick. Therefore, oranges are the only fruit that can be definitively linked to the sickness.

The other fruits are all possibilities, but they cannot be proven to be the cause of sickness. For example, it is possible that A and D fell sick for some other reason, even though they also ate grapes, pineapple, and apple.

Therefore, the most likely cause of sickness is oranges.

Which one of the following conclusions may be true in the light of the above facts?

(a) The rate of population growth is increasing due to rural-urban migration
(b) The rate of population growth is increasing due to decline in death rate only
(c) The rate of population growth is increasing due to increase in birth rate only
(d) The rate of population growth is increasing due to faster decline in death rate than in birth rate

Answer: D

Statement 2 says that the death rate is declining faster in the country compared to birth rate. This means that the number of deaths is decreasing at a faster rate than the number of births. This will lead to an increase in the population growth rate.

Statement 1 says that the rate of population growth is increasing in the country. This is consistent with the conclusion that the faster decline in death rate is the cause of the increase in population growth rate.

Statement 3 says that the birth rate is declining faster in the country compared to death rate. This is contradictory to the conclusion that the faster decline in death rate is the cause of the increase in population growth rate.

Statement 4 says that rural-urban migration is taking place regularly in the country. This is not directly related to the rate of population growth. It is possible that rural-urban migration is contributing to the increase in population growth rate, but it is not the only factor.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

(a) 3 km east, then 2 km south
(b) 3 km east, then 1 km north
(c) 1 km north, then 2 km west
(d) 3 km south, then 1 km north

Answer: B

Let's analyse the person's movements step by step:

1. X started at the intersection of two roads.
2. He drove 3 km north.
3. Then, he drove 3 km west.
4. After that, he drove 4 km south.

Now, let's consider the options for further route without repeating the same route:

(a) 3 km east, then 2 km south:

• This would take him 3 km away to the east and then 2 km down to the south, which would not bring him back to the starting point.

(b) 3 km east, then 1 km north:

• This would take him 3 km to the east and then 1 km up to the north, which would bring him back to the starting point.

(c) 1 km north, then 2 km west:

• This would take him 1 km up to the north and then 2 km to the west, which would not bring him back to the starting point.

(d) 3 km south, then 1 km north:

• This would take him 3 km down to the south and then 1 km up to the north, which would not bring him back to the starting point.

So, the correct option is (b) 3 km east, then 1 km north.

"We shall go either for a picnic or for trekking".

Which of the following, if true, would falsify this claim?

(a) We go for a picnic but not for trekking
(b) Activities such as picnic and trekking are encouraged by the health authorities
(c) We go for trekking and not for picnic
(d) We do not go either for picnic or for trekking

Answer: D

The statement "We shall go either for a picnic or for trekking" means that one of those two actions must happen. If we do not go either for a picnic or for trekking, then the statement is false.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

The other options do not necessarily falsify the statement. For example, if we go for a picnic but not for trekking, then the statement is still true, because we have gone for one of the two activities that were mentioned.

The fact that activities such as picnics and trekking are encouraged by the health authorities is also irrelevant to the statement.

If we go for trekking and not for a picnic, then the statement is still true, because we have gone for one of the two activities that were mentioned.

(a) the party comprised male faculty members only
(b) the party comprised only those female faculty members who could not give renderings in music
(c) the party comprised both male and female faculty members
(d) nothing can be said about the gender composition of the party

Answer: D

Nothing can be said about the gender composition of the party.

It is possible that the party comprised male faculty members only. This would be consistent with the fact that no members knew music, since we know that no male faculty member knew music.

It is also possible that the party comprised only those female faculty members who could not give renderings in music. This would also be consistent with the fact that no members knew music.

Finally, it is also possible that the party comprised both male and female faculty members. This would be consistent with the fact that no members knew music, since we know that some female faculty members did know music.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

12. Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a round table. Every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs.

(i) C is seated next to A
(ii) A is seated two seats from D
(iii) B is not seated next to A

On the basis of above information, which of the following must be true?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 nor 3

Answer: B

If A is facing north and C is seated next to A on A's right, then D must be seated next to A on A's left. This is because B is not seated next to A, and there are only two seats next to each person.

If E is seated next to A, then E must be seated on A's right. This is because D is already seated on A's left.

Therefore, the following diagram shows the only possible arrangement of the five people, satisfying all of the given conditions:

A - E - C - B - D

In this arrangement, D is seated next to B, and E is seated next to A. However, D and C are not separated by two seats. They are separated by one seat.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 1 and 2 only.

Answer: D

To find out how many times all five groups meet on the same day within 180 days, you need to find the least common multiple (LCM) of the meeting days for each group.

• Gardening: Every 2 days
• Electronics: Every 3 days
• Chess: Every 4 days
• Yachting: Every 5 days
• Photography: Every 6 days

Now, calculate the LCM of these numbers:

LCM (2, 3, 4, 5, 6) = 60

The LCM is 60, which means that all five groups will meet on the same day every 60 days. To find out how many times this happens within 180 days, you can divide 180 by 60:

180 / 60 = 3

So, all five groups will meet on the same day within 180 days a total of 3 times.

The correct answer is (d) 3.

(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 4 and 3

Answer: C

If one bee lands on each flower than one bee will be left out.

This means that the number of bees is one more than the number of flowers.

 So. let the number of flowers be F and the number of bees be B.

Then, F + 1 = B Also, if two bees land on each flower then one flower will be left out.

B ÷ 2 = F - 1

⇒ B = 2F - 2

On combining both the equations,

we get: F = 3 and B = 4

Hence, there are three flowers and four bees.

 

Directions for the following 5 (five) items:

Consider the following information and answer the five items that follow:
There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor.

15. Who is the doctor?

Answer: A

Let's analyse the given information:

1. There are five persons: P, Q, R, S, and T.
2. The group has one doctor, one lawyer, and one artist.
3. P and S are unmarried students.
4. T is a man married to one of the group members.
5. Q is the brother of P and is neither a doctor nor an artist.
6. R is not a doctor.

From the information provided:

• R is not a doctor, so R can be a lawyer or an artist.
• Q is neither a doctor nor an artist, so Q can be the remaining profession, which is a lawyer.
• P and S are unmarried students, so they are not the doctor, lawyer, or artist.
• T is married to one of the group members, but we don't know their profession yet.

So, the remaining profession, which is doctor, must belong to T.

Therefore, the answer is (a) T is the doctor.

Answer: C

From the information provided:

• R is not a doctor.
• Q is neither a doctor nor an artist, so Q must be the lawyer.
• P and S are unmarried students, so they are not the doctor, lawyer, or artist.
• T is the doctor.

Since T is the doctor and Q is the lawyer, and the group has one doctor, one lawyer, and one artist, that leaves R as the artist.

Therefore, the answer is (c) R is the artist.

(a) P
(b) T
(c) Q
(d) S

Answer: B

Since P and S are unmarried students, and Q is the brother of P, then Q is also unmarried.

Since R is an artist and T is a doctor, then R and T are married.

Therefore, the spouse of R is T.

So the answer is (b).

(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S

Answer: B

Since Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist, then Q is a lawyer. So the answer is (b).

19. Who of the following is definitely a man?

(a) P
(b) S
(c) Q
(d) None of the above

Answer: C

Since T is a man married to one of the group members, and R is not a doctor, then T is married to R.

Since T is a man married to R, then R is a woman.

Since Q is the brother of P, then Q is a man.

Therefore, Q is definitely a man.

So the answer is (c).

20. There is an order of 19000 quantity of a particular product from a customer. The firm produces 1000 quantity of that product per out of which 5% are unfit for sale. In how many days will the order be completed?

Answer: C

To find out how many days it will take to complete the order, you can calculate the number of usable products produced per day and then divide the total order quantity by that daily production rate.

Here's the calculation:

1. Daily production = 1000 products per day.
2. 5% of the daily production is unfit for sale, which means 95% are usable.
3. Usable daily production = 0.95 * 1000 = 950 products per day.

Now, divide the total order quantity (19,000) by the usable daily production rate (950):

19,000 / 950 = 20

So, it will take 20 days to complete the order.

The correct answer is (c) 20.

 

Directions for the following 5 (five) items:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage-1
Biomass as fuel for power, heat, and transport has the highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources. It comes from agriculture and forest residues as well as from energy crops. The biggest challenge in using biomass residues is a long-term reliable supply delivered to the power plant at reasonable costs; the key problems are logistical constraints and the costs of fuel collection. Energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production and may have undesirable impacts on food prices. Biomass production is also sensitive to the physical impacts of a changing climate.
Projections of the future role of biomass are probably overestimated, given the limits to the sustainable biomass supply, unless breakthrough technologies substantially increase productivity. Climate-energy models project that biomass use could increase nearly four-fold to around 150 — 200 exajoules, almost a quarter of world primary energy in 2050. However the maximum sustainable technical potential of biomass resources (both residues and energy crops) without disruption of food and forest resources ranges from 80 — 170 exajoules a year by 2050, and only part of this is realistically and economically feasible. In addition, some climate models rely on biomass-based carbon capture and storage, an unproven technology, to achieve negative emissions and to buy some time during the first half of the century.
Some liquid biofuels such as corn-based ethanol, mainly for transport, may aggravate rather than ameliorate carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis. Second generation biofuels, based on ligno-cellulosic feedstock’s — such as straw, bagasse, grass and wood — hold the promise of sustainable production that is high-yielding and emit low levels of greenhouse gases, but these are still in the R & D stage.

21. What is/are the present constraint/constraints in using biomass as fuel for power generation?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

The passage states that the biggest challenge in using biomass residues is a long-term reliable supply delivered to the power plant at reasonable costs. This suggests that there is a lack of sustainable supply of biomass.

The passage also states that energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production. This suggests that biomass production competes with food production.

Finally, the passage states that some liquid biofuels such as corn-based ethanol may aggravate rather than ameliorate carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis. This suggests that bio-energy may not always be low carbon on a life-cycle basis.

Therefore, all three of the constraints you listed are present constraints in using biomass as fuel for power generation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

According to the passage, biomass production competes with food production. Therefore, promoting the cultivation of energy crops in neglect of food crops may lead to food security problem.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Statement 1 is not necessarily true. While biomass has the potential to meet a significant portion of the world's primary energy requirements by 2050, it is unlikely to meet all of them. Biomass is a finite resource, and there are other renewable energy sources that are more abundant and scalable, such as solar and wind energy.

Statement 2 is true. Biomass can be produced sustainably without disrupting food and forest resources. For example, energy crops can be grown on marginal land that is not suitable for food production. Additionally, agricultural and forest residues can be collected and used for energy production without depleting the soil of nutrients.

Statement 3 is true. Biomass-based carbon capture and storage (CCS) is a nascent technology that could help to achieve negative emissions. CCS involves capturing carbon dioxide emissions from power plants and other industrial facilities and storing them underground. This can help to offset the greenhouse gas emissions associated with biomass production and use.

Therefore, the only two characteristics of sustainable biofuel production in the context of using biomass are that it does not necessarily disrupt food and forest resources, and it could help in achieving negative emissions, given certain nascent technologies.

It is important to note that sustainable biofuel production is a complex issue with many challenges. For example, it is important to ensure that biomass production does not compete with food production or lead to deforestation. It is also important to ensure that biofuels are produced in a way that minimizes greenhouse gas emissions.

Which of these assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Assumption 1 is valid. Some climate-energy models do suggest that the use of biomass as a fuel for power generation helps in mitigating greenhouse gas emissions. This is because biomass releases carbon dioxide when it is burned, but it also absorbs carbon dioxide from the atmosphere when it grows. This means that biomass can be a carbon-neutral fuel source, if it is produced and used sustainably.

Assumption 2 is not valid. It is possible to use biomass as a fuel for power generation without disrupting food and forest resources. For example, energy crops can be grown on marginal land that is not suitable for food production. Additionally, agricultural and forest residues can be collected and used for energy production without depleting the soil of nutrients.

Therefore, only assumption 1 is valid.

 

Passage-2

We are witnessing a dangerous dwindling of biodiversity in our food supply. The green revolution is a mixed blessing. Over time farmers have come to rely heavily on broadly adapted, high yield crops to the exclusion of varieties adapted to the local conditions. Monocropping vast fields with the same genetically uniform seeds helps boost yield and meet immediate hunger needs. Yet high-yield varieties are also genetically weaker crops that require expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides. In our focus on increasing the amount of food we produce today, we have accidentally put ourselves at risk for food shortages in future.

25. Which among the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) In our agricultural practices, we have become heavily dependent on expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides only due to green revolution
(b) Monocropping vast fields with high-yield varieties is possible due to green revolution
(c) Monocropping with high-yield varieties is the only way to ensure food security to millions
(d) Green revolution can pose a threat to biodiversity in food supply and food security in the long run

Answer: D

The most logical and critical inference that can be made from the passage is that the green revolution can pose a threat to biodiversity in food supply and food security in the long run.

This is because the green revolution has led to a decrease in the genetic diversity of our food supply, as farmers have come to rely heavily on a few high-yield varieties of crops. This makes our food supply more vulnerable to pests and diseases, and it also reduces the resilience of our food system to climate change.

The other options are not supported by the passage. For example, the passage does not say that the green revolution is the only way to ensure food security, and it does not say that the green revolution is solely responsible for our reliance on expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

(a) 48 minutes
(b) 50 minutes
(c) 51 minutes
(d) 53 minutes

Answer: A

The class starts at 11:00 am and ends at 2:27 pm, which is a total of 3 hours and 27 minutes.

After every period, a rest of 5 minutes is given to the students. Therefore, the total duration of the rests is 3 * 5 = 15 minutes.

This means that the total duration of the four periods is 3 hours and 27 minutes - 15 minutes = 3 hours and 12 minutes.

Since there are four periods of equal duration, the duration of each period is 3 hours and 12 minutes / 4 = 48 minutes.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 48 minutes.

 

What is the total minimum time required by all the friends to cross the bridge?

(a) 23 minutes
(b) 22 minutes
(c) 21 minutes
(d) 20 minutes

Answer: A

Here is a possible solution:

1. A and B cross the bridge (2 minutes).
2. A returns with the lamp (1 minute).
3. A and C cross the bridge (7 minutes).
4. A returns with the lamp (1 minute).
5. A and D cross the bridge (10 minutes).
6. A returns with the lamp (1 minute).
7. A crosses the bridge without the lamp (1 minute).

Total time = 2 + 1 + 7 + 1 + 10 + 1 + 1 = 23 minutes.

This is the minimum time required because it is not possible to cross the bridge in less time without violating the given conditions.

(a) sweeter than that in C
(b) sweeter than that in A
(c) as sweet as that in C
(d) less sweet than that in C

Answer: D

To determine which solution is sweeter, we need to calculate the concentration of sugar in each vessel.

Vessel A:

Concentration of sugar = 30g / 180ml * 100% = 16.67%

Vessel B:

Concentration of sugar = 40g / 280ml * 100% = 14.29%

Vessel C:

Concentration of sugar = 20g / 100ml * 100% = 20%

Therefore, the solution in vessel C is the sweetest, followed by the solution in vessel A, and then the solution in vessel B.

Hence, the answer is (d).

(a) 12
(b) 21
(c) 43
(d) 45

Answer: B

Let the number of students in the class be x.

Since every student contributes x rupees, the total collection without considering the additional contribution by one student is x * x = x^2 rupees.

The total collection with the additional contribution is x^2 + 2 rupees.

We are given that the total collection is Rs. 443. Therefore, we have the following equation:

x^2 + 2 = 443

Subtracting 2 from both sides, we get:

x^2 = 441

Taking the square root of both sides, we get:

x = 21

Therefore, there are 21 students in the class.

So the answer is (b).

(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 9

Answer: B

To pass the test with 60% marks, Anita needs to answer at least 60% of the total problems correctly.

The total number of problems is: 10 arithmetic + 30 algebra + 30 geometry = 70 problems.

60% of the total problems is: 0.60 * 70 = 42 problems.

Currently, Anita answered:

• 70% of the arithmetic problems correctly, which is 0.70 * 10 = 7 problems.
• 40% of the algebra problems correctly, which is 0.40 * 30 = 12 problems.
• 60% of the geometry problems correctly, which is 0.60 * 30 = 18 problems.

The total number of problems she answered correctly is: 7 (arithmetic) + 12 (algebra) + 18 (geometry) = 37 problems.

To pass, she needs to answer 42 - 37 = 5 more problems correctly.

So, the correct answer is (b) 5. Anita needs to answer 5 more questions correctly to earn a 60% passing mark.

(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 21

Answer: B

Let's denote the total number of boys as "B" and the total number of students in the class as "S."

According to the information given:

1. The 18 very tall boys constitute three-fourths of the boys, so (3/4)B = 18.

Now, we can solve for B:

(3/4)B = 18

To isolate B, multiply both sides by (4/3):

B = 18 * (4/3) = 24.

2. The total number of boys (B) is two-thirds of the total number of students in the class (S), so (2/3) S = B.

Now, we can solve for S:

(2/3)S = B (2/3) S = 24

To isolate S, multiply both sides by (3/2):

S = 24 * (3/2) = 36.

Now that we know there are 36 students in the class, and we already know there are 24 boys, we can find the number of girls by subtracting the number of boys from the total number of students:

Number of girls = Total number of students - Number of boys Number of girls = 36 - 24 = 12.

So, there are 12 girls in the class.

The correct answer is (b) 12.

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

(a) A is older than B
(b) B and D are of the same age
(c) D is older than C
(d) A is older than C

Answer: D 

Case 1: A and B are of the same age

• Case 1a: C and D are of the same age. In this case, A = B = C = D.
• Case 1b: D is older than C. In this case, D > A = B > C.

Case 2: A is older than B

• Case 2a: C and D are of the same age. In this case, A > B = C = D.
• Case 2b: D is older than C. In this case, D > A > B > C.

In all four cases, the conclusion is that A is older than C. Therefore, the only conclusion that can be drawn from the given statements is that A is older than C.

(a) 75%
(b) 80%
(c) 85%
(d) 90%

Answer: B

Let the number of male employees be x and the number of female employees be y.

We are given that the monthly average salary paid to all the employees of a company was Rs. 5000. This means that:

(5200x + 4200y) / (x + y) = 5000

Simplifying, we get:

1000x = 800y

Dividing both sides by 1000, we get:

x = 0.8y

We can see that the number of male employees is 0.8 times the number of female employees. This means that the percentage of males employed in the company is:

x / (x + y) * 100 = 0.8 * 100 = 80%

Therefore, the answer is (b).

 

Direction for the following 3 (three) items:

Consider the given -formation and answer the three items that follow.

Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the same order). Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not necessarily in the same order). The golf ball is in violet box and is not in the box D. The box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. The box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and next to box B. The box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball.

34. Which one of the following boxes contains the golf ball?

(a) F
(b) E
(c) D
(d) None of the above

Answer: B

We are given that the golf ball is in the violet box and is not in the box D. We are also given that the box A which contains the tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right.

This means that the violet box cannot be box A, B, or C, since these boxes are either orange or contain a different ball. Therefore, the violet box must be either box D, E, or F.

We are also given that the hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. This means that the golf ball cannot be in box D or box E. Therefore, the golf ball must be in box F.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

(a) D is painted yellow
(b) F is painted indigo
(c) B is painted blue
(d) All of the above

Answer: B

• Box A contains the tennis ball and is orange.
• Box B contains the volleyball.
• Box C contains the cricket ball and is green.
• Box D contains the football.
• Box E contains the golf ball and is violet.
• Box F contains the hockey ball and is indigo.

Now, let's address the statements:

(a) D is painted yellow - False (b) F is painted indigo - True (c) B is painted blue - False

So, the correct statement is (b) F is painted indigo.

(a) Yellow
(b) Indigo
(c) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate
(d) Blue

Answer: C

We know that the golf ball is in the violet box and is not in the box D. We also know that the box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing the golf ball and volleyball. However, we do not know which box contains the hockey ball.

We are also given that the box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. We are also given that the box C having cricket ball is painted green. And we are given that the box B contains volleyball.

With this information, we cannot determine which box contains the football. The football could be in any of the boxes, except for box D and box E.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

(a) 12%
(b) 10%
(c) 9%
(d) 8%

Answer: B

Let's assume that the third number Z is 100.

Then, the number X is 20% less than 100, which means X = 0.8 * 100 = 80.

The number Y is 28% less than 100, which means Y = 0.72 * 100 = 72.

Therefore, the number Y is 8/80 * 100 = 10% less than the number X.

Therefore, the answer is (b). 10%

Answer: C

Train A leaves station A on the 1st day at 6 am

⇒ Train B leaves the station B on the 1st day at 6 am

⇒ In fact after 24 hours or 1 day, both trains can't complete their journey

 ⇒ to complete the journey both trains required 42 hours

 ∴ 4 trains are needed in order to maintain the shuttle service

39. A piece of tin is in the form of a rectangle having length 12 cm and width 8 cm. This is used to construct a closed cube. The side of the cube is:

Answer: C

To construct a closed cube using a rectangular piece of tin, we need to determine the side length of the cube.

The given rectangular piece of tin has a length of 12 cm and a width of 8 cm. The rectangular piece will be used to form the surface area of the cube.

In a cube, all sides are equal in length. Let's assume the side length of the cube is "x" cm.

The surface area of the cube is the sum of the areas of its six faces. For a cube, each face is a square, and the area of one face is equal to the side length squared.

Surface area of the cube = 6 * (side length)^2

Given that the rectangular piece of tin will be used to form the surface area of the cube, we can set up an equation:

12 cm * 8 cm = 6 * (x cm)^2

96 cm^2 = 6 * (x cm)^2

Now, solve for x:

(x cm)^2 = 96 cm^2 / 6

(x cm)^2 = 16 cm^2

x cm = √(16 cm^2)

x cm = 4 cm

So, the side length of the cube is 4 cm.

The correct answer is (c) 4 cm.

Answer: D

To ensure that no two candidates have given the answers to the five questions in an identical sequence, we can think of it as each candidate creating a unique binary sequence of length 5, where each position corresponds to one question and "True" or "False" corresponds to 1 or 0, respectively.

In such a binary sequence, there are 2 options (0 or 1) for each of the 5 positions, which means there are 2^5 = 32 possible unique binary sequences of length 5.

Therefore, the maximum number of candidates is 32, as each candidate corresponds to a unique binary sequence, ensuring that no two candidates have given the answers in an identical sequence.

So, the correct answer is (d) 32.

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:
Read the following eight passages and answer the item that follows each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

 Passage-1

By killing transparency and competition, crony capitalism is harmful to free enterprise, opportunity and economic growth. Crony capitalism, where rich and the influential are alleged to have received land and natural resources and various licences in return for payoffs to venal politicians, is now a major issue to be tackled. One of the greatest dangers to growth of developing economies like India is the middle-income where crony capitalism creates oligarchies that slow down the growth.

41. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?

(a) Launching more welfare schemes and allocating more finances for the current schemes r are urgently needed
(b) Efforts should be made to push up economic growth by other means and provide licences to the poor
(c) Greater transparency in the functioning of the government and promoting the financial inclusion are needed at present
(d) We should concentrate more on developing manufacturing sector than service sector

Answer: C

The most logical corollary to the passage is that greater transparency in the functioning of the government and promoting the financial inclusion are needed at present.

This is because the passage states that crony capitalism is harmful to free enterprise, opportunity, and economic growth. It also states that crony capitalism is a major issue to be tackled in developing economies like India.

Greater transparency in the functioning of the government and promoting financial inclusion can help to reduce crony capitalism and promote economic growth. Transparency can help to ensure that government decisions are made fairly and that there is no favouritism towards certain individuals or groups. Financial inclusion can help to ensure that everyone has access to financial services, regardless of their background or income.

The other options are not as logically related to the passage. Option (a) is about launching more welfare schemes and allocating more finances for current schemes. This is not necessarily a corollary to the passage, as there are other ways to reduce crony capitalism and promote economic growth. Option (b) is about pushing up economic growth by other means and providing licenses to the poor. This is also not necessarily a corollary to the passage, as it does not address the issue of crony capitalism. Option (d) is about concentrating more on developing the manufacturing sector than the service sector. This is also not necessarily a corollary to the passage, as both sectors can be important for economic growth.

Therefore, the answer is (c). Greater transparency in the functioning of the government and promoting the financial inclusion are needed at present.

 

Passage-2

Climate adaptation may be rendered ineffective if policies are not designed in the context of other development concerns. For instance, a comprehensive strategy that seeks to improve food security in the context of climate change may include a set of coordinated measures related to agricultural extension, crop diversification, integrated water and pest management and agricultural information series. Some of these measures may have to do with climate changes and others with economic development.

42. What is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) It is difficult to pursue climate adaptation in the developing countries
(b) Improving food security is a far more complex issue than climate adaptation
(c) Every developmental activity is directly or indirectly linked to climate adaptation
(d) Climate adaptation should be examined in tandem with other economic development options

Answer: D

The passage suggests that climate adaptation policies should be designed in the context of other development concerns to be effective. It emphasizes the need for a comprehensive strategy that integrates climate adaptation with other development measures related to agriculture, water management, and economic development.

The most logical and rational inference from the passage is that (d) "Climate adaptation should be examined in tandem with other economic development options." This inference aligns with the idea that climate adaptation cannot be pursued in isolation but should be considered alongside other development activities to achieve effective results.

Options (a), (b), and (c) do not capture the central message of the passage, which is about the importance of integrating climate adaptation with other development concerns.

So, the correct answer is (d) "Climate adaptation should be examined in tandem with other economic development options."

 

 Passage-3

Understanding of the role of biodiversity in the hydrological cycle enables better policy-making. The term biodiversity refers to the variety of plants, animals, microorganisms, and the ecosystems in which they occur. Water and biodiversity are interdependent. In reality, the hydrological cycle decides how biodiversity functions. In turn, vegetation and soil drive the movement of water. Every glass of water we drink has, at least in part, passed through fish, trees, bacteria, soil and other organisms. Passing through these ecosystems, it is cleansed and made fit for consumption. The supply of water is a critical service that the environment provides.

43. Which among the following is the most critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) biodiversity sustains the ability of nature to recycle water
(b) We cannot get potable water without the existence of living organisms
(c) Plants, animals and microorganisms continuously interact among themselves
(d) Living organisms could not have come into existence without hydrological cycle

Answer: A

 The passage states that water and biodiversity are interdependent. It also states that the hydrological cycle decides how biodiversity functions and that vegetation and soil drive the movement of water.

The passage then goes on to explain that every glass of water we drink has, at least in part, passed through fish, trees, bacteria, soil, and other organisms. Passing through these ecosystems, it is cleansed and made fit for consumption.

This shows that biodiversity plays a vital role in the water cycle. Plants and other organisms help to filter and clean water. They also help to store water and release it slowly, which helps to regulate the flow of water in rivers and streams.

The other options are not as critical. Option (b) is true, but it is not the most critical inference that can be made from the passage. Option (c) is also true, but it is not specific to the relationship between biodiversity and the water cycle. Option (d) is not supported by the passage.

Therefore, the answer is (a) biodiversity sustains the ability of nature to recycle water.

 

Passage-4                                                                          

In the last decade, the banking sector has been restructured with a high degree of automation and products that mainly serve middle-class and upper middle-class society. Today there is need for a new agenda for the banking and non-banking financial services that does not exclude the common man

44. Which one of the following is the message that is essentially implied in the above passage?

(a) Need for more automation and more products of bank
(b) Need for a radical restructuring of our entire public finance system
(c) Need to integrate banking and non-banking institutions
(d) Need to promote financial inclusion

Answer: D

The passage is about the need for financial inclusion in the banking and non-banking financial services sector. It states that the banking sector has been restructured with a high degree of automation and products that mainly serve middle-class and upper middle-class society. However, there is now a need for a new agenda that does not exclude the common man.

This means that the banking and non-banking financial services sector needs to be more inclusive. This could be done by developing products and services that are specifically designed for the common man. It could also be done by making existing products and services more accessible and affordable for the common man.

Therefore, the answer is (d) Need to promote financial inclusion.

The other options are not supported by the passage. Option (a) is about the need for more automation and more products of banks. This is not the main message of the passage. Option (b) is about the need for a radical restructuring of our entire public finance system. This is too broad and is not supported by the passage. Option (c) is about the need to integrate banking and non-banking institutions. This is not the main message of the passage.

 

Passage-5                                                    

Safe and sustainable sanitation in slums has immeasurable benefits to women and girls in terms of their health, safety, privacy and dimity. However, women do not feature in most of the schemes and policies on urban sanitation. The fact that even now the manual scavenging exists, ones to show that not enough has been done to promote pour-flush toilets and discontinue the use of dry latrines. A more sustained and rigorous campaign needs to be launched towards the right to sanitation on a very large scale. This should primarily focus on the abolition of manual scavenging.

45. With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

The passage states that safe and sustainable sanitation in slums has immeasurable benefits to women and girls in terms of their health, safety, privacy, and dignity. It also states that women do not feature in most of the schemes and policies on urban sanitation.

The passage also mentions that manual scavenging still exists, which shows that not enough has been done to promote pour-flush toilets and discontinue the use of dry latrines.

Therefore, we can conclude that there is a need to promote greater awareness on safe sanitation practices in urban areas.

However, we cannot conclude that urban sanitation problems can be fully solved by the abolition of manual scavenging only. Manual scavenging is only one of the many problems that contribute to urban sanitation problems. Other problems include lack of access to toilets, poor drainage systems, and inadequate waste management.

Therefore, the answer is (b) 2 only.

 

Passage-6

To understand the nature and quantity of Government proper for man, it is necessary to attend to his character. As nature created him for social life, she fitted him for the station she intended. In all cases she made his natural wants greater than his individual powers. No one man is capable, without the aid of society, of supplying his own wants; and those wants, acting upon every individual, impel the whole of them into society.

46. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

Answer: D       

The passage states that nature created man for social life and fitted him for the station she intended. It also states that nature made man's natural wants greater than his individual powers. This means that no one man is capable of supplying his own wants without the aid of society.

This shows that man's diverse natural wants forced him to form a social system. In a social system, people can cooperate and specialize to produce and distribute goods and services more efficiently. This allows people to meet their needs more effectively than they could if they were living alone.

The other options are not as logically related to the passage. Option (a) is true, but it is not the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage. Option (b) is not supported by the passage, as the passage does not state that any given human society is always short of its wants. Option (c) is true, but it is not specific to the relationship between man's natural wants and social life.

Therefore, the answer is (d) Diverse natural wants forced man towards social system.

                

 Passage-7

The nature of the legal imperatives in any given state corresponds to the effective demands that state encounters, and that these, in their turn, depend, in a general way, upon the manner in which economic power is distributed in the society which the state controls.

47. The statement refers to:

Answer: B

The statement discusses how legal imperatives in a state correspond to the effective demands it encounters, which, in turn, depend on the distribution of economic power in the society controlled by that state. This highlights the interrelationship between politics (the state) and economics (economic power distribution).

 Passage-8

About 15 percent of global greenhouse gas emissions come from agricultural practices. This includes nitrous oxide fertilizers; methane from livestock, rice production, and manure storage; and carbon dioxide (CO₂) from burning biomass, but this excludes CO2 emissions from soil management practices, sayannah burning and deforestation. Forestry and use, and land-use change account for another percent of greenhouse gas emissions each ear, three quarters of which come from tropical deforestation. The remainder is largely from draining and burning tropical peatland. About the same amount of carbon is stored in the world's peatland as is stored in the Amazon rainforest.

48. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Organic farming should immediately replace mechanised and chemical dependant agricultural practices all over the world
(b) It is imperative for us to modify our land use practices in order to mitigate climate change.
(c) There are no technological solutions to the problem of greenhouse gas emissions
(d) Tropical areas are the chief sites of carbon sequestration

Answer: B

The passage highlights the significant contribution of agriculture, forestry, and land-use practices to greenhouse gas emissions. It suggests that in order to mitigate climate change, there is a need to modify land-use practices, indicating the importance of making changes in this aspect to address the issue of greenhouse gas emissions.

(a) 7 km
(b) 13 km
(c) 17 km
(d) 11 km

Answer: B

To solve this problem, we can use the Pythagorean theorem.

The Pythagorean theorem states that in a right triangle, the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides.

In this case, the hypotenuse is the distance between the starting point O and the ending point B. The other two sides are the distances OA and AB.

We know that OA is 5 km and AB is 12 km. Therefore, we can use the Pythagorean theorem to calculate the distance OB:

OB² = OA² + AB²

OB² = 5² + 12²

OB² = 169

OB = 13 km

Therefore, the person is 13 km away from the starting point O.

So the answer is (b).

(a) 400 sq m
(b) 300 sq m
(c) 200 sq m
(d) 80 sq m

Answer: A

We can use the AM-GM inequality to solve this problem. The AM-GM inequality states that for any set of positive real numbers, the arithmetic mean is greater than or equal to the geometric mean.

In this case, the arithmetic mean of X1 and X2 is 40/2 = 20. The geometric mean of X1 and X2 is √(X1 * X2).

We want to find the maximum area of the agricultural field, which is given by X1 * X2. Therefore, we want to maximize the geometric mean of X1 and X2.

According to the AM-GM inequality, the geometric mean of X1 and X2 is maximized when X1 and X2 are equal. This means that the maximum area of the agricultural field is achieved when X1 = X2 = 20.

The maximum area of the agricultural field is therefore 20 * 20 = 400 sq m.

Therefore, the answer is (a). 400 sq m

Answer: B

1. The sum of the ages of the 5 family members 3 years ago was 80 years.
2. Calculate the present age of the 5 members: 80 + 3 * 5 = 95 years.
3. The average age of the 5 family members 3 years ago was 80/5 = 16 years.
4. Since the average age of the 6 members (including the baby) at present is the same as the average age of the 5 members 3 years ago, you can calculate the sum of the ages of the 6 members at present: 16 * 6 = 96 years.
5. To find the age of the baby, subtract the sum of the ages of the 5 family members at present (95 years) from the sum of the ages of the 6 members at present (96 years): 96 - 95 = 1 year.

So, the age of the baby is indeed 1 year, which corresponds to option (b).

(a) 16 : 13
(b) 5 : 4
(c) 7 : 5
(d) 12 : 11

Answer: D

Let's denote the basic pay of the first person as B1 and the basic pay of the second person as B2.

According to the information given:

1. The first person gets allowances to the extent of 65% of his basic pay, so his total emoluments are 100% (basic pay) + 65% (allowances) = 165% of his basic pay.
2. The second person gets allowances to the extent of 80% of his basic pay, so his total emoluments are 100% (basic pay) + 80% (allowances) = 180% of his basic pay.

Now, we are given that the total emoluments of both persons are the same. Therefore, we can set up the following equation:

165% of B1 = 180% of B2

To simplify this equation, we can divide both sides by 5:

33% of B1 = 36% of B2

Now, we can cancel out the common factor of 3:

11% of B1 = 12% of B2

To find the ratio of B1 to B2, we can divide both sides by 11:

(B1 / B2) = (12% / 11%) = 12/11

So, the ratio of the basic pay of the former (B1) to the basic pay of the latter (B2) is 12:11, which corresponds to option (d).

(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11

Answer: B

If a person has to climb 4 more steps to reach the middle step, then there must be 4 steps below the middle step and 4 steps above the middle step. Therefore, the total number of steps in the ladder is 4 + 4 + 1 = 9 steps.

Here is a visual representation of the problem:

Step 9

Step 8

Step 7

Step 6

Step 5 (middle step)

Step 4

Step 3

Step 2

Step 1

The person is standing on step 1 and has to climb 4 more steps to reach the middle step, which is step 5. Therefore, there are 9 steps in the ladder.

 

Direction for the following 3 (three) items:

Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow.
When three friends A, B and C met, it was found that each of them wore an outer garment of a different colour. In random order, the garments are: jacket, sweater and tie; and the colours are: blue, white and black. Their surnames in random order Kumar and Singh.

Further, we know that:

(a) Riberio
(b) Kumar
(c) Singh
(d) Cannot be determined

Answer: A

We know the following from the given information:

• C wore a tie.
• Ribeiro does not like to wear the black colour.
• Singh's garment was not white.
• Kumar does not wear a jacket.
• Neither B nor Ribeiro wore a white sweater.

From this information, we can deduce the following:

• C's surname is Ribeiro.
• B's surname is Singh.
• A's surname is Kumar.

Therefore, the answer is (a).

Explanation:

We can start by eliminating options (b) and (c). We know that C's surname is not Kumar or Singh, because Kumar does not wear a jacket and Singh's garment was not white.

We are then left with options (a) and (d). We can determine the correct answer by considering the following facts:

• C wore a tie.
• Ribeiro does not like to wear the black colour.

From these two facts, we can conclude that C's surname must be Ribeiro. This is because the only person who could have worn a tie is C, and the only person whose surname is Ribeiro is Ribeiro.

Therefore, the answer is (a).

(a) Black
(b) Blue
(c) White
(d) Cannot be determined

Answer: B

1. A has the white sweater.
2. C has the tie.
3. Singh cannot have the white garment, so Singh must have either the black or blue garment.
4. Kumar cannot have the jacket, so Kumar must have either the sweater or the tie.
5. Ribeiro cannot have the black garment.

Now, let's see which garments are left for Singh, Kumar, and Ribeiro:

• Singh: Blue
• Kumar: Tie
• Ribeiro: Jacket

So, the colour of the tie is blue.

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) Cannot be determined

Answer: A

Here is a summary of the given information:

• Each of the three friends wore a different garment of a different color.
• The garments are a jacket, a sweater, and a tie.
• The colors are blue, white, and black.
• C wore a tie.
• Singh's garment was not white.
• Kumar does not wear a jacket.

From this information, we can deduce the following:

• B wore the black jacket.
• C wore the blue tie.
• A wore the white sweater.

Therefore, the answer is (a).

(a) 20 m
(b) 25 m
(c) 30 m
(d) 35 m

Answer: B

Here is a diagram of the situation:

[Diagram of a broken tree trunk]

We know the following information:

• The trunk of the tree was broken at C, which is 12 meters high.
• The broken part of the trunk is partially attached to the vertical portion of the trunk at C.
• The end of the broken part B touches the ground at D, which is 5 meters from A.

We want to find the original height of the trunk, which is represented by the length AC.

We can use the Pythagorean Theorem to solve this problem. The Pythagorean Theorem states that for a right triangle, the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides.

In this case, we have a right triangle ACD with hypotenuse AD and legs AC and CD. We know that AD = 5 meters and CD = 12 meters. We want to find AC, which is the hypotenuse.

Substituting into the Pythagorean Theorem, we get:

AC^2 = AD^2 + CD^2

AC^2 = 5^2 + 12^2

AC^2 = 169

AC = sqrt (169)

AC = 13

However, we know that the original height of the trunk is 12 meters higher than the point where the trunk was broken. This means that the original height of the trunk is 12 + 13 = 25 meters.

Therefore, the answer is (b).

(a) 5 km
(b) 9 km
(c) 37 km
(d) 61 km

Answer: A

To find out how far the person is from the starting point, we can use the concept of vector addition. We'll break down the person's journey into two components: north-south and east-west.

1. North-South Component:
   • The person walks 12 km due north and then 15 km due south.
   • The net north-south displacement is 12 km - 15 km = -3 km (negative because it's southward).
2. East-West Component:
   • The person walks 15 km due east and then 19 km due west.
   • The net east-west displacement is 15 km - 19 km = -4 km (negative because it's westward).

Now, we can use these components to find the total displacement using the Pythagorean Theorem because these components form a right-angled triangle:

Total displacement (D) = √ ((north-south component) ^2 + (east-west component)^2)

D = √((-3 km)^2 + (-4 km)^2)

D = √(9 km^2 + 16 km^2)

D = √(25 km^2)

D = 5 km

So, the person is 5 kilometers from the starting point, which corresponds to option (a) 5 km.

(a) 32
(b) 24
(c) 16
(d) 8

Answer: B

The number of small cubes with only one of the sides painted is 24.

Let the side of the big cube be x. Then, the side of the small cube is x/4.

The number of small cubes that can be cut from the big cube is (x/x/4)^3 = 64.

Of these 64 cubes, 8 cubes will be on each face of the big cube. These 8 cubes will have two sides painted.

Therefore, the number of small cubes with only one of the sides painted is 64 - 8 * 6 = 24.

Therefore, the answer is (b).

Another way to solve this problem is to use the following formula:

Number of small cubes with only one side painted = 6 * (n - 2)^2

where n is the number of times the side of the big cube is divided to get the small cube.

In this case, n = 4, so the number of small cubes with only one side painted is 6 * (4 - 2) ^2 = 6 * 4 = 24.

(a) 6 days

(b) 8 days

(c) 10 days

(d) 11 days

Answer: C

Ram and Shyam work on a job together for four days and complete 60% of it, which means they complete 60 units of work.

This leaves 40 units of work to be done. Ram takes leave then and Shyam works for eight more days to complete the job, which means he completes 40 units of work in eight days.

 Therefore, Shyam can complete 5 units of work in one day (40/8 = 5).

Ram and Shyam together can complete 15 units of work in one day (60 units in 4 days).

Since Shyam can complete 5 units of work in one day, Ram can complete 10 units of work in one day (15-5 = 10).

Therefore, Ram can complete the entire job alone in 10 days (100/10 = 10).

So the answer is (c).

 

(a) CARFTION

(b) FRACNOIT

(c) NOITCARF

(d) CARFNOIT

Answer: D

The military code works by reversing the order of the letters in each half of the word. So, to encode FRACTION, we would first divide the word into two halves: FRAC and TION. Then, we would reverse the order of the letters in each half: CARF and NOIT. Finally, we would put the two halves back together to get the encoded word: CARFNOIT.

Therefore, the answer is (d).

(a) R - S is divisible by 5

(b) R + S is divisible by 10

(c) R x S is divisible by 25

(d) R² + S² is divisible by 5

Answer: B

If R and S are different integers both divisible by 5, then:

• R - S is divisible by 5, because the difference of two numbers that are divisible by 5 is also divisible by 5.
• R x S is divisible by 25, because the product of two numbers that are divisible by 5 is also divisible by 25.
• R^2 + S^2 is divisible by 5, because the sum of the squares of two integers that are divisible by 5 is also divisible by 5.

However, R + S is not necessarily divisible by 10. For example, R could be 5 and S could be 10, both of which are divisible by 5, but their sum is 15, which is not divisible by 10.

Therefore, the answer is (b).

(a) 110

(b) 111

(c) 112

(d) None of the above

Answer: A

There are 110 numbers between 100 and 300 which either begin with or end with 2.

Numbers that begin with 2: 200, 201, 202, ..., 299 (100 numbers)

Numbers that end with 2: 102, 112, 122, ..., 192 (10 numbers)

Total: 100 + 10 = 110

Therefore, the answer is (a).

 

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:

Read the following five passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage-1

As we look to 2050, when we will need to feed two billion more people, the question of which diet is best hartaen on new urgency. The foods we choose to eat in the coming decades will have dramatic ramifications for the planet. Simply put a diet that revolves around meat and dairy a way of eating that is on the rise throughout the developing. World, will take a greater toll on the world's resources than one that revolves around unrefined grains, nuts, fruits and vegetables.

64. What is the critical message conveyed by the above passage?

(a) Our increasing demand for foods sourced from animals puts a greater burden on our natural resources

(b) Diets based on grains, nuts, fruits and vegetables are best suited for health in developing countries

(c) Human beings change their food habits from time to time irrespective of the health concerns

(d) From a global perspective, we still do not know which type of diet is best for us

Answer: A

The critical message conveyed by the above passage is:

(a) Our increasing demand for foods sourced from animals puts a greater burden on our natural resources.

The passage emphasizes the importance of considering the environmental impact of dietary choices, especially the consumption of meat and dairy, as it can have dramatic ramifications for the planet and put a greater toll on the world's resources. It highlights the concern that diets revolving around meat and dairy are on the rise, particularly in developing countries, and this trend is associated with greater resource usage.

Passage-2

All humans digest mother's milk as infants, but until cattle began being domesticated 10,000 years ago, children once weaned no longer needed to digest milk. As a result, they stopped making the enzyme lactase, which breaks down the sugar lactose into simple sugars. After humans began herding cattle, it became tremendously advantageous to digest milk, and lactose tolerance evolved independently among cattle herders in Europe, the Middle East and Africa. Groups not dependant on cattle, such as the Chinese and Thai, remain lactose intolerant.

65. Which among the following is the most logical assumption that can be made from the abovepassage?

(a) About 10,000 years ago, the domestication of animals took place in some parts of the world

(b) A permanent change in the food habits of a community can bring about a genetic change in its members

(c) Lactose tolerant people only are capable of getting simple sugars in their bodies

(d) People who are not lactose tolerant cannot digest any dairy product

Answer: B

The most logical assumption that can be made from the passage is that a permanent change in the food habits of a community can bring about a genetic change in its members.

The passage states that lactose tolerance evolved independently among cattle herders in Europe, the Middle East, and Africa. This suggests that the change in diet from weaning to consuming milk led to a genetic change that made it possible for people to digest lactose.

The other answer choices are not as logical. It does not necessarily follow that the domestication of animals took place in all parts of the world 10,000 years ago, or that lactose tolerant people are the only ones who can get simple sugars in their bodies. People who are not lactose tolerant can still digest some dairy products, such as yogurt and cheese.

Therefore, the answer is (b).

Passage-3

"The conceptual difficulties in National Income comparisons between underdeveloped and industrialised countries are particularly serious because a part of the national output in various underdeveloped countries is produced without passing through the commercial channels."

66. In the above statement, the author implies that:

(a) The entire national output produced and consumed in industrialized countries passes through commercial channels

(b) The existence of a non-commercialized sector in different underdeveloped countries renders the national income comparisons over countries difficult

(c) No part of national output should be produced and consumed without passing through commercial channels

(d) A part of the national output being produced and consumed without passing through commercial channels is a sign of underdevelopment

Answer: B

The author implies that the existence of a non-commercialized sector in different underdeveloped countries renders the national income comparisons over countries difficult.

This is because the national income of a country is measured by the value of all goods and services produced in that country. However, in underdeveloped countries, a significant portion of the economy may be non-commercialized, meaning that goods and services are produced and consumed without being exchanged for money. This makes it difficult to accurately measure the national income of these countries and compare it to the national income of industrialized countries, where the economy is more commercialized.

The other answer choices are not supported by the statement. There is no reason to believe that the entire national output produced and consumed in industrialized countries passes through commercial channels, or that no part of national output should be produced and consumed without passing through commercial channels. Additionally, the statement does not say that a part of the national output being produced and consumed without passing through commercial channels is a sign of underdevelopment.

Therefore, the answer is (b).

Passage-4

An increase in human-made carbon dioxide in the atmosphere could initiate a chain reaction between plant and microorganisms that would unsettle one of the largest carbon reservoirs on the planet soil In a study, it was found that the soil, which contains twice the amount of carbon present in a plants and Earth's atmosphere combined, could become increasingly volatile people add more carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. This is largely because of increased plant growth. Although a greenhouse gas and a pollutant, carbon dioxide also supports plant growth. As trees and other vegetation flourish in a carbon dioxide-rich future, their roots could stimulate microbial activity in soil that may in turn accelerate the decomposition of soil carbon and its release into the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.

67. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?

(a) Carbon dioxide is essential for the survival of microorganisms and plants

(b) Humans are solely responsible for the release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere

(c) Microorganisms and soil carbon are mainly responsible for the increased plant growth

(d) Increasing green cover could trigger the release of carbon trapped in soil

Answer: D

The most logical corollary to the above passage is:

(d) Increasing green cover could trigger the release of carbon trapped in soil.

The passage discusses how increased plant growth, stimulated by higher levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, could lead to a chain reaction with soil microorganisms that may accelerate the decomposition of soil carbon and its release into the atmosphere as carbon dioxide. This implies that increasing vegetation (green cover) could trigger the release of carbon from soil.

Passage-5

Historically, the biggest Challenge to world agriculture has been to achieve a balance between demand for and supply of food. At the level of individual countries, the demand-supply balance can be a critical issue for a closed economy, especially if it is a populous economy and its domestic agriculture is not growing sufficiently enough to ensure food supplies, on an enduring basis; it is not so much and not always, of a constraint for an open, and growing economy, which has adequate exchange surplus to buy food abroad. For the world as a whole, Supply-demand balance is always an inescapable prerequisite for warding off hunger and starvation. However, global availability of adequate supply does not necessarily mean that food would automatically move from countries of surplus to of deficit if the latter lack in purchasing power. The uneven distribution of hunger, starvation, under or malnourishment, etc., at the world-level, thus owes itself to the presence of empty-pock hungry mouths, overwhelmingly confined to the underdeveloped economies. Inasmuch as 'a two-square meal' is of elemental significance to basic human existence, the issue of worldwide supply` of food has been gaining significance, in recent times, both because the quantum and the composition of demand has been undergoing big changes, and because, in recent years, the capabilities individual countries to generate uninterrupted chain of food supplies have come under strain. Food production, marketing and prices, especially price-affordability by the poor in the developing world, have become global issues that need global thinking and global solutions.

68. According to the above passage, which of, the following are the fundamental solutions for the world food security problem?

1. Setting up more agro-based industries
2. Improving the price affordability by the poor
3. Regulating the conditions of marketing
4. Providing food subsidy to one and all

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, and 4

Answer: B

The fundamental solutions for the world food security problem are improving the price affordability by the poor and regulating the conditions of marketing.

The passage states that the uneven distribution of hunger, starvation, under or malnourishment, etc., at the world-level, thus owes itself to the presence of empty-pock hungry mouths, overwhelmingly confined to the underdeveloped economies. This suggests that improving the price affordability of food is essential for ensuring that everyone has access to the food they need.

The passage also states that food production, marketing and prices, especially price-affordability by the poor in the developing world, have become global issues that need global thinking and global solutions. This suggests that regulating the conditions of marketing is essential for ensuring that food is accessible to everyone at a fair price.

Setting up more agro-based industries and providing food subsidy to one and all are not fundamental solutions to the world food security problem. Setting up more agro-based industries may increase the supply of food, but it will not necessarily make food more affordable for the poor. Providing food subsidy to one and all may be a short-term solution to hunger, but it is not a sustainable long-term solution.

Therefore, the answer is (b).

69. According to the above passage, the biggest challenge to world agriculture is:

(a) To find sufficient land for agriculture and to expand food processing industries

(b) To eradicate hunger in underdeveloped countries

(c) To achieve a balance between the production of food and non-food items

(d) To achieve a balance between demand for and supply of food

Answer: D

According to the above passage, the biggest challenge to world agriculture is:

(d) To achieve a balance between demand for and supply of food.

The passage discusses the historical challenge of achieving a balance between the demand for and supply of food, both at the level of individual countries and for the world as a whole. It emphasizes the importance of this supply-demand balance for addressing hunger and starvation.

1. Balancing demand and supply of food
2. Increasing imports of food
3. Increasing purchasing power of the poor
4. Changing the food consumption patterns and practices

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

According to the above passage, the following factors help in reducing hunger and starvation in developing economies:

1. Balancing demand and supply of food (as discussed in the passage).
2. Increasing purchasing power of the poor (mentioned as improving price affordability by the poor).

So, the correct answer is (c) 1 and 3 only.

1. Overgrowth of the population worldwide
2. Sharp decline in the area of food production
3. Limitation in the capabilities for sustained supply of food

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

According to the passage, the issue of worldwide supply of food has gained importance mainly because of:

3. Limitation in the capabilities for sustained supply of food (mentioned as capabilities of individual countries to generate uninterrupted chain of food supplies coming under strain).

So, the correct answer is (b) 3 only.

1. 2 and 3 are not to immediately follow each other
2. 1 is not to be immediately followed by 3
3. 4 is not to appear at the last place
4. 1 is not to appear at the first place

How many different numbers can be formed?

(a) 6

(b) 8

(c) 9

(d) None of the above

Answer: A

The total number of four-digit numbers that can be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4 without repetition is 4!. However, we have to consider the following restrictions:

• 2 and 3 are not to immediately follow each other
• 1 is not to be immediately followed by 3
• 4 is not to appear at the last place
• 1 is not to appear at the first place

These restrictions can be handled as follows:

• For the first place, we can choose any of the three digits 2, 3, or 4.
• For the second place, we cannot choose the digit that was chosen for the first place. We also cannot choose the digit 3, since 2 and 3 cannot immediately follow each other. This leaves us with two choices for the second place.
• For the third place, we cannot choose the digit that was chosen for the first place or the second place. We also cannot choose the digit 1, since 1 cannot immediately follow 3. This leaves us with one choice for the third place.
• For the fourth place, we cannot choose the digit that was chosen for the first place, the second place, or the third place. This leaves us with one choice for the fourth place.

Therefore, the total number of four-digit numbers that can be formed under the given restrictions is 3 * 2 * 1 * 1 = 6.

Therefore, the answer is (a).

(a) 1/3

(b) 1/2

(c) 1/4

(d) 1/6

Answer: A

To find the portion of the underground tank that is still filled with water after completely filling the overhead tank, we need to calculate the volume of the underground tank and then subtract the volume of the overhead tank.

1. Volume of the underground tank:
   • Length = 5.5 m
   • Width = 4 m
   • Height = 6 m

Volume = Length x Width x Height = 5.5 m x 4 m x 6 m = 132 m³

2. Volume of the overhead tank (cylindrical):
   • Radius (r) = 2 m
   • Height (h) = 7 m

Volume = πr²h = π (2 m)² (7 m) = 28π m³

Now, we can calculate the portion of the underground tank still filled with water after filling the overhead tank:

Portion filled = (Volume of underground tank - Volume of overhead tank) / Volume of underground tank

Portion filled = (132 m³ - 28π m³) / 132 m³ ≈ (132 m³ - 87.96 m³) / 132 m³ ≈ 44.04 m³ / 132 m³ ≈ 1/3

So, the portion of the underground tank that is still filled with water after completely filling the overhead tank is approximately 1/3.

Therefore, the answer is (a) 1/3.

(a) 13

(b) 12

(c) 7

(d) 3

Answer: B

There are 60 students in the class, and the number of girls is twice that of boys. This means that there are 20 boys and 40 girls in the class.

Kamal, a boy, ranked seventeenth from the top. Since there are 9 girls ahead of him, there are 17 - 9 = 8 boys ahead of him.

Therefore, there are 20 - 8 = 12 boys in rank after Kamal.

So the answer is (b).

(a) 7

(b) 6

(c) 5

(d) 8

Answer: A

A and B walk around the circular park in opposite directions. This means that they will cross each other when they are both at the same point in the circular path.

Since A walks at a speed of 2 rounds per hour and B walks at a speed of 3 rounds per hour, their relative speed is 2 + 3 = 5 rounds per hour.

In the time between 8:00 a.m. and 9:30 a.m., there are 1 hour and 30 minutes, or 1.5 hours.

In 1.5 hours, at a relative speed of 5 rounds per hour, A and B will cross each other 5 * 1.5 = 7.5 times.

Since we cannot count 0.5 times as a crossing, the answer is 7.

Therefore, the answer is (a).

(a) W

(b) X

(c) Y

(d) Z

Answer: D

To compare the rates at which different people can complete a task, we can use the following formula:

Rate = Work / Time

The higher the rate, the faster the person can complete the task.

Here are the rates of the different people in the question:

• W: 25% / 30 days = 5/60 per day
• X: 1/4 / 10 days = 1/40 per day
• Y: 40% / 40 days = 1/10 per day
• Z: 1/3 / 13 days = 1/39 per day

As you can see, Z has the highest rate, meaning that he can complete the task the fastest.

Therefore, the answer is (d).

(a) Rs. 12,000

(b) Rs. 16,000

(c) Rs. 20,000    

(d) Rs. 34,000

Answer: A

The average monthly income of a person in a family of 5 is Rs. 10,000. This means that the total monthly income of the family is Rs. 50,000.

If the income of one person increased by Rs. 1,20,000 per year, or Rs. 10,000 per month, the total monthly income of the family would increase to Rs. 60,000.

The new average monthly income of a person in the family would then be Rs. 60,000 / 5 = Rs. 12,000.

Therefore, the answer is (a).

(a) 40 m

(b) 50 m

(c) 75 m

(d) 150 m

Answer: D

Here is a step-by-step breakdown of the calculation:

1. Distance from bucket to first apple = 5 meters
2. Distance from first apple to bucket = 5 meters
3. Distance from first apple to second apple = 3 meters
4. Distance from second apple to bucket = 3 meters
5. Distance from second apple to third apple = 3 meters
6. Distance from third apple to bucket = 3 meters
7. Distance from third apple to fourth apple = 3 meters
8. Distance from fourth apple to bucket = 3 meters
9. Distance from fourth apple to fifth apple = 3 meters
10. Distance from fifth apple to bucket = 3 meters
11. Distance from fifth apple to sixth apple = 3 meters
12. Distance from sixth apple to bucket = 3 meters

Total distance = 5 + 5 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 = 150 meters

(a) 0.40

(b) 0.20

(c) 0.16

(d) 0.04

Answer: C

To find the probability that the arrows fall in the red region of the archery target, we can use the concept of areas.

The area of the red band (red region) can be calculated using the formula for the area of a circle:

Area of the red band = π(radius of the red band)² Area of the red band = π(0.20 m)² Area of the red band = π(0.04 m²) Area of the red band = 0.04π square meters

Now, let's calculate the area of the entire target (including all regions):

The diameter of the target is 1 meter, so the radius of the entire target is 0.50 meters.

Area of the entire target = π(radius of the entire target)² Area of the entire target = π(0.50 m)² Area of the entire target = π(0.25 m²) Area of the entire target = 0.25π square meters

Now, we can calculate the probability that an arrow falls in the red region by dividing the area of the red band by the area of the entire target:

Probability = (Area of the red band) / (Area of the entire target) Probability = (0.04π) / (0.25π) Probability = (0.04 / 0.25) Probability = 0.16

So, the probability that the arrows fall in the red region of the archery target is 0.16.

Therefore, the answer is (c) 0.16.

(a) Rs. 610

(b) Rs. 620

(c) Rs. 630

(d) Rs. 640

Answer: C

Let the cost price of the toy be "C" rupees.

According to the given information, the toy is marked at Rs. 770, and a 10% discount is given for cash payment. So, the selling price after a 10% discount is:

Selling price = Marked price - Discount Selling price = Rs. 770 - (10% of Rs. 770) Selling price = Rs. 770 - (0.10 * 770) Selling price = Rs. 770 - 77 Selling price = Rs. 693

We are also given that the person still makes a 10% gain, which means the selling price is 110% of the cost price:

Selling price = 110% of Cost price Rs. 693 = 110% of C

To find the cost price (C), we can rearrange the equation and solve for C:

C = Rs. 693 / 110% C = Rs. 693 / (110/100) C = Rs. (693 * 100) / 110 C = Rs. 630

So, the cost price of the toy is Rs. 630.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Rs. 630.